Question Bank ITM For FINAL EXAM PREPARATION
Chapter 7 : Managing Human Resources
42) The first three activities of the human resource management (HRM) process are about
________.
A) recruiting
B) planning
C) training
D) downsizing
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The first three steps of the HRM process are about planning, making that the
correct response for this question. Managers first determine needs for workers. Then,
depending on the situation, they either recruit or downsize. Training comes after selection
and hiring so that is an incorrect response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 154
Objective: 6.143) Human resource management is concerned with ________ competent
employees.
A) obtaining
B) obtaining, training, motivating, and keeping
C) obtaining, training, and motivating
D) training and keeping
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The correct choice identifies all four functions of HRM. HRM is concerned
not only with getting employees, but also training and motivating them after they are hired so
they are likely to be high performers and stay with the organization. The other choices all
leave out at least one primary function of HRM so they are incorrect choices.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 154
Objective: 6.1
44) For the most part, ________ are involved in HR decisions within their own department or
unit.
A) very few managers
B) some managers
C) most managers
D) all managers are
Answer: D
Explanation: D) To some degree, all managers participate in hiring, firing, and other HR
decisions at least within their own units or departments, making "all managers" the correct
response. Managers tend to participate in the hiring process, for example, because they have a
lot at stake—they are the ones who are going to deal directly with the employees that get
hired. The other choices all refer to quantities that are fewer than "all managers," so they are
incorrect answers for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 154
Objective: 6.1
45) Separate HRM specialists are least common in these types of organizations.
A) small
B) large
C) multinational corporations
D) non-profit
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Having no HRM staff support is most common in small organizations that
don't have the resources for individuals or departments to devote time exclusive ly to HRM,
making "small" the correct response. In these organizations, managers themselves typically
take on HR tasks. Large organizations and multinational corporations typically possess the
size and manpower to have HRM specialists, so large and multinational corporations are
incorrect. Non-profit organizations may be large or small, so non-profit cannot be the best
answer for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 154
Objective: 6.1
46) Employment planning involves ________.
A) addition of staff only
B) addition of staff and reduction of staff only
C) addition of staff, reduction of staff, and selection only
D) addition of staff, reduction of staff, motivation of staff, and selection
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The correct choice correctly identifies all of the activities involved in
employment planning. The choices indicating addition of staff only and addition of staff and
reduction of staff only leave out one or more of the activities so they are incorrect. The
remaining choice adds motivation of staff, an activity that is not included in employment
planning, so it is an incorrect choice.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 154
Objective: 6.1
47) This is the goal of employment planning.
A) selecting competent employees
B) obtaining competent employees with up-to-date skills
C) obtaining competent and high-performing employees
D) selecting high-performing employees only
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The goal of employment planning is modest: to identify and select
competent employees only. Providing the employees who are selected with up-to-date skills
or the ability to perform at a high level are goals of the orientation and training process, so
they are not correct responses for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 154
Objective: 6.1
48) The last steps of the HRM process all deal with ________.
A) performance and compensation
B) training and compensation
C) compensation only
D) skills
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The last steps in the HRM process identify performance goals, performance
problems, and compensation. This makes "performance and compensation" the correct
response and eliminates the choices indicating training and compensation and skills because
training and skills come earlier in the HRM process. "Compensation only" is not a correct
response because the last two steps not only deal with compensation, they also deal with
performance.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 154
Objective: 6.1
49) The most important environmental factor in the HRM process is ________.
A) the business environment
B) the natural environment
C) the legal environment
D) the scientific community
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Though the business environment may affect the HRM process, a far more
important factor for influencing the activities of HRM is the legal environment. The laws, for
the most part, largely determine how HR managers do their job, making the legal
environment the correct response. Both the natural environment and the scientific community
can be ruled out because neither has a direct effect on hiring, firing, or any other HR
activities.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 154
Objective: 6.1
50) The ________ prohibits discrimination based on race, color, religion, national origin, or
sex.
A) Privacy Act
B) Civil Rights Act, Title VII
C) Equal Pay Act
D) Sarbanes-Oxley Act
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act is probably the most important antidiscrimination law ever passed, prohibiting unfair treatment based on race, color, religion,
national origin, or sex. This makes the Civil Rights Act, Title VII the correct response. The
Equal Pay Act prohibits pay discrimination based on sex. The Privacy Act gives employees a
right to see their reference letters. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act establishes financial
recordkeeping standards.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 156
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 6.1
51) It is against the law to discriminate on the basis of sexual orientation ________.
A) in all 50 states
B) only in California
C) nowhere in the United States
D) in many states
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Discrimination on the basis of sexual orientation is not a federal law, but it
is illegal in many states, making that the correct response and eliminating the other choices.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 156
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 6.1
52) A wheelchair-bound applicant may be denied a job ________.
A) under no circumstances
B) if the job is strenuous or physically tiring in some way
C) if the job requires complete physical mobility
D) in some states
Answer: C
Explanation: C) A person in a wheelchair may be denied a job only if the job requires
running, walking, or some other action that the person cannot perform. This makes the choice
indicating "complete physical mobility" the correct response and eliminates "under no
circumstances." The choice regarding a strenuous job is incorrect because a person in a
wheelchair could cope with a strenuous or tiring job just as well as a person without a
disability. The remaining choice is incorrect because discrimination based on a disability is
prohibited by federal, not state law.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 154
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 6.1
53) Affirmative action programs seek to make sure that employers ________ minority
groups.
A) pay equal wages to
B) enhance employment opportunities for
C) provide unemployment benefits for
D) establish training programs for
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Affirmative action programs seek to make sure that minorities and other
protected groups get a fair chance at opportunity, making "enhancing employment
opportunities" the correct response. Affirmative action is not an equal wage program, a
benefits program, or a training program, making all of these choices incorrect.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 156
Objective: 6.1
54) Which U.S. law gives you the legal right to see your professor's letter of
recommendation?
A) Civil Rights Act of 1991
B) Privacy Act of 1974
C) Polygraph Protection Act of 1988
D) Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The Privacy Act of 1974 gives employees the right to check up on reference
letters. None of the other choices is concerned with reference letters, so they are incorrect
responses for this question.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 156
Objective: 6.1
55) Which of the following countries' laws pertaining to HRM practices most closely parallel
those in the United States?
A) Canada
B) Mexico
C) Australia
D) Germany
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Of the countries listed, Canada's HRM practices are most similar to those in
the United States. Canada's HRM laws are less federalized than those in the United States,
meaning that individual Canadian provinces may have their own interpretation of basic antidiscrimination laws. Taken together, these factors make Canada the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 157
AACSB: Globalizations
Objective: 6.1
56) ________ in Germany give employees the right to participate in personnel decisions.
A) Collective bargaining
B) Unionization
C) Board representatives
D) Work councils
Answer: D
Explanation: D) In most of Western Europe work councils by law must be consulted when
decisions involving personnel changes are made, including hiring and firing. This makes
work councils the correct answer and eliminates the other three responses. Note that work
councils are part of a larger practice called representative participation, which empowe rs
workers and gives them a say in how companies are run.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 158
AACSB: Globalizations
Objective: 6.1
57) The first step in any employment planning process involves making a ________.
A) job description
B) human resource inventory
C) product evaluation
D) job specification
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Before an HR manager can decide whether to hire or fire, she must first take
stock of who currently works for the organization in what is termed a human resource
inventory. The inventory identifies all company employees and lists any characteristics that
the manager deems relevant. A job description and job specification are steps that come later
in the process so they are incorrect choices. A product evaluation is not part of the
employment planning process so it is an incorrect response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 158
Objective: 6.2
58) The lengthy process by which a job is examined in detail in order to identify the skills,
knowledge and behaviors necessary to perform the job is known as a ________.
A) job description
B) job specification
C) job definition
D) job analysis
Answer: D
Explanation: D) A job analysis identifies the knowledge, skills, and abilities that are required
to perform any given job. A job analysis for a firefighter, for example, might determine that
the applicant be physically fit, know emergency medical procedures, and be able to haul
heavy firefighting equipment a specific distance. A job description, a written description of a
job, and a job specification, a list of qualifications required for the job, are incorrect because
neither is an analysis or a lengthy process. In fact, a job analysis is used to create job
descriptions and job specifications. A job definition is incorrect because it is not a recognized
term for employment planning.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 158
Objective: 6.2
59) As one of his first tasks in a new job, Steve's boss asks him to develop a database that
lists the educational level, special capabilities, and specialized skills of all the employees in
his firm. This is known as a ________.
A) job description
B) human resource inventory
C) lengthy process
D) job analysis
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Employment planning requires HRM to first determine who actually works
for the organization. This is accomplished in a human resource inventory. Job analysis and
job description can be eliminated for consideration as correct answers because they both
address an individual job rather than a survey of all jobs in a firm. A lengthy process can be
ruled out because the human resource inventory is usually not a lengthy process—data can be
collected quickly and easily using employee questionnaires.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 158
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 6.2
60) A job description is ________.
A) not a written document
B) a written document used to describe a job to job candidates
C) something that employers keep secret from job candidates
D) the official title for the job
Answer: B
Explanation: B) A job description identifies what the person who has the job does, where
and how she does it, and why she does it. A job description is a written document (which
rules out the choice indicating that it is not a written document) that employers use to
describe the job to applicants, making that the correct response. The choice indicating secrecy
is ruled out because a job description is a public document that is never concealed from job
candidates. A job description is an actual description, not simply a title, so the official title for
the job is an incorrect response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 159
Objective: 6.2
61) A job specification is ________
A) a list of job qualifications only
B) a detailed description of the job
C) the description of a job that is used by an employment agency
D) usually several pages in length
Answer: A
Explanation: A) A job specification is limited to listing job qualifications only. A job
specification is not a long or detailed description of the job that is used by an employment
agency, making all three of these choices incorrect.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 159
Objective: 6.2
62) HR managers can estimate human resource needs by evaluating which of the following?
A) employment and unemployment statistics
B) the general state of the economy
C) demand for the organization's product
D) how competitors are performing
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The only accurate way to estimate human resource needs is for managers to
measure the demand for their product. Generally, the greater the demand, the more workers
the organization will need to keep up with that demand. Employment statistics, the state of
the economy, and the activities of rivals may give managers a very crude gauge of their
needs, but the actual output of product is a much better measure of future human resource
requirements than any of those things, so they are incorrect responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 159
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 6.2
63) A written statement of what a job holder does in his job, how it is done, and why it is
done is known as a ________.
A) job specification
B) job qualifications
C) job definition
D) job description
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The process of defining a job starts with a detailed job analysis. The job
analysis gives rise to a written job description that identifies exactly what a person who holds
a job does, how he does it, and why he does it, making job description the correct response.
The job description may then be used to generate a job specification, or list of job
qualifications, which rules out both job specification and job qualificatio ns as correct
responses. A job definition is not a recognized term in this process so it is an incorrect
response.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 159
Objective: 6.2
64) To find out more about a job with a title of "assistant media buyer," you would find this
to be most helpful.
A) job title
B) job specification
C) job listing
D) job description
Answer: D
Explanation: D) A job description that tells you what the job is, how the job is done, and
what the job's purpose is would clearly be most helpful here, so job description is the correct
response. A job specification would tell you only about the qualifications needed for the job,
while a job title or job listing would feature only minimal information about the job.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 159
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 6.2
65) Recruitment is the process of ________.
A) hiring from outside the organization
B) locating, identifying, and attracting potential employees
C) assessing the national, international, and local labor market
D) hiring from inside the organization
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Recruitment is the process of finding people who are qualified and wellsuited for the job you are offering. To recruit successfully, you must locate where likely
applicants are, identify individuals who are well- suited to the job, and attract them to the job
by making them aware of its features and advantages. This makes that choice the correct
response. Hiring from outside or inside the organization can be eliminated because recruiting
finds applicants both inside and outside of the organization. The choice regarding assessment
can be ruled out because assessing the labor market does nothing to get applicants to actually
apply for a job.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 159
Objective: 6.2
66) This is a key disadvantage to recruiting through employee referrals.
A) limited to entry-level positions
B) high cost
C) no diversity increase
D) lower-skilled candidates
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Personal employee referrals cost nothing to generate and can be used to
identify any position in the organization from top to bottom at a wide variety of skill levels.
This means that the choices regarding entry- level positions, high cost, and lower-skilled
candidates are all advantages so they are incorrect choices. The disadvantage of re ferrals is
that they tend to generate new employees who are very similar to the people they were
referred by, thus not increasing the diversity of the organization. This makes "no diversity
increase" the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 160
Objective: 6.2
67) While ________ can reach the greatest number of applicants for a job, many of those
candidates may be unqualified for the job itself.
A) an internal search
B) advertising
C) a temporary help service
D) school placement
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Advertising can produce an enormous volume of applicants. Unfortunately,
advertising also tends to attract applicants who are unqualified or highly unsuited for the job
advertised. This leaves human resource managers with the tedious task of sifting through all
of the applicants, looking for ones that are well-suited. None of the other choices given here
produce as many applicants as advertising, so that is the correct response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 160
Objective: 6.2
68) Which of the following is an advantage of using private employment agencies for
recruiting?
A) low cost
B) candidates who are familiar with the organization
C) improves employee morale
D) careful screening of applicants
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Recruiting through a private employment agency is expensive so low cost is
an incorrect response. Private agency recruiting does not boost employee morale and does not
typically offer candidates who are familiar with the organization so improving employee
morale and candidates familiar with the organization are incorrect responses. What private
agencies do offer are candidates who are carefully screened to be well-qualified and wellsuited to the job, making "careful screening" the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 160
Objective: 6.2
69) If employment planning shows a large surplus of employees, management may want to
________.
A) recruit
B) downsize
C) expand
D) continue with current employment levels
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The mathematics of an HRM department is in some respects fairly simple. If
there is too much work and not enough employees, the organization must recruit employees,
making "recruiting" the correct response. If there is not enough work for the existing
employees to stay productive and busy, the organization must consider the option of
downsizing. The goal of employment planning is to obtain a workforce that has an
appropriate size for the amount of work that needs to be done. Clearly recruiting and
expanding would not decrease the surplus of employees so those choices can be eliminated.
Similarly, staying at current levels would not decrease the surplus, so continuing with current
employment levels is also incorrect.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 160
Objective: 6.2
70) The difference between firing and layoffs is that ________.
A) layoffs are not permanent
B) layoffs are permanent
C) firing is not permanent
D) firing is not voluntary
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Both firing and layoffs are involuntary, so firing as not voluntary cannot be
the correct answer here. Firing is a permanent state while layoffs are not permanent. This
means that the choices indicating that layoffs are permanent and firing is not permanent are
both inaccurate, making both choices incorrect as answers to this question. The only accurate
choice is that layoffs are not permanent which correctly identifies the key difference between
firing and layoffs: firing is permanent; layoffs are temporary.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 161
Objective: 6.2
71) Which of the following is NOT a voluntary form of downsizing?
A) attrition
B) early retirement
C) job sharing
D) layoffs
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Attrition, early retirement, and job sharing can all be voluntary forms of
downsizing in which workers choose the option rather tha n have it forced upon them so they
are incorrect choices. For example, many employees volunteer to take early retirement if a
company offers it to them. The only choice here that employees can never exercise any
control over is layoffs, which are implemented entirely by management. This makes layoffs
the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 161
Objective: 6.2
72) Which of the following downsizing methods can "happen on its own" if management
suspends hiring practices?
A) firing
B) reduced workweeks
C) attrition
D) transfers
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Over time, as employees retire and are not replaced by new hiring, the total
number of workers decreases, which effectively downsizes the organization. This form of
downsizing, attrition, is said to happen "on its own" because management does not need to
issue any termination or job-change orders to reduce the number of workers it employs. The
other choices, firing, reduced workweeks, and transfers are all incorrect because they all
require management to issue orders to employees, and therefore don't happen "on their own."
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 161
Objective: 6.2
73) In the selection process there are ________ possible outcomes.
A) two
B) three
C) four
D) dozens of
Answer: C
Explanation: C) In the selection process, there are four possible outcomes, making that the
correct response. The organization can make the correct decision in two different ways: if it
hires the "right" person for the job, or if it fails to hire the "wrong" person for the job. The
organization can make two kinds of errors: hiring the "wrong" person or failing to hire the
"right" person. Since there are two correct decisions and incorrect decisions, there are four
total outcomes.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 160-162
Objective: 6.2
74) An accept error occurs when an applicant ________.
A) who is hired performs poorly on the job
B) who is not hired would have performed well on the job
C) who is not hired is hired by another firm
D) who is hired performs adequately on the job
Answer: A
Explanation: A) An accept error occurs when the person who is accepted for the job
performs poorly, making that the correct choice for this question. The choice indicating an
applicant who is not hired but would have performed well on the job is incorrect because it
describes a reject error, not an accept error. The choice regarding being hired by another firm
is incorrect because it does not match one of the four outcomes of the selection process. The
choice regarding adequate performance is incorrect because it describes a correct decision in
the selection process.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 160-162
Objective: 6.2
75) A reject error occurs when an applicant ________.
A) who is hired performs poorly on the job
B) who is not hired would have performed well on the job
C) who is hired performs the job at a high level
D) who is not hired would have performed poorly on the job
Answer: B
Explanation: B) A reject error occurs when the organization fails to hire an applicant who
would have performed well in the job he or she applied for, making that the correct choice.
The choice regarding poor performance is incorrect because it describes an accept error, not a
reject error. The remaining two choices are incorrect because both of them identify correct
decisions in the selection process.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 160-162
Objective: 6.2
76) Today, selection techniques that result in reject errors can open the organization to
________.
A) decreased productivity and efficiency
B) charges of employee discrimination
C) reduced morale
D) a weakened workforce
Answer: B
Explanation: B) A reject error involves failing to hire an applicant who would have done
well in the job he applied to. If the applicant asserts that he was not offered the job because
he was discriminated against, he can initiate a lawsuit against the company whether the
charge is true or not. This makes charges of employee discrimination the correct response and
rules out decreased productivity, morale, or a weaker workforce as correct responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 160-162
Objective: 6.2
77) ________ indicates how consistently a selection device measures a criterion.
A) Operational scoring
B) Qualification
C) Reliability
D) Validity
Answer: C
Explanation: C) A selection device must be consistent from situation to situation or it should
not be used. For example, if the same individual gets wildly different scores after taking the
same test, it is likely that either the test (or the individual) is flawed, or in some way not
reliable. This makes reliability the correct response and rules out the other choices.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 162
Objective: 6.2
78) Which of the following is an example of selection device reliability?
A) An applicant was given very different interview scores by five independent interviewers.
B) An applicant was given the same interview score by all five independent interviewers.
C) An applicant took a test a second time and her score improved markedly.
D) An applicant took a test once and scored higher than any other applicant.
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Reliability requires that a selection device be consistent. Being given
different interview scores and taking a test a second time were not examples of reliability
because the outcomes were not consistent with one another. Scoring higher than any other
applicant is not an example of reliability because it involved only one sample. Being given
the same interview score by all five independent interviewers is an example of reliability
because it showed consistency within the five interviewers, so it is the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 162
Objective: 6.2
79) A(n) ________ selection device shows a clear link between test performance and job
performance.
A) reliable
B) invalid
C) unreliable
D) valid
Answer: D
Explanation: D) If a selection device shows a clear link between test results and job
performance it is said to be valid. Reliability and unreliability are concerned with consistency
of test results, not the quality of the test itself so they are incorrect choices. This makes
"valid" the correct response and rules out "invalid."
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 162
Objective: 6.2
80) To use a physical test as a selection device, a company must demonstrate that ________.
A) physical ability is related to job performance
B) the test is fair
C) the test is reliable
D) the test does not discriminate against people with physical disabilities
Answer: A
Explanation: A) A physical test may be used as a valid selection device if it can be shown
that job performance requires physical ability. This makes physical ability the correct
response. Whether or not the test is fair, reliable, or discriminatory is not relevant in this
situation. Validity comes before all other concerns: first the test must be shown to affect job
performance, and then, and only then should it be judged on other criteria.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 162
Objective: 6.2
81) Asking a candidate for an automotive mechanic's position to deconstruct and reconstruct
part of an engine motor would be an example of what kind of selection device?
A) spatial ability test
B) performance-simulation test
C) mechanical ability test
D) perceptual accuracy test
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Putting an applicant in an actual job situation and allowing her to solve
problems that might be directly involved in the job itself is an example of performancesimulation. Though spatial and mechanical ability, along with perceptual accuracy might be
related to a mechanic job, actually carrying out job duties clearly makes this a performancesimulation test and not any of the other choices.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 163
Objective: 6.2
82) In an assessment center, an applicant for an engineering job might ________.
A) be interviewed by her prospective boss
B) take technical written tests
C) be interviewed by fellow employees
D) be given an engineering problem to solve
Answer: D
Explanation: D) An assessment center simulates real problems that applicants may be faced
with on the job. This makes "being given an engineering problem to solve" the correct
response, and eliminates interviews and written tests as correct responses to the question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 163
Objective: 6.2
83) The most important reason for why managers are increasingly using performancesimulation tests is that they have been found to be ________.
A) valid predictors of job performance
B) non-discriminatory
C) a good way to test an applicant's character
D) easy to administer
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The key to any selection device is that it be related to job performance. If
managers find that a test predicts how well applicants will do on the job, they can ultimately
end up with better candidates and eliminate hiring errors. Performance-simulation tests may
or may not be easy to administer, a good measure of charac ter, or non-discriminatory, but
their chief virtue is that they are good predictors of success on the job. That is why managers
are increasingly turning to them and that is why valid predictors of job performance is the
correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 163
Objective: 6.2
84) Few people are ever selected for a job without this.
A) taking a written test
B) undergoing an interview
C) taking a performance-simulation test
D) taking a physical test
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Though written and physical tests are common, the most universal feature of
the selection process is the interview, making that the correct choice. Taking a performancesimulation test is not as common as any of the other choices, so it is an incorrect response for
this question.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 163
Objective: 6.2
85) Interviews are valid predictors of success in the workplace if ________.
A) questions are short
B) questions are unstructured
C) questions are structured
D) the interview lasts only a few minutes
Answer: C
Explanation: C) An interview that is carefully structured has been shown to be the best
predictor of workplace success. The key to a structured interview is that the interviewer has
prepared carefully for the interview and has mapped out questions to ask and strategies to
employ. A structured interview does have room for the interviewer to ask unplanned
questions and explore unanticipated paths, but only within the structure that was planned
ahead of time. With that said, none of the other factors are good predictors of interview
success, so they are all incorrect responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 164
Objective: 6.2
86) Which of the following is NOT a source of bias in a typical interview?
A) prior knowledge of the applicant
B) how articulate the interviewer is
C) the order in which applicants are interviewed
D) an applicant who shares the attitudes of the interviewer
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Bias can creep into the interview process in a number of ways. Prior
knowledge of a candidate can make an interviewer draw erroneous conclusions about who
the candidate is and what her values are. Interview order can favor candidates who come (for
example) first or last in the process. Having a world-view in common with an applicant may
put both parties at ease, but the interviewer should not let this shared outlook color his or her
impression of the applicants skills, abilities, and suitability for the job. This leaves how
articulate the interviewer is as the only response that is not a source of bias—how wellspoken the interviewer is would not unduly influence the impression the interviewer gets of
the applicant.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 164
Objective: 6.2
87) During an interview, an applicant for a managerial job is confronted with role players
who make the claim that they have been "harassed on the job." The applicant is then asked to
deal with the complaints. What kind of selection device is being used?
A) performance-simulation test
B) structured interview
C) behavioral interview
D) high-stress interview
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The applicant is asked to deal with a difficult situation that involves role
playing in a behavioral or situation interview. This is not a performance-simulation test since
it is clearly part of an interview, not a test. Requiring the applicant to engage in role playing
goes beyond the structured interview, and though the interview is stressful, a high-stress
interview is not a recognized term used in the interview process.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 164
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 6.2
88) How effective are behavioral interviews?
A) no more effective than other interviews
B) less effective than other interviews
C) eight times as effective as ordinary interviews
D) twice as effective as ordinary interviews
Answer: C
Explanation: C) A study shows that behavioral interviews are eight times as effective as
ordinary interviews in predicting job success. That makes "eight times as effective" the
correct response and rules out the other three choices.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 164
Objective: 6.2
89) A realistic job preview (RJP) includes ________ a job.
A) only factual information about
B) only positive aspects of
C) only negative aspects of
D) both positive and negative aspects of
Answer: D
Explanation: D) An RJP provides both positive and negative information about the job the
applicant is applying for, resulting ultimately in employees who are better suited to the job,
less likely to resign, and who harbor fewer illusions about the job or the organization than
they would otherwise have. This makes "both positive and negative aspects" the correct
response and eliminates the other three choices.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 164
Objective: 6.2
90) All of the following are goals of the orientation process EXCEPT ________.
A) reduce anxiety
B) familiarize the employee with job
C) introduce the employee to his coworkers
D) discuss payments and benefits
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The major goals of orientation are to reduce anxiety and familiarize the
employee with his new job, making those choices incorrect responses. In addition, orientation
allows the new employee to meet the members of his work unit, eliminating introduction of
the employee to his coworkers as a correct choice. Orientation is not a time in which
compensation is discussed—that is usually taken care of during the hiring process. This
means that discussing payments and benefits is the only choice that is not a goal of the
orientation process so it is the correct response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 166
Objective: 6.3
91) Organizational orientation informs a new employee about ________.
A) her responsibilities for the job
B) the history and philosophy of the organization
C) what expectations she has about the job are unrealistic
D) how she will be evaluated on the job
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Organizational orientation focuses entirely on the organization—its goals,
rules, customs, philosophy, history, and so on. This makes history and philosophy the correct
response. Organizational orientation does not focus on informing the new employee about her
responsibilities, her expectations, or how she will be evaluated on the job. This makes those
three choices incorrect responses for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 166
Objective: 6.3
92) Which of the following is NOT a sign to look for in a successful orientation process?
A) The new employee feels comfortable.
B) The new employee clearly exceeds all productivity goals for her work unit.
C) The new employee is less likely to resign.
D) The new employee understands her duties and responsibilities
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The goals of orientation are to familiarize the new employee with her duties,
to make her feel comfortable in her new position, and to increase the likelihood that she will
ultimately be retained in the job. Orientation goals do not include performance
requirements—those will be assessed later on, when the employee has become more
accustomed to the job. This makes the choice regarding exceeding productivity goals the only
choice that is not a sign of a successful orientation, so it is the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 166
Objective: 6.3
93) Most training in U.S. organizations is ________.
A) on-the-job training
B) off-the-job training
C) classroom training
D) simulation exercise training
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Most training in U.S. organizations is on-the-job training for two basic
reasons: on-the-job training is simple and inexpensive. Off-the-job training is less common in
organizations than on-the-job training, making off- the-job training an incorrect choice.
Classroom training and simulation exercise training are both forms of off-the-job training so
they are incorrect responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 167
Objective: 6.3
94) Which form of on-the-job training might have a trainee working with a single mentor
from the organization?
A) vestibule training
B) simulation exercises
C) understudy assignments
D) job rotation
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Among the choices, vestibule training and simulation exercises are both
forms of off-the-job training so they are incorrect responses. Job rotation is an on-the-job
training method but it does not involve working with a single person who serves as a mentor.
That makes the understudy assignment the correct response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 168
Objective: 6.3
95) Which of the following is NOT a positive feature of job rotation as a training method?
A) simulation of actual work tasks
B) exposure to many different work tasks
C) introduction to coworkers
D) does not take up too much of any one experienced worker's time
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Job rotation takes the trainee around to different jobs in the work unit,
allowing her to view and experience a variety of job tasks and to get acquainted with
coworkers without taking up too much time of the worker who serves as her mentor. What
job rotation does not do is simulate actual work tasks—that takes place in simulation
exercises—making simulation of actual work tasks the only non-positive feature of job
rotation—and therefore the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 168
Objective: 6.3
96) Which of the following is the best way to evaluate a training program?
A) how much trainees say they learned
B) how costly the method is
C) how much information trainees retain
D) actual job performance of trainees
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The only truly effective way to evaluate a training program is to assess the
productivity of employees who went through the program. This assessment clearly must be
long term. The program that eventually yields the most productive employees would be
judged to be most effective, making actual job performance the correct response. How much
trainees learned, retained, or how much the program cost are not completely meaningless
factors, but they pale in comparison with long-term job performance.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 168
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 6.3
97) To set pay standards HRM employs ________.
A) outside consultants
B) a federal pay scale
C) a panel of an employee's peers
D) a performance management system
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Performance management systems use a variety of appraisal methods to
evaluate employee performance, making a performance management system the correct
response. Pay scales, consultants, and a panel of peers are not appraisal processes that HRM
typically employs so they are wrong answers for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 169
Objective: 6.4
98) A disadvantage of a written essay for employee appraisal is that it tends to be biased by
________.
A) the prejudice of the evaluator
B) friendship between the employee and the evaluator
C) the writing skill of the evaluator
D) the writing skill of the employee
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Written appraisals of employees tend to get skewed by the writing skill of
the evaluator. An especially good writer will tend to have undue influence over the process,
while the view of an evaluator who is a poor writer will tend to be discounted. These factors
cause the writing skill of the evaluator to be the correct response. Prejudice or friendship
could of course influence the appraisal, but they are both factors that could influence a ny
evaluation process, so they are incorrect responses here. Finally, the writing skill of the
employee has no effect on the process because the employee is being appraised, not writing
an appraisal.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 169
Objective: 6.4
99) All of the following are advantages of a graphic rating scale for employee evaluation
EXCEPT ________.
A) provides the most thorough view of the employee
B) provides objective quantitative data that can be analyzed in a variety of ways
C) not time-consuming
D) easy to draw conclusions from and summarize
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Graphic rating scales are useful because they are can be quickly carried out,
are easy to draw conclusions from, and provide a wealth of quantitative data that can be
manipulated and analyzed. What graphic rating scales cannot supply is an in-depth view of
the employee. The nature of ranking scales makes them fairly superficial and arbitrary. This
identifies the most thorough view as the only non-advantage of a graphic rating scale, so it is
the correct response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 169
Objective: 6.4
100) A critical incidents employee appraisal method collects ________.
A) anecdotes that reveal the character and performance of an employee
B) statements from coworkers in support of an employee
C) statements from superiors that may or may not support an employee
D) data from an employee's computer to evaluate his or her performance
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Managers collect key behaviors and anecdotes called critical incidents to
evaluate employees by the critical incident method. The critical incidents reveal actions that
were deemed effective, ineffective, or particularly telling in some other way that affects
performance within the organization. Critical incident evaluation does not include statements
from either employees or superiors for analysis so these choices are not correct. It also does
not include computer data for analysis making "data from an employee's computer" an
incorrect response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 170
Objective: 6.4
101) A performance appraisal method that combines two other well-known methods into one
process is called ________.
A) written essay
B) 360-degree feedback
C) graphic rating scales
D) BARS
Answer: D
Explanation: D) BARS combines a graphic rating scale with a critical incident appraisal into
one system that is both quantitative and personal. BARS stands for behaviorally anchored
rating scales. None of the other choices offered combine two systems, so they are incorrect
responses.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 170
Objective: 6.4
102) A 360-degree feedback process differs from other appraisal methods in that it includes
________.
A) a written essay
B) feedback from an employee's supervisor
C) honest feedback
D) feedback from the employee
Answer: D
Explanation: D) A 360-degree feedback process allows employees to take an active role in
the evaluation process. Not only is the employee evaluated by her superiors, the superiors
themselves—and other aspects of the job—are in turn evaluated by the employee. Rather than
breed resentment, this approach tends to give employees a sense of empowerment and make
the overall evaluation process seem more fair and objective. These factors together make
feedback from the employee the correct response. None of the other choices written essays,
supervisor feedback, and (presumably) honest feedback are unique to 360-degree appraisal,
so they can be eliminated as correct responses.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 170
Objective: 6.4
103) This appraisal method is used by more major corporations than any other method.
A) management by objectives
B) 360-degree appraisal
C) critical incidents
D) graphic rating scales
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The 360-degree appraisal is a rousing success with respect to use in major
companies. Over 90 percent of Fortune 1000 companies employ this method of evaluation.
The great strength of the 360-degree appraisal appears to be its thoroughness—including
evaluations from managers and employees alike seems to give a more complete picture of the
entire work environment than written essays and other one-dimensional analyses that were
popular in the past.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 170
Objective: 6.4
104) What do the written essay, critical incidents, graphic rating scales, and BARS evaluation
methods have in common?
A) They compare individuals against standards.
B) They are multiperson comparisons.
C) They compare one employee to his or her peers.
D) They rank employees by performance.
Answer: A
Explanation: A) None of the appraisal methods listed are multiperson methods that compare
one employee to others. Instead, they all evaluate employees against objective standards, not
other workers. This makes comparing individuals against standards the correct response and
rules out the other choices because all three describe multiperson methods of evaluation.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 169-170
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 6.4
105) How would the individual ranking method rank a group of 30 employees?
A) All 30 employees would be given a letter grade from A to F.
B) Employees would be ranked in quintiles, e.g., the top fifth, the second fifth, and so on.
C) Employees would be ranked against one another in pairs.
D) Each employee would be ranked by number from 1 to 30.
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Individual ranking gives each employee a rank from 1 to 30 in a group of
30, making that the correct response. Ranking by fraction describes group-order ranking.
Ranking in pairs describes paired comparison. Individual ranking matches up correctly w ith
the correct choice, which gives each employee a unique rank in the group.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 170
Objective: 6.4
106) Which multiperson employee evaluation method allows for two or more employees to
get the same rating?
A) group-order ranking
B) individual ranking
C) paired comparison
D) 360-degree feedback
Answer: A
Explanation: A) No ties are allowed in individual ranking; each employee must get a specific
rank, so individual ranking can be ruled out as a correct choice. Similarly, in each paired
comparison, one employee comes out a "winner" and the other a "loser," eliminating paired
comparison. In a group-order ranking of twenty employees, four individuals can rank in the
highest quintile, thus causing them all to be "tied" for the best ranking, and making grouporder ranking the correct response. Note that 360-degree feedback is not a multiperson
evaluation method, so it must be eliminated as a correct response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 170
Objective: 6.4
107) Which of the following would be most likely to result in a manager recommending
counseling for an employee?
A) The employee and the job are mismatched.
B) The employee isn't putting out enough effort.
C) The employee does not have the skills required for the job.
D) The employee has not been adequately trained.
Answer: B
Explanation: B) An employee-job mismatch would warrant changing jobs rather than
counseling, so it is incorrect. Not having the right training or skills for the job would tend to
call for additional training for the employee so these choices are also incorrect. An employee
who doesn't try hard enough would be a likely candidate for counseling, although this person
also might be subject to discipline if counseling fails to produce improvement.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 171
Objective: 6.4
108) Why do managers often offer counseling to underperforming employees rather than just
fire them?
A) to give the organization a favorable image
B) to avoid discord
C) to avoid the cost of replacing the employee
D) to avoid unsettling other employees
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Counseling is cost-effective in many cases. To fire an employee, then go
through the trouble and effort of recruiting and training his or her replacement is a timeconsuming and costly process that managers try to avoid, making "avoiding the cost" the
correct response. Though counseling may allow a manager to make the organization seem
"nice," giving the organization a favorable image or avoiding upsetting other employees,
these are not reasons that responsible managers use to initiate counseling so they are incorrect
for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 171
Objective: 6.4
109) Which of the following is NOT a reason that managers put a lot of importance into
developing a good compensation system?
A) a sense of fairness
B) to attract talented employees
C) to avoid breaking the law
D) to retain talented employees
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Employers try to develop a good compensation system out of sense of
fairness and to lure and retain high-quality employees. They are not, however, required by
law to pay employees anything more than minimum wage, meaning that avoiding breaking
the law is hardly ever a reason that employers try to implement a good compensation system,
so it is the correct response here.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 170
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 6.4
110) This is the most important factor in determining how much pay an employee receives.
A) education level
B) experience
C) the type of job the employee has
D) the amount of time and effort the employee puts into the job
Answer: C
Explanation: C) All other factors being equal, the kind of job that an employee has exerts the
most influence on pay. For example, a doctor typically makes more money than a school
teacher—not necessarily because one job has greater value to society than the other—but
simply because different jobs in different industries have different general pay scales. This
does not mean that education, experience, or effort do not influence compensation—rather it
means that the job itself has the greatest influence on pay.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 172
Objective: 6.4
111) Which of the following is NOT a factor that can influence compensation and benefits?
A) gender
B) seniority
C) geographical location
D) employee performance levels
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Years spent on the job, where the job is located, and productivity are all
factors that can influence an employee's pay rate. The sex of the individual, according to
federal law, is not a factor that can influence pay rate. Therefore, gender is the correct
answer.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 172
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 6.4
112) Nine out of ten organizations in the United States pay their workers on a scale that is
based primarily on ________.
A) skills
B) seniority
C) status
D) performance
Answer: D
Explanation: D) In the United States, performance is a key factor in 90 percent of all jobs. In
general, higher productivity results in higher pay. Skills may confer an employee with the
ability to perform at a high level, but by themselves skills do not determine pay. Seniority and
status in an organization can influence pay in a minor way, but these effects are small
compared to the impact that performance has.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 173
Objective: 6.4
113) Health insurance is an example of which of the following?
A) compensation
B) employee benefit
C) salary
D) wages
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Health insurance is one of several "fringes" that together are termed
employee benefits, making that the correct response. Other benefits include retirement
programs, disability and life insurance, Social Security, and unemployment compensation.
Compensation, salary, and wages are all terms for official payments made to employees, so
they are all incorrect choices.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 173
Objective: 6.4
114) Downsizing seems to harm ________.
A) victims who are dismissed only
B) both victims who are dismissed and survivors who stayed on
C) survivors who stayed on only
D) managers who carried out the dismissals and their families only
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Surprisingly, survivors suffer consequences almost as severe as the victims
who were actually dismissed from their jobs, making both victims and survivors the correct
response. Survivors typically experience feelings of fear, anxiety, anger, and—one thing that
victims do not suffer—guilt. The other three choices are all incorrect because they do not
include both victims and survivors.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 174
Objective: 6.5
115) To improve workplace diversity, a manager might ________.
A) advertise in an ethnic newspapers and Internet sites
B) tighten his recruiting net
C) solicit referrals from existing employees
D) post a notice that states he is an equal opportunity employer
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Soliciting employee referrals would be likely to decrease diversity because
it would result in finding more employment candidates who are similar to the people who
recommended them, so soliciting referrals from existing employees is an incorrect response.
Tightening the recruiting net is the opposite of what the manager should do—he should
broaden the net to get more varied candidates—so that is an incorrect response. Posting a
notice of fairness wouldn't be likely to elicit any meaningful result, so that is an incorrect
response. Finally, advertising in an ethnic venue of some type might pull in diverse
candidates, so that is the correct response.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 175
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 6.5
116) According to the EEOC, sexual harassment is ________ that creates a hostile
environment, interferes with a person's work or diminishes the person's employment
opportunities.
A) any speech
B) any unwanted or unsolicited speech or physical conduct
C) any speech of a sexual nature
D) any speech or physical conduct of a sexual nature
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Sexual harassment can be speech or physical conduct. To qualify as sexual
harassment, this speech or physical conduct must also be sexual in nature. Simply being
offensive, hostile, or obnoxious in some way may constitute harassment, but not sexual
harassment. This makes any speech or physical conduct of a sexual nature the correct
response and eliminates the other three choices.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 176
AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities
Objective: 6.5
117) ________ are filed with the EEOC each year.
A) More sexual harassment complaints from males than females
B) More sexual harassment complaints from females than males
C) About an equal number of sexual harassment comp laints from males than females
D) Almost no sexual harassment complaints from males
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Most people are surprised to hear that about 15 percent of all harassment
complaints are filed by males each year. This means about 85 percent a re filed by females,
making "more complaints from females than males" the correct response and "more from
males than females" and "an equal number" incorrect. Though 15 percent of all cases that are
filed by males is a fairly low number, it does not constitute a negligible amount, making
"almost no complaints from males" incorrect.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 176
AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities
Objective: 6.5
118) If an employee rebuffs inappropriate sexual advances from her boss but still receives a
promotion ________.
A) the boss can't be guilty of sexual harassment
B) the employee is not allowed to lodge a complaint
C) the boss can still be guilty of sexual harassment
D) the employee is not allowed to lodge a complaint if she accepts the promotion
Answer: C
Explanation: C) A 1998 Supreme Court case demonstrated that even though the boss did not
"punish" the employee for refusing his advances, and in fact he rewarded her, he is still guilty
of harassment by virtue of his behavior, not the workplace consequence to the victim. This
makes the choice indicating that the boss can still be guilty the correct response and
eliminates all other responses.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 176
AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities
Objective: 6.5
119) The key to most sexual harassment cases against an organization is whether the
organization ________.
A) knew about the behavior and what it did to stop it
B) had a policy against sexual harassment
C) fired the employee after the charges were lodged
D) had hired a known sex offender
Answer: A
Explanation: A) In most cases, harassers are not known sex offenders, so hiring a known sex
offender is an incorrect response. Whether or not the organization had a policy against
harassment, or whether the alleged offender was fired are both immaterial to the typical
sexual harassment case. In most instances, the critical element is how seriously the
organization took the accusations—whether it allowed the alleged behavior to continue, or
took effective steps to bring the behavior to a stop.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 177
Objective: 6.5
120) What financial threat does sexual harassment pose to companies?
A) none
B) small legal fees only
C) enormous risk of major lawsuit settlements
D) none, because companies are insured against harassment
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Estimates show that sexual harassment poses the greatest single financial
risk that companies face today. Rewards for harassment cases can be enormous, and
companies generally cannot insure themselves against this risk. This makes enormous risk of
major lawsuit settlements the correct response and eliminates the other choices.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 176-177
AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities
Objective: 6.5
121) Workplace spirituality focuses on all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) employees seeking meaning and purpose
B) a sense of community
C) employees carrying out religious practices
D) employees seeking to connect
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Workplace spirituality stresses that it is not about practicing organized
religion, making that the correct answer for this question since it is not a feature of workplace
spirituality. What workplace spirituality does provide is a sense of greater meaning,
community, and connectedness between individuals.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 177
Objective: 6.5
122) Which of the following would you expect employees in a spiritual organization to have?
A) a strong sense of ethics
B) membership in a church or religious organization
C) distrust in the federal government
D) no interest in "worldly" matters
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Spiritual organizations do not focus on organized religion, so membership in
a church can be ruled out as a correct response. Being spiritual does not preclude being
"worldly," making no interest in "worldly" matters an incorrect response. In fact, if anything,
spirituality mandates that individuals have a strong sense of ethics and values, which makes
that the correct response for this question. Finally, spirituality has no connection, positive or
negative, to trust in government, so that is not a correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 177
AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities
Objective: 6.5
123) A major criticism of workplace spirituality is whether ________.
A) individuals have the right to discuss religion in the workplace
B) organizations have the right to impose spiritual values on employees
C) a spiritual organization can engage in making profits
D) workplace spirituality decreases productivity
Answer: B
Explanation: B) By federal law, individuals have the freedom to discuss any religion in the
workplace, which rules out that choice as a correct response. Workplace spirituality
decreasing productivity can be ruled out because evidence shows that workplace spirituality
can actually increase productivity. A spiritual organization engaging in making profits can be
ruled out since an organization's beliefs about profit- making are of no concern to anyone
outside of the organization. The correct response, organizations having the right to impose
spiritual values on employees, cannot be ruled out because many people feel that the climate
of a spiritual organization can sometimes put undue pressure on employees to join, making
them feel uncomfortable and in some cases discriminated against. This is a major concern
that spiritual organizations must address.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 177
AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities
Objective: 6.5
124) Which benefit cost do companies see as their biggest worry?
A) health care
B) retirement plans
C) unemployment insurance
D) Social Security
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Though unemployment coverage and Social Security are a concern for
companies, they present fairly fixed, stable costs that can be accommodated for in the future
with competent planning. Retirement plans are a bit more unpredictable, but no costs are
skyrocketing like health care costs, which could double over the next seven years if they are
not contained.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 178
Objective: 6.5
125) Which health care or safety issue concerns companies the most?
A) smoking
B) disease
C) traffic accidents
D) obesity
Answer: D
Explanation: D) While smoking continues to be a major cause of lung, heart, and other kinds
of diseases, it is actually on the decline in the United States, so authorities are currently less
troubled by smoking than they are by obesity. Obesity is also related to a host of serious
ailments and diseases, and officials rate it the number one health care concern in the United
States, making obesity the correct response. Traffic accidents can be ruled out, because,
though they take a terrible toll on society, they are not increasing in frequency in the same
way that obesity is.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 178
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Objective: 6.5
The New Hire (Scenario)
Frances begins her career working in the human resources department of a major corporation.
She is asked to help ensure that the organization is following the federal guidelines for
employment.
126) In setting up interviews for an executive position, Frances makes sure to include
candidates of different ethnic backgrounds, including individuals from protected minority
groups. Which kind of program is she attempting to carry out?
A) minority protection
B) positive action
C) diversity protection
D) affirmative action
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Programs that seek to ensure that protected and minority groups get a fair
chance at opportunity are called affirmative action programs, making that the correct
response. None of the other three terms suggested here are recognized terms so they are
incorrect responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 156
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 6.1
127) Prior to setting up the interviews for the executive position, Frances spent a great deal of
time analyzing the position and determining what skills, attitudes, and actions it would
require. This lengthy review is called a ________.
A) job description
B) job specification
C) job title
D) job analysis
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Frances is performing a job analysis, which is a detailed evaluation of what
the job is and what kind of requirements it entails. The detailed job analysis is subsequently
used to generate a concise job description, a short written summary of the job, and a job
specification, a list of qualifications that are needed for the job. A job title can be ruled out as
a correct response because it is simply a short title, not a detailed analysis.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 158
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 6.1
128) To respond to a candidate for the executive position who wants to know more about the
job, Frances is likely to send which of the following?
A) job analysis
B) job description
C) job title
D) human resource inventory
Answer: B
Explanation: B) A candidate who wants to know more about the job would be best served by
a job description, which is a written document that provides details about the job, making job
description the correct response. A job analysis would include far too much detail and
analytic material to be appropriate for someone outside of the organization, so that choice can
be ruled out. Conversely, simply sending out a job title would not be nearly enough
information for the candidate. Finally, a human resource inventory would not be about a
specific job and would therefore be completely inappropriate in this situation.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 159
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 6.2
129) In testing for the executive position, Frances has a candidate fill out a typical sample
budget for the department he would be working in. This is an example of a(n) ________ test.
A) written
B) performance-simulation
C) intelligence
D) written interview
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Giving a candidate a sample problem that is similar to those encountered on
the job is an example of performance-simulation, making that the correct response. Though
the test may be written, it does not qualify as a "written test" because it involves simulating a
work product, so written is an incorrect response. Similarly, though the test may require
intelligence, it is not an intelligence test per se, so that choice is incorrect. The remaining
choice is wrong because the test would not be considered an interview.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 165
Objective: 6.2
130) Frances considers filling out a sample budget to be the most valid test for the job
because ________.
A) it takes a great deal of skill to complete successfully
B) it is an actual task that would be required on the job
C) it is a good predictor of performance on the job
D) it is objective and quantitative
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The degree of difficulty, authenticity, or objectivity that a test has are all
secondary in importance to the most critical test element: how well it predicts performance on
the job. This makes a good predictor the correct response and rules out all three of the other
choices.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 163
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 6.2
131) In an interview, Frances informs a candidate that the job is "absorbing" but its hours will
be "long and grueling." Frances is conducting this kind of interview.
A) role playing
B) stress
C) behavioral
D) realistic job preview
Answer: D
Explanation: D) In informing the candidate of both positive and negative aspects of a job,
Frances is conducting a realistic job preview, or RJP, making that the correct response. She is
not subjecting the candidate to stress, a difficult situation (a behavioral interview), or role
playing so all of those choices can be eliminated as correct responses for this question.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 164
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 6.2
Recruitment (Scenario)
Keena's company was expanding. After a period of downsizing, the company had decided to
increase organizational profitability by gaining market share, which meant a need for more
people. As assistant manager of human resources, she was in the process of evaluating wha t
would be the most effective means of gaining new employees who were qualified, were cost
efficient, and could help maintain the company's commitment to a diversified workforce.
132) To reach the largest possible audience, Keena should consider ________ as a source of
potential candidates.
A) advertisements
B) employee referrals
C) school placement
D) private employment agencies
Answer: A
Explanation: A) While employee referrals and private agencies can generate strong
candidates, and school placement can bring in a large number of candidates, the most prolific
recruiting source in terms of numbers of applicants is advertising, making advertisements the
correct response and ruling out the other three responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 160
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 6.2
133) With regard to cost to HRM, which choice would probably be best for Keena?
A) advertisement
B) employee leasing
C) private employment agency
D) internal search
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Both ads and private agencies can be quite expensive, so advertisement and
private employment agency can be ruled out as correct answers. Employee leasing requires
paying a fee to the company you lease from, so that option would also be costly. This leaves
an internal search, which is very inexpensive for HRM because it can be conducted using all
of the organization's existing people and facilities. This makes internal search the correct
response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 160
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 6.2
134) Keena's company needs to increase the diversity of its workforce. Which choice might
this requirement rule out?
A) employee referral
B) advertising
C) school placement
D) private employment agency
Answer: A
CHAPTER 8 :MANAGING CHANGE AND INNOVATION
43) Change can't be eliminated, so managers must learn to ________ successfully.
A) avoid it
B) ignore it
C) work around it
D) manage it
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Since change can't be eliminated, managers must learn to manage it
successfully, making that the correct response. Avoiding change is impossible, making that
choice an incorrect response. Ignoring change or trying to work around it would not prevent
managers from being affected by change, so those options are incorrect.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 192
Objective: 7.1
44) Which of the following is an example of a structural organizational change?
A) changing employee attitudes
B) changing work practices
C) purchasing new work equipment
D) changing managerial span of control
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Changing work practices or obtaining new equipment are examples of
changing technology, so those two choices are not correct. Changing attitudes is an example
of a "people change," so changing employee attitudes is not correct. Structural changes
involve changing relationships between people within the organization. Since span of control
changes interpersonal relationships, it qualifies as a structural change so changing managerial
span of control is the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 192
Objective: 7.1
45) Which of the following is an example of a technology change within an organization?
A) forming teams to complete tasks
B) workers using new software
C) workers wanting to telecommute
D) workers wanting flexible hours
Answer: B
Explanation: B) A technology change requires the organization to change the way work is
done. Using new software is a change in the method of getting work done, so that choice
qualifies as a technology change and is the correct answer. Forming teams changes
organizational structure, so it is a structural change, not a technology change. Workers
wanting to telecommute or have more flexible hours are both attitude changes, so they
qualify as "people changes," not technology changes.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 192
AACSB: Technology
Objective: 7.1
46) Which of the following is an organizational "people change"?
A) work methods that people use
B) authority relationships between people
C) attitudes that people have
D) job redesign
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Though work methods, authority relationships, and job redesign all involve
people, an organizational change is a "people change" only when it involves changes in
attitudes, behavior, expectations, or perceptions of people. This makes those three choices
incorrect responses and "attitudes that people have" the correct response, because it is the
only response that refers to attitudes.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 192
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 7.1
47) Which of the following is an organizational structure change?
A) the building of a new workshop
B) resentment of bosses by employees
C) a new way to package chocolate cake
D) changing who reports to whom
Answer: D
Explanation: D) A structure change must alter the relationships between people in an
organization. Changing who reports to whom alters an authority relationship, so it is a
structure change, making it the correct response. A new workshop or way to make cake are
work method or technology changes, not structure changes, so they are incorrect choices.
Resentment is an employee attitude change, so it qualifies as a people change, not a structure
change.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 192
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 7.1
48) Which of the following is an organizational technology change?
A) purchase of a new backhoe
B) employees expecting a raise
C) employees accepting a new schedule
D) widening of span of control
Answer: A
Explanation: A) A technology change requires a change in how work is done or what it is
done with. New equipment qualifies as a technology change, so a new backhoe is the correct
response. Employees expecting a raise or accepting a new schedule involve attitudes so they
are examples of people changes, not technology changes, making both choices incorrect.
Finally, a span of control change is a structural, not a technology change, so widening of span
of control is incorrect.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 192
AACSB: Technology
Objective: 7.1
49) The Americans with Disabilities Act is an example of which of the following forms of
environmental change?
A) internal
B) technology
C) government laws and regulations
D) labor markets
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Since it was issued from the outside by government, the Disabilities Act is
clearly an external, not an internal force of change, making "internal" incorrect. The act was
not initiated by technology or labor markets, so those choices can be eliminated. The act was
initiated by the government, making "government laws and regulations" the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 193
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 7.1
50) Falling interest rates are an example of what kind of external force that causes a company
to need to make an organizational change?
A) marketplace competition forces
B) government laws and regulations
C) labor market forces
D) economic forces
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Falling interest rates do not originate in the marketplace, the government, or
the labor force, so these choices are incorrect. Interest rate drops are caused by changing
economic conditions, so "economic forces" is the correct a nswer here.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 193
Objective: 7.1
51) Which of the following is an internal force that can cause a company to make an
organizational change?
A) a new ad campaign
B) new safety requirements
C) a new rival company
D) new pollution laws
Answer: A
Explanation: A) New safety requirements, new laws, and a new competitor are all forces that
come from the outside, not from the inside, that cause a company to need to change, so as
external forces they are all incorrect responses. Only a new ad campaign is initiated from the
inside, so that is the correct response.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 193
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 7.1
52) Which of the following is an external force that would cause a company to make an
organizational change?
A) an organization-wide restructuring
B) the naming of a new CEO
C) a widening span of control for managers
D) a booming economy
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Restructuring, naming a new CEO, and changing employee relationships are
all examples of internal, not external forces that create a need for change, so they are
incorrect responses. Only a booming economy represents a force of change that comes from
outside of the company, so that is the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 193
Objective: 7.1
53) To compete with rival company X, company Y changes its management structure. This is
an example of ________.
A) an internal change causing an external change
B) an internal change causing another internal change
C) an external change causing another external c hange
D) an external change causing an internal change
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Competition from a rival is an external marketplace change. Company
restructuring is an internal change. The external competition caused the internal structure
change, making that the correct response. All other responses are incorrect because they do
not identify this external- internal relationship.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 193-194
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 7.1
54) After a thorough company-wide self-examination, company Y decides to set up work
teams. This is an example of ________.
A) an internal change causing an external change
B) an internal change causing another internal change
C) an external change causing another external change
D) an external change causing an internal change
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The self-examination was an internal change, followed by the decision to set
up work teams, another internal change. This makes the choice indicating an internal change
causing another internal change the correct response and eliminates all other responses
because they do not identify this internal- internal relationship.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 193-194
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 7.1
55) A company's workers asking to be able to celebrate Mexican holidays is an example of
________ force for change.
A) an external workforce composition
B) an internal workforce composition
C) an external an employee attitude
D) an internal strategy
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The request is an internal force for change s ince it is being made by workers
who already work at the company. Being internal rules out the two external choices. The
request is the result of the composition of the company workforce, not any strategy, which
eliminates an internal strategy and makes an internal workforce composition the correct
response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 194
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 7.1
56) Labor strikes are an example of what change factor that may encourage a change in
management thinking and practices?
A) workforce composition
B) equipment
C) employee attitude
D) strategy
Answer: C
Explanation: C) A labor strike would not be due to any new internal company strategy
change, equipment change, or workforce composition change. Only a change in employee
attitudes could cause a strike, making that the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 194
Objective: 7.1
57) In organizations, people who act as catalysts and assume the responsibility for managing
the change process are called ________.
A) managers
B) change agents
C) change managers
D) nonmanagerial employees
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Change agents are people within an organization who cause change to
occur, making that the correct response. Managers usually take on the role as change agents,
but a change agent can be virtually anyone within an organization, eliminating managers and
nonmanagerial employees as correct responses. Change manager is not a recognized
organizational change term so it is an incorrect response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 194
Objective: 7.1
58) Outside consultants generally try to initiate ________ changes than internal managers.
A) more drastic
B) less drastic
C) more cautious
D) fewer
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Since outside consultants do not have to live with the changes they suggest,
they tend to be less cautious than internal managers and more likely to initiate drastic or
extreme changes, making "more drastic" the correct response. Since "more drastic" is the
correct response, "less drastic" and "more cautious," which mean roughly the same t hing, can
both be eliminated. If anything, consultants might order up more rather than fewer changes,
so "fewer" is also an incorrect response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 194
Objective: 7.1
59) The "calm waters" metaphor envisions an organization as ________.
A) a large ship on a roiling sea
B) a large ship on a calm sea
C) a small raft on a calm sea
D) a small raft on a roiling sea
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The "calm waters" metaphor sees the organization as a large ship that is
fairly unperturbable sailing on calm seas, barely noticing the changes that occur. This makes
a large ship on a calm sea the correct response, and eliminates the two choices regarding a
small raft because they match the organization with a raft, not a ship, and rules out a la rge
ship on a roiling sea because it characterizes the water as roiling instead of calm.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 195
Objective: 7.1
60) The "white-water rapids" metaphor envisions an organization as ________.
A) a large ship on a roiling sea
B) a large ship on a calm sea
C) a small raft on a calm river
D) a small raft on a raging river
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The "white-water rapids" metaphor sees the organization as a small raft
being tossed on an unending series of white-water rapids, being buffeted and nearly capsizing
at each step of the journey. This makes "a small raft on a raging river" the correct response,
and eliminates the two choices regarding ships because they match the organization with a
ship, not a raft, and rules out a small raft on a calm river because it characterizes the water as
calm instead of raging.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 196
Objective: 7.1
61) The "white-water rapids" metaphor sees change as ________.
A) an occasional occurrence
B) the natural state of things
C) an unpleasant interruption of the normal calm
D) something that must be eliminated
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The "white-water rapids" metaphor sees change as the natural state of
things, not an interruption or something that happens only from time to time. Since change
should be expected, instead of trying to eliminate change, managers should be devoting their
efforts to managing change. This makes "the natural state of things" the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 196
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 7.1
62) Kurt Lewin's "calm waters" metaphor sees change as ________.
A) an unusual event
B) the natural state of things
C) unfortunate
D) avoidable
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The "calm waters" metaphor sees calm equilibrium as the natural state of
things, with change being an occasional occurrence that briefly upsets the status quo before
things are restored to normal. This makes "an unusual event" the correct response, and
eliminates "the natural state of things," since change in Lewin's view is clearly not the natural
state of things. Both "unfortunate" and "avoidable" can also be eliminated, since Lewin does
not see change as a negative thing or a thing that can necessarily be avoided. In fact, rather
than avoid change, Lewin devised a system for dealing with change.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 195-196
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 7.1
63) The first step in Lewin's three-step description of the change process involves ________.
A) freezing the new state
B) changing to a new state
C) unfreezing the status quo
D) changing to a new status quo
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Kurt Lewin sees the three-step process of change as follows: first the status
quo must be unfrozen so change can occur. Next, the change occurs and a new state is
reached, and finally that new state must be frozen into place, creating a new status quo.
Clearly, since the remaining choice identifies the unfreezing of the status quo, it is the correct
response and the other responses are incorrect.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 196
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 7.1
64) The final step in Lewin's three-step description of the change process is ________.
A) freezing the new state
B) unfreezing the status quo
C) changing to a new state
D) unfreezing the new state
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Kurt Lewin sees the three-step process of change as follows: first the status
quo must be unfrozen so change can occur. Next, with the status quo unfrozen the change
occurs and a new state is reached. Finally that new state must be frozen into place, making
freezing the new state the correct response. Note that unfreezing the new state is incorrect
because that is not part of Lewin's process—it would initiate an entirely new change process.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 196
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 7.1
65) According to Lewin, which of the following is a force that might overcome inertia and
unfreeze the status quo?
A) increase restraining forces
B) decrease restraining forces
C) decrease driving forces
D) increase driving forces
Answer: D
Explanation: D) In Lewin's view, driving forces promote deviation from the status quo while
restraining forces hinder this deviation. Therefore, there are two ways to move away from the
status quo: the driving forces must increase or the restraining forces must decrease (or both
must occur). increasing driving forces is the only choice that lists one of these two
alternatives, so it is the correct response and the other responses are incorrect.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 196
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 7.1
66) According to Lewin, which of the following is the objective of refreezing?
A) to stabilize the new situation
B) to promote movement away from existing equilibrium
C) to eliminate the need for future change
D) to direct behavior away from the status quo
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Lewin's view focuses on stability and equilibrium. Change destabilizes the
situation, so the only way to restore order and equilibrium after change occurs is the refreeze.
This makes stabilizing the new situation the correct response and eliminates the other three
choices since the goal of refreezing is clearly not to promote new change, or rule out any
future change.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 198
Objective: 7.1
67) According to Lewin, which of the following is the best way to unfreeze the status quo?
A) increase restraining forces
B) decrease restraining forces and increase driving forces
C) decrease driving forces
D) increase restraining forces and increase driving forces
Answer: B
Explanation: B) In Lewin's view, decreasing driving forces and increasing restraining forces
both work to resist change so neither choice would help unfreeze the status quo. Decreasing
restraining forces and increasing driving forces both work to unfreeze the status quo, so if
both things are done together the status quo would be most effectively unfrozen, making that
the correct response and eliminating all other responses.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 196
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 7.1
68) The goal in Lewin's "calm waters" metaphor is ________.
A) to change the current equilibrium state
B) to reach a state of constant change
C) to eliminate the equilibrium state
D) to establish a new equilibrium state
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Lewin's "calm waters" metaphor seeks to change the current equilibrium
state and ultimately establish a new equilibrium, making a new equilibrium state the correct
response. This eliminates changing the current equilibrium state, since changing the current
equilibrium comes first in the process. Lewin's goal of seeking an equilibrium state clearly is
the opposite of reaching a state of constant change or getting rid of the equilibrium, so both of
these choices are incorrect.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 196
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 7.1
69) Lewin's "calm waters" metaphor today is increasingly thought to be ________.
A) illogical
B) an apt description of the current situation
C) a blueprint for the future
D) obsolete
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Though Lewin's model is not at all illogical and is seen to be based on
sound reasoning, it is not viewed as a good description of today's economy or a good model
for the future. This is because change has become so violent and ubiquitous in today's
economic climate that new models, especially the "white-water rapids" metaphor, have
largely supplanted it and made it obsolete, making obsolete the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 196
Objective: 7.1
70) Which phenomenon in today's business climate has made the "white-water rapids"
metaphor popular?
A) reduced competition
B) corporations that are too powerful
C) organizations that resist change
D) constant and chaotic change
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Lewin's "calm waters" metaphor is largely being replaced because observers
recognize that today's economic climate is one of constant change. Lewin saw long periods of
equilibrium dominating the scene that were interrupted by periods of chaos and change.
Current thinkers feel that the periods of equilibrium are not only not as long as they used to
be, they are largely disappearing completely, replaced by constant dis-equilibrium, or change.
These factors combine to make constant and chaotic change the correct response. The other
choices provided are either untrue or clearly not factors in making the "white-water rapids"
metaphor prevalent.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 196
Objective: 7.1
71) Writing laws to reward industries to reduce carbon emissions in an effort to co mbat
global climate change can be best described as an example of which of the following?
A) unfreezing the status quo
B) freezing a change into place
C) implementing change
D) refreezing the status quo
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The change that is desired here is to reduce carbon emissions. Writing new
laws is an example of unfreezing the status quo to prepare the situation so the change—
reducing carbon emissions—can be implemented. That makes unfreezing the status quo the
correct answer and eliminates the other choices.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 196
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 7.1
72) Kurt Lewin originated some of his most important group dynamics ideas by studying
which of the following?
A) family vacations during World War I
B) force fields in physics
C) how football has blocking and driving forces
D) family food habits during World War II
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Lewin did not use physical science, football, or family vacations to develop
his group dynamics theories. He did, however, study families, but in terms of decisions that
had to do with food rather than vacations. This makes family food habits the correct response
and eliminates the other responses as correct answers.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 197
Objective: 7.1
73) Lewin's force field analysis identified ________ forces that compete when people try to
achieve a goal.
A) physical push-and-pull
B) driving and blocking
C) enormous
D) magnetic
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Force field analysis involved reaching goals, not physical forces, so physical
push-and-pull and magnetic can be eliminated as correct choices. Lewin saw driving forces as
moving positively toward a goal and blocking forces as resisting the goal, making driving and
blocking the correct response. Since these driving and blocking forces could have any size,
"enormous" can be ruled out as a correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 198
Objective: 7.1
74) In terms of change, Lewin's force field analysis might see ________ as a driving force.
A) fear of change
B) inertia
C) reward from change
D) difficulty of change
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Fear of change, inertia, and the difficulty of change can all be seen as
obstacles that block change, so they are blocking forces, not driving forces. A reward from
change is an incentive so it can be thought of as a driving force, making reward from change
the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 197
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 7.1
75) Lewin's force field analysis might view a company ________ as a blocking force for
change.
A) becoming more mechanistic
B) rewarding innovation and creativity
C) becoming more organic
D) decreasing centralization
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Rewarding innovation, becoming more organic or less centralized would all
be seen as steps that would make a company more, not less open to change, so these choices
would be viewed as driving, not blocking forces—and therefore all three would be incorrect.
Becoming more mechanistic would make a company more conservative and less open to
change, so that would represent a blocking force and be the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 197
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 7.1
76) Today's economic climate can be compared to a college class that ________.
A) focuses on only one topic all semester
B) focuses on several topics during the semester
C) may last 20 minutes or 3 hours
D) lasts exactly 1 hour
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The key to understanding today's economic climate is that things are
uncertain. All the incorrect choices can be eliminated because they refer to certain rather than
uncertain events. Only the choice regarding lasting 20 minutes or 3 hours presents
uncertainty, so it is the correct answer for this question.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 197
Objective: 7.1
77) Organization development (OD) helps employees ________.
A) deal with planned change
B) deal with unplanned change
C) avoid unpleasant change
D) avoid all types of change
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The goal of OD is to help employees deal with planned, not unplanned
change, making planned change the correct response and unplanned change incorrect. OD
sees change as inevitable in most cases, so it would not seek to avoid change, making
avoiding unpleasant change or all types of change incorrect responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 197
Objective: 7.1
78) Organization development can be viewed as an attempt to change an organization's
________.
A) structure
B) financial goals
C) culture
D) status
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The focus of OD is to change attitudes and values of employees. Attitudes
and values have more to do with an organization's culture than its monetary goals, standing in
the world, or how it is organized. This makes culture the correct response and eliminates the
other three choices.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 198
Objective: 7.1
79) The most popular OD efforts involve cooperation and these kinds of activities.
A) individual interactions
B) group interactions
C) group assessment
D) individual assessment
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Any activity that helps organizations deal with planned change is considered
a valid OD activity. However, most OD activities feature cooperation between organization
members and group interactions, making group interactions the correct response. Individual
interactions and assessment are incorrect because they focus on the individual. Group
assessment is incorrect because it features an assessment, not an interaction.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 198
Objective: 7.1
80) Which of the following is NOT a common method of organization development (OD)?
A) teambuilding
B) process consultation
C) positive feedback
D) survey feedback
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Teambuilding, process consultation, and survey feedback are all methods of
OD that are frequently used by organizations to deal with planned change, so they are
incorrect responses. Positive feedback is not a recognized OD method, so it is the correct
response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 198
Objective: 7.1
81) In process consultation, ________ observe and analyze an organization to find ways to
improve interpersonal processes.
A) outside consultants
B) top- level managers
C) ordinary employees
D) company efficiency specialists
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The key to process consultation is that the organization is observed and
evaluated by outsiders who can get an objective view of interpersonal process issues. These
consultants are not intended to solve problems, but rather to identify problem areas and help
managers diagnose and remedy those problems. This makes outside consultants the correct
response and rules out managers, employees, and specialists since all three are part of the
organization and process consultation consultants are always outsiders.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 198
Objective: 7.1
82) The primary goal of the OD method called teambuilding is to ________.
A) increase efficiency
B) increase trust and openness
C) identify troublemakers
D) play games such as volleyball to build morale
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Teambuilding is not concerned with efficiency or identifying troublemakers
within an organization, and does not involve game-playing. In fact, teambuilding does the
opposite of singling out individuals as troublemakers, which would tend to decrease trust and
openness among employees. Teambuilding seeks to find ways to increase, rather than
decrease, mutual trust and openness, making increasing trust and openness the correct
response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 198
Objective: 7.1
83) Intergroup development is an OD method that focuses on ________.
A) increasing competition within a single work group
B) increasing competition between work groups
C) increasing trust within a single work group
D) increasing trust between work groups
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Intergroup development focuses on increasing trust and understanding
between different work groups. This rules out increasing competition or trust within a single
work group because they both focus on a single work group, not the relationship between
groups. Intergroup development seeks to decrease, rather than increase competition, making
increasing competition between work groups an incorrect response. This identifies increasing
trust between work groups as the correct response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 199
Objective: 7.1
84) Which of the following is a term borrowed from the physical sciences that accurately
describes people's resistance to change?
A) energy
B) uncertainty
C) inertia
D) momentum
Answer: C
Explanation: C) By definition, inertia is the tendency of an entity to resist change. In physics,
inertia refers to physical objects. In management psychology, inertia refers to the tendency
among people to resist change, making inertia the correct response. The other terms energy,
uncertainty, and momentum do not specifically refer to resisting change, so they are all
incorrect responses. In fact, momentum, the tendency of an entity to continue moving, is
roughly the opposite of inertia.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 199
Objective: 7.2
85) Uncertainty causes people to resist change because it ________.
A) replaces the unknown with the known
B) replaces the known with the unknown
C) increases performance expectations on an employee
D) decreases performance expectations on people
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The key to uncertainty is that it neither increases nor decreases performance
expectations of employees, but rather it makes them unsure of precisely what is expected of
them. People find this state of "not knowing" very unsettling, so they tend to resist change.
Put another way, people resist change because it replaces the known with the unknown,
making that the correct response and replacing the unknown with the known incorrect. With
respect to expectations, uncertainty replaces known expectations with unknown expectations.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 199
Objective: 7.2
86) Which of the following is NOT a common reason that people resist change?
A) habit
B) uncertainty
C) concern over personal loss
D) overconfidence
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Fear of uncertainty can cause people to resist change. People will also resist
change simply out of habit or because they think the new changed conditions somehow
threaten what they already have and have worked for. Overconfidence, on the other hand, is
not a reason that would cause people to resist change, making that the correct response. If
anything, people who are underconfident, not overconfident, in their ability to deal with
future unknowns would tend to resist change.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 199
Objective: 7.2
87) Older workers tend to resist change more than younger workers because they ________.
A) have less invested in the current system
B) have more invested in the current system
C) have confidence in themselves
D) have less to lose
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Older workers who have attained a level of status and achievement in an
organization typically feel that they have the most to lose from change. They have more, not
less invested in the system, making "having more invested in the system" the correct response
and eliminating "having less invested" and "less to lose" as correct responses. Older workers
may in fact lack confidence in their ability to deal with change, making "having confidence in
themselves" an incorrect response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 199
Objective: 7.2
88) Workers seem to reject a simple new manufacturing method that has been shown to
increase company sales because they say, "that is not the way we do things around here."
These workers are most likely to be resisting change due to which of the following?
A) uncertainty
B) habit
C) conflicts with company goals
D) fear of the unknown
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The statement "that is not the way we do things around here" indicates that
procedures in this company are entrenched in habit, making that the correct response. These
workers are not uncertain or fearful of the unknown, since the new change has been fully
identified and is described as simple. The method does not appear to conflict with company
goals since it is said to increase sales, so conflicts with company goals is an incorrect
response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 199
Objective: 7.2
89) Which kind of resistance to change is most likely to be beneficial to a company?
A) conflict with company goals
B) uncertainty
C) habit
D) fear of losing status or possessions
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Employees who resist change because they truly think that the change is
harming the company in some way may be helping the company by pointing out the error that
it is making. This makes conflict with company goals the correct response. Resisting change
out of habit, fear of uncertainty, or fear of losing something of value are very unlikely to be
beneficial to a company since in each case the employee is putting his or her own concerns
ahead of company concerns.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 199-200
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 7.2
90) Employees at a company protest a change that allows an automatic answering system to
answer phone inquiries, claiming that the company is becoming "depersonalized." They are
most likely resisting change due to ________.
A) uncertainty
B) habit
C) conflicts with company goals
D) fear of losing status
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The new phone system does not increase the employees' uncertainty about
their jobs or threaten their standing in the company, so these choices are incorrect. They are
not protesting the change out of habit, since they are explicitly identifying
"depersonalization" as the source of their complaint. This leaves conflicts with company
goals as the correct response—the employees think that the new phone system will damage
the image of the company so it is conflicting with company goals.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 200
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 7.2
91) Workers in a company are complaining about a new employee evaluation system. Which
kind of resistance to change are they demonstrating?
A) resistance out of habit
B) resistance because of uncertainty
C) resistance to protect company goals
D) resistance to protect market share
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The new system is creating a sense of uncertainty in employees, making
resistance because of uncertainty the correct response. The employees don't know how the
new system will work, or whether it will threaten the ir pay or status in the company. The
employees are not resisting change out of habit since their own actions do not require change
with this new system. Similarly, there is no reason or evidence to assume that the employees
are trying to protect company goals or market share, so both of these choices are incorrect.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 199-200
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 7.2
92) Managers typically implement programs to reduce resistance to change when employees
________ in some way.
A) become uncomfortable
B) are challenged
C) become self-satisfied
D) become dysfunctional
Answer: D
Explanation: D) While it might not be ideal for employees to feel uncomfortable or selfsatisfied, neither of these conditions would be sufficiently deleterious to organizational
interests to cause managers to implement programs to reduce resistance to change. This
makes these two choices both incorrect responses. Managers may actually want employees to
feel challenged, so that choice can be ruled out as a correct re sponse. The line that managers
typically draw for implementing resistance to change reduction programs is whether or not
employees are dysfunctional. This makes becoming dysfunctional the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 200
Objective: 7.2
93) A technique that helps employees deal with change that appeals to their sense of logic is
________.
A) manipulation
B) education and communication
C) coercion or threats to employees
D) co-optation
Answer: B
Explanation: B) When misunderstanding of change causes employee problems, simply
laying out the facts can often clear up misunderstandings and greatly diminish resistance to
change, making education and communication the correct response. Rather than appeal to
logic, manipulation, co-optation, and coercion can sometimes distort logic to reduce
resistance to change, so those choices are incorrect.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 200
Objective: 7.2
94) A technique that helps employees deal with change that includes them in the decisionmaking process is ________.
A) education and communication
B) negotiation
C) participation
D) coercion
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Education and communication focus on using logic and facts to reduce
resistance to change. Negotiation uses bargaining to reduce resistance to change. Coercion
uses arm-twisting and threats to reduce resistance to change. Participation is the only choice
that deals with decision making, so that is the correct response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 200
Objective: 7.2
95) If several efforts between a manager and an employee for reducing resistance to change
fail to allay employee fears, a manager might take himself out of the process and try this.
A) facilitation and support
B) negotiation between parties
C) manipulation
D) participation
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Since the manager wants to remove himself from the process, participation,
manipulation, and negotiation are all incorrect choices because they all involve contact
between the manager and the employee. The only choice that can take the manager out of the
process completely is facilitation and support, which can allow a counselor to deal with the
fearful employee, so that is the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 200
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 7.2
96) When an entire workforce threatens to go on strike to protest a work change, managers
might try this method of reducing resistance to change.
A) education and communication
B) participation
C) facilitation and support
D) negotiation
Answer: D
Explanation: D) An entire workforce constitutes a powerful source of opposition to the
change, so education and communication, participation, or facilitation and support would
likely not be enough to prevail over such a strong adversary. When powerful opposition
exists, managers often must negotiate on equal terms with the other side to try to hammer out
an agreement that both parties can live with. This makes negotiation the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 200
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 7.2
97) When managers threaten to fire workers unless they agree to go along with new company
policies, they are using which of the following?
A) negotiation
B) coercion
C) manipulation
D) education and communication
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Negotiation can be heated, but it should not involve open threats.
Manipulation can trick or deceive, but it never threatens an adversary. Similarly, education
should never involve threats. Only coercion necessarily involves threats, so that is the correct
response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 200
Objective: 7.2
98) Which method of reducing resistance to change is mostly likely to backfire on the
manager who uses it?
A) education and communication
B) negotiation
C) participation
D) manipulation
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Negotiation, participation, and education and communication do not involve
an element of dishonesty or deception, so they are not likely to backfire on the user, making
these choices incorrect. Manipulation often does involve distortion or deception, so it can
backfire on its user, making it the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 200
Objective: 7.2
99) When a manager attempts to buy off a key leader who opposes change by offering her a
promotion, he is using which of the following methods of reducing resistance to change?
A) manipulation
B) co-optation
C) coercion
D) negotiation
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Though often ethically dubious, manipulation or coercion do not involve
buying off an adversary either directly or indirectly. Neither does negotiation, making those
three choices incorrect responses. When a party attempts to buy off an adversary, that is an
example of co-optation, making that the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 200
Objective: 7.2
100) Stress in the workplace is an adverse reaction that people have in response to ________.
A) lack of ambition
B) demands, constraints, and opportunities
C) having too much confidence in oneself
D) too much ambition
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Though overconfidence, too little, or too much ambition can all negatively
affect an individual, they are not explicit causes of workforce stress. Causes of stress are
pressures that employees feel from demands, constraints, and opportunities placed on them in
the workplace, making that the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 201
Objective: 7.3
101) An actor on stage getting "up" for a performance is an example of which of the
following?
A) a negative aspect of stress
B) a positive aspect of stress
C) a condition not related to stress
D) both a positive and a negative aspect of stress
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The ability of an actor to summon extra energy and other resources during a
performance is an example of a positive aspect of stress, making that the correct answer and
eliminating all other choices. An example of a negative aspect of stress might be an actor's
nervousness causing her to be completely dysfunctional on stage.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 201
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 7.3
102) Stress is most frequently associated with ________ only.
A) demands and constraints
B) demands and opportunities
C) opportunities and constraints
D) demands and pressures
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Though opportunities can cause stress, most of the time stress is associated
with demands and constraints, making that the correct response. Demands and opportunities
and opportunities and constraints can be ruled out because they include opportunities, the
less-common source of stress. Demands and pressures can be ruled out because pressures and
demands are largely the same thing, so this choice leaves out constraints.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 201
Objective: 7.3
103) Which statement is correct?
A) Stress is always bad.
B) Stress can be bad or good.
C) Stress is always good.
D) Stress can never be good.
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Stress can have both positive and negative effects, making stress as bad or
good the correct response and eliminating the other responses. An example of bad stress is
being so nervous that you become dysfunctional. An example of good stress is being so
energized that you perform at a high level.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 201
Objective: 7.3
104) A constraint causes stress because it ________.
A) helps you achieve your goal
B) prevents you from achieving your goal
C) helps you define your goal
D) prevents you from defining your goal
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Constraints have nothing to do with defining goals, so the two choices
regarding defining goals can be eliminated as correct responses. What constraints do is deter
an individual from achieving his or her goal, making that the correct response and helping
you achieve your goal incorrect.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 201
Objective: 7.3
105) Potential stress can become actual stress when the outcome of an event is uncertain and
________.
A) not important to the individual
B) hard for the individual to understand
C) in doubt
D) important to the individual
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The key to potential stress becoming actual stress are that two conditions are
met: the outcome of an event is both uncertain and very important to the individual, making
that the correct response. When the outcome is not important, the individual tends to discount
the event even if the outcome is likely to be negative. Being hard to understand or in doubt
would tend to add additional uncertainty to the situation, but these conditions would not
increase the importance of the event to the individual, so they are incorrect responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 201
Objective: 7.3
106) Potential stress can become actual stress when the outcome of an event is both
________ and important to the individual.
A) uncertain
B) certain
C) meaningful
D) significant
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The key to potential stress becoming actual stress is that two conditions are
met: the outcome of an event is both uncertain and very important to the individual, making
"uncertain" the correct response. Certainty of an event would decrease, rather than increase
the likelihood of stress. The terms meaningful and significant are somewhat synonymous
with important, so both conditions meet only one of the two requirements (importance) for
potential stress to become actual stress.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 201
Objective: 7.3
107) Stress has ________ symptoms.
A) only psychological and behavioral
B) psychological, behavioral, and physical
C) only physical
D) only psychological
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Stress affects individuals in three ways psychologically, behaviorally, and
physically making that the correct answer and eliminating the other choices. Examples of
psychological effects include anxiety. Examples of physical effects include changes in blood
pressure. Examples of behavioral effects include people becoming distracted.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 201
Objective: 7.3
108) Adverse psychological effects of stress include ________.
A) absenteeism
B) elevated heart rates
C) boredom
D) rapid speech
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Absenteeism and rapid speech are examples of behavioral, not
psychological effects of stress, so they are incorrect responses. An elevated pulse is a
physical effect of stress, so it is not correct. Only boredom qualifies as a psychological
response to stress, so it is the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 201
Objective: 7.3
109) Behavioral effects of stress include ________.
A) metabolism changes
B) job dissatisfaction
C) absenteeism
D) procrastination
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Job dissatisfaction and procrastination are examples of psychological, not
behavioral effects of stress, so they are incorrect responses. Metabolic changes are physical
effects of stress, so that choice is not correct. Only absenteeism qualifies as a behavioral
response to stress, so it is the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 201
Objective: 7.3
110) An employee's blood pressure rises, indicating a(n) ________ symptom of stress.
A) psychological
B) behavioral
C) emotional
D) physical
Answer: D
Explanation: D) A change in blood pressure is not merely psychological, behavioral, or
emotional. It is a measurable, observable physical change, making physical the correct
answer and eliminating all other choices.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 201
Objective: 7.3
111) Stress symptoms can be grouped under any of the following three general categories
EXCEPT ________.
A) physical
B) cultural
C) psychological
D) behavioral
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Stress symptoms can be expressed in three different ways physically
through such ailments as headaches, psychologically through such feelings as tensio n and
anxiety, or behaviorally, through such things as productivity drops. Cultural symptoms are
not recognized as signs of stress, so cultural is the correct response for this question.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 201
Objective: 7.3
112) A stressor is defined as ________.
A) a personal or job-related factor that causes stress
B) a person who causes stress
C) an attitude that causes stress
D) an emotion that causes stress
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Though a person, strong emotion, or an attitude can cause or contribute to
stress, the term stressor is defined as a personal or job-related factor that causes stress,
making that the correct response and eliminating all other responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 202
Objective: 7.3
113) A baseball player in a slump who feels stress from trying to raise his batting average is
experiencing ________ stress.
A) task demand
B) role demand
C) role conflict
D) interpersonal
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The stress from trying to get hits is in a sense a form of work quota. A
player who struggles to meet this quota—that is, to get hits—is suffering from task demand,
making task demand the correct response. Role demand would require that the player be
forced to perform some role of leadership or responsibility on the team—for example, to be
named the team captain—that he is not ready or qualified for. Role conflict would come from
trying to meet very difficult or unrealistic expectations: for example, a player who is not a
homerun hitter being asked to hit homeruns. Interpersonal stress might result from the player
not getting along with teammates, for example.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 202
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 7.3
114) A light- hitting baseball player who is suddenly asked to play be a power hitter and hit
homeruns would be likely to experience ________ stress.
A) role overload
B) role demand
C) role conflict
D) role ambiguity
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The stress from trying to meet expectations that are not realistic might cause
the player to suffer from role conflict, making that the correct response. Role demand would
require that the player be forced to perform some role of leadership or responsibility on the
team—for example, to be named team captain—that he is not ready or qualified for. Role
overload would come from, for example, a player trying to play more different roles for the
team than he is comfortable doing. Role ambiguity would result from the player not
understanding what his role on the team was.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 202
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 7.3
115) A head football coach who tries to coach every phase of the team—offense, defense,
and special teams—rather than delegate authority is likely to suffer from ________.
A) task demand
B) interpersonal demand
C) role conflict
D) role overload
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The stress from trying to perform too many jobs might cause the coach to
suffer from role overload, making that the correct response. Task demand would require that
the coach be forced to try to meet some difficult goal. Inte rpersonal demand would be created
by conflicts with other coaches or players on the team. Role conflict would come from trying
to meet difficult or unrealistic expectations.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 202
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 7.3
116) Which of the following might reduce a sense of task demand stress for a worker?
A) overcrowded conditions
B) uncomfortably high temperatures in the workplace
C) autonomy in the workplace
D) close monitoring by her supervisor
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Evidence shows that the pressure of meeting a difficult goal, task demand,
can be reduced by giving the worker autonomy to do the job in her own way on her own
terms. This makes autonomy the correct response. All three other choices overcrowded
conditions, high temperatures, and close monitoring would tend to exacerbate the situation
and increase rather than decrease task demand stress.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 202
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 7.3
117) Which of the following might be a source of stress for an employee who is very happy
with her job with respect to the tasks she performs, what is expected from her, and how she is
supervised?
A) task demands
B) role overload
C) interpersonal demands
D) organizational leadership
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Since the employee is happy with her work, it is unlikely that task demands
or role overload could be causing stress, so those choices are incorrect choices. She is also
happy with how she is supervised, so organizational leadership is not likely to be a source of
stress. What could be causing the employee problems are interpersonal demands—conflicts
she has with fellow workers making that the correct response.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 202
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 7.3
118) Anika loves being a professional dancer, but she feels stress from the tension-packed,
high-pressure, fear- filled atmosphere of her group. She is likely to be experiencing stress
from ________.
A) too much autonomy
B) organizational leadership
C) role overload
D) role ambiguity
Answer: B
Explanation: B) When the workplace atmosphere has too much pressure, organizational
leadership is usually at fault, making that the correct response. Role overload or role
ambiguity could create stress, but they would not create an atmosphere of tension and fear so
they are incorrect responses. Too much autonomy can be problematic, but it would also not
create a fearful atmosphere, so too much autonomy is incorrect.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 202
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 7.3
119) George constantly strives to excel. He must always get the highest grade in the class and
has a sense of urgency about him at all times. George probably has which of the following?
A) Type A personality
B) Type B personality
C) both Type A and Type B personality
D) neither Type A nor Type B personalty
Answer: A
Explanation: A) George is an impatient, driven, and competitive person so he fits the Type A
personality profile, making that the correct response. Type B personality is incorrect because
Type B people have traits that are essentially the opposite of George's traits: laid-back, calm,
and relaxed. Both Type A and Type B personality is wrong because a single person cannot
show both personality traits at once.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 202-203
Objective: 7.3
120) Kara is a very relaxed, easygoing person who appears to have all the time in the world.
She is never too busy to stop and chat for a moment. Kara has which of the following?
A) Type A personality
B) Type B personality
C) both Type A and Type B personality
D) neither Type A nor Type B personality
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Kara is a laid-back, relaxed person so she fits the Type B personality profile,
making that the correct response. Type A personality is incorrect because Type A people
have traits that are essentially the opposite of Kara's traits: nervous, driven, and impatient.
The choice indicating both Type A and Type B personality is wrong because a single person
cannot show both personality traits at once.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 203
Objective: 7.3
121) A key to dealing with stress is to recognize that all stress ________.
A) leads to dysfunctional work behavior
B) can be eliminated from an employee's life
C) cannot be eliminated from an employee's life
D) originates on the job
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Managers should keep in mind that only some sources of stress that affect
employees' lives originate on the job, so there is little they can do to remedy nonwork-related
stress. This eliminates "originating on the job" as a correct answer. Furthermore, managers
should keep in mind that all manifestations of stress are not necessarily dysfunctional and
even if they were, it would be impossible to eliminate stress from an employee's (or anyone
else's) life, so managers should focus on ways to minimize and cope with stress. This makes
the choice indicating that stress cannot be eliminated the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 203
Objective: 7.3
122) To reduce stress managers need to make sure that employees ________.
A) have jobs that match their abilities
B) maximize their productivity
C) don't work too many hours
D) don't work too few hours
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Different employees get stressed by different situations. One employee
might enjoy the pressure of a work quota, for example, while it might cause another
employee to become anxious and stressed. Therefore, there is no set remedy for reducing
stress, such as maximizing or minimizing productivity, or working too many hours or too few
hours. The best policy a manager can take is to try to match the employee's ability to
withstand stress to the job that he or she has. This makes having jobs that match their abilities
the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 203
Objective: 7.3
123) Job redesigns are good ways to reduce stress that employees feel from ________.
A) work overload or boredom
B) work overload only
C) boredom only
D) boredom overload
Answer: A
Explanation: A) When an employee feels stress from too much or too little work to do, the
situation can often be fixed by engaging in job redesign, adjusting the workload to provide
more or less challenge to suit the individual. This makes the choice indicating work overload
or boredom the correct response and eliminates all other choices.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 203
Objective: 7.3
124) Stress from an employee's personal life can best be helped by this.
A) job redesign
B) MBO
C) employee assistance programs
D) performance planning programs
Answer: C
Explanation: C) An MBO is an example of a performance planning program and both of
these options are incorrect because they address performance problems that employees might
have, not personal problems. Job redesign also addresses work issues, rather than personal
problems, so it is incorrect. An employee assistance program is set up to aid employees in
areas such as personal finance, legal issues, or health, which would help employees with their
personal lives, making employee assistance programs the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 203
Objective: 7.3
125) Studies show that ________ personalities show negative effects from stress.
A) Type A
B) Type B
C) neither Type A nor Type B
D) both Type A and Type B
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Surprisingly, both Type A and Type B personalities seem to suffer from
adverse effects from stress, making that the correct response and eliminating the other
responses. The main difference between the two types seems to be that Type A individuals
seem to display the symptoms of stress while Type B people keep their symptoms to
themselves.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 203
Objective: 7.3
126) Studies show that employee assistance programs (EAPs) are ________.
A) a waste of time and energy
B) much too expensive, but sometimes useful
C) cost effective and very useful
D) not cost effective
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The three incorrect choices all indicate to one degree or another that EAPs
are either not effective at all, or not cost effective. In fact, studies have shown that EAPs are
highly cost effective, offering savings from up to $16 for every dollar spent on a program.
This makes cost effective and very useful the correct response and eliminates all other
responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 204
AACSB: Technology
Objective: 7.3
127) ________ refers to the ability to combine ideas in a uniq ue way or to make unusual
associations between ideas.
A) Innovation
B) Imagination
C) Creativity
D) Open-minded thinking
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Creativity is the ability to put together ideas in novel and meaningful ways,
making that the correct response. A good imagination and an open mind are requirements for
creativity but do not identify creativity itself, eliminating these choices as correct responses.
Innovation, the ability to channel creativity into a useful outcome, is the result of creat ivity,
not creativity itself, so innovation is an incorrect response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 204
Objective: 7.4
128) ________ is the process of taking a creative idea and turning it into something useful.
A) Innovation
B) Imagination
C) Creativity
D) Inspiration
Answer: A
Explanation: A) It takes imagination, creativity, and often inspiration to end up with an
innovation, which is a useful outcome of some type that results from putting ideas together in
a unique and novel way. This makes innovation the correct response and eliminates all other
responses as correct answers.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 204
Objective: 7.4
129) Some people believe that creativity is ________, while others think that creativity
________.
A) quickly and easily learned; slowly learned
B) a genuine quality; does not really exist
C) inborn; can be learned
D) learned; forgotten after childhood
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The great dichotomy when it comes to creativity is whether it is inborn only
or can be learned through training, making "inborn; can be learned" the correct response. No
credible sources think that creativity does not really exist, is quickly and easily learned, or
forgotten after childhood, making these choices incorrect responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 205
Objective: 7.4
130) The first step in creativity involves ________.
A) making something useful
B) seeing things from a unique perspective
C) putting ideas together
D) consolidation
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The first step in the creative process is simply about perception, how a
person sees things, and what he or she notices. This makes "seeing things" the correct
response. Putting ideas together, consolidating ideas, or actually coming up with a product
comes later in the creative process, so all of these choices can be eliminated as correct
responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 205
Objective: 7.4
131) Which of the following steps in the creativity process may take years before the idea
finally "gels" and the next step occurs?
A) perception
B) incubation
C) inspiration
D) innovation
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The step in the creative process that involves letting ideas percolate
subconsciously in one's mind for a period of time is called incubation. Note that incubation
can take a very short or very long period of time. Perception involves active observing, not
allowing ideas to percolate, so it is incorrect. Inspiration actually resolves the incubation
period and so it comes after incubation. Innovation comes at the end of the creative process,
much later than incubation, so it is incorrect.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 205
Objective: 7.4
132) The moment when all prior efforts in the innovative process successfully come together
is known as ________.
A) perception
B) incubation
C) inspiration
D) innovation
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Amazingly, the process of having ideas come together and gel almost
always occurs over an extremely short period of time, in most cases it occurs instantaneously.
This instantaneous recognition of a synthesis of ideas into a new idea is called inspiration,
making inspiration the correct response. Note that perception and incubation come earlier in
the creative process so they are incorrect, while innovation comes after inspiration, so
innovation is also incorrect.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 205
Objective: 7.4
133) Using the systems model, managers can promote innovation by having the right
________.
A) people and inputs
B) people and environment
C) outputs and resources
D) mechanistic management structure
Answer: B
Explanation: B) To promote innovation, managers need the right people and the right
environment, making that the correct response. Outputs are the innovation that managers are
looking for, not the way to promote innovation, so that choice is incorrect. People and inputs
is incorrect because people and inputs are somewhat the same thing, leaving out environment
as a prerequisite to innovation. A mechanistic management structure is incorrect because
evidence shows that a mechanistic structure is the wrong structure for promoting innovation.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 205
Objective: 7.4
134) ________ variables are thought to promote innovation.
A) Structural, human resource, and cultural
B) Organic, cultural, and tolerant
C) Structural, ambiguous, and tolerant
D) Cultural, ambiguous, and tolerant
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The sets of variables that increase innovation are structural, cultural, and
human resource variables, making that the correct response. Structural variables include such
things as an organic structure with abundant resources. Cultural variables include an
organization's acceptance of ambiguity and risk. Human resource variables include an
organization having high job security and creative personnel. Each of the incorrect choices
fails to include all three sets of variables.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 206
Objective: 7.4
135) An innovative organization needs to tolerate ________ because creative ideas
sometimes seem foolish at first.
A) ambiguity
B) the impractical
C) conflict
D) inefficiency
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Creative people often go through a number of wild or outlandish ideas
before they hit on an idea that works. For this reason, an innovative organization should have
high tolerance for the impractical, making that the correct response. Tolerating ambiguity,
conflict, or inefficiency may produce creative conditions, but none of these choices involve
the ability of an organization to accept seemingly foolish ideas, so they are incorrect.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 206
Objective: 7.4
136) An innovative organization needs to tolerate risk because employees ________ the
creative process.
A) being in physical danger is part of
B) being in physical danger is not part of
C) making mistakes is not part of
D) making mistakes is part of
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Creativity does not involve physical danger or risk, so both of those choices
can be ruled out as correct responses. Repeated failure and mistakes are all expected as part
of the creative process, so the choice regarding making mistakes being part of the process is
the correct response.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 206
Objective: 7.4
137) Managers who want creative and innovative employees should ________.
A) not place much emphasis on goals
B) focus on means rather than ends
C) focus on ends rather than means
D) stress that there is only one path to a goal
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Managers who want to promote innovation should focus on ends rather than
means. In other words, they should place emphasis on goals, not the path that employees take
to reach those goals. The creative approach is not always a straightforward path, so managers
should give employees leeway, keeping track only of destinations and not of means of
arriving at those destinations. All of these factors together make focus on ends rather tha n
means the correct response and rule out the other responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 207
Objective: 7.4
138) ________ actively support innovation and every step of the process that leads to
innovative ideas.
A) Idea champions
B) Idea managers
C) All managers
D) Champion managers
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Managers who promote innovation are termed idea champions, making that
the correct response. Idea managers and champion managers are not recognized terms for
managers who promote innovation. "All managers" is incorrect because all managers are
clearly not innovative. Many managers are in fact indifferent to innovation or even hostile to
it.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 207
Objective: 7.4
139) All of the following are common personality characteristics of idea champions EXCEPT
________.
A) extremely high self-confidence
B) persistence
C) energy
D) risk aversion
CHAPTER 9 : Foundations of Individual Behavior
41) Which of the following best defines organizational behavior?
A) the actions of organizations in the workplace
B) the study of the workplace
C) the study of organizations
D) the study of the actions of people at work
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Organizational behavior, OB, is not merely a study of the workplace, of
organizations in isolation, or of the actions of organizations in the workplace. Instead, OB
focuses on people and their actions within the workplace while they are at work. This makes
the study of the actions of people at work the best definition of OB and the correct response.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 214
Objective: 8.1
42) Hidden aspects of an organization that OB provides insight into include ________.
A) strategies
B) attitudes
C) structure
D) objectives
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Strategies, structure, and objectives are visible, not hidden, aspects of
organizations so they are incorrect responses. Hidden responses include the attitudes that
employees carry with them on the job, making attitudes the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 214
Objective: 8.1
43) Which of the following is a visible aspect of an organization?
A) attitudes
B) interpersonal conflicts
C) intergroup conflicts
D) objectives
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The attitudes, and both interpersonal and intergroup conflicts that arise
within organizations are all hidden aspects of organizations. Objectives, on the other hand,
are explicit, non-hidden, visible aspects of an organization, making that the correct response
for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 214
Objective: 8.1
44) Organizational behavior focuses on ________.
A) individual behavior and group behavior
B) group behavior only
C) individual behavior only
D) neither group behavior nor individual behavior
Answer: A
Explanation: A) OB focuses on both individual and group behavior, making that the correct
response and eliminating the other responses. A third major area that OB is concerned with
are organizational aspects that include the structure, culture, and human resource policies and
practices of organizations.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 215
Objective: 8.1
45) Which of the following are the goals of organizational behavior?
A) to explain, understand, and control behavior
B) to control and influence behavior
C) to explain, predict, and influence behavior
D) to predict, understand, and change behavior
Answer: C
Explanation: C) OB's official goals are to explain, predict, and influence behavior, making
that the correct response. All other choices can be ruled out because they include at least one
incorrect goal.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 215
Objective: 8.1
46) When managers influence employee behavior they ________.
A) predict what employees will do
B) steer it in a particular direction
C) understand why a behavior occurs
D) try not to change a behavior
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Influencing behavior means that managers change the behavior in some
way. Predicting or understanding behavior does not change any aspect of behavior itself, so
those two choices can be ruled out as correct responses, as well as trying not to change
behavior. This leaves "steering it in a particular direction" as the correct response—when
they influence behavior managers try to steer the behavior into one particular direction that is
beneficial to the organization.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 215
Objective: 8.1
47) All of the following are included in the six behaviors that managers try to explain,
predict, and influence EXCEPT ________.
A) productivity and absenteeism
B) workplace attitudes and perceptions
C) workplace misbehavior and turnover
D) organizational citizenship behavior and job satisfaction
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Managers try to explain, predict, and influence the following six behaviors:
productivity, absenteeism, workplace misbehavior, turnover, organizational citizenship
behavior, and job satisfaction. This rules out the three incorrect responses as correct answers
since they include the identified behaviors above. Attitudes and perceptions are not among
the behaviors that managers focus on, so workplace attitudes and perceptions is the correct
response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 215
Objective: 8.1
48) This "behavior" is really an attitude.
A) job satisfaction
B) turnover
C) workplace misbehavior
D) employee productivity
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Behaviors are defined as actions that individuals take. Productivity is a
behavior because it involves working, an action, in an efficient way. Turnover, or quitting a
job, is definitely an action, so it too is a behavior. Workplace misbehavior involves troubling
actions that employees take, so it also qualifies as a behavior. Job satisfaction is actually a
feeling that employees have about their jobs, not an action that they take, so it is not really a
behavior, making job satisfaction the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 215
Objective: 8.1
49) Of the six behaviors that managers focus on, which behavior is typically the most
troubling to an organization?
A) absenteeism
B) workplace misbehavior
C) organizational citizenship behavior
D) employee productivity
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Employee productivity and organizational citizenship behavior are both
positive behaviors, so they are not troubling at all to managers. Absenteeism is troubling, but
it is not as severe a problem as workplace misbehavior, which can include violence and
abuse, making workplace misbehavior the correct response for this question.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 215-216
AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities
Objective: 8.1
50) ________ is a performance measure of both efficiency and effectiveness of employees.
A) Employee productivity
B) Organizational citizenship behavior
C) Job satisfaction
D) Turnover
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Job satisfaction, organizational citizenship behavior, and turnover are not in
any direct way related to efficiency or effectiveness, so they are incorrect responses.
Productivity, on the other hand, is a way to measure how much an employee gets done on the
job, so it is a measure of efficiency and effectiveness, making employee productivity the
correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 215
Objective: 8.1
51) The three elements that make up an attitude are its ________ components.
A) cognitive, affective, and behavioral
B) affective, effective, and defective
C) cognitive, component, and affective
D) behavioral, cognitive, and misbehavioral
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The three components are cognitive (beliefs, knowledge), affective
(emotional), and behavioral (actions), making cognitive, affective, and behavioral the correct
response. All other responses contain at least one erroneous component.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 216
Objective: 8.2
52) The component of attitude that is made up of knowledge and information is ________.
A) cognitive
B) behavioral
C) affective
D) practices
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The three components of an attitude have to do with what you think and
know (cognitive), how you feel (affective), and how you act on what you think and feel
(behavioral). As the component that is involved with thoughts and information, cognitive is
the correct response for this question. Practices can be ruled out because practices are not
thought to be a component of an attitude.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 216
Objective: 8.2
53) When you stand at attention during the playing of the national anthem you are revea ling
which component of your attitude toward your country?
A) cognitive
B) affective
C) metacognitive
D) behavioral
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Standing at attention is more than knowledge, a belief (cognition), or a
feeling (affect) about your country, it is an action or a behavior, making behavioral the
correct response. Note that metacognitive is not a component of an attitude, so that is an
incorrect response.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 216
Objective: 8.2
54) The ________ component of attitude is based on emotions.
A) cognitive
B) behavioral
C) affective
D) action
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Attitudes are thought to have three main components: cognition, affect, and
behavior. An attitude starts with the knowledge, thoughts, and beliefs that a person has on a
subject, the cognitive part of attitude. The emotional feeling that results from this knowledge,
thoughts, and beliefs is termed the affect, making affective the correct response. Both
behavioral and action can be ruled out because they refer to actions, not emotions or feelings.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 216
Objective: 8.2
55) Wendy spent several hours looking over an architect's plans and forming an impression
for a new building design. Which component of attitude did she carry out?
A) affective
B) behavioral
C) emotive
D) cognitive
Answer: D
Explanation: D) In gathering information, Wendy is clearly carrying out the cognitive
component of attitude, making cognitive the correct response. She has not formed any
feelings about the building, which rules out affective and emotive as correct responses.
Wendy has also not acted on her impressions or feelings, eliminating behavioral as a correct
response.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 216
Objective: 8.2
56) After carefully examining the architect's plans yesterday, today Wendy has decided that
she loves the new design. Which component of forming an attitude did she carry out today?
A) cognitive
B) affective
C) behavioral
D) informational
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Wendy's love of the new design is an emotional feeling or affect, making
affective the correct response. She carried out the cognitive component of attitude (gathering
information) yesterday rather than today—causing cognitive and informational to be
eliminated as a correct answer. Wendy has also not yet acted on her impressions or feelings,
eliminating behavioral as a correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 216
Objective: 8.2
57) After deciding that she likes the architect's new building design this morning, this
afternoon Wendy has decided to go ahead with the project. Which component of attitude did
she use this afternoon?
A) cognitive
B) behavioral
C) emotive
D) affective
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Wendy's decision to "green light" the project is an intention to carry out an
action or behavior, making behavioral the correct response. The behavioral component is the
final part of attitude formation, making the cognitive and affective (emotive, affective)
components of attitude incorrect responses for this question because those components had
already been completed prior to this afternoon's action.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 216
Objective: 8.2
58) In everyday parlance, the term attitude refers only to the ________ component of
attitude.
A) cognitive
B) informational
C) behavioral
D) affective
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The term attitude commonly refers to only the affective, or emotional
component of an attitude, making affective the correct response. The cognitive and
behavioral components of attitude are part of every attitude, but they are often not explicitly
referred to.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 216
Objective: 8.2
59) A manager would most likely be interested in employees' attitudes about which of the
following?
A) family responsibility
B) personal responsibility
C) job satisfaction
D) past jobs
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Managers are most interested in attitudes that affect the performance of
employees on the job. Family or personal responsibility may be important to a person, but
they are unlikely to affect job performance as much as job satisfaction. Similarly, attitudes
toward past jobs may affect employee performance to a small degree, but not nearly to the
degree that job satisfaction affects the employee in his or her current position, making job
satisfaction the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 216
Objective: 8.2
60) The degree to which an employee identifies with his or her job or actively participates in
it refers to the employee's ________.
A) job involvement
B) organizational commitment
C) global commitment
D) job satisfaction
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Job involvement doesn't measure an employee's commitment to a
corporation or an organization, but rather, it reflects the employee's identification and
"ownership" of a particular job, making job involvement the correct response. Job satisfaction
measures how happy or unhappy an employee is with a job, not how much the person
identifies with the job, making job satisfaction an incorrect response.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 216
Objective: 8.2
61) An employee who brags about her company to friends and recommends all company
products as gifts is likely to have high ________.
A) job involvement
B) organizational commitment
C) personal commitment
D) organizational citizenship
Answer: B
Explanation: B) This employee's actions show pride in, and identification with the
organization itself, not the job that she has. Organizational citizenship and job involvement
would both be oriented more toward the job itself than the organization, so the correct answer
here is organizational commitment. Personal commitment is not correct because it refers to a
personal, not an organizational commitment.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 216
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 8.2
62) With respect to employee engagement in a job, this seems to be the most important factor
to employees around the world.
A) base pay
B) respect
C) benefits
D) type of work
Answer: B
Explanation: B) While base pay, benefits, and type of work are all important to varying
degrees to workers, studies show respect is the number one factor in determining employee
engagement in a job. Workers who are shown respect show the most engagement in their
jobs.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 217
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 8.2
63) The country that seems to value respect more than any other country is ________.
A) the United States
B) the United Kingdom
C) China
D) France
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Though workers in the United States, China, and France all think respect is
important, the country that gives respect its highest value in employee engagement studies is
the United Kingdom.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 217
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 8.2
64) In this country, the type of work one does is valued above all other factors with respect to
employee engagement.
A) China
B) India
C) Japan
D) France
Answer: D
Explanation: D) India, Japan, and especially China all gave "type of work" relatively low
scores when compared to other factors such as "respect" in studies that measured factors that
were important for employee engagement. In France, however, the type of work one does
ranks number one in importance with respect to employee engagement.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 217
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 8.2
65) Cognitive dissonance theory states that a person feels ________ when his attitudes and
actions don't match.
A) comfortable
B) uncomfortable
C) confused
D) confident
Answer: B
Explanation: B) A clash between attitudes and actions is likely to make a person feel like a
hypocrite—that is, he is not living up to who he says he is. Seeing o neself as hypocritical
would tend to make a person feel uncomfortable rather than confused. Feeling comfortable or
confident would probably be somewhat the opposite of the way the person who was feeling
dissonance would actually feel, which rules out those two choices as correct responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 218
Objective: 8.2
66) The cognitive dissonance theory proposes that the factors that can mitigate the discomfort
caused by dissonance are ________.
A) importance, influence, and rewards
B) influence, rewards, and goals
C) importance, goals, and status
D) influence, reinforcement, and rewards
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The three determining factors for controlling discomfort from cognitive
dissonance are importance, influence, and rewards. The other three choices can all be
eliminated because they all include at least one incorrect determining factor.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 218
Objective: 8.2
67) A person who is being hypocritical about something that has high importance in her life
would be likely to experience ________ discomfort from cognitive dissonance.
A) low
B) no
C) high
D) minimal
Answer: C
Explanation: C) All other things being equal, if a person is being hypocritical about
something that is very meaningful to her, she will experience high discomfort from cognitive
dissonance, making that the correct response. This discomfort can be tempered if the
dissonance is shown to be caused by something that she cannot control (low influence) or she
receives some kind of large compensation for her effort (high reward).
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 218
AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities
Objective: 8.2
68) A person who is experiencing cognitive dissonance might have his discomfort from the
dissonance reduced if he has ________ control over his actions.
A) some
B) total
C) almost total
D) little or no
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Having some, total, or almost total control over one's actions increases,
rather than decreases, discomfort from dissonance. The more you feel that you are
responsible for your actions (the more control you have), the more discomfort you are likely
to experience. This eliminates "some," "total," and "almost total" as correct responses and
makes "little or no" the right answer. Having little or no control over your actions makes you
feel less uncomfortable about the actions themselves.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 218-219
AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities
Objective: 8.2
69) Taking a job in a repressive country that you disapprove of politically might cause
discomfort from dissonance unless ________.
A) the job suits you well
B) the job offers enormous pay
C) the job offers little pay
D) the job does not suit you well
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Discomfort from dissonance can be mitiga ted by a high reward. This makes
the job offering enormous pay the correct response since it offers high pay and eliminates the
choice regarding little pay because it's a low reward. How well the job suits you would not be
likely to be a strong enough reward to mitigate any discomfort you might feel from taking the
job, so "the job suiting you well" or "the job not suiting you well" are incorrect.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 218-219
AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities
Objective: 8.2
70) After the disappointment of not getting a new position, an employee states, "That job
looks like a real headache, anyway." This is an example of ________ to reduce discomfort
from dissonance.
A) reducing importance
B) increasing importance
C) reducing influence
D) increasing influence
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The statement is a rationalization that attempts to minimize the importance
of the new position, making reducing importance the correct response and ruling out
increasing importance. The statement has no connection to reducing or increasing influence,
since influence involves control over the decision and the employee's statement did not
reduce or increase his control over the decision.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 218-219
AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities
Objective: 8.2
71) Which of the following are typically the most important reasons for why managers want
to increase positive job attitudes?
A) lower rates of turnover and absenteeism
B) higher rates of turnover and absenteeism
C) to decrease worker unhappiness
D) to increase worker happiness
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Ultimately, productivity is the manager's goal and can typically be achieved
only with less turnover and absenteeism, making lower rates of turnover and absenteeism the
correct response and eliminating higher rates. Whether or not workers are happy might be
important to a manager, but not nearly as important as productivity, so decreasing or
increasing worker happiness are ruled out as possible correct answers.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 219
Objective: 8.2
72) Studies show that the statement, "Happy workers are productive workers" is ________
A) completely false
B) completely true
C) fairly true
D) largely false
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The evidence shows a fairly strong correlation between job satisfaction and
productivity, indicating that "fairly true" is the correct response here and eliminating the other
choices. The correct answer is only "fairly true" rather than "completely true" because the
correlational evidence, though strong, still cannot completely distinguish whether job
satisfaction creates high productivity or vice versa—that the sense of accomplishment that
people get from high productivity creates job satisfaction.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 219
Objective: 8.2
73) To reduce dissonance in the workplace, managers are advised to hold ________
responsible for the causes of the dissonance.
A) employees
B) both employees and management
C) fellow workers
D) external forces
Answer: D
Explanation: D) To reduce dissonance, managers are advised to shift responsibility for the
dissonance-producing actions of employees from themselves to outside sources. These
sources might include management, competitors, customers, or some other external force.
These facts make external forces the correct response and eliminate the other three choices as
possible correct responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 219
Objective: 8.2
74) Rather than try to make employees happy, managers might do well to focus on making
work ________.
A) easy to accomplish
B) challenging and interesting
C) challenging and difficult
D) simple rather than complex
Answer: B
Explanation: B) One of the keys to high productivity is that employees find their work
interesting and challenging, making that the correct response. Work that is too easy, too hard,
or overly simple has not been shown to be conducive to high worker productivity so these
choices can be ruled out.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 219
Objective: 8.2
75) ________ is the unique combination of psychological traits that describe a person.
A) Character
B) Intelligence
C) Behavior
D) Personality
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Personality is defined as the combination of emotional patterns, thought
patterns, and behavioral patterns that make a person unique and sp ecial. None of the other
choices fits this definition, so character, intelligence, and behavior are all incorrect responses.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 220
Objective: 8.3
76) The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator® (MBTI®) is based on ________ that are revealed in a
100-item questionnaire.
A) two dichotomies
B) four dichotomies
C) four personality types
D) eight personality types
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator® is based on four separate dichotomies
that determine whether a person is: extroverted or introverted, sensing or intuitive, thinking
or feeling, or judging or perceiving. This makes four dichotomies the correct response and
eliminates two dichotomies. Four and eight personality types are incorrect because the
Myers-Briggs Type Indicator® reveals sixteen personality types, not four or eight.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 220
Objective: 8.3
77) The extroversion versus introversion scale on the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator®
determines whether a person is oriented ________.
A) outwardly or inwardly
B) toward gathering data or the big picture
C) logically or emotionally
D) toward planning or flexibility
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The extroversion-introversion scale of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator®
focuses primarily on whether a person is oriented in an outward or inward direction, making
that the correct response. Gathering data describes the sensing- intuition scale, so it is an
incorrect response. Logically or emotionally describes the thinking- feeling scale, so it is an
incorrect response. Planning or flexibility describes the judging-perceiving scale, so it is an
incorrect response.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 220
Objective: 8.3
78) The judging versus perceiving scale on the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator® determines
whether a person is oriented ________.
A) outwardly or inwardly
B) toward gathering data or the big picture
C) toward planning or flexibility
D) logically or emotionally
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The judging-perceiving scale of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator® focuses
primarily on whether a person is oriented toward planning or flexibility in dealing with
important issues, making that the correct response. Gathering data describes the sensingintuition scale, so it is an incorrect response. Logically or emotionally describes the thinkingfeeling scale, so it is an incorrect response. Outwardly or inwardly describes the introversionextroversion scale, so it is an incorrect response.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 220
Objective: 8.3
79) The thinking versus feeling scale on the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator® determines
whether a person is oriented ________.
A) logically or emotionally
B) toward gathering data or the big picture
C) outwardly or inwardly
D) toward planning or flexibility
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The thinking- feeling scale of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator® focuses
primarily on whether a person is oriented in a logical or an emotional way, making that the
correct response. Gathering data describes the sensing- intuition scale, so it is an incorrect
response. Outwardly or inwardly describes the extroversion- introversion scale, so it is an
incorrect response. Planning or flexibility describes the judging-perceiving scale, so it is an
incorrect response.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 220
Objective: 8.3
80) The sensing versus intuition scale on the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator® determines
whether a person is oriented ________.
A) outwardly or inwardly
B) toward gathering data or the big picture
C) logically or emotionally
D) toward planning or flexibility
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The sensing- intuition scale of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator® focuses
primarily on whether a person is oriented toward gathering data to form an impression, or
looking at a wider, more big-picture view, making gathering data the correct response.
Outwardly or inwardly describes the extroversion- introversion scale, so it is an incorrect
response. Logically or emotionally describes the thinking- feeling scale, so it is an incorrect
response. Planning or flexibility describes the judging-perceiving scale, so it is an incorrect
response.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 220
Objective: 8.3
81) If you are a person who dislikes making plans, you would probably score high on which
aspect of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator®?
A) more extrovert than introvert
B) more introvert than extrovert
C) more judging than perceiving
D) more perceiving than judging
Answer: D
Explanation: D) More extrovert or more introvert can be ruled out because the EI scale
measures whether you are outwardly or inwardly oriented, neither of which deals with
making plans. A judging person tends to be a plan- maker, while a perceiving person tends to
be spontaneous and flexible and might dislike the sense of confinement that plans engender.
This makes more perceiving than judging the correct response and rules out more judging
than perceiving as a correct answer.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 220
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Objective: 8.3
82) If you are a person who prefers to focus on the big picture when you make a decision,
you would probably score high on which aspect of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator®?
A) sensing more than intuition
B) intuition more than sensing
C) thinking more than feeling
D) feeling more than thinking
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Thinking more than feeling and feeling more than thinking can be ruled out
because the TF scale measures whether you are logical or emotional, both of which could
include a "big picture" orientation. An intuitive person tends to want to look at the big picture
as opposed to gathering facts and details, making intuition more than sensing the correct
response and ruling out sensing more than intuition as a correct answer.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 220
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Objective: 8.3
83) The Big Five model of personality includes all of the following exceot ________.
A) extroversion
B) agreeableness
C) conscientiousness
D) intuitiveness
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The Big Five model of personality includes extroversion, agreeableness,
conscientiousness, emotional stability, and openness to experience. This makes intuitiveness
the correct response, because intuitiveness is the only personality dimension that is not part of
the Big Five.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 221-222
Objective: 8.3
84) Job studies show that this Big Five personality dimension was cons istently important for
success no matter what the job type.
A) extraversion
B) conscientiousness
C) openness to experience
D) emotional stability
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Though extraversion was shown to correlate to success in sales positions,
and openness to experience successfully predicted training success, the only dimension that
seemed to predict success for all job types was conscientiousness, making conscientiousness
the correct response. Note that emotional stability actually predicted lack of s uccess in job
performance, so it cannot be the correct response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 221-222
Objective: 8.3
85) Surprisingly, studies show that emotional security is ________.
A) positively related to job performance
B) not positively related to happiness
C) positively related to job type
D) not positively related to job performance
Answer: D
Explanation: D) One might think that the more emotionally secure a person is, the more she
would feel confident and comfortable in her job, the better she would perform in her job. In
fact, this is not the case—emotional security does not correlate positively with job
performance, making "not positively related to job performance" the correct response and
eliminating "positively related to job performance" as the correct response. Emotional
security is likely to relate positively to happiness, ruling out "not positively related to
happiness" as a correct response. "Positively related to job type" is incorrect because there is
no evidence that supports a correlation between emotional security and job type.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 222
Objective: 8.3
86) Emotional intelligence includes all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) cognitive skills
B) self- awareness
C) self- management
D) social skills
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The five dimensions of emotional intelligence are self- awareness, selfmanagement, social skills, self- motivation, and empathy. That makes cognitive skills the only
item not identified as an emotional intelligence dimension, so it is the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 222
Objective: 8.3
87) This dimension of emotional intelligence allows people to sense and understand how
others are feeling.
A) self-awareness
B) self- management
C) empathy
D) social skills
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The ability to sense how others are feeling is called empathy, making that
the correct response. Understanding one's own feelings is termed self-awareness. Controlling
one's own feelings is called self- management. Social skills are the tools that are necessary to
deal with the emotions of others.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 222
Objective: 8.3
88) A person who takes full responsibility in both his successes and failures is likely to be
high in this emotional intelligence dimension.
A) self-awareness
B) self- management
C) empathy
D) self- motivation
Answer: D
Explanation: D) A person who can take responsibility for his own actions, whether they are
successful or not, is high in self- motivation, making self- motivation the correct response for
this question. Incorrect answers include empathy (the ability to sense how others are feeling),
self-awareness (understanding one's own feelings), and self- management (controlling one's
own feelings).
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 222
Objective: 8.3
89) The Bell Labs and Air Force studies have shown that emotional intelligence is ________
job performance.
A) not important to
B) almost as important as as academic intellect in
C) equally important as academic intellect in
D) more important than academic intellect in
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The surprising results from the two studies showed that EI was more
important to job success than academic ability, making that the correct response and ruling
out other responses. Note that in the Bell Labs study the people be ing compared all had very
high academic abilities to begin with, so the results do not seem to advocate looking
exclusively at EI scores for success.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 222
Objective: 8.3
90) If you believe that you control your own destiny, then your personality would be
described as having a(n) ________.
A) external locus of control
B) high Mach score
C) low Mach score
D) internal locus of control
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Locus of control reflects how much responsibility a person takes for his or
her own actions. People with an external locus of control tend to attribute outside forces for
their failures and successes, while those with an internal locus of control tend to take the
responsibility themselves. This makes internal locus of control the correct response and rules
out external locus of control. Mach scores have more to do with how people deal with power
than taking responsibility for their own actions, so both of those choices are incorrect
responses.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 223
Objective: 8.3
91) A tennis player who blames a loss on windy conditions would be likely to have
________.
A) an external locus of control
B) an internal locus of control
C) no locus of control
D) high self-esteem
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Locus of control reflects how much responsibility a person takes for his or
her own actions. People with an external locus of control tend to attribute outside forces for
their failures and successes, while those with an internal locus of control tend to take the
responsibility themselves. Since the tennis player is blaming the wind, an outside force, for
his failure, it makes him likely to have an external locus of control, making that the correct
response and ruling out internal and no locus of control. Self- esteem would have little to do
with taking responsibility for one's actions, so that choice is incorrect here.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 223
Objective: 8.3
92) A person who believes that "the ends justify the means" would be likely to have a high
level of which personality trait?
A) empathy
B) Machiavellianism
C) self-awareness
D) social skills
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Self-awareness and social skills bear little relevance to ends justifying
means, so those choices can be ruled out. Empathy, or sensing the feelings of others might
prevent a person from fully taking advantage of an "ends justify means" point of view, so that
choice can be ruled out. The person that does live by the "ends justify means" credo is the
high Mach individual who tends to think only of goals and not the methods he uses to achieve
those goals. This makes Machiavellianism the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 223
Objective: 8.3
93) This kind of individual might be most likely to have legal problems.
A) low Mach
B) high Mach
C) low self- esteem
D) risk-averse
Answer: B
Explanation: B) High Mach individuals tend to subscribe to an "ends justify means"
philosophy, often causing them to justify cutting ethical and legal corners when pursuing
their goals. Such ethical lapses could result in a high Mach person having legal difficulties,
making that the correct response and ruling out low Mach. Risk-averse individuals would be
least likely to commit actions that might result in legal problems, ruling out that choice as a
correct answer. Low self-esteem individuals would have no more likelihood of getting in
legal trouble than any other category or group, so low self-esteem can be ruled out.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 223
Objective: 8.3
94) High self-esteem individuals tend to ________.
A) make excuses for themselves
B) avoid making excuses for themselves
C) take risks
D) avoid risks
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Making excuses has little connection to whether or not a person has high
self-esteem, so both choices regarding excuses can be ruled out as correct responses for this
question. High self-esteem individuals often think that they can do anything, so they tend to
be risk-takers, making taking risks the correct response and eliminating avoiding risks as a
correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 223
Objective: 8.3
95) ________ individuals tend to be dependent on positive evaluation from others.
A) High self-esteem
B) High Mach
C) Low self-esteem
D) Internal locus of control
Answer: C
Explanation: C) High self-esteem, internal locus of control, and high Mach individuals
would tend to be immune or indifferent to external praise, making all of these choices
incorrect answers for this question. Low self-esteem individuals, on the other hand, would
look for praise from others and tend to be dependent on it, making low self-esteem the correct
response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 223
Objective: 8.3
96) A high self- monitoring individual would tend to ________.
A) have no skill in playing different roles
B) have no skill in hiding her feelings
C) be good at playing different roles
D) have no experience in hiding her feelings
Answer: C
Explanation: C) A person who is high in self- monitoring would be good at assuming
different roles and postures in different situations, making being good at playing different
roles the correct response and eliminating having no skill in playing different roles. A high
self- monitoring person would be practiced and skilled in hiding feelings, which would
eliminate having no skill or experience in hiding her feelings as correct responses for this
question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 223
Objective: 8.3
97) A low self- monitoring individual would tend NOT to pursue a career as ________.
A) an actor
B) a scientist
C) an accountant
D) an engineer
Answer: A
Explanation: A) A person who is low in self- monitoring would not be good at assuming
different roles in different situations, making acting a very poor career choice, and therefore
the correct answer for this question. Scientists, accountants, and engineers do not need to
have the same degree of role-playing skills as an actor, so those choices can be eliminated as
correct responses for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 223
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 8.3
98) A manager who takes very little time to make a decision probably has the trait of
________.
A) high self-esteem
B) external locus of control
C) low self- monitoring
D) high risk-taking
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Risk takers are individuals who trust their intuition about a situation and
tend to make quick decisions, making high risk-taking the correct response and eliminating
the other choices. Locus of control, self-esteem, and self- monitoring have little relationship to
speed in decision making, so those choices can be ruled out.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 224
Objective: 8.3
99) A NASCAR race car driver would be a good occupational match for which personality
type?
A) risk averse
B) risk taker
C) low Mach
D) low self-esteem
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Driving requires quick decisions and the ability to deal with risk, so a risk
taker is the best match for a race car driver; it would also eliminate risk averse as a correct
response. Low Mach and low self-esteem individuals would tend to lack the self-confidence
to be high-risk traders, so those choices can be ruled out as correct responses for this
question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 224
Objective: 8.3
100) John Holland's theory assumes all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) different types of jobs are suited to different personalities
B) people in jobs that suit their personality are likely to be more satisfied
C) there are intrinsic personality differences in people
D) people in jobs that suit their personality make more money
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Holland's assumptions in order are: People have intrinsic personality
differences. Different jobs are suited to different personalities. People in jobs that suit their
personality will be more satisfied. Only the choice regarding people making more money is
not one of these assumptions, so it is the correct respo nse. It is doubtful that this statement is
even true, as there is no credible evidence that having a job that suits your personality is
likely to pay more money.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 224
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Objective: 8.3
101) A person who rates high on Holland's social scale would probably find a good match
with which of the following jobs?
A) farmer
B) painter
C) teacher
D) mathematician
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The occupations of farmer, painter, and mathematician are all fairly isolated
trades that would have little or no propensity to help others or deal with large groups of
people, so those three choices can be ruled out as correct responses for this question. A
teacher, on the other hand, is a highly social position that also involves helping others, so it is
a good match for a person who rates highly on Holland's social scale. This makes "teacher"
the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 224
Objective: 8.3
102) A person rating high on the investigative personality type would have the best job match
for which job?
A) nurse
B) mechanic
C) reporter
D) counselor
Answer: C
Explanation: C) An investigative personality type would want to have the chance to dig into
situations to uncover truth and understanding. The best fit for this personality type would be a
reporter who could use her investigative skills to carry out research and uncover the truth
about a situation. A nurse, mechanic, or counselor does not typically conduct research so a
reporter would be a better job match for this person than any of these jobs.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 224
Objective: 8.3
103) According to Holland's social scale, becoming a lawyer would be a good job match for
someone with this personality type.
A) realistic
B) investigative
C) conventional
D) enterprising
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The enterprising personality type includes three characteristics that seem to
match that of a lawyer: lawyers are verbal; lawyers influence others; lawyers attain power.
Therefore enterprising seems to be a good match for a lawyer. Realistic, investigative, and
conventional personality types do not share any one of the three characteristics listed above,
so none of these choices is a good match for a lawyer.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 224
Objective: 8.3
104) Which of the following pairs would be a good match in Holland's scheme?
A) realistic: psychologist
B) investigative: golf pro
C) social: coach
D) artistic: chemist
Answer: C
Explanation: C) A realistic person who prefers physical activities would not be well- suited as
a psychologist who works with words, so that choice is not a good match. An investigative
person who prefers thinking chores would not be well- suited as a golfer who works with her
physical skills, so that choice is not a good match. An artistic perso n who prefers creative
activities would not be well-suited as a chemist who works with great discipline and control,
so that choice is not a good match. What does make a good match is a coach, who needs to
work with people to get them to do their best, making "social: coach" the correct response
here.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 224
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 8.3
105) Chinese workers tend to value ________ than Americans.
A) hard work more
B) conscientiousness less
C) agreeableness less
D) agreeableness more
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Both Chinese and American cultures value hard work, so that statement is
not true. Studies show that Chinese value conscientiousness more than Americans and
agreeableness less. This eliminates those choices as correct responses. The only valid
response listed is that Chinese tend to value agreeableness less than Americans.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 217, 225
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 8.3
106) North Americans seem to be much more likely to have ________ than people from
Middle Eastern countries.
A) an internal locus of control
B) an external locus of control
C) no locus of control
D) a variable locus of control
Answer: A
Explanation: A) North Americans seem much more likely to have the belief that they can
control their own lives, giving them an internal locus of control. An external locus of control
is common in Middle Eastern countries, giving people the impression that they have little
control over their lives. The remaining two choices can be ruled out because all people are
assumed to have some kind of stable locus of control and it makes little sense for locus of
control to be variable.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 225
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 8.3
107) Managers in Germany and the United States would probably agree that the most
important factor for job performance is ________.
A) agreeableness
B) conscientiousness
C) social skills
D) emotional stability
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Though agreeableness, emotional stability, and social skills may contribute
to job performance, by far the most common characteristic for success on the job according to
both European and American managers is conscientiousness, making that the correct
response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 225
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 8.3
108) ________ is the process of organizing and interpreting sensory impressions to give
meaning to the environment.
A) Attribution
B) Selection
C) Learning
D) Perception
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Perception is a process of observing, integrating, and interpreting, making
that the correct response and eliminating the other responses. Perceptions are usually
associated with visual items, but people can perceive using their sense of hearing, for
example, when they listen to music. Perception is the process of using sensory information to
form an impression about the world around you.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 226
Objective: 8.4
109) Different people typically have ________.
A) the same perception of a single situation
B) the same perception of different situations
C) different perceptions of the same situation
D) an undistorted perception of a situation
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Everyone's perception is distorted to a degree, so an undistorted perception
is not a correct answer. In most cases, different people get different perceptions of the same
situation, making that the correct response and ruling out "the same perception of a single
situation" as a correct response. Since it is common for different people to get different
perceptions of a single situation, it stands to reason that people almost always get a unique
perception of different situations, so "the same perception of different situations" is not true.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 226
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 8.4
110) Which three factors act to shape and sometimes distort perception?
A) the perceiver, target, context
B) attitudes, past experiences, expectations
C) temperature, time, location
D) past experiences, context, location
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The factors that shape perception are who the perceiver is, what is being
perceived (the target), and the situation in which the target is being perceived (the context)
making that the correct response. "Temperature, time, location" is incorrect because it
includes context factors only, not target or perceiver factors. Similarly, "attitudes, past
experiences, expectations" is incorrect because it includes factors that involve the perceiver
only, not the target or the context. "Past experiences, context, location" is incorrect for similar
reasons, because it does not include all three types of factors—perceiver, target, and context.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 226
Objective: 8.4
111) Factors that can influence the perceiver of a situation include ________.
A) temperature, time, location
B) attitudes, past experiences, expectations
C) size, shape, color
D) lighting, place, date
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The choices indicating temperature and lighting both identify factors that
influence the context of an event or object that is observed, not the perceiver of the event.
Factors such as lighting influence the situation that surrounds what is being observed.
Similarly, size, shape, and color identify factors that influence the target, not the perceiver of
the situation, so that choice is incorrect. Factors that can a nd do affect the perceiver of a
situation are such things as attitudes, past experiences, and the expectations of the person who
is observing, making that choice the correct response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 226
Objective: 8.4
112) Which situation would be an example of the target influencing a perception?
A) viewing a dog through binoculars
B) viewing a dog when you are exhausted
C) a dog barking
D) near dark conditions
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Viewing through binoculars or when the viewer is tired are both examples
of the perceiver, not the target, influencing perception. Viewing in near dark conditions is an
example of context influencing perception. The only choice in which the target itself
influences perception is a dog barking in which the dog calls attention to itself by barking.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 226
Objective: 8.4
113) Attribution theory is primarily concerned with explaining ________.
A) the behavior of groups
B) one's own perceptions
C) the behavior of others
D) the perceptions of others
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Attribution theory is useful primarily for explaining the behavior of other
individuals, making the behavior of others the correct response and eliminating the behavior
of groups as the correct response. In attribution theory, observers try to characterize the
behavior of others as predominantly caused by internal or external factors. Attribution theory
uses perceptions, but it is not involved in explaining perceptions, making both one's own
perceptions and the perceptions of others incorrect responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 227
Objective: 8.4
114) In attribution theory, ________ behavior is largely beyond an individual's control.
A) externally caused
B) internally caused
C) consistent
D) inconsistent
Answer: A
Explanation: A) In attribution theory, internally caused behavior can be attributed to a
person's own character traits, while externally caused behavior is caused by outside forces
that the individual has no control over. This makes "externally caused" the correct response
and eliminates "internally caused" since internally caused behavior can be controlled by the
individual. Whether or not behavior is consistent or inconsistent does not affect how it is
controlled, so both of these choices are incorrect responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 227
Objective: 8.4
115) In attribution theory, if everyone who is faced with a similar situation responds in the
same way, we can say the behavior shows ________.
A) consensus
B) high distinctiveness
C) low distinctiveness
D) medium distinctiveness
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Consensus in attribution theory compares a single person's behavior to
others. If others faced with a similar situation respond to the situation in a way that is similar
to the particular person being evaluated, then the behavior exhibited is said to show
consensus. This is clearly the case for this question, making consensus the correct response.
Distinctiveness assesses behavior for a particular person in different situations, rather than
different people in similar situations, making the three choices regarding distinctiveness all
incorrect.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 227
Objective: 8.4
116) In attribution theory, if a person is conscientious in five separate tasks, but in the sixth
task fails to be conscientious, this task is said to have ________.
A) low distinctiveness
B) high distinctiveness
C) high consensus
D) low consensus
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The person was generally conscientious, so the fact that she failed to be
conscientious in one instance suggests that the incident was highly unusual for this person, or
had high distinctiveness. This makes high distinctiveness the correct response and eliminates
low distinctiveness as the correct response. Consensus is a measure of how s imilar the
person's behavior is to the behavior of others—something that is not being measured here—
so high and low consensus are both incorrect.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 227
Objective: 8.4
117) In attribution theory, the behavior of an individual who shows low distinctiveness and
low consensus is likely to be attributed as ________.
A) internally caused
B) externally caused
C) beyond his control
D) not his fault
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Low distinctiveness and low consensus are both signs that this is a pattern of
behavior that is particular to this person, so it is internally, not externally caused, making
internally caused the correct response. The other three choices can all be ruled out because all
three choices identify external causes of behavior.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 227-228
Objective: 8.4
118) In attribution theory, the behavior of an individual who shows high distinctiveness and
low consistency is likely to be attributed as ________.
A) under her control
B) her responsibility
C) internally caused
D) externally caused
Answer: D
Explanation: D) High distinctiveness and low consistency are indications that this behavior
is particular to this person for this particular task, not generalized, and likely to be caused by
some external factor. She is not likely to show the same type of behavior for a different task,
so the behavior must be externally, not internally caused, making "externally caused" the
correct response. The other three choices can be ruled out because they all identify internal,
rather than external, causes of behavior.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 227-228
Objective: 8.4
119) If a person who is always late for work is late once again and blames it on a traffic jam,
coworkers would probably attribute that person's lateness to ________.
A) traffic
B) an external source
C) an internal source
D) his car
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Habitual lateness for a repeated behavior shows high consistency and low
distinctiveness for this kind of situation, so the behavior is likely to be internally caused,
making an internal source the correct response. The other three choices all identify external
causes of being late, so they are incorrect responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 227-228
Objective: 8.4
120) Which pairing is correct?
A) high distinctiveness ⇒ internal cause of behavior
B) low distinctiveness ⇒ external cause of behavior
C) high consensus ⇒ external cause of behavior
D) low consistency ⇒ internal cause of behavior
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The only choice that correlates to actual behavior is the one indicating that
when consensus is high it means that other individuals respond to a similar situation in the
same way, indicating that the source of the behavior is external and beyond the person's
control. All other pairs are incorrect.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 227-228
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 8.4
121) Which pairing is NOT correct?
A) low consistency ⇒ external cause of behavior
B) low distinctiveness ⇒ external cause of behavior
C) high consensus ⇒ external cause of behavior
D) low consensus ⇒ internal cause of behavior
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The only choice that does not correlate to actual behavior is the one that
indicates that when distinctiveness is low it means that this is not a unique situation for the
individual, he or she often responds in a similar way, indicating that the source of the
behavior would be thought of as internal, not external. All other pairs are all valid
correlations so they are incorrect responses for this question.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 227-228
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 8.4
122) The fundamental attribution error causes people to tend to attribute ________.
A) successes of others to external factors
B) failures of others to external factors
C) their own successes to external factors
D) their own failures to internal factors
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The fundamental attribution error causes people to attribute success in
others to external factors, such as luck, and failure of others to internal factors, such as
laziness. The only choice that reflects one of these two situations is the one indicating
successes of others being attributed to external factors, the correct response. The choice
regarding attribution of failures of others to external factors is not correct because the
fundamental attribution error causes people to attribute others' failures to internal, not
external causes. The remaining two choices refer to the self-serving bias, not the fundamental
attribution error.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 227
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Objective: 8.4
123) The self-serving bias causes people to tend to attribute ________.
A) successes of others to external factors
B) failures of other to external factors
C) their own successes to internal factors
D) their own failures to internal factors
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The self-serving bias causes people to attribute their own success to internal
factors, such as hard work, and their own failure to external factors, such as bad luck. The
only choice that reflects one of these two situations is the choice indicating attribution of their
own successes to internal factors, the correct response. The choice indicating attribution of
their own failures to internal factors is not correct because the self-serving bias causes people
to attribute their failures to external, not internal causes. The remaining two choices refer to
the fundamental attribution error, not the self-serving bias.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 227
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Objective: 8.4
124) When people judge someone on the basis of the perception of a group they are a part of,
they are using the shortcut called ________.
A) stereotyping
B) selectivity
C) assumed similarity
D) the halo effect
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Stereotyping is judging others on the basis of their group, not on their
individual merits, making it the correct response. Selectivity is incorrect because it refers to
"speed reading" to make judgments about an individual, not judging an individual by his or
her group. Assumed similarity is incorrect because it is making assumptions that others share
your own traits, not judging an individual by his or her group. The halo effect is incorrect
because it is judging a person by a single trait, not judging an individual by his or her group.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 229
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Objective: 8.4
125) By using ________, we form an impression about a person based on a single
characteristic, such as intelligence or appearance.
A) stereotyping
B) selectivity
C) the halo effect
D) assumed similarity
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The halo effect is judging others on the basis of a single trait, making it the
correct response. Selectivity is incorrect because it is "speed reading," not judging an
individual by virtue of a single trait. Assumed similarity is incorrect because it is making
assumptions that others share your own traits, not judging an individual by a single trait.
Stereotyping is incorrect because it is judging a person by his or her group, not by a single
trait.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 229
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Objective: 8.4
126) Any relatively permanent change in behavior that occurs as a result of experience is
known as ________.
A) reflex
B) learning
C) instinctual behavior
D) intrinsic behavior
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The critical element that distinguishes learning from other behaviors is that
it is a result of experience, not a behavior that is innate or genetically programmed. This
makes learning the correct response. The other three choices all identify behavior that is
inborn, rather than occurring as a result of experience, so those choices are incorrect.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 229
Objective: 8.5
127) Operant conditioning is any behavior that occurs as a result of ________.
A) coincidence
B) an innate behavior program
C) reinforcement from reward or punishment
D) reinforcement from reward only
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Operant conditioning is any behavior that has been instilled as a result of
reinforcement from either a reward or a punishment, making it the correct response and
eliminating reinforcement from reward only because it does not mention punishment.
Operant conditioning is definitely based on experience, which rules out innate behavior, and
not a result of coincidence, since reinforcements typically need to be repeated, ruling out
coincidence.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 230
Objective: 8.5
128) Social learning theory involves learning through ________.
A) instinct
B) systematic study of books and manuals
C) logical inference
D) observing models
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Instinct, studying, and using logic have little or nothing to do with social
learning, which is the process by which people learn by observing others who serve as
models. An example of social learning is a golfer who learns to swing by observing
professional golfers on television. The correct answer for this question is observing models.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 231
Objective: 8.5
129) The amount of influence a model has begins with the ________ process of becoming
aware of the model.
A) attentional
B) retentional
C) motor reproduction
D) reinforcement
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Becoming aware of a model depends on attentional processes being
activated, making attentional the correct response. Retention processes involve memory
rather than attention, while motor reproduction processes involve copying behaviors, and
reinforcement processes involve incentives being attached to behaviors.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 231
Objective: 8.5
130) When a young basketball player copies the free throw style of an NBA player, he is
using his ________.
A) retention processes
B) motor reproduction processes
C) attentional processes
D) reinforcement processes
Answer: B
Explanation: B) A young player physically mimicking a model is using his motor
reproduction processes, making this the correct response. Retention processes involve
memory rather than motor skills, while attentional processes involve observing and paying
attention to the model. Finally, reinforcement processes involve incentives being attached to
behaviors rather than the use of motor skills.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 231
Objective: 8.5
131) Which of the following is NOT thought to be a tool that managers can use to shape
behavior?
A) positive reinforcement
B) negative reinforcement
C) punishment
D) attentional processes
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, and punishment are
recognized ways to shape and influence behavior. Positive reinforcement provides rewards.
Negative reinforcement removes an unpleasant stimulus. Punishment applies an unpleasant
stimulus to an unwanted behavior. Attentional processes are features by which observers
notice and pay attention to models, not ways to to shape behavior so it is the correct response
for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 231
Objective: 8.5
132) When a manager gives an employee a bonus for a job well done, which behaviorshaping method is the manager using?
A) positive reinforcement
B) negative reinforcement
C) punishment
D) extinction
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The manager is giving the employee a reward, or distributing positive
reinforcement. Negative reinforcement would require the removal of an unpleasant stimulus,
something that the manager is not doing here. Punishment would require the manager to
apply an unpleasant stimulus as a result of an unwanted behavior, the opposite of what is
being done here. Extinction would involve the removal of a positive or a negative
reinforcement to get rid of the behavior, which the manager is not doing here.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 231
Objective: 8.5
133) When a football coach makes the team run laps because it can't get a play right, he is
using which behavior-shaping method?
A) positive reinforcement
B) negative reinforcement
C) punishment
D) extinction
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The coach is penalizing the team for an unwanted behavior, or distributing
punishment, making punishment the correct response. Negative reinforcement would require
the removal of an unpleasant stimulus, while the coach here is instead applying that
unpleasant stimulus. Positive reinforcement would require the coach to reward a behavior, the
opposite of what is being done here. Extinction would involve the removal of a positive or a
negative reinforcement to get rid of the behavior, but the coach here is applying a negative
stimulus, not removing it.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 231
Objective: 8.5
134) When a football coach cancels a grueling "meat-grinder drill" because the team is
performing well, he is using which behavior-shaping method?
A) positive reinforcement
B) negative reinforcement
C) punishment
D) extinction
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The coach is using negative reinforcement to reward the team for a wanted
behavior by removing an unpleasant stimulus, making negative reinforcement the correct
response. Punishment would require the application, rather than the removal an unpleasant
stimulus. Positive reinforcement would require the coach to reward a behavior with some
positive stimulus. Extinction would involve the removal o f a positive or a negative
reinforcement to get rid of the behavior.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 231
Objective: 8.5
135) In an attempt to get employees to stop congregating, a manager decides to remove free
bagels from the company snack bar. Which behavior-shaping method is she using?
A) positive reinforcement
B) negative reinforcement
C) punishment
D) extinction
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The manager is using extinction—she is removing a reinforcement to allow
a behavior to disappear, making extinction the correct response. Negative reinforcement
would require the removal of an unpleasant stimulus to encourage a behavior, while in this
case the manager is removing a pleasant stimulus to extinguish a behavior. Punishment would
require the application, rather than the removal of an unpleasant stimulus. Positive
reinforcement would require the manager to reward a behavior with some positive stimulus.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 231
Objective: 8.5
136) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Gen Y workers?
A) high expectations
B) little interaction with colleagues
C) goal oriented
D) seek out creative challenges
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Gen Y workers are goal oriented and like to build ownership of tasks, like to
seek out creative challenges and tend to have high expectations, both for themselves and their
employers. What Gen Y workers don't seem to prefer is little interaction with colleagues. In
fact, Gen Y workers often actively seek out colleagues to learn from, making little interaction
with colleagues the correct response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 233
Objective: 8.6
137) Which of the following is a common way in which Gen Y workers differ from workers
in other generations?
A) office attire
B) ability to work hard
C) ability to focus
D) showing respect
Answer: A
Explanation: A) There is no evidence to support the idea that Gen Y workers do not work as
hard as, focus, or show as much respect as workers from other generations, so all of those
choices are incorrect. Where Gen Y workers do seem to differ from other generations is in
the clothing they wear—Gen Y workers tend to be much more casual than their older
counterparts. This makes office attire the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 233
Objective: 8.6
138) Which of the following is on the rise in today's organizations?
A) respectful behavior
B) use of good manners
C) hostility and aggression
D) amicable relations
Answer: C
Chapter 9 Motivating and Re warding Employees
39) Motivation is NOT ________.
A) a permanent personal trait
B) a process that leads to a goal
C) something that varies from situation to situation
D) something that requires a direction
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Motivation by definition is a process with a direction that leads to a goal.
Rather than an innate characteristic, motivation can vary from task to task and situation to
situation. This leaves a permanent personal trait as the correct response. Since motivation can
change from situation to situation for the same person, it cannot be a permanent personal
trait.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 266
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.1
40) Which element of motivation is a measure of intensity or drive?
A) direction
B) effort
C) persistence
D) achievement
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Achievement is the goal that a person wants to attain, while direction is the
path to that goal. The drive and intensity that the person applies to attaining that goal is effort,
making effort the correct response. Finally, persistence is how sustained over time an effort
is, not a measure of intensity.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 266
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.1
41) The direction of an individual's motivation can be channeled to benefit ________.
A) only an organization
B) both individuals and/or organizations
C) only an individual
D) an individual's family only
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Motivation can be personal or more general and include an organization.
Most organizational management theorists concerned themselves with organizational
motivation, which is motivation to attain an organization's goals only. Personal motivation
refers to an individual and/or her family only. Since general motivation can involve both an
individual and his or her organization, that is the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 266
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.1
42) About ________ of the U.S. workforce is excited about work.
A) one-quarter
B) one-half
C) a little over half
D) about three-quarters
Answer: A
Explanation: A) According to data presented in this text, some 73 percent of workers were
not excited about their jobs. Lacking excitement implies that these people also are deficient in
motivation. This means that only about 27 percent, or about one-quarter of the U.S.
workforce is actually excited about work.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 267
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
43) Maslow's theory is a hierarchy because ________.
A) all needs are equal
B) all needs are important
C) needs are satisfied sequentially
D) needs are never truly satisfied
Answer: C
Explanation: C) A hierarchy implies that some elements have a higher rank and take
precedence over others, and that is exactly what Maslow proposes. In his scheme, need levels
are supplied one after another. When one level is taken care of, a person moves on to the
next. This makes needs that are satisfied sequentially the correct response and rules out all
needs being equal or important since equal or equally important needs would not constitute a
hierarchical system. Needs never being truly satisfied can also be ruled out since the question
of satisfying needs does not address the issue of whether or not Maslow's scheme qualifies as
a hierarchy.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 267
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
44) Maslow sees food as being on the same level of need as which of the following?
A) sex
B) companionship
C) self-esteem
D) personal safety
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Maslow sees things such as food, shelter, and sex as physiological needs
that occupy the same level, making sex the correct response. Personal safety is on the next
higher level, while companionship and self-esteem each lie one level up, respectively.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 267
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
45) According to Maslow, a person stranded on a desert island would ________ before she
worried about making weapons.
A) look for other people
B) build a house
C) start a family
D) establish her status on the island
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Maslow would see looking for other people and starting a family as social
needs, and establishing island status as an esteem need. All three of these needs would come
after building a house, which would qualify as supplying oneself with shelter, making that the
correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 267
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
46) An individual who wants to buy a home in a neighborhood with a low crime rate is
satisfying which need?
A) esteem
B) safety
C) physiological
D) self-actualization
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Crime is something that threatens the personal safety of an individual.
Living in an area of low crime, therefore, would be a safety issue, making safety the correct
response, and eliminating all other choices.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 267
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
47) Maslow argued that once a need is substantially satisfied, ________.
A) the next need becomes dominant
B) individuals no longer require that need
C) that need continues to be the primary motivation of an individual
D) it becomes a higher-order need
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The key to Maslow's scheme is that it is hierarchical. Needs are satisfied in
a sequential manner. At any given level, a person worries almost exclusively about that
level's needs, and does not move on to higher needs until the current level's needs are
satisfied. This makes the next need becoming dominant the correct response and rules out
that need continuing as primary motivation, since primary motivation shifts once a need has
been taken care of. Becoming a higher-order need is wrong because needs do not get passed
up the hierarchy. Individuals no longer requiring that need can be ruled out because needs do
not disappear once they have been satisfied. A person cannot completely ignore lower- level
needs once they are taken care of—they simply become lower in priority.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 267
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
48) Maslow believes that higher-order needs ________.
A) are satisfied externally
B) are satisfied first
C) are satisfied internally
D) are satisfied most often
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Maslow sees lower order needs as being satisfied first and satisfied
externally by material items such as food and water. He sees higher self-actualization needs
as internal and coming from within a person, making being satisfied internally the correct
response. Being satisfied most often is incorrect because these higher-order needs are
generally the ones left for last and are least likely to be totally taken care of.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 267
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
49) The key to motivation, according to Maslow, is to identify ________.
A) higher-order needs first
B) a person's level in the needs hierarchy
C) lower-order needs last
D) a person's most important level in the needs hierarchy
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Maslow thinks that a person who is worried about, for example, finding
food, cannot focus or be motivated by higher-order concerns such as self-esteem. Therefore,
understanding a person's position in the hierarchy is the key to motivation. If you can find the
correct level, you can identify how to motivate the person. These ideas eliminate the notion
of taking higher, lower, or "most important" levels as the key to motivation.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 268
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
50) Maslow's hierarchical model ________.
A) has been validated by a number of studies
B) has never been validated by studies
C) has been validated by empirical studies
D) has been invalidated by intuitive means
Answer: B
Explanation: B) No empirical studies have ever validated Maslow's model. This makes
having never been validated by studies the correct response and eliminates having been
validated by a number of studies or empirical studies. Intuitively, Maslow's model makes
sense, so it has never been invalidated by intuitive means.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 268
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
51) Self-actualization most closely corresponds to ________.
A) satisfying basic animal needs
B) fitting in with others
C) feeling aware of one's strengths
D) becoming a whole person
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Self-actualization fits in with self- fulfillment and reaching one's potential,
both fitting best with becoming a whole person. Being aware of one's strengths, fitting in with
others, or satisfying basic needs are not synonymous with self- fulfillment, so all three choices
are incorrect.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 267
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
52) Which of the following is a lower-order need in Maslow's hierarchy?
A) love
B) self- worth
C) independence
D) personal safety
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Maslow considers the first two levels, the physiological and safety levels, to
be lower-order, and the other three levels to be higher-order. Since love and independence
would qualify as esteem needs, they can be eliminated as possible correct responses. Selfworth would be a self-actualization need so it too could be eliminated. That leaves personal
safety as the correct response with personal safety being a lowe r-order need.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 267
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
53) ________ assumes that employees have little ambition, dislike work, and avoid
responsibility.
A) Theory Y
B) Theory X
C) Self-actualization Need Theory
D) Belongingness Need Theory
Answer: B
Explanation: B) McGregor's theories divide human nature into two categories. Theory Y
people have a positive outlook, welcome responsibility, want to work hard and provide their
own direction. Theory X people, on the other hand, are driven by fear, lack ambition, avoid
responsibility, and need to be coerced or forced to work hard. This makes Theory X the
correct response and eliminates Theory Y. The remaining two choices can also be ruled out
because they are not recognized theories of human nature.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 268
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
54) Theory Y assumes that people inherently ________.
A) are driven by fear
B) are unhappy
C) want to control their own destiny
D) don't trust one another
Answer: C
Explanation: C) McGregor sees Theory Y people as the opposite of being fundamentally
unhappy, driven by fear, or mistrustful. Those are all Theory X traits and incorrect responses
for this question. The positive outlook of Theory Y individuals would mean that they would
want to control their own destinies, making that the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 268
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
55) Theory X assumes that people work hard ________.
A) only when they are forced
B) because they enjoy a sense of accomplishment
C) whether or not they are paid
D) out of a sense of fairness
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Theory X holds that people are basically lazy and lack ambition. This would
mean that workers would not work hard purely for accomplishment, to be fair, or without
compensation, making all of these choices incorrect. What would motivate a Theory X
individual would be force, threats, or coercion, making being forced the correct response.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 268
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
56) A manager with a Theory X view of human nature would ________.
A) be unlikely to allow workers to work independently
B) be likely to let workers work independently
C) allow workers to monitor themselves
D) trust his workers
Answer: A
Explanation: A) A Theory X manager would lack a sense of trust, so he would not allow his
workers to monitor themselves or work completely on their own. Without a sense of trust, the
Theory X manager would be unlikely to let workers work on their own, making that the
correct response.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 268
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
57) A manager with a Theory Y view of human nature would be likely ________.
A) not to try to challenge his workers
B) to try to challenge his workers
C) to try to intimidate his workers
D) to monitor his workers closely
Answer: B
Explanation: B) A Theory Y point of view holds that people respond best to positive
motivators, such as a challenge. This makes trying to challenge his workers the correct
response and eliminates not challenging them. Intimidation and close monitoring are both
Theory X methods of motivation, so both are incorrect for this question.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 268
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
58) Workers with a Theory X point of view would be likely to respond to ________ best.
A) kindness
B) a hands-off approach
C) fear of losing their job
D) freedom to modify their job
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Fear is a major motivator for individuals that have a Theory X point of view.
That makes fear of losing their job the correct response. Kindness and freedom to work
somewhat independently are Theory Y modes of motivation and so would be unlikely to be
effective for motivating workers under a Theory X point of view.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 268
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
59) Workers with a Theory Y point of view would be likely to ________.
A) just want to collect a paycheck
B) love their job more than the money they make
C) avoid work unless rewards were high
D) avoid responsibility for their actions
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Theory Y workers would be likely to enjoy working hard. This would
eliminate just wanting to collect a check, being a shirker, or failing to be accountable as
correct responses. A Theory Y person would be likely to love his or her job, so loving their
job more than the money they make is the correct response here.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 268
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
60) According to Herzberg, which kind of characteristics are most closely associated with job
dissatisfaction?
A) intrinsic things that come from within themselves
B) extrinsic things that come from the outside
C) lack of advancement
D) the goals of the job
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Herzberg sees dissatisfaction being determined by external factors: working
conditions, relationships with others, pay rate, and so on. When these factors are unfavorable,
workers are highly dissatisfied. This means that extrinsic things is the correct response and
intrinsic things is incorrect. Job goals and advancement issues are largely internal factors, so
these two choices can be eliminated as correct responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 269
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
61) According to Herzberg's Motivation-Hygiene theory, ________ are associated with job
satisfaction.
A) rewards
B) punishments
C) hygiene factors
D) motivators
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Herzberg sees motivation as driven purely by internal factors—a worker's
sense of achievement, appreciation, growth, and so on. These internal factors are termed
motivators by Herzberg, making motivators the correct response, and eliminating the other
responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 269
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
62) According to Herzberg, which of the following is considered a motivator?
A) pay
B) working conditions
C) hygiene factors
D) responsibility
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Herzberg's motivators are all intrinsic factors that are involved with selfesteem and self-actualization rather than external, material concerns. Pay, working
conditions, and hygiene factors all qualify as external factors and so by definition are not
motivators. A sense of responsibility is an internal factor, so it is classified as a motivator,
making responsibility the correct response.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 269
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
63) According to Herzberg, favorable hygiene factors can cause an employee to feel
________.
A) satisfied
B) not dissatisfied
C) dissatisfied
D) indifferent
Answer: B
Explanation: B) In Herzberg's view, hygiene factors are the factors that affect dissatisfaction
only—not satisfaction. Thus, when hygiene factors are favorable, dissatisfaction is low,
making "not dissatisfied" the correct response and "dissatisfied," as its opposite, incorrect.
Since hygiene factors cannot influence satisfaction, "satisfied" is eliminated. The term
indifferent was not specifically used by Herzberg so that choice is incorrect.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 269
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
64) According to Herzberg, the opposite of the state of being satisfied is ________.
A) the opposite of dissatisfied
B) not satisfied
C) an extrinsic factor
D) the opposite of intrinsic
Answer: B
Explanation: B) It would seem logical that satisfied would be the opposite of dissatisfied, but
in Herzberg's formulation, satisfaction and dissatisfaction are two separate entities that don't
intersect. Thus, the opposite of satisfied is not satisfied rather than dissatisfied. This makes
"not satisfied" the correct response and eliminates "the opposite of dissatisfied." Both "an
extrinsic factor" and "the opposite of intrinsic" are incorrect because they do not describe the
state of being satisfied.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 269
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
65) According to Herzberg, when an extremely dissatisfied employee gets an improved salary
and working conditions, he ________.
A) becomes more motivated and more satisfied
B) becomes less motivated and less satisfied
C) becomes more dissatisfied and his motivation increases
D) becomes less dissatisfied and his motivation is unaffected
Answer: D
Explanation: D) In Herzberg's view, dissatisfaction is not involved with motivation. Factors
that cause dissatisfaction can be improved—which will decrease dissatisfaction but at the
same time will not affect motivation one way or another. Putting these ideas together, the
choices regarding becoming more motivated and more satisfied as well as becoming less
motivated and less satisfied can be eliminated as correct answer because both involve
motivation. The choice regarding becoming more dissatisfied and increasing motivation
simply gets the situation wrong, as dissatisfaction would not increase. This leaves the correct
response, which indicates that dissatisfaction would decrease and motivation would not
change.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 269
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
66) According to Herzberg, what controls satisfaction and motivation?
A) intrinsic factors
B) extrinsic factors
C) both intrinsic and extrinsic factors
D) extrinsic and security factors
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Herzberg feels that motivation and satisfaction are controlled entirely by
internal self-actualization type factors such as a sense of achievement, importance, and
recognition. Those factors are called motivators, and they come from within so they are
termed intrinsic factors. This makes intrinsic factors the correct response and the other three
choices all incorrect because they all feature extrinsic factors.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 269
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
67) According to Herzberg, hygiene factors ________.
A) help people avoid infections
B) control motivation but not satisfaction
C) control dissatisfaction but not satisfaction
D) control motivation and satisfaction
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Herzberg separates satisfaction and dissatisfaction using hygiene factors.
Hygiene factors are strictly concerned with dissatisfaction. When hygiene factors are
favorably taken care of, dissatisfaction is minimal; when the y are unfavorable, dissatisfaction
is high. These ideas make "controlling dissatisfaction but not satisfaction" the correct
response and eliminate the other three choices. Helping people avoid infections is wrong
because hygiene factors do not influence health. The remaining two choices are incorrect
because hygiene factors are not involved with motivation or satisfaction.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 269
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
68) According to Herzberg, in order to provide employees with job satisfaction, managers
should concentrate on ________.
A) salary and status
B) working conditions
C) achievement and recognition
D) security
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Of the choices provided, only achievement and recognition identify what
Herzberg called motivators that are determining factors for job satisfaction. Salary, status,
working conditions, and security are all hygiene factors, which according to Herzberg affect
job dissatisfaction but not job satisfaction. Therefore, achievement and recognition is the
correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 269
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
69) Which of the following holds that intrinsic factors are related to job satisfaction, and
extrinsic factors are related to job dissatisfaction?
A) Maslow's hierarchy of needs
B) McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y
C) Vroom's expectancy theory
D) Herzberg's motivation-hygiene theory
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Maslow's hierarchy of needs discusses internal and external factors, but not
in terms of job satisfaction, so it is an incorrect choice. Neither McGregor's X and Y theories
or Vroom's expectancy theory directly address job satisfaction so they are both incorrect.
Herzberg's motivation- hygiene theory is a job satisfaction/dissatisfaction theory, so it is the
correct choice.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 267-276
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
70) Herzberg has had the greatest influence on which of the following?
A) employee pay scales
B) work conditions
C) how managers design jobs
D) labor- management relations
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Herzberg's motivation-hygiene ideas have been given credit for spawning
interest in job design and contributing in a major way to the Job Characteristics Model, the
most complete job design system. All of these facts lead to the conclusion that Herzberg had
a great influence on job design, and not compensation, work conditions, or labor relations.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 270
Objective: 10.2
71) Which of the following is true of the three early theories of motivation?
A) Maslow focuses on job satisfaction.
B) McGregor focuses on the needs of the individual.
C) Both McGregor and Herzberg focus on human nature.
D) Only McGregor focuses on human nature.
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Maslow focused on needs, not job satisfaction, so Maslow focusing on job
satisfaction is not a correct choice. McGregor focused on human nature, making McGregor
focusing on individual needs incorrect and only McGregor focusing on human nature the
correct response. The remaining choice is incorrect because it identifies Herzberg as also
focusing on human nature, which is not true.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 267-270
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Objective: 10.2
72) Which of the following is true of the three early theories of motivation?
A) Herzberg focuses on job satisfaction.
B) McGregor does not address motivation.
C) Maslow focuses on job satisfaction.
D) Herzberg focuses on needs.
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Maslow focused on needs, not job satisfaction, so Maslow focusing on job
satisfaction is not a correct choice. McGregor focused on human nature, not needs, making
McGregor not addressing motivation incorrect. Herzberg focusing on job satisfaction is
correct because it identifies Herzberg as focusing on job satisfaction, which at the same time
eliminates the remaining choice because it associates Herzberg with needs.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 267-270
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Objective: 10.2
73) Which of the following was directly influenced by Herzberg's two- factor theory?
A) Maslow's hierarchy of needs
B) the job characteristics model
C) McClelland's three-needs theory
D) expectancy theory
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Herzberg's work on job satisfaction stimulated many researchers to focus on
job design. The most important work to stem from Herzberg's work is the JCM or Job
Characteristics Model developed by Hackman and Oldham, which identified the core
dimensions in jobs that people valued. This makes the job characteristics model the correct
response and eliminates the work of Maslow, McClelland, and Vroom (expectancy theory) as
correct choices.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 270
Objective: 10.2
74) Which three needs are recognized in McClelland's three- needs theory?
A) achievement, power, security
B) achievement, power, affiliation
C) power, comfort, stimulation
D) security, self- interest, affiliation
Answer: B
Explanation: B) McClelland identified the basic needs that are major motivations in work as
the need for power, the ability to influence others; affiliation, the need to have meaningful
relationships with others; and achievement, the need to be successful and strive to be
excellent. Of the three needs, only nAch (achievement) has been studied and applied
extensively. The only choice that correctly identifies nAch, nPow, and nAff correctly is
achievement, power, affiliation.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 270
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Objective: 10.2
75) Which of the following suggests that humans have an innate desire for friendly and close
interpersonal relationships?
A) need for achievement
B) need for power
C) need for fulfillment
D) need for affiliation
Answer: D
Explanation: D) McClelland identified nAff as the human need for close and meaningful
relationships with other human beings. Obviously, different people have different
requirements in this area, but nearly all people possess the need to form relationships at least
to some degree.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 270
Objective: 10.2
76) You would expect a successful inventor of a new type of heart valve to have a high
________.
A) nAff
B) nPow
C) nAch
D) nFun
Answer: C
Explanation: C) An inventor would be likely to be someone who wanted to "do something
better" and strive to create a successful product or other type of innovation. This need to
excel and exceed what has already been done is a classic characteristic of nAch, the need for
achievement and not any of the other choices provided in this question.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 270
Objective: 10.2
77) Surprisingly, most successful managers don't have this.
A) high IQ
B) high nPow
C) high nAch
D) low IQ
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The talent that some of the best managers have is not for achieving personal
goals but rather to be a facilitator and help others to achieve goals. Accordingly, this type of
manager does not have a high nAch, making high nAch the correct response. There is no
evidence that successful managers have either a low or a high IQ, so neither of these two
choices would be correct answers for this question. One would not be surprised if a
successful manager had high nPow, so that choice is incorrect.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 270
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
78) Successful managers tend to have this more than any other trait.
A) low nPow
B) high nPow
C) high nAch
D) high nAff
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Since a large part of what managers do is control other people, it is not
surprising that successful managers tend to have a high need for power, nPow. This makes
high nPow correct and eliminates low nPow as a correct response. High nAff can be ruled out
because most successful managers do not have high nAffs. Finally, high nAch can be ruled
out because many managers are much better at helping others achieve goals than achieving
their own goals, giving them only a moderate to low nAch rating.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 270
Objective: 10.2
79) Successful managers tend to be better at ________.
A) doing their own work than helping others
B) identifying their own goals than identifying goals of subordinates
C) helping others achieve goals rather than themselves
D) accomplishing goals rather than identifying goals
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Successful managers are often better facilitators than they are personal
achievers, making helping others achieve goals rather than themselves correct and doing their
own work and accomplishing goals incorrect. Identifying their own goals is wrong because it
puts the goals of the manager ahead of the goals of the people she manages, again something
that is not common in successful managers.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 270
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
80) The most influential of McClelland's needs by far has been ________.
A) need for achievement
B) need for power
C) need for recognition
D) need for affiliation
Answer: A
Explanation: A) McClelland identified three basic needs, the need for power, affiliation, and
achievement. nAch by far has received the most attention and has had the most influence on
managerial theory, making need for achievement the correct response. The other McClelland
needs, nPow and nAff, have not been extensively studied or tested in academic circles.
Finally, need for recognition is incorrect because it is not one of McClelland's official
categories.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 270
Objective: 10.2
81) Which is the best summary of goal-setting theory?
A) Goals make no difference in performance.
B) Specific goals increase performance.
C) Always make your goals a bit higher than you can reach.
D) Easy goals make for happier employees.
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Goal-setting theory starts with a basic premise: goals increase performance.
The relationship isn't absolute or linear but it is consistent in most job situations. This makes
"specific goals increasing performance" the correct response and eliminates "goals making no
difference" as a correct choice. Though "easy goals" as a choice is intriguing, there is no
evidence to support the idea that easy goals make employees happy, and the assertion only
makes a limited amount of sense. Similarly, "always making goals above your reach" is
plausible but has no supporting evidence and may or may not be a wise course of action to
take.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 271
Objective: 10.3
82) Setting goals definitely seems to ________.
A) increase performance and motivation
B) increase motivation but not performance
C) decrease performance but increase motivation
D) decrease motivation and performance
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Credible evidence suggests that goals make people give more effort and
increase the likelihood that their effort will result in success. This makes increasing
performance and motivation the correct response since it identifies both performance and
motivation to be positively influenced by goals. None of the other choices listed here show an
increase in both performance and motivation so they all can be eliminated as correct
responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 271
Objective: 10.3
83) In goal-setting theory, which of the following is the best kind of feedback?
A) feedback from a superior
B) feedback from a peer
C) self- feedback
D) group feedback
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Evidence shows that worker performance improves if the worker gets
feedback on how he is doing. The most effective kind of feedback is self- generated, making
self- feedback the correct response and eliminating feedback from outsiders that include a
superior, a colleague, or a group of coworkers.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 271
Objective: 10.3
84) In which kinds of cultures do goal-setting theory ideas seem to do best?
A) high power distance, high uncertainty avoidance
B) low power distance, high uncertainty avoidance
C) high power distance, low uncertainty avoidance
D) low power distance, low uncertainty avoidance
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Goal-setting theory works best in an individualistic, achievement-oriented
society. This kind of society would be risk-taking and not overly concerned with the
possibility of displeasing capricious, overly powerful superiors. All of these traits translate to
a low power distance (bosses and subordinates somewhat equal in status) and low uncertainty
avoidance (risk-taking) culture. "Low power distance and low uncertainty avoidance" is the
only choice that identifies this culture, making it the correct response and the other choices
incorrect.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 272
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 10.3
85) Goal-setting tends to do well in ________, where its basic ideas align well with general
cultural values.
A) North America
B) South America
C) India and China
D) the Middle East
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Citizens of the United States and Canada live in achievement-oriented, risktaking, low power distance, highly individualistic societies that seem to respond well to goals
and incentives. South American, Asian, and Middle Eastern cultures tend to be less
individualistic than North America, so these choices can be eliminated as correct responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 272
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 10.3
86) The job characteristics model (JCM) maintains that ________ is critical to motivating
workers.
A) how workers are treated
B) how jobs are designed
C) equal treatment for all
D) setting goals
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The JCM postulates that if jobs are designed correctly, workers will be more
productive, more motivated, and happy in their jobs. The theory encompasses a large range of
issues that include setting proper goals and good treatment for workers. However, job design
is by far the most critical element to JCM making "how jobs are designed" the correct
response and the other responses incorrect.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 272
Objective: 10.3
87) The JCM contends that meaningful work is ________.
A) high paying
B) always difficult
C) considered important and valuable by the worker
D) considered unimportant to managers
Answer: C
Explanation: C) JCM contends that the first three core dimensions together determine the
meaningfulness of work—something that workers value highly. This makes "being
considered important and valuable" correct. "High paying" and "always difficult" are
incorrect because they don't identify key elements of the three core dimensions that make up
meaningful work according to JCM. "Being considered unimportant to managers" is incorrect
primarily because it is untrue—most thoughtful managers do consider meaningful work to be
important.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 273
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.3
88) The JCM contends that ________ are required in meaningful work.
A) skill variety, task identity, and task significance
B) skill variety, autonomy, and feedback
C) task identity, autonomy, and feedback
D) task significance, autonomy, and feedback
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Skill variety (how many skills are used in a job), task identity (how whole
the work product is), and task significance (how important the job is to the world) are
identified in JCM as the dimensions that collectively make up meaningful work. The correct
choice correctly identifies these components, while the other three choices include only one
or two of the recognized dimensions of meaningful work.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 273
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.3
89) The JCM contends that these dimensions are required for a high level of motivation
among workers.
A) high pay, autonomy, feedback
B) meaningful work, autonomy, feedback
C) meaningful work, autonomy, independence
D) autonomy, feedback, good management
Answer: B
Explanation: B) JCM identifies five core dimensions as required for high motivation and
high performance in work: the three meaningful work dimensions—skill variety (how many
skills are used in a job), task identity (how whole the work product is), and task significance
(how important the job is to the world) plus a sense of autonomy and feedback. This makes
"meaningful work, autonomy, feedback" the correct response for this question. It eliminates
the other three choices because they do not include all five of the core dimensions.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 273
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.3
90) Autonomy is important in the JCM because it gives the worker ________.
A) time to finish the job
B) help from fellow employees
C) flexibility in dealing with managers
D) a sense of personal responsibility
Answer: D
Explanation: D) People generally perform better when they have a sense of control over their
environment and are not at the mercy of factors that are out of their control. Autonomy in the
work place gives workers a way to manage their own affairs, control their environment, and
take personal responsibility in their work—and for those reasons autonomy is considered a
core dimension. Time to complete a job may be important to workers but it can be achieved
without autonomy. Similarly, help from coworkers and flexibility may be valued, but they are
not related to autonomy so they are not correct responses for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 273
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.3
91) In the JCM, motivation and satisfaction increase when this is true.
A) The employee feels good about herself.
B) The employee cares about the task.
C) The employee feels rewarded.
D) The employee feels like she belongs.
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Ultimately, successful job design aims to get the worker to take "ownership"
of the task—in other words, to truly care about its successful completion. Feeling good about
yourself, rewarded, or like you belong are all positive items but they are not identified in
JCM as critical factors. Caring is identified in JCM as a critical factor so it is the correct
response for this question.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 274
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.3
92) Job enrichment in the JCM seems to work best with people who have ________.
A) a low growth need
B) a high growth need
C) no growth need
D) a variable growth need
Answer: B
Explanation: B) JCM identifies a growth need as an individual's desire to achieve high levels
of self-esteem and self-actualization. Evidence shows that a job that successfully incorporates
the five core JCM dimensions is most successful in creating motivation and excitement for a
job when the job-holder is a person with a high job growth profile. This makes a high growth
need the correct response and eliminates low growth, no growth, and variable growth needs
as possible correct responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 274
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.3
93) A theory that suggests that employees compare their inputs and outputs from a job to the
ratio of relevant others is known as ________.
A) action motivation
B) goal setting
C) reinforcement theory
D) equity theory
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Equity theory holds that workers measure their situation against ideals to
evaluate how well they are doing in the workplace. What workers generally measure is the
ratio of how much they get out of a job to how much they put in—outcomes-to-input. This
identifies equity theory as the correct response and the other choices mentioned in this
question incorrect.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 275
Objective: 10.3
94) Equity theory is based primarily on ideas about which of the following?
A) objectivity
B) the importance of work
C) fairness
D) automation
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Equity theory focuses on fairness. The individual in equity theory compares
his situation to that of a meaningful referent—a person, system, or one's own set of values—
to gauge how fair and equitable it is. These ideas are concerned more with fairness than
objectivity, work importance, or automation, meaning that fairness is the correct response and
the other three choices are incorrect.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 274
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.3
95) Equity theory recognizes that individuals are concerned with ________.
A) making enough money to live on
B) employers sharing profits
C) comparing their rewards to those of others
D) justice for all people who work
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Equity theory is primarily a comparative system in which individuals gauge
their own situation against other individuals, systems, or their own values. This makes
comparing their rewards to those of others the correct response. People are concerned with
making enough money to live on and justice but neither of these choices is comparative, and,
as is also true of employers sharing profits, they are not directly involved with equity theory.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 274
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Objective: 10.3
96) Equity theory uses the ratio of output you get out of your job to the amo unt of ________.
A) input you put into your job
B) output a referent gets out of a job
C) benefit you get from your job
D) compensation you get from your job
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Equity theory's basic ratio is an output-to- input ratio that compares the
output of what you get from your job to the input of what you put in. That makes "input you
put into your job" the correct choice and rules out "output a reference gets out of a job"
because it names an output and the other two choices because they are neither inputs nor
outputs.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 274
Objective: 10.3
97) Equity theory compares your own outcomes-to-input ratio to that of ________.
A) your boss
B) a referent
C) the input-to-output ratio of another worker
D) the input-to-output ratio of an idealized worker
Answer: B
Explanation: B) In equity theory, an individual's own output-to-input ratio gets compared to
other entities, which are termed referents. Referents include individuals who hold a similar
job position, systems the job holder is familiar with, or the job holder's individual set of
values and requirements. The two choices regarding input-to-output ratios are incorrect
because they identify input-to-output rather than output-to-input ratios of referents. Your boss
is incorrect because the boss is not a peer and therefore would not qualify as a legitimate
referent with which to gauge one's situation.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 274-275
Objective: 10.3
98) A referent in equity theory refers to which of the following?
A) a theoretical worker
B) other people and systems only
C) oneself only
D) other people, systems, or oneself
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Referents in equity theory can be other workers, a system to which you can
compare yourself, or your own values and sense of fairness. This makes other people,
systems, or oneself the correct response. The other three choices are not correct because all
three are incomplete—they fail to name all of the different types of referents.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 274-275
Objective: 10.3
99) In equity theory, a worker's "self" category compares a person's outcomes-to- input ratio
with ________.
A) the standards and expectations of other workers
B) the highest paid worker
C) the lowest paid worker
D) the person's own standards and expectations
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Equity theory's "self" category has a worker comparing her own output-toinput ratio against the ratio she would expect to obtain, based on her own personal set of
values, standards, and sense of fairness with respect to the job she has. This eliminates the
three incorrect choices because each of them refers to other workers.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 274-275
Objective: 10.3
100) Inequity exists when one's own outcomes-to- input ratio ________ that of the referent.
A) is greater than but not less than
B) is less than but not greater than
C) is equal to
D) is greater than or less than
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Inequity in equity theory can exist in two ways—when the outcomes-toinput ratio is either greater or less than that of the referent. Being less than but not greater
than identifies one kind of inequity, the underrewarded situation, while being greater than but
not less than identifies an overrewarded situation. Being equal identifies equity rather than
inequity, so it is incorrect. Only the correct choice names both kinds of inequity so it is the
correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 274-275
Objective: 10.3
101) Equity exists when one's own outcomes-to- input ratio ________ that of the referent.
A) is greater than
B) is less than
C) is equal to
D) is greater than or less than
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Equity in equity theory exists when a person's job situation is fair: the
outcomes-to- input ratio of what he actually gets matches what he would expect to get as
compared to the referent. The three incorrect choices are incorrect because they all identify
situations of inequity. "Being greater than" identifies a situation of overreward, "being less
than" a situation of underreward, and "being greater than or less than" a situation of both
under- and overreward. Only "being equal" identifies an equity situation, so it is the correct
response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 274-275
Objective: 10.3
102) In equity theory, an underrewarded individual ________ the work he or she does.
A) is paid too much for
B) is paid too little for
C) is paid fairly for
D) does not complain about
Answer: B
Explanation: B) An underrewarded individual in equity theory gets paid too little for what
she "deserves," making "being paid too little" the correct response and ruling out "being paid
too much" and "being paid fairly." Complaining about compensation is not a recognized part
of equity theory, so that choice cannot be a correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 274-275
Objective: 10.3
103) Underrewarded inequity exists when one's own outcomes-to-input ratio ________ that
of the referent.
A) is greater than
B) is less than
C) is equal to
D) is greater than or equal to
Answer: B
Explanation: B) A situation in which a worker is underrewarded involves an outcomes-toinput ratio that is less than that of the referent:
worker's ratio < referent's ratio.
This makes "less than" the correct response and eliminates the other choices listed.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 274-275
Objective: 10.3
104) Overrewarded inequity exists when one's own outcomes-to-input ratio ________ that of
the referent.
A) is greater than
B) is less than
C) is equal to
D) is greater than or equal to
Answer: A
Explanation: A) A situation in which a worker is overrewarded involves an outcomes-toinput ratio that is greater than that of the referent:
worker's ratio > referent's ratio.
This makes "less than" the correct response and eliminates the other choices listed.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 274-275
Objective: 10.3
105) In equity theory, distributive justice is concerned with which of the following?
A) comparing one individual to an entire system
B) comparing output-to- input ratios among individuals
C) comparing output-to- input ratios among large groups
D) comparing fairness between different cultures
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Originally, equity theory focused almost exclusively on distributive justice,
a comparison of an individual's outcomes-to-input ratio to that of another individual. The
correct choice identifies distributive justice. Comparing one individual to an entire system
identifies procedural justice in which rather than compare oneself to other individuals, the
worker evaluates the fairness of the entire system—not the correct response here. The
remaining two choices are incorrect because they compare groups, not individuals.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 274-275
Objective: 10.3
106) In equity theory, procedural justice is concerned with which of the following?
A) determining how fair the system is
B) determining how honest one's boss is
C) comparing output-to- input ratios among individuals
D) comparing fairness between different organizations
Answer: A
Explanation: A) In equity theory, procedural justice is a determination by an individual of
how fair the process is by which she is evaluated and compensated for her efforts. Generally,
if the individual sees the system as fair and does not show bias or favoritism, she is more
willing to put up with what might otherwise be identified as inequity. From this description, it
is clear that determining the fairness of the system is the correct response. The other choices
here do not specifically focus on the system itself and the process by which rewards are
allocated, so they are incorrect.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 274-275
Objective: 10.3
107) In equity theory, an underrewarded individual is likely to ________.
A) have high motivation to show her value to the organization
B) lack motivation because she does not receive enough reward for what she does
C) have just the right motivation to get the job done
D) have high motivation due to high self esteem
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Underrewarded individuals are underpaid or undercompensated in some
other way. They are putting more into the job than they are getting out. This typically
decreases motivation due to a perception of unfairness, making lack of motivation the correct
response. High motivation to show value to the organization and just the right motivation can
be eliminated because they do not identify low motivation. Having high motivation due to
high self esteem can be ruled out because it identifies the situation as one of equity, which is
not true.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 275
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Objective: 10.3
108) The first variable in expectancy theory involves how much effort a person must exert to
________.
A) receive a given reward
B) attain a certain level of performance
C) finish the job in the shortest period of time
D) finish the job with the lowest possible standards
Answer: B
Explanation: B) In expectancy theory, the first calculation a person must make is the socalled effort-performance variable: How much effort will I need to put into the task in order
to achieve the performance that is required? Is the job asking for too much? Will I be able to
do it without too much stress or hardship? This description clearly matches attaining a certain
level of performance, making it the correct response. The effort-performance variable does
not directly involve reward, time period, or job standards, so all of these choices are
incorrect.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 276
Objective: 10.3
109) The second variable in expectancy theory requires the worker to ask him- or herself: If I
perform at a given level, how likely is it that I will ________?
A) attain the reward or outcome I am looking for
B) be promoted to a higher position in the company
C) keep my job
D) be noticed by my superiors
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The second expectancy theory variable is the performance-reward link: Will
my performance result in the reward that has been offered? This reward can be anything, so
being promoted, keeping one's job, and being noticed by superiors are too specific to be the
correct responses. Attaining the hoped-for reward or outcome gives a generic reward, so it is
the correct response.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 276
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Objective: 10.3
110) The third variable in expectation theory requires the worker to ask him- or herself which
question?
A) How likely am I to attain this outcome?
B) What do I need to do to attain this outcome?
C) How important is this outcome to me?
D) How important is this outcome to the organization I work for?
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The third variable in expectancy theory is the valence or reward-goals link:
Is the reward that is being offered something that I actually want? Is the reward meaningful to
me? "How important the outcome is to me" best expresses these ideas, so it is the correct
response. "What I need to do to attain this outcome" is more suited to the effort-performance
linkage than valence, while "how likely I am to attain this outcome" matches the
performance-reward linkage, making both choices incorrect. "How important the outcome is
to my organization" does not match any of the three variables, so it is also incorrect.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 276
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Objective: 10.3
111) In expectancy theory, a person may have the ability to reach a certain goal, but lack
motivation because ________.
A) the goal is too easy
B) the goal is too hard
C) the person's desire to reach the goal is too strong
D) the person has no strong desire to reach the goal
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The valence or attractiveness that a goal has for an individual is critical to
motivation. A goal that is worth everything to one individual might be meaningless to a
second individual. Expectancy theory takes this fact into account, maintaining that there is no
universally agreed-upon reward that will guarantee high motivation. The person having no
strong desire is the correct response here, since it states that motivation is reduced when
valence for a goal is low. How easy or hard the goal is to reach may affect attainment of a
goal but not motivation to reach the goal, so those choices are not correct. The person's desire
to reach the goal being too strong is incorrect because it identifies a situation of high, not low
motivation.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 276
Objective: 10.3
112) A key element of expectancy theory might be summarized by saying ________.
A) most people are motivated by money
B) everyone is always motivated by fear of failure
C) everyone is motivated by the same thing
D) everyone is motivated by something different
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Expectancy theory maintains that different rewards motivate people in
different ways. This rules out money, fear of failure, or the "same thing" as choices because
all three imply that there is a universal motivator. Only "everyone being motivated by
something different" expresses the idea that there is no universal motivator, so it is the correct
response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 276
Objective: 10.3
113) The key to expectancy theory is that an individual's goals ________.
A) are not too high
B) are not too high and not too low
C) match the goals of fellow workers and superiors
D) match the rewards provided by the organization
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Expectancy theory suggests that managers carefully consider the rewards
they offer to make sure they are attractive to their employees. Whether rewards are too high,
too low, or whether they work for others in the organization is not relevant to any particular
individual, so these responses are incorrect. What matters is that the goals are meaningful to
the individual, which makes "matching the rewards provided by the organization" the correct
response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 276
Objective: 10.3
114) If salespeople in John's company meet their sales goals for the month, they are given an
all-expense-paid trip to a Denver Broncos football game. Football is not one of John's
favorite sports, and the Denver Broncos are definitely not John's favorite team. John's
performance might be influenced by the ________ part of Vroom's expectancy theory.
A) effort-performance linkage
B) performance-reward linkage
C) effort-reward linkage
D) attractiveness
Answer: D
Explanation: D) John's situation points out the importance of job valence or attractiveness in
expectancy theory: the reward or goal will only increase motivation if it has meaning and
importance to the employee. Effort-performance linkage and performance-reward linkage
give linkages in expectancy theory that do not address reward valence directly, so they are
incorrect responses. Effort-reward linkage does not list a recognized expectancy theory
linkage, so it is an incorrect response.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 276
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.3
115) Katie has just been asked to type up a report in two days using a software program she
has never seen before. Katie wonders if she will be able to get her project accomplished o n
time and in the format wanted by her manager. This is an example of which variable in
Vroom's expectancy theory?
A) effort-performance linkage
B) performance-reward linkage
C) valence-reward linkage
D) attractiveness
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Katie is struggling with the linkage between effort and performance: how
hard will she need to work in order to perform at the level that is required for the task? The
other choices here provide expectancy theory linkages that do not include both effort and
performance, so they are incorrect.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 276
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.3
116) A model for motivation that combines all of the theories presented in this chapter owes
its organization to which of the following?
A) JCM theory
B) expectancy theory
C) equity theory
D) goal-setting theory
Answer: B
Explanation: A) Expectancy theory works best as a framework for combining all of the
motivation theories in the chapter. JCM, equity theory, and goal-setting theory are all
included in the combined overall scheme, but the structure for the scheme is provided by
expectancy theory.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 278
Objective: 10.3
117) The integrated model for motivation (Exhibit 10-9, page 277) features the following
basic sequence.
A) effort → performance → rewards → individual goals
B) effort → equity → goals → needs
C) needs → factors → extrinsic factors → individual goals
D) needs → goals → individual effort → organizational goals
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The correct choice shows a shorthand version of the basic scheme for
expectancy theory. This scheme is the one used for the combined model for motivation
depicted in the diagram on page 277. The other choices here do not follow the framework
presented in the diagram, so they are incorrect choices.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 278
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.3
118) The integrated model for motivation (Exhibit 10-9, page 277) predicts strong motivation
for an individual to perform when the reward is based on ________.
A) seniority or years of service in the organization
B) personal favorites of top managers
C) performance above all factors
D) likability of the worker
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Motivation is measured primarily in terms of effort, which means that
expectancy theory's effort-performance variable is the key to this situation. Effort is clearly
not related to seniority, favoritism, or likability, so all of these choices are incorrect. Effort is
linked to performance, so performance above all factors is the correct response.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 278-279
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.3
119) In the integrated model for motivation (Exhibit 10-9, page 277), high achievers
circumvent the entire sequence of steps for motivation because ________.
A) they are motivated by the organization's assessment of their performance
B) they are internally motivated, not motivated by rewards
C) they are motivated by rewards only, not by internal factors
D) their only goal is domination
Answer: B
Explanation: B) In the integrated model, the high achiever isn't motivated by organizational
rewards or performance assessment. Instead, the high achiever's rewards are internal, making
internally motivated the correct response. Domination as a goal can be eliminated because
domination is not a universal or even a common goal for high achievers.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 278
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.3
120) In the integrated model for motivation (Exhibit 10-9, page 277), how do reinforcement
theory and equity theory figure in?
A) Appropriate rewards reinforce a high level of performance.
B) Underrewarding results in "hungry" employees who will work harder.
C) Overrewarding results in "satisfied" employees who will work harder.
D) Reinforcement and equity theories do not influence motivation.
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Both reinforcement and equity theories stress having appropriate rewards
for performance, making appropriate rewards the correct response and eliminating
reinforcement as the correct response. Underrewarding and overrewarding can both be ruled
out because both erroneously assume that inequity increases motivation, something that does
not occur in most instances.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 278
Objective: 10.3
121) The JCM is seen in the integrated model of motivation in that jobs that are designed
around the five JCM dimensions ________.
A) increase motivation because the worker enjoys the work and autonomy it provides
B) decrease motivation because the work is too easy to complete and the autonomy lacks
structure
C) increase motivation by applying pressure to employees
D) decrease motivation by giving the employee too much autonomy
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Jobs that are designed around the five core dimensions of JCM increase,
rather than decrease motivation, so the two choices regarding decreasing motivation can be
ruled out as correct responses. JCM core dimensions do not rely on pressure to motivate, so
increasing motivation by applying pressure to employees can also be ruled out. This leaves
increasing motivation because the worker enjoys the work as the correct response, as it
accurately states that well-designed jobs increase motivation because they give workers a
sense of accomplishment and autonomy.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 278
Objective: 10.3
122) Expectancy theory and goal-setting theory align well with American workers because
American culture places a strong emphasis on ________.
A) collectivism and achievement
B) achievement and individualism
C) individualism and high power distance
D) low power distance and high uncertainty avoidance
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The keys to both expectancy theory and goal-setting theory are goals and
rewards, so both theories mesh well with the values of the highly individualistic and
achievement/goal-oriented U.S. society. The United States is not collectivist, has high power
distance, or a high level of uncertainty avoidance so all of these choices can be ruled out.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 279
Objective: 10.4
123) Formerly communist countries tend to differ from U.S. workers with respect to equity
theory in that they expect ________.
A) inputs to be greater than outcomes
B) outcomes to be greater than inputs
C) inputs and outcomes to be equal
D) nothing from the state
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Becoming accustomed to a society in which the state provides for all has
given people in formerly communist societies an expectation that they will be provided for—
that is, that outcomes will be disproportionately high compared to inputs. This makes
"outcomes being greater than inputs" the correct response and eliminates "inputs greater than
outcomes" and "inputs being equal to outcomes" as choices, since neither identifies a high
outcomes system. Finally, since people in these societies generally do have high expectations
from the state, "nothing from the state" must be ruled out as a correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 279
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 10.4
124) One factor that seems to motivate workers across all cultures is seeking ________.
A) high status
B) shorter working hours
C) interesting work
D) easy work
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Evidence suggests when it comes to motivation, status, working hours, and
ease of task take a back seat to performing work that is absorbing and interesting—no matter
which culture you observe. This cross-cultural agreement makes "interesting work" the
correct response and eliminates all other choices.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 279
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 10.4
125) Across cultures, the need for achievement seems to correlate with which of the
following?
A) need for money
B) acceptance of risk
C) little acceptance of risk
D) need for security
Answer: B
Explanation: B) High achievement-oriented societies like the United States seem to be much
more accepting of risk than societies that are not achievement-oriented, making "acceptance
of risk" the correct response and eliminating "little acceptance of risk." While money and
security are universal needs, they do not correlate strongly with achievement so they are
incorrect responses for this question.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 279
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 10.4
126) In countries with high levels of uncertainty avoidance, which of the following would
you expect?
A) little acceptance of risk and high achievement need
B) high acceptance of risk and high achievement need
C) high acceptance of risk and low achievement need
D) little acceptance of risk and low achievement need
Answer: D
Explanation: D) By definition, high uncertainty avoidance indicates a culture that avoids
risk, eliminating the two choices indicating high acceptance of risk. Evidence shows that low
risk acceptance also correlates with low achievement, making "little acceptance of risk and
low achievement need" the correct response and eliminating "little acceptance of risk and
high achievement need" because it identifies high achievement need.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 279
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 10.4
127) In today's diverse workforce, which factor do managers need to focus on most to
maximize motivation?
A) control
B) well-organized workplace
C) flexibility
D) status and recognition
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The diversity of the workforce has resulted in workers with a wide variety of
different needs and different family and home situations. The best way to deal with these
kinds of complications is to promote flexibility in the workplace in terms of such things as
conditions, hours, behavior, personal appearance, and location of work. Control,
organization, and recognition are still important, but for maintaining motivation, flexibility is
key because it allows workers to avoid stress and conflict in their lives and to blend in well
with the prevailing workplace culture.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 281
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 10.4
128) ________ allow companies to accommodate the needs of workers with non-standard
family situations.
A) Flextime and expanded workweeks
B) Expanded workweeks and job sharing
C) Flexible pay rates
D) Flextime, compressed workweeks, and job sharing
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Only "flextime, compressed workweeks, and job sharing" identify
recognized ways to improve non-standard employee situations so it is the correct response.
The two choices indicating expanded workweeks are incorrect because they both list
expanded rather than compressed workweeks. "Flexible pay rates" is wrong because "flexible
pay rates are not a recognized way to deal with non-standard family situations.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 281
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 10.4
129) What is a potential disadvantage of telecommuting?
A) lack of time for tending to personal or family needs
B) unsatisfied social needs between workers
C) less time spent commuting
D) casual dress
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Many workers place great value in the comradery that exists in the
workplace. When they telecommute, they have no direct contact with fellow workers and
tend to feel isolated and lose motivation. This makes unsatisfied social needs the correct
response. Less time commuting and informal dress are generally seen as advantages, not
disadvantages to telecommuting so these choices are incorrect. Similarly, telecommuting
tends to increase, rather than decrease, personal time so lack of time for personal needs is
incorrect.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 281
AACSB: Technology
Objective: 10.4
130) Which of the following does NOT describe the effect of flexible work arrangements on
employees?
A) increased job satisfaction
B) a drastic decrease in job satisfaction
C) a small decrease in job satisfaction
D) a sharp increase in job satisfaction
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Flexible work arrangements have been shown to produce a small but
noticeable decrease in job satisfaction. The two choices regarding increased job satisfaction
are incorrect because they list a job satisfaction increase, while a drastic decrease is wrong
because the decrease is small, not drastic.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 282
Objective: 10.4
131) Which of the following is thought to best motivate professionals?
A) high pay
B) status and power within the organization
C) short hours and good working conditions
D) challenging problems and important work
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Professionals have been shown not to be motivated by status, pay raises, or
easy working conditions. What professionals seek are challenging problems to solve,
recognition, and work that has meaning and is important to the world.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 282
Objective: 10.4
132) Which of the following is NOT recognized as a way to motivate contingent workers?
A) promise of permanent employment in the future
B) opportunity for training
C) opportunity to develop marketable skills
D) opportunity to work alongside permanent employees
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The promise of a permanent job, job training, and the acquisition of job
skills are all excellent ways to motivate contingent workers, so these choices are incorrect.
Having contingent workers work with permanent workers tends to breed feelings of
resentment and inequity that decrease motivation in contingent workers, so working
alongside permanent employees is the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 283
Objective: 10.4
133) ________ can improve employee performance by sharing the financial circumstances of
the organization with the employee.
A) Pay- for-performance
B) Open-book management
C) Equity management
D) Contingency management
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Of the choices given, only open-book management identifies a practice that
includes sharing of organizational finances, so it is the correct response. Pay-for-performance
refers to such practices as piece-rate pay that are not involved with organizational finances so
it is an incorrect response. Similarly, the management of equity or contingency does not
match the description in the question, so they are incorrect responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 283
Objective: 10.4
134) Open-book management encourages employees to ________.
A) think like an owner
B) share their financial situations with management
C) make all top- level decisions for the organization
D) ignore the needs of the organization
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Open-book management shares details of organizational finances and other
matters with employees, allowing them to see the business from an ownership perspective.
Open-book management does not share employee finances with management or allow
employees to make major organizational decisions, making these choices incorrect. It also
doesn't ignore organizational needs, making that choice incorrect.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 284
Objective: 10.4
135) What is a recognized way for a manager to motivate low-skilled, minimum-wage
employees?
A) music in the workplace
B) use employee recognition programs
C) threaten low-performing employees with losing their jobs
D) employee peer groups
Answer: B
Explanation: B) While workplace music, employee peer groups, and threats might increase
performance in minimal ways, the only recognized way to increase motivation of the choices
listed above is to use employee recognition programs, making that the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 284
Objective: 10.4
136) In employee recognition programs employees accumulate points for things such as
________.
A) recruiting new workers
B) whistle-blowing on corruption
C) increased productivity
D) not complaining about working conditions
Answer: C
Explanation: C) New worker recruitment, avoiding complaints, and whistle-blowing are not
recognized methods for increasing motivation in employee recognition programs, so all three
are incorrect responses. One practice that is widely rewarded in employee recognition
programs is productivity, making increased productivity the correct response for this
question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 284
Objective: 10.4
137) Which of the following would NOT be a common way to recognize worker
achievements?
A) added worker responsibilities
B) a party
C) a handwritten note of thanks
D) a public announcement of achievement
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Managers use a wide variety of rewards to motivate workers in employee
recognition programs that include parties, notes of appreciation, and public recognition of an
accomplishment, so all of these choices are incorrect. Adding new responsibilities is not a
reward, nor is it used in employee recognition programs, so it is the correct response for this
question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 284
Objective: 10.4
138) Compensation plans based on employee output or productivity are referred to as
________.
A) pay- for-performance programs
B) prize time programs
C) equity plus methods
D) give-back programs.
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Special compensation plans that include piece-rate pay, wage incentive
plans, profit sharing, and bonuses are all typical options in pay- for-performance programs.
None of the other terms listed are recognized terms that describe extra compensation for
high-performing employees.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 285
Objective: 10.4
139) Piece-rate pay plans, wage incentive plans, profit sharing, and lump-sum bonuses are
examples of ________ programs.
A) open-book management
B) employee recognition
C) pay- for-performance
D) rewards
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Pay-for-performance programs feature all of the rewards listed—piece-rate
pay plans, wage incentive plans, profit sharing, and lump-sum bonuses—so pay-forperformance is the correct response. Open-book management refers to sharing organizational
finances so that choice is incorrect. Employee recognition programs focus on non- monetary
rewards so employee recognition is incorrect. A rewards program is not a recognized term in
management theory, so rewards is incorrect.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 285
Objective: 10.4
140) Managers find that ________ work best for motivating employees.
A) across-the-board pay raises
B) sharing in company profits
C) promotions in job status without increased pay
D) perks such as bigger offices and parking spaces
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Managers find that nonperformance-based practices like across-the-board
pay raises, status-only promotions, and perks don't work nearly as well as performance-based
practices. Profit sharing is the only performance-based choice here, so that is the correct
response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 284
Objective: 10.4
Acme Corporation
Acme Corporation's management feels that employees could be more motivated by their jobs.
The jobs were enriched earlier and some improvements were seen in motivation.
141) To increase the motivation through enrichment, Acme decides to increase the
meaningfulness of the work. This might be done by ________.
A) increasing skill variety
B) increasing autonomy of workers
C) giving workers more feedback
D) giving workers less feedback
Answer: A
Explanation: A) JCM theory defines meaningfulness of work as being determined by task
identity, task significance, and skill variety, so increasing skill variety is the correct response.
None of the other choices list any of the three meaningful work dimensions, so they are
incorrect.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 273-274
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.3
142) Most jobs at Acme were redesigned to allow the employees to complete a whole and
identifiable piece of work. This fits ________, a core dimension of the job characteristics
model.
A) skill variety
B) task identity
C) task significance
D) autonomy
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Having a task involve doing something from start to finish and obtaining a
recognizable product is defined by JCM as task identity. Skill variety, task significance, and
autonomy are all core dimensions but they do not match the description given so they are
incorrect responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 273-274
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.3
143) In addition to these changes, Acme managers explained how important their product
was to the world economy. Which core dimension in the job characteristics model is this?
A) skill variety
B) task identity
C) task significance
D) autonomy
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The managers, in calling attention to the importance of the work product,
are recognizing the JCM core dimension called task significance. The other core dimensions
listed here do not match the description, so they are incorrect responses. Skill variety refers to
variety in job tasks. Task identity refers to providing a discrete and whole work product.
Autonomy refers to independence for workers.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 273-274
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.3
144) The Acme managers developed a program that allowed the employees to have a large
degree of freedom carrying out their jobs. Which core dimension are they providing?
A) task significance
B) autonomy
C) task identity
D) skill variety
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The managers, in giving employees independence, are recognizing
autonomy in the JCM system. The other core dimensions listed here do not match the
description, so they are incorrect responses. Skill variety refers to heterogeneity in job tasks.
Task identity refers to providing a discrete and whole work product. Task significance refers
to the importance of a work product.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 273-274
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.3
Application of Early Theories of Motivation
Three managers work at the Pabco Company. Aaron really "cracks the whip" on his
employees and firmly believes in strict controls and punishment for those employees who do
not perform up to company expectations.
Zach has very few controls and believes that as long as people know what their objectives
are, they will exercise self-control and self-direction.
Susan has been trying to improve working conditions and manager-employee relations to
increase the level of productivity in her department.
145) Zach has the desire to develop and use his own abilities and potential to the maximum,
an example of the ________ need in Maslow's hierarchy of needs.
A) esteem
B) safety
C) social
D) self-actualization
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The highest-order need in Maslow's system is self-actualization, in which
individuals stretch their potential and seek self- fulfillment, something that Zach is doing here.
In seeking the highest goals, Zach is going beyond lower-level safety needs, mid-level social
needs, or not quite as high- level esteem needs.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 267
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
146) McClelland might explain Aaron's desire to influence and control his employees as
having a high need for ________.
A) power
B) affiliation
C) achievement
D) acceptance
Answer: A
Explanation: A) McClelland's definition of power as the need to control the behavior of
others accurately fits the description of Aaron. That means that Aaron has a high nPow, the
need for power, making power the correct response. This rules out nAff, nAch, or the nonMcClelland need for acceptance as correct responses for this question.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 270
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
147) Susan's use of better working conditions and employee relations is likely to ________.
A) increase employee satisfaction
B) decrease employee satisfaction
C) decrease employee dissatisfaction
D) decrease employee dissatisfaction and increase satisfaction
Answer: C
Explanation: C) In Herzberg's Two-Factor theory, improving hygiene factors like working
conditions and employee relations will function to decrease dissatisfaction, but they will not
increase satisfaction. This makes decreasing employee dissatisfaction the correct response
and rules out the other three choices as correct respo nses because they all involve
satisfaction, a condition that is not affected by changing hygiene factors.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 269
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
148) Aaron is what type of manager?
A) Theory X-oriented
B) Theory Y-oriented
C) democratic
D) laissez- faire
Answer: A
Explanation: A) A Theory X manager uses fear, punishment, and coercion to manage. A
Theory Y manager provides challenges and incentives for his workers. Aaron, who cracks the
whip, clearly uses fear to manage, so he is a Theory X manager. He is clearly not overly
democratic or laissez- faire so Theory X-oriented is the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 268
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
149) Zach is what type of manager?
A) Theory X-oriented
B) Theory Y-oriented
C) dictatorial
D) autocratic
Answer: B
Explanation: B) A Theory X manager uses fear, punishment, and coercion to manage. A
Theory Y manager trusts his workers and provides them with challenges and incentives.
Zach, who trusts his workers, fits the description of a Theory Y manager. He is clearly not
dictatorial, autocratic, or a Theory X manager, so Theory Y-oriented is the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 268
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
150) Susan was trying to use what types of Herzberg factors to increase productivity?
A) motivators
B) hygiene
C) social
D) esteem
Answer: B
Explanation: B) In bettering working conditions and employee relations, Susan is using
hygiene factors to try to increase productivity. Improving hygiene factors won't improve
satisfaction like motivators, but they will decrease dissatisfaction for workers. Social and
esteem factors are not Herzberg categories so they are not correct responses here.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 269
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 10.2
151) Zach was using which types of Herzberg factors to increase productivity levels?
A) motivators
B) hygiene
C) social
D) esteem
Answer: A
Chapter 12 Leadership and Trust
42) Because leading is one of the four basic managerial functions, ________ leaders.
A) all managers are
B) all managers should be
C) some managers are
D) some managers should be
Answer: B
Explanation: B) As one of four basic managerial functions, leading is one of the things that
defines what a manager does, so all managers should be leaders, making that the correct
response. Since some managers clearly are not leaders, the remaining three choices are not
correct responses for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 294
Objective: 11.1
43) Early leadership trait research looked to find characteristics that might ________.
A) distinguish ordinary leaders from great leaders
B) define charisma
C) identify the physical traits of leaders
D) differentiate leaders from nonleaders
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Early leadership studies looked to find the traits that could distinguish
leaders from non- leaders. These efforts proved to be largely unsuccessful, as leadership
seemed to be hard to define precisely and it varied from situation to situation. Early studies
were somewhat concerned with finding great leaders or understanding charisma as a basic
leadership trait, but these were not primary concerns of early investigators so they are
incorrect responses. Physical traits of leaders were never a concern of early or contemporary
leadership scholars, so that choice is incorrect.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 294
Objective: 11.2
44) Leaders are ________.
A) individual people, while leadership is a process
B) the first step in the leadership process
C) individual people who study the leadership process.
D) the final step in the leadership process.
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Leaders are individual people, not part of a process, which rules out the two
choices regarding steps as correct responses. Leadership itself is a process, making
"individual people, while leadership is a process" the correct response since it correctly
identifies leaders as individual people and leadership as a process of leading others. Leaders
do not simply study leadership, as the remaining choice indicates, but actually guide and
influence others toward goals.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 294
Objective: 11.2
45) If a trait theory of leadership were true, then all leaders would possess ________.
A) charisma
B) the same traits
C) different traits
D) seven traits
Answer: B
Explanation: B) If the trait theory were true then all leaders would have the same universal
traits, making "the same traits" the correct response for this question. If all leaders had the
same traits then they clearly could not have different traits, eliminating that choice as a
correct answer. The remaining two choices can be ruled out because they are too specific—a
trait leadership theory could be true and not have precisely seven traits or not include
charisma as a trait.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 294
Objective: 11.2
46) The most successful early trait theories focused on ________.
A) traits of famous leaders
B) traits of followers
C) traits associated with leadership
D) traits that distinguish leaders from non-leaders
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Early efforts to distinguish leaders from non- leaders were largely
unsuccessful, causing researchers to focus on traits of leadership rather than leaders, making
that the correct response. Traits of followers came in more contemporary leadership studies,
making that choice incorrect, while traits of famous leaders were never explicitly taken up,
ruling out that choice as a correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 294
Objective: 11.2
47) Trait theory effectively explains why ________.
A) some people are leaders
B) some people are not leaders
C) successful leaders are effective
D) leadership involves extraversion
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Rather than identify why some people can be leaders and others cannot, trait
theory did a fairly good job of explaining why some leaders were effective and others were
not, making "successful leaders being effective" the correct response. Extraversion is just one
of many leadership traits that may or may not be essential, so "leadership involving
extraversion" is not a correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 295
Objective: 11.2
48) Behavioral theories of leadership focused on ________.
A) who effective leaders were
B) what characteristics effective leaders had
C) how to identify effective leaders
D) what effective leaders did
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Early trait theories focused on who effective leaders were, making "who
effective leaders were" and "how to identify them" match trait theories, not behavioral
theories. "What characteristics effective leaders had" focuses on characteristics, which are
synonymous with traits, so it matches a trait approach, not a behavioral approach. The correct
response is "what effective leaders did," since it focuses on the actions and behaviors of
effective leaders, not their characteristics and traits.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 295
Objective: 11.2
49) The promise of behavioral theories of leadership held that this would be possible.
A) picking a leader out of crowd
B) being able to train a person to be leader
C) explaining why successful leaders were successful
D) eliminating ineffective leaders
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The great promise of behavioral theories of leadership is that they would
show how leaders could be trained, making "being able to train a person to be leader" the
correct response. Behavioral theories attempted to identify what successful leaders did, and if
those actions could be identified, they could be imparted to others through training. Trait
theories, on the other hand, attempted to explain the success of leaders and how to identify
leaders through permanent character traits, not behavioral actions, making these incorrect
answers for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 295
Objective: 11.2
50) The University of Iowa studies discussed all of the following leadership styles EXCEPT
________ leadership.
A) laissez- faire
B) democratic
C) benevolent
D) autocratic
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The Iowa studies identified autocratic "dictating" style leaders, democratic
leaders who delegate and welcome feedback, and laissez-faire leaders who allowed
employees to have complete freedom over their actions, ruling out all of these choices. A
"benevolent" style of leadership was not identified in the Iowa study, so it is the correct
response for this question.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 295
Objective: 11.2
51) Which leadership style tends to centralize authority and make unilateral decisions?
A) cultural style
B) autocratic style
C) democratic style
D) laissez- faire style
Answer: B
Explanation: B) An autocratic style is a dictatorial style in which the leader allows little input
or leeway from followers, making all decisions, keeping a tight control on all activities, and
severely limiting employee participation in decision making. A democratic style can be
eliminated because it describes a more open, less centralized style of leadership, as well as a
laissez-faire style, which is completely open and unstructured. A cultural style can be ruled
out because it is not a recognized leadership style in the Iowa study.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 296
Objective: 11.2
52) Jared's boss encourages employees to participate in the decision-making process, but does
not give them complete freedom to do as they like. She has this kind of leadership style.
A) monarchial
B) autocratic
C) laissez-faire
D) democratic
Answer: D
Explanation: D) An autocratic style severely limits employee participation in decision
making, so that choice is not the correct answer for this question. A lais sez-faire style gives
employees complete freedom to make decisions, so that choice is not the correct answer for
this question. A democratic style matches Jared's boss because it identifies a more open, less
centralized style of leadership that allows employees to participate in the decision- making
process, making that choice the correct response. A monarchial style can be ruled out because
it is not a recognized leadership style in the Iowa study.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 296
Objective: 11.2
53) Monica's boss allows her to make any decision she thinks is important on the spot
without consulting anyone. Monica's boss has this kind of leadership style.
A) laissez- faire style
B) autocratic style
C) democratic style
D) hands-on style
Answer: A
Explanation: A) An autocratic style severely limits employee participation in decision
making, so that choice is not the correct answer for this question. A democratic style gives
employees some, but not complete freedom to make decisions, so that choice is not the
correct answer for this question. A laissez- faire style matches Monica's boss because it
identifies a completely open style of leadership that allows employees to make any and all
decisions they want, making that choice the correct response. A hands-on style can be ruled
out because it is not a recognized leadership style in the Iowa study.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 296
Objective: 11.2
54) The Iowa studies indicated that this was the most successful leadership style.
A) autocratic
B) laissez-faire
C) combination of autocratic and laissez- faire
D) democratic
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The Iowa studies were not definitive, but they did clearly indicate that
employee satisfaction levels were highest under a democratic leadership style, making that
choice the correct answer. Autocratic styles were found to be successful in limited situations,
but not as successful as democratic styles, so autocratic is incorrect. Laissez- faire styles were
found to be unsuccessful, so that choice can be ruled out. Combinations of styles were not
considered, so that choice can be ruled out.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 296
Objective: 11.2
55) A democratic consultative leader ________.
A) seeks input and shares the final decision
B) makes the final decision herself without input
C) seeks input but makes the final decision herself
D) shares the final decision without input
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The Iowa studies identified two different types of democratic leader.
Participative leaders seek employee input for decisions and share the dec ision itself with
employees. Consultative leaders also seek input, but reserve the final decision for themselves,
making that choice the correct response. Both remaining choices are incorrect because they
feature leaders foregoing input, which does not accurately describe a democratic leadership
style.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 296
Objective: 11.2
56) A democratic participative leader ________.
A) seeks input and shares the final decision
B) shares the final decision without input
C) makes the final decision herself without input
D) seeks input but makes the final decision herself
Answer: A
Explanation: A) In the Iowa studies, participative leaders seek employee input for decisions
and share the decision itself with employees, making that choice the correct response.
Consultative leaders also seek input, but reserve the final decision for themselves, making
that choice an incorrect response. Both remaining choices are incorrect because they feature
leaders foregoing input, which does not accurately describe a democratic leadership style.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 296
Objective: 11.2
57) Tannenbaum and Schmidt's continuum studies suggested that managers should move
toward ________ leadership styles.
A) manager-centered
B) task-centered
C) employee-centered
D) quality-centered
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Tannenbaum and Schmidt's study proposed that managers look at their own
tendencies, such as comfort level with a certain leadership style, and employee tendencies,
such as responsibility levels, and find a match between the two. This match, according to the
study, leaned toward employee-centered leadership styles, which increased employee
motivation and quality of work, making employee-centered the correct response and ruling
out all other responses for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 296
Objective: 11.2
58) In the Ohio State studies, ________ refers to how strict a leader's standards are.
A) independent dimensions
B) comprehensive structure
C) initiating structure
D) consideration
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The Ohio State studies started with over a thousand dimensions of leader
behavior and narrowed them down to two—consideration and initiating structure.
Consideration refers to how "employee friendly" a leader is, making consideration an
incorrect response, while initiating structure refers to a leader who is concerned with
rigorously assigning tasks and maintaining standards, making initiating structure the correct
response. Neither term for of the two remaining choices were identified as dimensions in the
study, so they are incorrect responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 296
Objective: 11.2
59) In the Ohio State studies, ________ refers to how much mutual trust exists between
employees and leaders.
A) consideration of limitations
B) consideration
C) initiating structure
D) initiating ideas
Answer: B
Explanation: B) In the Ohio State studies, consideration refers to how "employee friendly" a
leader is, making consideration the correct response, while initiating structure refers to a
leader who is concerned with rigorously assigning tasks and maintaining standards, making
initiating structure an incorrect response. Neither term for the two remaining choices were
identified as dimensions in the Ohio State study, so they are incorrect responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 296
Objective: 11.2
60) A high- high leader in the Ohio State studies achieved the highest ratings with respect to
________.
A) both employee performance and satisfaction
B) employee performance only
C) employee satisfaction only
D) employee performance for routine tasks only
Answer: A
Explanation: A) In general, a high- high leader who is high in both initiating structure and
consideration achieved the best results in both performance and employee satisfaction,
making that choice the correct response, and ruling out employee performance only and
employee satisfaction only since they identify only one high scoring category. Employee
performance for routine tasks only can be ruled out because the results for routine tasks did
not turn out to favor high- high leaders, but rather, leaders who were high in consideration
only.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 297
Objective: 11.2
61) The Ohio State studies indicated that leaders who were high in consideration performed
________.
A) best in all situations
B) best when employee tasks were routine
C) worst when employee tasks were routine
D) best when employee tasks were non-routine
Answer: B
Explanation: B) In general, high- high leaders had the best results with respect to employee
performance and job satisfaction. However, leaders who were high in initiating structure did
not perform as well as consideration-oriented leaders when employee tasks were routine,
indicating that a sympathetic approach works best in tedious situations. This makes "best
when employee tasks were routine" the correct response, and rules out "worst when tasks
were routine" and "best in all situations" as untrue and the remaining choice because it
focuses on non-routine tasks.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 298
Objective: 11.2
62) The Ohio State studies indicated that leaders who were high in initiating structure
received ________.
A) the highest employee ratings
B) the lowest employee ratings
C) the same employee ratings as leaders who were high in consideration
D) below average employee ratings
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Leaders who were high in initiating structure often received higher
performance ratings from employees than leaders who were high in consideration. This
makes highest employee ratings the correct response, and rules out the remaining three
choices as untrue.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 298
Objective: 11.2
63) According to the University of Michigan studies, leaders who were ________ were
associated with higher group productivity and higher job satisfaction.
A) employee-oriented
B) initiating structure
C) considerate
D) production-oriented
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The Michigan studies generally agreed with the Iowa studies—leaders who
were employee oriented and focused on people rather than task and job aspects tended to
correlate to greater job satisfaction and higher productivity, making employee-oriented the
correct response and production-oriented incorrect. Note that initiating structure and
considerate are incorrect because they refer to terminology from the Iowa rather tha n the
Michigan studies.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 298
Objective: 11.2
64) On the managerial grid a leader who is high in both concern for people and concern for
production would rate ________.
A) 1,1
B) 9,1
C) 5,5
D) 9,9
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The first number for the managerial grid measures concern for production
while the second number measures concern for people. Therefore, a leader who rates high in
concern for both people and production rates a 9,9, making that choice the correct response
and ruling out other choices.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 298
Objective: 11.2
65) Estéban was rated a 5,8 on the managerial grid. A good way to describe Estéban is
________.
A) high in concern for both people and production
B) high in concern for people, low in concern for production
C) high in concern for people, moderate in concern for production
D) low in concern for people, moderate in concern for production
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The first number for the managerial grid measures concern for production
while the second number measures concern for people. Estéban therefore rates fairly high in
concern for people, the second number, and average in concern for production, the first
number, making "high, moderate" the correct response. High for both describes a 9,9 leader,
not a 5,8 leader, so it is incorrect. High, low describes a 1,9 leader, not a 5,8 leader, so it is
incorrect. Low, moderate describes a 5,1 leader, not a 5,8 leader, so it is incorrect.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 298
Objective: 11.2
66) Which description best characterizes a 9,1 leadership style on the managerial grid?
A) impoverished management
B) task management
C) middle-of-the-road management
D) country club management
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Impoverished management is the description for a 1,1 leadership style
because it lacks concern for both people and production. Middle-of-the-road management is
the description for a 5,5 leadership style because it is in the center of both scales. Country
club management is the description for a 1,9 leadership style because it values employees far
above production. Task management is the description for a 9,1 leadership style because its
only concern is production, or tasks, rather than people, making task management the correct
response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 298
Objective: 11.2
67) Which quadrant of the managerial grid generally identifies the most successful leaders?
A) top left
B) bottom left
C) bottom right
D) top right
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The researchers concluded that a 9,9 leadership style worked best in a
general sense. Since a 9,9 rating is in the top right quadrant, it is that quadrant that is
identified as the best and most productive type of leadership, making top right the correct
response, and eliminating all other responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 298
Objective: 11.2
68) The key to the Fiedler contingency model of leadership is to match ________.
A) leader and follower
B) leader and leadership style
C) leadership style and follower
D) leadership style and situation
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Fiedler's model first set out to define leadership styles and situations that
required leadership. Then the model sought to match the correct leadership style to each
situation, making leadership style and situation the correct response. The model did not
concern itself with leaders themselves, or followers, which rules out the remaining three
choices.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 299
Objective: 11.3
69) What does Fiedler's least-preferred coworker questionnaire measure?
A) the most common leadership style among all leaders
B) leadership style of respondents who took the test
C) the most effective leadership style
D) the least effective leadership style
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Fiedler's LPC studies asked respondents to identify the qualities that their
least favorite coworker possessed—thus having them identify the style they least liked to be
associated with. People-oriented respondents tended to see positive traits in their least
favorite coworker, giving them relatively higher LPC scores, while task-oriented people
would fail to see any virtues in their least preferred coworkers, giving them relatively low
LPC scores. Note that LPC scores are really about the respondents, not about the least
preferred coworkers themselves. All these factors indicate that the LPC system measures the
leadership style of respondents. It has no bearing on which leadership style is most common
or effective, ruling out the remaining three choices.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 299
Objective: 11.3
70) Fiedler assumed a person's leadership style ________.
A) is contingent on the situation
B) is variable
C) evolves over time
D) is fixed
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Fiedler's system assumed that leaders had fixed leadership styles which did
not vary, were not dependent on the situation, and did not change over time, making fixed the
correct response, and eliminating the other three choices. Fiedler's model saw leaders as fairly
monolithic, taking the same approach no matter what the situation was or how it changed.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 300
Objective: 11.3
71) Fiedler's LPC ratings concluded that leaders were either ________.
A) positive or negative
B) task oriented or trusting
C) relationship oriented or people oriented
D) task oriented or relationship oriented
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Fielder's LPC ratings saw leaders with scores of 64 or above as relationship
oriented while those with scores of 57 or below were task oriented, making "task oriented or
relationship oriented" the correct response. Fiedler did not characterize leaders as positive or
negative, "trusting," or "people oriented," making those responses incorrect.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 300
Objective: 11.3
72) The ________ dimension reflects the degree of trust and respect subordinates had for
their leader in Fiedler's model.
A) leader- member relations
B) position power
C) task structure
D) effectiveness
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The leader-member relations contingency dimension in Fiedler's model
measures trust, respect, and confidence employees have for a leader. Position power
identifies how much influence a leader has over such things as hiring, firing, and
compensation. Task structure identifies how formalized jobs are. Of the four choices, only
leader- member relations identifies trust and respect, so that choice is the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 300
Objective: 11.3
73) Your boss has total control over hiring, firing, and promotions in your department. He has
________.
A) low position power
B) high position power
C) high task structure
D) low task structure
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Position power identifies how much influence a leader has over such things
as hiring, firing, and compensation. Task structure identifies how formalized jobs are, so high
and low task structure can be ruled out because the question involves hiring and firing, not
job formalization. Of the two remaining choices, a boss with total control would be said to
have high not low position power, making high position power the correct response and low
position power incorrect.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 300
Objective: 11.3
74) Jobs in a firm are quite informal. Workers are versatile and switch tasks and
responsibilities depending on the situation. In Fiedler's model, this firm would be said to have
________.
A) good leader- member relations
B) high position power
C) high task structure
D) low task structure
Answer: D
Explanation: D) For Fiedler's model, position power identifies how much influence a leader
has over such things as hiring, firing, and compensation. Leader- member relations measures
trust, respect, and confidence employees have for a leader. Task structure identifies how
formalized jobs are. Of the four choices choices, only high and low task structure involve job
formalization, so that rules out the other two choices. Since jobs are very informal at this
firm, it has low task structure, making that the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 300
Objective: 11.3
75) Fiedler concluded that task-oriented leaders performed best when the situation was
________.
A) highly favorable
B) highly unfavorable
C) either highly favorable or highly unfavorable
D) moderately favorable or moderately unfavorable
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Fiedler concluded that task-oriented leaders were best for extreme
situations—they provided structure and guidance in highly unfavorable situations and they
provided little interference in highly favorable situations. This makes the choice indicating
either highly favorable or highly unfavorable the correct response and rules out the two
choices indicating highly favorable and highly unfavorable because they are incomplete.
Moderately favorable or unfavorable situations are best handled by relationship-oriented
leaders, not task-oriented leaders.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 300-301
Objective: 11.3
76) Fiedler concluded that relationship-oriented leaders performed best when the situation
was ________.
A) highly favorable
B) highly unfavorable
C) either highly favorable or highly unfavorable
D) moderately favorable or moderately unfavorable
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Fiedler concluded that relationship-oriented leaders were best for moderate
situations—they provided motivation and a sounding board in situations in which people
needed a little push in the right direction. This makes the choice indicating moderation the
correct response and rules out the two choices indicating highly favorable and highly
unfavorable because they are incomplete. Highly favorable or unfavorable situations are best
handled by task-oriented leaders, not relationship-oriented leaders.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 300-301
Objective: 11.3
77) A major criticism of Fiedler's work stated that it failed to recognize that effective leaders
________.
A) are always task oriented
B) can change leadership styles
C) cannot change leadership styles
D) are always relationship oriented
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Fiedler's model assumed that leadership style is fixed, so not being able to
change leadership styles is a quality that it did recognize. Fiedler's model did not
categorically endorse either a task-oriented or a relationship-oriented leadership style, so
those two choices can be ruled out as correct answers for this question. The criticism most
commonly leveled at the model was that it failed to recognize that leaders are not static—they
can change leadership styles depending on the situation. This makes that choice the correct
response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 301
Objective: 11.3
78) In the situational leadership theory (SLT), readiness is defined as ________ to perform a
task.
A) the ability
B) the willingness
C) both the ability and willingness
D) the motivation one has
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Readiness in the SLT has two dimensions, the ability that an employee has
to perform a task, and the willingness that he or she has to perform the task, making both the
ability and willingness the correct response. The two choices indicating just one of these
features are incorrect responses because neither lists both ability and willingness. Motivation
is a factor in performing a task, but not a measure of readiness so motivation is an incorrect
choice for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 301
Objective: 11.3
79) ________ is defined in situational leadership theory (SLT) as a high task, low
relationship leadership role.
A) Telling
B) Selling
C) Participating
D) Delegating
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Telling is a high task, low relationship role in which the leader tells workers
precisely what to do but provides little support. Selling is a high task, high relationship role in
which the leader provides a great deal of both direction and support. Participating is a low
task, high relationship role in which the leader is primarily a facilitator. Delegating is a low
task, low relationship role in which the leader provides little direction or support. The high
task, low relationship leadership described here makes telling the correct answer.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 301
Objective: 11.3
80) A leader who provides maximum supportive behavior and a great deal of explicit
instructions for how to carry out a task is assuming this SLT role.
A) telling
B) selling
C) participating
D) delegating
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Telling is a high task, low relationship role in which the leader tells workers
precisely what to do but provides little support. Selling is a high task, high relationship role in
which the leader provides a great deal of both direction and support. Participating is a low
task, high relationship role in which the leader is primarily a facilitator. Delegating is a low
task, low relationship role in which the leader provides little direction or support. The high
task, high relationship leadership described here makes selling the correct answer.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 301
Objective: 11.3
81) A leader who pretty much leaves employees on their own is assuming this SLT role.
A) telling
B) selling
C) participating
D) delegating
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Selling is a high task, high relationship role in which the leader provides a
great deal of both direction and support. Participating is a low task, high relationship role in
which the leader is primarily a facilitator. Delegating is a low task, low relationship role in
which the leader provides little direction or support. Telling is a high task, low relationship
role in which the leader tells workers precisely what to do but provides little support. A
leadership relationship in which the leader provides little direction or support makes
delegating the correct answer.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 301
Objective: 11.3
82) Which category of follower is considered to be both unable and unwilling to complete a
task?
A) R1
B) R2
C) R3
D) R4
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The R1 category is considered to be both unable and unwilling to complete
a task, making it the correct response. An R2 is unable and willing. An R3 is able but
unwilling. An R4 is both able and willing to complete a task.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 302
Objective: 11.3
83) Which category of follower is considered to be able but unwilling to complete a task?
A) R1
B) R2
C) R3
D) R4
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The R3 category is considered to be able but unwilling to complete a task,
making it the correct response. An R2 is unable and willing. An R1 is able but unwilling. An
R4 is both able and willing to complete a task.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 302
Objective: 11.3
84) Which leadership style works best with an R1 type of follower?
A) delegating
B) selling
C) telling
D) participating
Answer: C
Explanation: C) An R1 person is both unable and unwilling to complete a task. This person
therefore needs a telling style of leadership that is straightforward, clear, and direct. A selling
leadership style is best suited for an R2 individual who is unable but willing to perform a
task. An R3 individual who is able but unwilling to perform a task respo nds best to a
participating leadership strategy. An R4 individual who is able and willing to perform a task
responds best to a delegating leadership strategy.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 302
Objective: 11.3
85) A delegating leadership style works best with which type of follower?
A) R1
B) R2
C) R3
D) R4
Answer: D
Explanation: D) A delegating leadership style is reserved for individuals who are both able
and willing to perform a task—all they really need is to be shown the task. This makes R4 the
correct answer. An R1 person is both unable and unwilling to complete a task so he or she
needs a telling, not a delegating leadership style. An R2 person is unable but willing to
complete a task so he or she needs a selling, not a delegating leadership style. An R3 person
is able but unwilling to complete a task so he or she needs a participating, not a delegating
leadership style.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 302
Objective: 11.3
86) Which leadership style works best with an R2 type of follower?
A) participating
B) selling
C) telling
D) delegating
Answer: B
Explanation: B) An R2 person is unable but willing to complete a task. This person therefore
needs a selling style of leadership that provides a great deal direction to make up for ability
deficiencies and support to keep motivation high. A telling leadership style is best suited for
an R1 individual who is unable and unwilling to perform a task. An R3 individual who is able
but unwilling to perform a task responds best to a participating leadership strategy. An R4
individual who is able and willing to perform a task responds best to a delegating leadership
strategy.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 302
Objective: 11.3
87) A participating leadership style works best with which type of follower?
A) R1
B) R2
C) R3
D) R4
Answer: C
Explanation: C) A participating leadership style works best for individuals who are able but
unwilling to perform a task—these people need the leader to join them so they can feel a
sense of "ownership" in the process. This makes R3 the correct answer. An R1 person is both
unable and unwilling to complete a task so he or she needs a telling, not a participating,
leadership style. An R2 person is unable but willing to complete a task so he or she needs a
selling, not a participating, leadership style. An R4 person is able and willing to complete a
task so he or she needs a delegating, not a participating, leadership style.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 302
Objective: 11.3
88) The leader-participation model contends that leader behavior should ________.
A) never vary
B) adjust to the structure of the task involved
C) be dependent on the traits of the leader
D) be consistent from task to task
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The leader-participation model requires that leader behavior change
depending on the structure of the task that followers are asked to accomplish, making
adjusting to the structure of the task involved the correct response. Never varying and
consistency are incorrect because they call for leader behavior that is fixed, while leaderparticipation calls for leader behavior that varies depending on the task at hand. Being
dependent on the traits of the leader is incorrect because it refers back to trait theories of
leadership that depend only on the character of the leader.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 303
Objective: 11.3
89) Results from the leader-participation model conclude that it is more important to talk
about autocratic and participative ________.
A) situations than leaders
B) leaders than situations
C) leaders than followers
D) followers than situations
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Conclusions from the leader-participation model indicate that situations
matter more for leadership than leaders. A leader can change his or her style more easily than
he or she can change a situation, making "ituations than leaders" the correct response and
ruling out all other responses. "Leaders than situations" is incorrect because situations are
more important than leaders. Both remaining choices are incorrect because they deal with
followers rather than leaders and situations.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 303
Objective: 11.3
90) The most important conclusion from the leader-participation model is that ________.
A) a leader must keep the same leadership style no matter what the situation is
B) a leader must change his or her leadership style depending on the situation
C) a leader must try to change the situation if it does not suit his or her leadership style
D) all situations are similar
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The leader-participation model assumes that all situations are different,
ruling out all situations being similar as a correct choice. The most important conclusion of
the model is that since leaders can't change most situations, they must change their leadership
style for each situation, making that choice the correct response and ruling out the choice
indicating keeping the same leadership style no matter the situation.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 303
Objective: 11.3
91) The path-goal theory sees the job of an effective leader as ________.
A) providing clear instructions for followers
B) clearing the path between followers and their goals
C) defining goals for followers
D) helping followers understand their goals
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The path- goal theory sees a leader as someone who removes obstacles that
prevent followers from achieving their goals, making "clearing the path" the correct response.
Providing instructions, defining goals, and helping clarify goals are all functions of a leader,
but they are not as important as clearing the path that followers need to take to reach their
goals.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 303
Objective: 11.3
92) A(n) ________ leader in path-goal theory gives specific guidance in performing tasks.
A) directive
B) achievement-oriented
C) participative
D) supportive
Answer: A
Explanation: A) A directive leader pays close attention to schedules, gives followers specific
guidance in how to perform tasks, and lets followers know precisely what is expected of
them, making directive the correct response. An achievement-oriented leader sets goals and
expects followers to find their own way to reach them. A participative leader consults with
followers closely when making decisions. A supportive leader is focused on followers as
people first, and has great concern for their needs.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 303
Objective: 11.3
93) An important trait of a(n)________ leader in path- goal theory is friendliness.
A) achievement-oriented
B) directive
C) participative
D) supportive
Answer: D
Explanation: D) A supportive leader is focused on followe rs as people first, has concern for
their needs, and tries to be friendly, making "supportive" the correct response. An
achievement-oriented leader sets goals and expects followers to find their own way to reach
them. A participative leader consults with followers closely when making decisions. A
directive leader pays close attention to schedules, gives followers specific guidance in how to
perform tasks, and lets them know precisely what is expected of them.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 303
Objective: 11.3
94) A(n) ________ leader in path-goal theory does little but set challenging goals for
followers.
A) supportive
B) participative
C) achievement-oriented
D) directive
Answer: C
Explanation: C) An achievement-oriented leader sets goals and expects followers to find
their own way to reach them, making "achievement-oriented" the correct response. A
participative leader consults with followers closely when making decisions. A supportive
leader is focused on followers as people first, and has great concern for their needs. A
directive leader pays close attention to schedules, gives followers specific guidance in how to
perform tasks, and lets them know precisely what is expected of them.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 303
Objective: 11.3
95) A(n) ________ leader in path-goal theory often makes decisions collectively with
followers.
A) directive
B) participative
C) achievement-oriented
D) supportive
Answer: B
Explanation: B) A participative leader consults with followers closely when making
decisions, making participative the correct response. An achievement-oriented leader sets
goals and expects followers to find their own way to reach them. A supportive leader is
focused on followers as people first, and has great concern for their needs. A directive leader
pays close attention to schedules, gives followers specific guidance in how to perform tasks,
and lets followers know precisely what is expected of them.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 303
Objective: 11.3
96) Path-goal theory assumes that environmental factors such as ________ can change a
leadership situation.
A) locus of control of followers
B) personal work experience of followers
C) skills and abilities of a followers
D) work group structure of followers
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Locus of control, experience, and abilities of followers are all personal
characteristics of followers, not external environmental factors, so they are incorrect
responses. A follower's work group structure is a non-personal external factor, making that
choice the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 303
Objective: 11.3
97) Which of the following is included in the class of contingency variables that are
associated with personal characteristics of a follower?
A) locus of control
B) task structure
C) group structure
D) formal authority system
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Task structure, group structure, and the formal authority system of the
organization are all external environmental factors, not personal characteristics of followers,
so they are incorrect responses. A follower's locus of control is a personal characteristic of
the follower him- or herself, making locus of control the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 303
Objective: 11.3
98) In path- goal theory, a directive leadership style works well in a situation in which tasks
are ________.
A) straightforward and unambiguous
B) ambiguous and confusing
C) highly structured
D) clearly defined
Answer: B
Explanation: B) In situations that are straightforward, clearly defined, and structured, a
directive leadership style shows no clear advantage. Where a directive style is advantageous
is when tasks are stressful, confusing, and ambiguous, making ambiguous and confusing the
correct response. Direct guidance by a leader in the face of a confusing task is the best
approach when tasks are hard to get a handle on.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 304
Objective: 11.3
99) In a highly mechanistic organization, this approach seems to work best.
A) supportive
B) directive
C) achievement oriented
D) participative
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The more bureaucratic and formalized an organization is, the more leaders
need to temper this rigidity with a supportive leadership style, making supportive the correct
response. In a rigid organization a directive style needs to be toned down, so a directive st yle
would not work. Achievement-oriented and participative styles offer no extra support for this
kind of situation, so they are both incorrect responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 304
Objective: 11.3
100) A participative leadership style works well with subordinates who ________.
A) have little faith in their own ability
B) are having work group conflicts
C) have an external locus of control
D) have an internal locus of control
Answer: D
Explanation: D) A participative style works well with self-assured individuals who have an
internal locus of control, which makes that choice the correct response and rules out external
locus of control and lack of faith in ability. Subordinates who are having work group conflicts
do best with a take-charge directive style, making that choice an incorrect response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 304
Objective: 11.3
101) Leaders who are looking for exceptionally high performance from subordinates might
try this approach
A) supportive
B) directive
C) achievement oriented
D) participative
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The achievement-oriented approach sets out challenging goals and allows
subordinates to use their own creative resources to find ways to reach those goals. If the
subordinates are competent, this is an effective way to obtain high levels of performance,
making achievement oriented the correct response and eliminating all other responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 304
Objective: 11.3
102) A leader should avoid a directive leadership style when ________.
A) tasks are highly structured
B) workers have an external locus of control
C) tasks are stressful and ambiguous
D) work groups experience conflict
Answer: A
Explanation: A) A directive style is the best strategy when tasks are ambiguous, work groups
are having conflicts, or workers have an external locus of control, eliminating all of these
choices as correct responses. Where a directive approach does not work is when tasks are
highly structured, making that choice the correct response. When tasks are highly structured,
workers can come to resent the pressure of a directive style without gaining any benefits from
its guidance or instruction.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 304
Objective: 11.3
103) Transactional leaders are leaders who guide by ________.
A) inspiring followers
B) articulating a vision for followers
C) the force of their personality
D) offering rewards to followers
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The essence of transactional leadership is to offer rewards of some type in
exchange for the output of workers, making "offering rewards" the correct response.
"Inspiring followers" describes a transformational leader rather than a transactional leader.
"Articulating a vision" describes a visionary leader rather than a transactional leader. "The
force of their personality" describes a charismatic leader rather than a transactional leader.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 305-306
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 11.4
104) Visionary leaders are leaders who guide by ________.
A) inspiring followers
B) articulating a vision of the future
C) the force of their personality
D) offering rewards to followers
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The key to visionary leadership is to create a credible, attractive vision of
the future that makes followers want to work toward its realization, making that choice the
correct response. Visionary leaders differ from charismatic leaders and transformational
leaders in that they focus on the vision of the future itself rather than their own personality or
the inspiration they offer. Visionary leaders do not offer tangible rewards in the present,
making offering rewards incorrect.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 305-306
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 11.4
105) Transformational leaders are leaders who guide by ________.
A) inspiring followers
B) articulating a vision for followers
C) the force of their personality
D) offering rewards to followers
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The key to transformational leadership is to inspire followers to follow the
leader's path, making inspiring followers the correct response. Transformational leaders differ
from charismatic leaders and visionary leaders in that they evolve from transactional
situations. That is, transformational leaders at first use rewards to show followers success.
The success itself, as well as the vision supplied by the transformational leader, serves to
inspire followers and get them to do what the leader says.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 305-306
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 11.4
106) Which of the following is an accurate statement about transformational leaders?
A) They are poor motivators.
B) Their organizations suffer from high turnover rates
C) Their organizations are highly productive.
D) Their organizations are not productive.
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Transformational leaders tend to be superb motivators, not poor motivators,
and have workers who are productive and low in turnover rates rather than unproductive and
high in turnover rates. This makes highly productive organizations the only accurate
statement.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 305
Objective: 11.4
107) Which term is most closely associated with transformational leaders?
A) charming
B) efficient
C) far-seeing
D) inspiring
Answer: D
Explanation: D) A transformational leader is first and foremost inspiring, making inspiring
the correct response. Charming describes a charismatic leader more than a transformational
leader. Efficient may describe a transactional leader. Far-seeing best matches a visionary
leader.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 305
Objective: 11.4
108) Which of the following is NOT a typical trait of a charismatic leader
A) direct eye contact
B) relaxed body posture
C) animated facial expressions
D) erect body posture
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Direct eye contact, exuberant facial expressions, and a relaxed posture
characterize a charismatic leader. One key to this leader's effectiveness is that people find
him comfortable to be around. Rigid or erect body posture does not exude comfortableness so
that choice is the correct response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 306
Objective: 11.4
109) Research has shown that ________.
A) charisma is an illusion
B) charisma is inborn only
C) charisma is not inborn
D) charisma can be learned
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Charisma is definitely a genuine trait, not an illusion, that exists in some
humans and not others. Charisma is largely inborn but research has shown that charisma can
be learned, making the fact that charisma can be learned the correct response for this
question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 306
Objective: 11.4
110) "Trained" charismatic leaders had workers who were ________ those who had been led
by non-charismatic leaders.
A) dramatically less productive than
B) more productive than
C) equally productive when compared to
D) slightly less productive than
Answer: B
Explanation: B) "Trained" charismatic leaders had workers who were more, not less
productive than those who had worked under non-charismatic leaders, making "more
productive" the correct response and proving that charisma can be instilled, at least to a
degree. The other three choices are all incorrect because they do not indicate an actual gain in
productivity.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 306
Objective: 11.4
111) Visionary leadership differs from charismatic leadership because of its focus on
________.
A) rewards
B) personality
C) dangers that the future might bring
D) a positive image of the future
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The focus of visionary leadership is to create a credible, plausible, doable
vision of the future that people can easily grasp and work toward, making a positive image of
the future the correct response. Transactional leadership focuses on rewards, not visionary
leadership. Charismatic leadership focuses on personality, not visionary leadership. Dangers
of the future is ruled out as a correct response because it gives a negative rather than a
positive view of the future.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 306
Objective: 11.4
112) Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of a vision of the future provided
by visionary leadership?
A) powerful images
B) easy-to- understand view
C) non-specific and indefinite
D) clear articulation
Answer: C
Explanation: C) A view of the future provided by visionary leadership typically features
powerful images and clear, easy-to-grasp articulation of ideas, ruling out all three incorrect
choices as correct answers. What visionary leadership does not typically feature is a nonspecific or vague vision of the future. People must be able to imagine what will happen
clearly. An indefinite vision prevents this, so it is almost always avoided, making nonspecific and indefinite the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 306
Objective: 11.4
113) If a visionary-leader CEO switched from one company to another, you would expect
________ to follow her to the new company.
A) all employees and managers
B) no employees
C) no managers
D) some employees and managers
Answer: D
Explanation: D) In this situation, you would expect all or almost all of the followers to
follow a charismatic leader wherever she chose to go. However, the leader described in this
question is visionary, not charismatic, so you would expect some, but clearly not all,
managers and employees to make the move. After all, if it was the vision that attracted the
followers, the vision still exists at the old company, not the new company.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 306
Objective: 11.4
114) Team leadership and traditional leadership in hierarchical organizations are thought to
be ________.
A) virtually identical
B) very different
C) fairly similar
D) somewhat different
Answer: B
Explanation: B) There are several big differences between team leadership and traditional
organizational leadership, including less authority, more empowered employees, more
facilitating and coaching, and less direct supervision. This makes team leadership ver y
different from traditional leadership and rules out all other choices for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 307
Objective: 11.4
115) Consultant estimates state that ________ team leaders.
A) 15 percent of managers are not natural
B) 70 percent of managers are not natural
C) 85 percent of managers are not natural
D) 30 percent of managers are natural
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Consultant estimates hold that about 15 percent of managers are natural
team leaders, which means that 85 percent are not natural team leaders, making 85 percent
the correct response. Note that about 15 percent of managers are not only not natural team
leaders, they are probably incapable of becoming team leaders.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 307
Objective: 11.4
116) A difficult skill for a team leader to learn is knowing when to ________ the team.
A) show interest in
B) trust
C) intervene with
D) abandon
Answer: C
Explanation: C) A team leader should always show interest and trust in the team and never
abandon it in any way. The hard part for team leaders is knowing when to intervene in a
team's activities and when to leave it alone to solve problems on its own, making "intervening
with" the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 307
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 11.4
117) A team's ________ marks the border between tasks that are strictly the team's
responsibility and those that the team shares with other parts of the organization.
A) external boundary
B) exterior
C) leader
D) performance
Answer: A
Explanation: A) A team leader's job includes knowing where the border exists between tasks
that are strictly within the team and those tasks and activities that extend outside of the team.
This border is called the external boundary. A team's leader, exterior, or performance do not
identify its inner-outer border so those choices are incorrect.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 307
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 11.4
118) This team leader role requires leaders to try to get the best out of their team.
A) coach
B) troubleshooter
C) liaison
D) conflict manager
Answer: A
Explanation: A) A troubleshooter helps the team solve specific task problems, so that choice
is not the correct response for this question. A liaison makes contact for the team with parties
outside of the team, so that choice is not a correct response. A conflict manager resolves
personal and discipline problems within the team, so that choice is not a correct response. A
coach helps team members perform at their best, so coach is the correct response for this
question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 308
Objective: 11.4
119) When a design team is having problems getting its new simulation software to work
correctly, the team leader takes on this role.
A) coach
B) troubleshooter
C) liaison
D) conflict manager
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The software problem is a specific technical problem that the team is
experiencing. A troubleshooter helps the team solve specific task and technical problems, so
that choice is the correct response for this question. Rather than solve technical problems, a
liaison makes contact for the team outside of the organization, so that choice is not a correct
response. Similarly, a conflict manager resolves personal and discipline problems, not
technical problems, so that choice is not a correct response. Rather than solve technical
problems, a coach helps team members perform at their best, so that choice is not the correct
response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 308
Objective: 11.4
120) When a team is considering joining forces with another team in the organization, the
team leader takes on this role.
A) troubleshooter
B) conflict manager
C) coach
D) liaison
Answer: D
Explanation: D) A liaison makes contact for the team with the parent organization or parties
outside of the team, so liaison is the correct response for this question. A troubleshooter helps
the team solve specific task problems, not link to outside parties, so that choice is not the
correct response for this question. A conflict manager resolves personal and discipline
problems within the team, so that choice is not a correct response. A coach helps team
members perform at their best, so that choice is not the correct response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 308
Objective: 11.4
121) When two members of a team are having a personal conflict, the team leader takes on
this role.
A) conflict manager
B) liaison
C) troubleshooter
D) coach
Answer: A
Explanation: A) A conflict manager resolves personal and discipline problems within the
team, so that choice is the correct response for this question. A troubleshooter helps the team
solve specific task problems, not personal problems so that choice is not the correct response
for this question. A liaison makes contact for the team with parties outside of the team, so
that choice is not a correct response. A coach helps team members perform at their best, so
that choice is not the correct response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 308
Objective: 11.4
122) The key difference between team leadership and traditional leadership is that in teams
________ decisions.
A) employees are empowered to make
B) leaders are not empowered to make
C) leaders have no influence over employees'
D) leaders do not participate in important
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Team leaders typically participate in team decision making and have
influence over team decisions, but they are not the sole authority and final word in decisions
as they were in the traditional arrangement. So the most important difference in a team
structure is that employees can make decisions, even though they are typically not unilateral
decisions, making employees being empowered the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 308
Objective: 11.4
123) ________ is one key reason that employees are frequently empowered with decisionmaking ability in today's business world.
A) Smaller spans of control
B) Larger spans of control
C) Smaller budgets
D) Larger budgets
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Budgets have little, in any direct sense, to do with empowering employees,
except that they might call for increased efficiency, so the two choices regarding budgets are
not correct responses for this question. Due to downsizing, today's managers typically have
larger, not smaller spans of control, making larger spans of control the correct response and
eliminating smaller spans of control. These larger spans of control mean that a single
manager must relinquish some decision- making authority to employees, which is the reason
why employee empowerment is so prevalent in today's climate.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 308
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 11.4
124) On a pro football team, empowerment might manifest itself in which of the following?
A) players getting larger salaries
B) more complicated plays and formations on the field
C) coach to helmet communication systems
D) a player changing a planned play on the field
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Empowerment confers employees with the right to make decisions. Getting
more money, taking on more complicated workloads, or increased communication
sophistication are not forms of empowerment because they do not give players increased
decision- making power. Changing a play does involve making a decision, so changing a
planned play is the correct response for this question.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 308
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 11.4
125) A unique problem that virtual leaders face is being understood without a ________ form
of communication.
A) reliable
B) written
C) clear
D) nonverbal
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Emails and other forms of electronic communication largely lack the
emotional information that can be transmitted through nonverbal means, making nonverbal
the correct response. Electronic communication is typically written communication and does
not suffer from being unclear or unreliable, making the remaining choices incorrect.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 309
AACSB: Technology
Objective: 11.4
126) Being humble is a typical characteristic of ________.
A) Arab leaders
B) German leaders
C) Japanese leaders
D) Korean leaders
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Key characteristics of Japanese leaders include humility, making Japanese
leaders the correct response. Key characteristics of Arab leaders include avoiding inessential
kindness. Key characteristics of German leaders include high participation and performance
expectation. Key characteristics of Korean leaders include a paternalistic attitude toward
employees.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 309
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 11.4
127) A ________ would avoid publicly praising a productive employee.
A) Malyasian leader
B) Dutch leader
C) Japanese leader
D) German leader
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Key characteristics of Dutch leaders include avoiding public embarrassment
of any kind, even when it is caused by praise, making Dutch leader the correct response. Key
characteristics of Japanese leaders include humility. Key characteristics of German leaders
include high participation and performance expectation. Key characteristics of Malaysian
leaders include compassion.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 309
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 11.4
128) A ________ is characterized by high performance orientation.
A) German leader
B) Scandinavian leader
C) Japanese leader
D) Malaysian leader
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Key characteristics of German leaders include high performance expectat ion
and low compassion, making German leader the correct response. Key characteristics of
Scandinavian leaders include avoiding the singling out of individuals in public. Key
characteristics of Japanese leaders include humility. Key characteristics of Mala ysian leaders
include compassion.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 309
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 11.4
129) Most leadership theories were developed in the United States, causing them to stress
________.
A) spirituality over rationality
B) rationality over spirituality
C) both rationality and spirituality
D) altruism over self- gratification
Answer: B
Explanation: B) American biases in leadership theories include emphasizing rationality and
de-emphasizing non-rational forms of thought, which include spirituality, making rationality
over spirituality the correct response and ruling out the other two choices regarding
spirituality. The remaining choice is incorrect because, if anything, self- gratification is
favored over altruism, not the other way around.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 309
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 11.4
130) All of the following appear to be universal elements of transformational leadership
EXCEPT ________.
A) dynamism
B) vision
C) trustworthiness
D) aggressiveness
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Countries around the world seem to respond to such qualities as dynamism,
vision, and trustworthiness in transformational leaders. Aggressiveness is not a quality that
typically contributes to the effectiveness of a transformational leader, so that choice is the
correct answer.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 310
AACSB: Globalizations
Objective: 11.4
131) Recent studies indicate that this measure of ability is the best predictor of who will be a
leader in an organization.
A) IQ intelligence
B) academic intelligence
C) technical expertise
D) emotional intelligence
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Studies show that such things as IQ intelligence, academic proficiency, or
technical skill are threshold capabilities, meaning that a person needs only a certain minimum
amount of them to succeed. Emotional intelligence or EI, on the other hand, has been shown
to be a true predictor of leadership, making that choice the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 310
Objective: 11.4
132) Which of the following is NOT a key component of emotional intelligence (EI)?
A) empathy
B) self- awareness
C) active imagination
D) social skills
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Empathy, self-awareness, and social skills are three of the five recognized
key components of EI. An active imagination, while being an important skill for success, is
not a key component of EI so that choice is the correct response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 310
Objective: 11.4
133) Studies show that the higher the rank a star performer has in an organization, the more
he or she relies on ________ for success.
A) integrity
B) intelligence
C) emotional intelligence
D) loyalty
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Emotional intelligence (EI) seems to increase in importance as managers go
up the scale of an organization. So successful top managers rely on EI more than successful
middle managers, for example. This makes emotional intelligence the correct response and
rules out all other responses.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 310
AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities
Objective: 11.4
134) Evidence indicates that in leadership style, males and females ________.
A) are more alike than different
B) are totally different
C) have no similarities
D) have a very small number of similarities
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Studies show that largely due to the actual tasks they carry out, males and
females are generally similar in leadership style, making more alike than different the correct
response and ruling out other responses. The fact that males can succeed as leaders in
typically female jobs, and females can succeed in typically male jobs seems to support this
notion.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 313
AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities
Objective: 11.5
135) This is the dimension of trust that includes technical skills.
A) integrity
B) loyalty
C) openness
D) competence
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Competence refers to the technical and interpersonal skills and knowledge
that a leader has, making that choice the correct response for this situation. Integrity refers to
how truthful and honest a leader is. Loyalty refers to how willing a leader is to protect
followers. Openness refers to how willing a leader is to share important ideas and
information.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 312
AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities
Objective: 11.5
136) This is the dimension of trust that includes how reliable a leader is.
A) integrity
B) competence
C) consistency
D) loyalty
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Consistency refers to whether or not a leader has good judgment, and ho w
reliable and predictable the leader is, making consistency the correct response for this
situation. Integrity refers to how truthful and honest a leader is. Loyalty refers to how willing
a leader is to protect followers. Competence refers to the technica l and interpersonal skills
and knowledge that a leader has.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 312
AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities
Objective: 11.5
137) This is the dimension of trust that includes how honest a leader is.
A) integrity
B) openness
C) loyalty
D) competence
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Integrity refers to how honest and truthful a leader is, making integrity the
correct response for this question. Openness refers to how willing a leader is to share
important ideas and information. Loyalty refers to how willing a leader is to protect
followers. Competence refers to the technical and interpersonal skills and knowledge that a
leader has.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 312
AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities
Objective: 11.5
138) Which of the following is NOT a reason that the importance of trust has increased in
today's business climate?
A) Job performance is related to trust.
B) Job satisfaction is related to trust.
C) Only 60 percent of U.S. employees trust their leaders.
D) Downsizing has eroded the faith that workers have in their leaders.
Answer: C
Chapter 13 Communication and Interpersonal Skills
43) For managers, communication can't be overemphasized because ________ requires
communication.
A) decision making
B) planning
C) supervising and monitoring employees
D) everything a manager does
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Communication is required not just for decision making, planning, and
monitoring employees but for virtually every activity that a typical manager carries out,
making everything a manager does the correct response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 320
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
44) The communication process begins with this.
A) a receiver
B) a message
C) a thought or purpose
D) an encoded message
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The communication process begins with a thought or idea that the sender
wants to communicate to someone else, making a thought or purpose the correct response.
The message doesn't exist until after the thought is encoded, ruling out a message or encoded
message as the correct response for this question because they come later in the process. The
receiver also comes later in the process, after the message is decoded, ruling out a receiver as
a correct answer.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 320
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
45) In order to transmit a message, the thought originating with the sender must be ________
to symbolic form.
A) decoded
B) encoded
C) deciphered
D) expanded
Answer: B
Explanation: B) A thought must be translated, or encoded, to some kind of symbol language
before it can be communicated, making encoding the correct response. S ymbol languages
include writing, verbal speech, sign language, etc. Decoding, which is fairly synonymous
with deciphering, is done after the message is sent by the receiver, so decoding and
deciphering are incorrect responses. Encoding is a form of transla tion, not expansion, so
expanding is not correct.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 320
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
46) Which communication sequence is correct?
A) sender ⇒ decoding ⇒ channel ⇒ encoding ⇒ receiver
B) sender ⇒ channel ⇒ medium ⇒ decoding ⇒ receiver
C) source ⇒ sender ⇒ encoding ⇒ decoding ⇒ receiver
D) sender ⇒ encoding ⇒ channel ⇒ decoding ⇒ receiver
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The choice indicating encoding as the second step is the only correct
sequence, showing how a sender encodes a thought into a message which is sent through a
channel only to be decoded and finally understood by a receiver. The choice with decoding as
the second step is incorrect because it confuses decoding and encoding. The choice with
channel as the second step is wrong because it leaves out encoding. The choice with source as
the first step is wrong because it omits the channel.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 320
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 12.1
47) Reading is an example of this communication step.
A) feedback
B) encoding
C) sending
D) decoding
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Reading is a form of decoding, or interpreting symbols, making decoding
the correct response. A form of encoding is writing, not reading. Sending a written message
occurs when, for example, a written letter is mailed. Feedback occurs after the message has
been decoded and understood.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 320
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
48) Four conditions influence the content of an encoded message: the skills, attitudes,
knowledge, and ________ of the sender.
A) social-cultural system
B) environmental conditions
C) volume
D) political conditions
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Of the choices listed, only the social-cultural system is a recognized factor
that affects the content and quality of an encoded message, so that choice is the correct
response for this question. The social-cultural system includes a sender's beliefs and values.
Beliefs and values invariably have a strong influence over what the sender chooses to
communicate and how the message is presented. Together, the social-cultural system and the
sender's knowledge, attitudes, and communication skills determine the content and
effectiveness of any message.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 320
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
49) A ________ is the actual physical product encoded by the source.
A) channel
B) message
C) thought
D) source
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The actual physical product that gets encoded by a sender is called the
message, making message the correct response. The thought is the original idea that gets
encoded into a message. The source is the person who encodes the thought into a message.
The channel is the path that the message takes to reach the receiver.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 321
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
50) The channel is the ________.
A) actual physical product from the source that conveys a purpose
B) person who receives the message
C) medium that the messages travels through
D) person who sends the message.
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The channel is the path that the message takes to reach the receiver, making
the medium the correct response. The actual physical product that gets encoded by a sender is
called the message. The receiver is the person who receives and decodes the message. The
sender is the person who creates the message.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 321
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
51) A spelling mistake in a message is an example of ________.
A) an encoding error
B) a decoding error
C) a transmission error
D) a receiver error
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Making a mistake in spelling clearly would occur during the encoding
process when a thought was being translated into symbols, making an encoding error the
correct response. An error in selecting the proper symbols would clearly occur well before
decoding, transmitting, or receiving the message, so all of those choices can be ruled out.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 321
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
52) The final link in the communication process is ________.
A) encoding
B) decoding
C) channeling
D) feedback
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Feedback is the process of verifying the message that was sent to confirm
that it was received and understood correctly, making feedback the correct response.
Encoding and decoding occur earlier in the sequence, so they are incorrect responses. A
channel refers to the medium through which a message is transmitted, so it is not the final
step in the communication process.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 321
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
53) Feedback is a message that travels from ________.
A) encoder to receiver
B) source to decoder
C) the original receiver to the original sender
D) the original sender to the original receiver
Answer: C
Explanation: C) A feedback message is sent from the original receiver back to the original
sender, making that choice the correct response. The other three choices all involve the
original sender sending a message to the original receiver so they are incorrect responses for
this question.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 321
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 12.1
54) Skills, attitudes, knowledge, and social cultural systems affect ________.
A) the sender only
B) the receiver only
C) neither the sender nor the receiver
D) both the sender and the receiver
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The four components that affect the content and quality of the message sent
by the sender—skills, attitudes, knowledge, and social cultural systems—also affect how the
message is interpreted by the receiver, making the sender only the correct response and ruling
out all other choices. For example, the writing skill of the sender may affect the composing of
a message, while the reading and interpreting skill of the receiver affects the understanding of
the message.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 321
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
55) The great advantage of a written message is that it ________.
A) is informal
B) is easy to provide feedback for
C) is unambiguous
D) provides a permanent record
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Written messages are no more unambiguous than spoken messages—in fact,
since they lack nonverbal cues, written messages are probably more ambiguous than verbal
messages, making unambiguous an incorrect response. Similarly, written messages are
typically less informal and harder to provide feedback for than spoken messages, making
informal and easy to provide feedback for incorrect responses. Where written messages
clearly are advantageous is in providing a tangible, permanent record that can be referred to
later on, making providing a permanent record the correct response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 322
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
56) Which of the following is a disadvantage of written communication?
A) vague
B) time-consuming
C) not permanent
D) hard to store
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Written messages are easier to store, more specific, and more permanent
than oral messages, making the three related choices incorrect. The disadvantage of written
messages is that they are harder and more time-consuming to compose than oral messages,
making time-consuming the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 322
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
57) Along the grapevine ________.
A) good news travels fastest
B) bad news travels slowly
C) good news travels slowest
D) bad news travels fastest
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Through an informal grapevine, bad information about an individual or
organization travels faster than good information, making "bad news travels fastest" the
correct response and ruling out all other responses. The reason for this is probably that bad
information tends to be more shocking, salacious, or exciting than good news, so people tend
to be more motivated to pass it along than less exciting information.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 322
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
58) You would expect to find a grapevine with the most accurate rumors in ________
organization.
A) an organic
B) a mechanistic
C) a hierarchical
D) an authoritative
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Open, non-rigid, organic-style organizations tend to have the most accurate
grapevine information, making organic the correct response. Rigid, hierarchical, non-open,
mechanistic, authoritative organizations tend to have grapevines that provide less accurate
information.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 323
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
59) An example of nonverbal communication is ________.
A) an email
B) a smile
C) a whisper
D) a voice mail
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Nonverbal communication is any form of communication tha t does not
involve words. An email features written words, a whisper features softly spoken words, and
a voice mail features recorded words—making each choice verbal rather than nonverbal
communication. A smile is nonverbal because it communicates information in a wordless
manner.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 323
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
60) Verbal intonation is a form of ________.
A) verbal communication
B) body language
C) nonverbal communication
D) facial expression
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Though it involves words, verbal intonation is a form of nonverbal
communication because it involves how the words are pronounced, rather than the explicit
meanings of the words themselves, making nonverbal communication the correct response
and ruling out verbal communication. Verbal intonation is not a form of body language or
facial expression because it involves changes in pitch, volume, and articulation of words, not
body or face movements.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 323
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
61) A live singing performance allows a listener to perceive ________ forms of
communication.
A) verbal, body language, and verbal intonation as
B) only verbal
C) only nonverbal
D) body language, facial expressions, and verbal intonation as
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Seeing a singer perform live allows the audience to hear the words in a song
(verbal communication), the body movements and facial expressions of the singer (body
language), and the way the singer phrases and articulates the song (verbal intonation), making
the choice encompassing all three the correct response. All other choices leave out at least
one form of communication, so they are not correct responses for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 323
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
62) Listening to a singing performance on the radio allows a listener to perceive ________
forms of communication.
A) verbal, body language, and verbal intonation as
B) only verbal
C) only nonverbal
D) both verbal and nonverbal
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Listening to a singer perform on the radio allows the audience to hear the
words in a song (verbal communication) and the way the singer phrases the song (verbal
intonation, a form of nonverbal communication), making "both verbal and nonverbal" the
correct response. The choice indicating verbal, body language, and verbal intonation is
incorrect because it includes body language, something that is not perceived on the radio.
"Only verbal" is incorrect because though the radio projects sound waves only, it is possible
to hear verbal intonation, a nonverbal form of communication in a recorded song, so on the
radio a listener can perceive both verbal and nonverbal communication. "Only nonverbal" is
wrong because words are clearly heard in a radio song.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 323
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
63) Watching a movie in a foreign language you don't understand without subtitles allows
you to perceive ________ forms of communication.
A) verbal, body language, and verbal intonation as
B) only verbal
C) only nonverbal
D) both verbal and nonverbal
Answer: C
Explanation: C) A foreign language movie gives the listener access to nonverbal forms of
communication only—gestures, movements, facial expressions, intonations—without any
verbal communication taking place, making "only nonverbal" the correct response. The
choice indicating verbal, body language, and verbal intonation is incorrect because it includes
spoken language, something that is not perceived in a foreign movie. "Only verbal" is
incorrect because the spoken communication is exactly what the viewer misses in a foreign
language movie. "Both verbal and nonverbal" is wrong because it includes verbal
communication.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 323
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
64) Reading a movie script allows you to perceive ________ forms of communication.
A) verbal, body language, and verbal intonation as
B) only verbal
C) only nonverbal
D) both verbal and nonverbal
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Reading a script gives the reader access to words only (verbal
communication), making "only verbal" the correct response. The choice indicating verbal,
body language, and verbal intonation is incorrect because it includes body language and
intonation, things that can only be imagined, but not actually perceived, on the written page.
"Only nonverbal" is incorrect because all nonverbal communication is missing from a movie
script, except as descriptions. "Both verbal and nonverbal" is incorrect because it includes
nonverbal communication.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 323
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
65) Managers often travel long distances to have a face-to- face meeting with someone for this
reason.
A) It shows respect.
B) Most communication is done through body language.
C) Other forms of communication have security concerns.
D) It communicates a sense of power, rank, and mobility.
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Though face-to- face meetings may be a way to show respect and
communicate a sense of power, the primary reason managers take the troub le to meet in
person is to be able to see the body language of the person they are meeting, making
"communication through body language" the correct response. Studies show that 65 to 90
percent of all communication is accomplished through nonverbal means, meaning that if a
manager misses out on nonverbal communication, a lot is missed. Security may also be an
extremely minor factor here, but it does not compare to the importance of nonverbal
communication.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 324
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
66) ________ is the deliberate manipulation of information by the sender to make it appear
more favorable to the receiver.
A) Selective perception
B) Information overload
C) Jargon
D) Filtering
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The manipulation of information by the sender through careful editing and
choosing of facts to make a position seem more favorable to a receiver is called filtering,
making this the correct response. Selective perception is the editing of information by the
receiver, not the sender. Information overload blocks communication by making receivers too
overwhelmed by information to pay attention to messages that are actually important. Jargon
is "in- group" language that can be troublesome to people who are outside the group.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 324
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
67) All of the following are barriers to effective interpersonal communication EXCEPT
________.
A) filtering
B) selective perception
C) feedback
D) language
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Filtering (the manipulation of information by the sender to make a position
seem more favorable), selective perception (the selective editing of information by the
receiver), and language that can mean different things to different people are all
communication barriers. Feedback, on the other hand, the process of verifying a sent
message, promotes rather than blocks effective communication, making feedback the correct
response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 324-325
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
68) When an auto industry manager raves about plans for a new car design and fails to see the
flaws in the model, he is engaging in this.
A) selective perception
B) filtering
C) emotion
D) information overload
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Filtering involves manipulation o f information by the sender to make a
situation seem more favorable, while selective perception involves similar cherry-picking of
facts, but by the receiver of the information, not the sender. In this case, as the receiver of
information (the design plans), the manager is engaging in selective perception, making this
the correct response. Information overload blocks communication by making receivers too
overwhelmed by information to pay attention to messages that are actually important.
Emotion blocks information when strong feelings distort the perceptions of the receiver.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 324-325
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
69) When an auto designer's presentation of a new design shows all of the good features of
the design but fails to mention the poor gas mileage that the model will get, she is engaging
in this.
A) emotion
B) selective perception
C) information overload
D) filtering
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Filtering involves manipulation of information by the sender to make a
situation seem more favorable, while selective perception involves similar cherry-picking of
facts, but by the receiver of the information, not the sender. In this case, the designer is the
sender of information (the presentation) so she is engaging in filtering, making filtering the
correct response. Information overload blocks communication by making receivers too
overwhelmed by information to pay attention to messages that are actually important.
Emotion blocks information when strong feelings distort the pe rceptions of the receiver.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 324-325
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
70) Auto company engineers want technical terms such as limited slip differential used in car
ads. Ad execs, on the other hand, don't want these terms used. The cause of their
disagreement is ________.
A) emotion
B) selective perception
C) language
D) gender
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Language can be a barrier when different words and phrases mean different
things to different audiences. In this case, it is likely the engineers think the technical terms
add meaning to the ads, while the ad people think that they are intimidating and confusing.
All of this points to the idea that language is the communication barrier here—the same
words mean different things to different people—making language the correct response.
Emotion blocks information when strong feelings distort the perceptions of the receiver.
Selective perception is the biased perception of facts on the part of a receiver. Gender distorts
communication when males and females fail to appreciate each other's point of view.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 324-325
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
71) When an auto executive who is upset because his teenage son got suspended from school
ends up nixing new design plans for no apparent reason, communication has been distorted
by this.
A) selective perception
B) emotion
C) filtering
D) gender
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Emotion blocks information by distorting the perceptions of the receiver.
The executive is upset, so emotions are probably distorting his perceptions and decisions—
rather than filtering (the manipulation of information by the sender to make a situation seem
more favorable) or selective perception (biased perception of facts on the part of a receiver )
or gender which distorts communication when males and females fail to appreciate each
other's point of view. This makes emotion the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 324-325
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
72) When an auto executive fails to notice an important demographics report in her
overstuffed inbox before going to a meeting, she is likely to be suffering from this.
A) information overload
B) emotion
C) filtering
D) gender
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Information overload blocks communication by making receivers too
overwhelmed by information to pay attention to messages that are actually important. This is
what is occurring in this situation, making information overload the correct response.
Filtering involves manipulation of information by the sender to make a situation seem more
favorable. Emotion blocks information by having passions and strong feelings distort the
perceptions of the receiver. Gender distorts communication when males and females fail to
appreciate each other's point of view.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 324-325
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
73) Jargon can be very useful for communication ________.
A) within a specialized, close-knit group
B) between people who speak different languages
C) outside of a specialized, close-knit group
D) between males and females
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Jargon can be useful as shorthand for technical and hard-to-describe terms
within a small, specialized, close-knit group, making this the correct response. Where jargon
runs into trouble is when people use jargon terms with outsiders who aren't familiar with
what the terms stand for, making outsiders, and people who speak a foreign language both
incorrect responses. The use of jargon would have little or no impact on how well males and
females understand one another.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 326-327
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
74) Filtering tends to be more prevalent in this kind of organization
A) organic
B) highly vertical
C) highly horizontal
D) non- mechanistic
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The opportunity for filtering occurs when one level of an organization has
access to information that another level doesn't have. Therefore, the more vertical levels an
organization has, the more filtering is likely to take place, making "highly vertical" the
correct response. Organic, very horizontal, and non- mechanistic organizations are all nonvertical, so these choices can be eliminated as possible correct responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 324-325
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
75) Jargon tends to cause problems when it is used ________.
A) within a specialized, close-knit group
B) as shorthand for technical terms
C) outside of a specialized, close-knit group
D) in spoken rather than written language
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Jargon can be useful as shorthand for technical and hard-to-describe terms
within a small group. Where jargon causes confusion is when people within the group use
jargon terms with outsiders who aren't familiar with what the terms stand for, making
"outsiders" the correct response. Whether or not jargon is spoken or written has little or no
impact on how well it is understood.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 326-327
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
76) Which slogan for a new car would be likely to appeal more to men than to women?
A) Be the top dog on your block
B) The car with a little bit of home
C) The family car for every family
D) Saving the world, one car at a time
Answer: A
Explanation: A) In general, men are interested in status and establishing their independence
while women are interested in connecting to family and the rest of the world. The three
incorrect choices all focus on making connections with family or the rest of the world. Only
the choice regarding being the top dog focuses on status and competing with the rest of the
world, so it is the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 326
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
77) Which slogan for a new car would be likely to appeal more to women than to men?
A) The ultimate among ultimates
B) Carve out your niche
C) Carry a little bit home wherever you drive
D) Be the top dog on every block
Answer: C
Explanation: C) In general, men are interested in status and establishing their independence
while women are interested in connecting to family and the rest of the world. The three
incorrect choices all focus on status and competition so they are incorrect responses. Only the
choice regarding carrying a little bit of home focuses connecting your life with the rest of the
world, so it is the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 326
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
78) U.S. managers tend to rely on this style of communication.
A) formal and written
B) informal and unwritten
C) verbal and informal
D) verbal and formal
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The culture of American society tends to value status and individual
achievement above consensus and collective achievement, causing U.S. managers to try to
distinguish themselves by issuing a lot of written formal documents that can be used to
document and verify their achievement. This makes formal and written the correct response
for this question and rules out all other choices.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 326-327
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 12.1
79) Japanese managers tend to rely on this style of communication.
A) formal and written
B) formal and unwritten
C) informal and verbal
D) verbal and formal
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The culture of Japanese society tends to value consensus and collective
achievement above individual achievement and status, causing Japanese managers to try to
conduct personal consultations with others to arrive at consensus before taking definite
action. This makes "informal and verbal" the correct response for this question and rules out
all other choices.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 326-327
AACSB: Diversity
Objective: 12.1
80) The purpose of feedback is to determine whether a message was ________.
A) received
B) received and understood
C) worth sending
D) verbal or nonverbal
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Feedback is a check on whether a message was both received and
understood in the manner in which the sender intended, making this the correct response.
Since received messages can be misinterpreted, confirming that a message was received only
is not enough in most cases. Feedback is concerned only with the reception and correct
interpretation of a message, not with whether the message was worth sending or verbal,
making both of these responses incorrect.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 327
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
81) Feedback ________.
A) can be spoken, nonverbal, or written
B) must be spoken
C) must be written
D) can be spoken, verbal, or oral
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Feedback can take on almost any form. A nod of the head can be a form of
feedback. So can a written email or note, and so can a detailed oral response to a
communication. Together, these factors make "spoken, nonverbal, or written" the correct
response and rules out the other three choices as too limited.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 327
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
82) One particularly effective form of providing feedback is for the receiver to ________.
A) raise a hand to show that the message was received
B) state "message received" out loud
C) restate the message in his or her own words
D) send a written message that states "message received"
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The three incorrect choices all indicate only that the message was received
and fail to show that the message was actually understood. Only by restating the message in
his or her own words can the receiver clearly indicate that the message was fully understood,
so restating the message is the correct response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 327
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
83) Simplifying language is most important when ________.
A) the speaker has little time
B) the audience is sympathetic
C) the audience is unfamiliar
D) the message is simple
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Simplifying language is most important when the audience may be
unfamiliar with the material the speaker is presenting and the terms and concepts that the
speaker is using, making an "unfamiliar audience" the correct response. Having a simple
message, a sympathetic audience, or little time to speak are not specific reasons for why
language should be toned down, while lack of familiarity is.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 328
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
84) The average listener can understand language at a rate that is ________ the average
speaker can speak.
A) much slower than
B) much faster than
C) the same rate that
D) a little bit slower than
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The typical speaker speaks at a rate of 200 words per minute or less. The
typical listener can comprehend language at rates of up to 400 words per minute. This
mismatch makes listeners' attention wander at times, since their listening rate is much faster
than the speech they hear. These factors make "faster" the correct response and rule out all
other responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 328
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
85) Because the average listener can comprehend language at a rate that is much higher than
speakers can speak, people tend to be ________.
A) poor listeners
B) good speakers
C) slow talkers
D) good listeners
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The mismatch between the ability of humans to listen and speak causes
listeners, who function at a higher rate, to lose focus when they are listening. This loss of
focus is a major reason why many people tend to be poor listeners, making this the correct
response. It may also, incidentally be a reason why many people tend to talk fast—to try to
make up for the speaking- listening mismatch.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 328
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
86) This is the primary goal of active listening.
A) developing empathy with the speaker
B) avoiding premature judgments or interpretations of the speaker's message
C) focusing on the speaker
D) understanding the full meaning of the speaker's message
Answer: D
Explanation: D) While developing empathy, avoiding premature judgments, and focusing are
all goals of active listening, the main goal is to understand the meaning of the speaker's words
in totality, making this the correct response.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 328
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
87) Active listening is enhanced by developing ________ with the speaker.
A) apathy
B) sympathy
C) a personal friendship
D) empathy
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Developing sympathy (actively liking the speaker) or a personal friendship
with the speaker might indeed improve listening, but both options are too impractical for
improving everyday listening. Rather than befriend or actively sympathize with the speaker,
the listener simply needs to empathize, or identify with the speaker's point of view and
situation, to have a good chance of fully understanding the speaker's message, making
empathy the correct response. Note that apathy, or not caring about the speaker, is the
opposite of what an active listener should do.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 328
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
88) Which action best shows a speaker that you are paying close attention?
A) avoiding interruptions of the speaker
B) avoiding overtalking
C) direct eye contact
D) smooth transitioning from listener to speaker
Answer: C
Explanation: C) While avoiding interruptions, overtalking, and making smooth listener-tospeaker transitions are all important for active listening, they don't specifically show that a
listener is paying close attention. Direct eye contact, on the other hand, indicates that the
listener is focused and not distracted, making this choice the correct response for this
question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 328
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
89) Which of the following is NOT true of active listening?
A) It is a skill that most people need to improve.
B) Listening demands serious intellectual effort.
C) Active listening demands intense concentration.
D) Empathy is a barrier to active listening.
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Active listening definitely requires intense concentration and serious effort,
so those choices can be eliminated as correct responses. Since most people are poor listeners,
active listening is clearly a skill that most people need to improve, ruling out this choice as a
correct response. The only choice that is not true of active listening is that empathy prevents
it—in fact, empathy is a key element of active listening, making empathy as a barrier the
correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 328
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
90) Emotions can distort communication ________.
A) for senders only
B) for receivers only
C) for both senders and receivers
D) only when negative
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Whether they are positive or negative, emotions can distort communication
on both ends—for both senders and receivers, making this the correct response and ruling out
all other responses. Receivers let emotions distort communication when they allow feelings
to color their perception of a message. Senders let emotions distort when they fire off a
message in the heat of the moment without allowing the situation to cool down.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 329
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
91) During an interview minutes after a tough loss, a soccer coach who is frustrated with calls
made by the game's referees should probably do this.
A) blame himself for the defeat
B) blame the referees for the defeat
C) express his anger freely
D) take some time to cool down
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Rather than express anger and blame himself or the referees for the loss, the
coach should take time to cool down. Emotions are transient events that tend to subside with
time. Saying too much in the heat of battle is allowing emotions to distort communication, so
it should be avoided.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 329
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
92) A manager who is trying to sound conciliatory should make sure that ________.
A) her voice is soft
B) she smiles when she speaks
C) her voice shows no anger
D) her voice shows no emotion
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Trying to sound conciliatory requires a speaker to control her emotions in
every way. A soft voice and a smile may help, but not as much as making sure that she
displays no anger or resentment, making "showing no anger" the correct response. Showing
no emotion at all is a mistake because it indicates that the speaker is trying to hide something.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 329
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.1
93) Networked communication capabilities include all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) email
B) the grapevine
C) instant messaging
D) electronic data exchange
Answer: B
Explanation: B) A networked communication capability links computers to an organization
network—something which email, instant messaging, and EDI accomplish. The grapevine is
not part of a computer system, so it is the correct response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 330
AACSB: Technology
Objective: 12.2
94) Techniques organizations utilize to exchange standard business transaction documents,
such as invoices or purchase orders, are called ________.
A) intranets
B) extranets
C) electronic data interchange
D) teleconference
Answer: C
Explanation: C) An electronic data exchange allows computer systems between different
companies to exchange data directly via dedicated lines, making electronic data interchange
the correct response. An intranet is a cordoned off section of the Internet that is made
available only to an organization. An extranet is similar to an intranet in that it sections off a
part of the Internet for exclusive use by an organization. An extranet allows selected outsiders
to access this limited system. A teleconference is a meeting held on telephone lines.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 330
AACSB: Technology
Objective: 12.2
95) Ross can create web pages that are accessible only to members of his organization on
________.
A) an intranet
B) an extranet
C) an electronic data interchange
D) a videoconference
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Ross is using an intranet—a cordoned off section of the Internet that is made
available only to an organization, making intranet the correct response. An extranet is similar
to an intranet in that it sections off a part of the Internet for exclusive use by an organization,
but an extranet allows selected outsiders to access this limited system as well. An electronic
data exchange allows computer systems between different companies to exchange data
directly via dedicated lines. A videoconference is a meeting held that uses video cameras to
allow attendees to see as well as speak to one another.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 330
AACSB: Technology
Objective: 12.2
96) Which kind of electronic meeting format allows participants to view nonverbal forms of
communication that include facial expressions and body language?
A) teleconferencing
B) videoconferencing
C) electronic data interchange
D) face-to-face meeting
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Teleconferencing is done over telephone lines (or by email) so it doesn't
include a visual dimension in which body language can be viewed. Electronic data exchange
is strictly a data medium and does not involve human communication. A face-to-face meeting
is a live, not an electronic, meeting so it can't be a correct answer for this question. A
videoconference has both a sound and a visual dimension, allowing participants to speak and
view one another, so videoconferencing is the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 330
AACSB: Technology
Objective: 12.2
97) Which kind of electronic meeting format allows participants access to verbal
communication that includes voice intonation but no body language?
A) teleconferencing
B) videoconferencing
C) electronic data interchange
D) face-to-face meeting
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Teleconferencing is done over telephone lines so it allows participants to
speak and hear each other's voice intonations, but not to have access to other forms of
nonverbal communication, making teleconferencing the correct response. A videoconference
and a face-to-face meeting both have a visual dimension, allowing participants to access all
forms of nonverbal communication, not just voice intonation. Electronic data exchange is
strictly a data medium and does not involve human communication.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 330
AACSB: Technology
Objective: 12.2
98) An extranet is different from an intranet in that it ________.
A) allows participants to use the Internet
B) does not involve the Internet
C) is faster than an intranet
D) allows outside companies to participate
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Both an intranet and an extranet are sectioned off areas of the Internet that
are accessible only to the organization that creates them. The difference between the two is
that an intranet is strictly for in- house use while an extranet can include outside users, such as
vendors and customers of the company. This makes "allowing outsiders to participate" the
correct response and rules out "allowing participants to use the Internet" because both
systems can access the Internet and "not involving the Internet" because it is not true. An
extranet and intranet typically run at the same speed so "being faster than an intranet" is
incorrect.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 330
AACSB: Technology
Objective: 12.2
99) Terms such as BIL, NSFW, and FYEO are examples of which of the following?
A) text- messaging shorthand
B) Internet agencies
C) government education programs
D) workplace compensation bureaus
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The abbreviations above are text-messaging shorthand for "boss is listening"
(BIL), "not safe for work" (NSFW), and "for your eyes only" (FYEO), making textmessaging shorthand the correct response. These abbreviations were created to save time,
keystrokes, and effort and are especially useful when text space is limited, as it is on sites like
Twitter.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 331
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.2
100) Which of the following characteristics is NOT typically an important part of a
functioning knowledge management system?
A) gathering knowledge
B) selling knowledge
C) organizing knowledge
D) sharing knowledge
Answer: B
Explanation: B) In a knowledge management system, an organization first gathers and
organizes important and useful things that employees have learned over the course of doing
their jobs. Then that knowledge is shared so the advantage gained by the knowledge learned
can benefit any and all in the organization who need it. What a knowledge management
system typically doesn't do is sell the knowledge that has been gained, making "selling
knowledge" the correct response here.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 332
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.2
101) Which of the following would be most likely to be an important "knowledge" that a
restaurant might make part of its knowledge management system?
A) employee phone list
B) a new logo
C) 5-pound bag of onions
D) a recipe for an onion tart
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Of the items listed, material food ingredients and a logo do not really
constitute knowledge, so they are incorrect choices. A phone list does qualify as knowledge,
but is fairly trivial knowledge and not truly part of a learning culture, so employee phone list
is also incorrect. A recipe is important knowledge that can be shared in the restaurant, making
it useful for all who cook and serve there, making a recipe for an onion tart the correct
response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 332
Objective: 12.2
102) Top corporations find this to be the most important quality when hiring senior- level
employees.
A) honesty
B) interpersonal skills
C) technical skills
D) discipline
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Top managers at Fortune 500 companies identified interpersonal skills
above such qualities as honesty, discipline, and technical skills to describe what they were
looking for in an employee. This makes interpersonal skills the correct response and rules out
all of the other choices.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 332
Objective: 12.3
103) What are the four essential elements of active listening?
A) intensity, concentration, empathy, acceptance
B) summarizing, integrating, empathy, concentration
C) concentration, intensity, willingness to take responsibility for actions, receptivity
D) intensity, empathy, acceptance, willingness to take responsibility for completeness
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The choice including "willingness to take responsibility for completeness"
gives the correct four elements. Intensity refers to the listener's concentration level. Empathy
involves the listener's ability to imagine herself in the speaker's "shoes." Acceptance is a
measure of the listener's objectivity. Taking responsibility for completeness refers to the
listener's ability to get the speaker's full intended meaning.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 332
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.3
104) The best way to use "idle" time when a speaker is speaking is to ________.
A) think of what you are going to say
B) think of suggestions that might help the speaker
C) summarize and integrate what you've heard
D) compose interesting questions you might ask
Answer: C
Explanation: C) A key to active listening is to focus on what the speaker is saying.
Composing questions, thinking of statements, or suggestions are all examples of failing to
focus on listening, so they are incorrect responses. Summarizing and integrating do keep the
listener focused on the speaker, so that choice is the best response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 332
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.3
105) Which of the following essential elements of active listening requires a listener to
suspend his or her own thoughts and feelings and focus on the thoughts and feelings of the
speaker?
A) empathy
B) intensity
C) willingness to take responsibility for completeness
D) acceptance
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Empathy is the ability to understand a situation and feelings of another
person, making empathy the correct response. Intensity refers to the liste ner's concentration
level, not the ability to put oneself in another's shoes. Taking responsibility for completeness
refers to the listener's ability to get the speaker's full intended meaning. Acceptance is a
measure of the listener's objectivity.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 333
Objective: 12.3
106) Which of the following essential elements of active listening requires the listener to
withhold judgment on the speaker's message?
A) acceptance
B) willingness to take responsibility for completeness
C) intensity
D) empathy
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Acceptance is a measure of the listener's objectivity and ability to avoid
prematurely passing judgment on what is being said, making acceptance the correct response
for this question. Empathy is the ability to understand a situation and feelings of another
person, not the ability to withhold judgment. Intensity refers to the listener's concentration
level. Taking responsibility for completeness refers to the listener's ability to get the speaker's
full intended meaning.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 333
Objective: 12.3
107) Which of the following essential elements of active listening requires the listener to
make sure that the speaker has gotten a chance to fully express him- or herself?
A) acceptance
B) willingness to take responsibility for completeness
C) intensity
D) empathy
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Taking responsibility for completeness refers to the listener's ability not to
cut the speaker short and make sure that he or she is able to understand the speaker's full
intended meaning, making that choice the correct response for this question. Empathy is the
ability to understand a situation and feelings of another person. Intensity refers to the
listener's concentration level. Acceptance is a measure of the liste ner's objectivity and ability
to withhold judgment on what is being said.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 333
Objective: 12.3
108) Which of the following essential elements of active listening requires a listener to focus
completely on what a speaker is saying?
A) willingness to take responsibility for completeness
B) empathy
C) acceptance
D) intensity
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Intensity refers to the listener's ability to concentrate fully on what the
speaker is saying, making it the correct response for this question. Empathy is the ability to
understand a situation and feelings of another person. Taking responsibility for completeness
refers to the listener's ability to get the speaker's full intended meaning. Acceptance is a
measure of the listener's objectivity and ability to withhold judgment on the speaker's point of
view.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 333
Objective: 12.3
109) Which kind of feedback is usually given promptly and enthusiastically?
A) negative feedback
B) accurate feedback
C) positive feedback
D) useful feedback
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Whether or not feedback is accurate or useful typically does not determine
how eagerly it will be given. In fact, people generally don't like to give accurate or useful
feedback if it is negative, so they avoid or delay giving it. The feedback that people are
generally eager to give is positive feedback, making positive feedback the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 333
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.3
110) Which kind of feedback is most frequently misinterpreted?
A) negative feedback
B) accurate feedback
C) objective feedback
D) gentle feedback
Answer: A
Explanation: A) People don't like to hear bad news about themselves, so when negative
feedback is given, it often gets distorted or misinterpreted by the listener, making negative
feedback the correct response. Whether feedback is accurate, objective, or gentle can all have
impact on how well it is received, but all of these factors are minor in comparison to whether
or not feedback is generally positive or negative.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 333
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.3
111) What is the most common response to negative feedback?
A) acceptance
B) resistance
C) indifference
D) gratitude
Answer: B
Explanation: B) In most cases, rather than gratitude, ready acceptance, or indifference,
negative feedback is met with stiff resistance, making resistance the correct response. People
do not like to hear about their deficiencies and shortcomings, and often want to dispute the
veracity of the criticism.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 333
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.3
112) Which kind of negative feedback is most likely to be well accepted?
A) objective
B) subjective
C) honest
D) accurate
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Honesty and accuracy rarely determine whether negative feedback will be
accepted because the receiver may often dispute any view that puts him- or herself in a
negative light. Instead, the key to acceptance of negative feedback is how objective the
feedback is, making objective the correct response and ruling out subjective. Objective
feedback is accepted more readily because it offers facts and data, two things that are hard to
dispute, rather than opinions and impressions.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 333
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.3
113) When is subjective negative feedback most likely to be accepted?
A) when the source is a trusted top manager
B) when the source is a peer
C) when the source is not a top manager
D) when the source is not part of the organization
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Negative feedback is hard for anyone to accept. When the feedback comes
from a trusted, credible source, especially someone who has status and experience in the
organization, it is most likely to be accepted, making a trusted top manager the correct
response. Peers and lower- level managers typically don't have the stature or credibility to
make their criticisms accepted, so those choices are incorrect. Outside sources are often
mistrusted by employees, so that choice is also an incorrect response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 333
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.3
114) Which kind of feedback is most likely to be well accepted?
A) impersonal and subjective
B) personal and objective
C) personal and subjective
D) impersonal and objective
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Two elements make feedback most likely to be well accepted: being
impersonal and objective, making that choice the correct response. People will accept
criticism if it is based on facts and the task at hand. People tend to reject criticism if they see
it as an attack on their personal character. Similarly, objectivity is more readily accepted than
subjectivity because objectivity focuses on facts and verifiable events rather than subjective
opinions which are often suspected to be biased and unfair.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 334
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.3
115) Rather than call an employee "sloppy," a manager should ________.
A) call the employee careless
B) call the employee absent- minded
C) point out some of the employee's good characteristics
D) point out events in which the employee was sloppy
Answer: D
Explanation: D) While the terms careless and absent-minded are less harsh than sloppy, they
are still examples of name-calling which is often counterproductive as feedback because it
just gives the employee an excuse to be resentful. Pointing out positive characteristics is
unproductive because it avoids the problem that needed to be addressed in the first place,
namely the employee's carelessness. The best response is pointing out events which, rather
than name-call, identify actual events that can be considered by the employee and hopefully
corrected.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 334
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.3
116) Rather than reprimand an otherwise productive employee for making mistakes, it is
better to ________.
A) discuss how to correct the mistakes
B) point out that she could be fired
C) blame the mistakes for creating ancillary problems
D) discuss your own mistakes
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The point of feedback is to improve the situation, not place blame, make
threats, or make personal confessions. The only choice that could actually improve the
situation is to discuss how to correct the mistakes that were made, making that choice the
correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 334
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.3
117) Positive or negative feedback works best when it is given ________.
A) everyday
B) not more than a few times a year
C) shortly after the event itself
D) long after the event itself
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Feedback should be given whenever it is necessary and not be subject to a
daily or yearly quota or schedule. The best time to give feedback is shortly after the event or
behavior takes place, while it is fresh in the mind of all involved. This makes "shortly after
the event" the correct response and eliminates "long after the event" as a correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 334
Objective: 12.3
118) To make sure that feedback is likely to be constructive, it is a good idea to have the
receiver ________.
A) make a verbal promise to change the behavior
B) rephrase the message to make sure it was understood
C) apologize
D) make a written promise to change the behavior
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Making promises or apologies is likely to produce resentment on behalf of
the receiver which would reduce, rather than increase, the likelihood of the feedback being
constructive. A better strategy is to ask the receiver to rephrase the feedback that was given to
make sure there is not any misunderstanding or misinterpretation of what was said and what
is being asked.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 334
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.3
119) Criticizing an employee's behavior is usually much more constructive than criticizing
his character because ________.
A) character is permanent
B) character is not permanent
C) behavior can be controlled
D) behavior cannot be controlled
Answer: C
Explanation: C) What matters for this question is that behavior can be controlled and
therefore changed fairly readily while character traits, which are permanent, cannot easily be
controlled or changed. This makes the choice indicating behavior can be controlled the
correct response and rules out all other responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 334
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.3
120) Delegation is increasing in today's business world primarily because of ________
A) smaller spans of control
B) the need for quick decisions
C) globalization
D) tighter budgets
Answer: B
Explanation: B) While globalization and tight budgets might indirectly increase delegation,
the need for organizational flexibility, agility, and quick responses to problems that arise are
the main reasons why managers delegate more today, making "the need for quick decisions"
the correct response. A smaller span of control actually decreases, rather than increases, the
likelihood of delegation, since it allows closer contact between managers and subordinates.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 335
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.3
121) Delegation requires that decisions are made by ________.
A) employees on their own
B) employees and managers working together
C) managers with some input from employees
D) employees with some input from managers
Answer: A
Explanation: A) When work is delegated, employees make decisions completely on their
own, making that choice the correct response. Different forms of joint employee- manager
decisions are made in participative, rather than delegated situations.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 335
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.3
122) A participation work style requires that decisions are made by ________.
A) managers only
B) employees and managers working together
C) managers and consultants
D) employees on their own
Answer: B
Explanation: B) When a participative work style is used, employees and managers make
decisions jointly rather than managers or employees making decisions on their own or
managers working with outside consultants to make decisions.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 335
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.3
123) Downsizing has increased delegation of work to employees by ________.
A) increasing managerial spans of control
B) decreasing managerial spans of control
C) decreasing the total amount of work to be done
D) changing the tasks that are needed to be done
Answer: A
Explanation: A) In many cases, downsizing has reduced the managerial workforce without
changing the tasks or total amount of work to be done by workers, thereby increasing the
average number of workers each manager supervises. This increase in supervisory scope
amounts to an increased span of control, making this choice the correct response and
eliminating decreasing managerial spans of control as a correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 335
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.3
124) When managers don't properly specify what they expect, they end up ________ their
responsibility.
A) delegating rather than abdicating
B) abdicating rather than delegating
C) increasing rather than delegating
D) decreasing rather than abdicating
Answer: B
Explanation: B) When a manager delegates, he must be sure that the employees involved
know precisely what their responsibility is with respect to: what the task is, its time frame, the
performance levels that are expected, and how much decision- making power the employees
can assume. If the manager instead just dumps the task on the employees without this kind of
specific information and guidance, he is guilty of abdicating his responsibility, making
"abdicating" the correct response, and ruling out all other responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 335
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.3
125) To be successful, managerial delegation must include ________.
A) abdication
B) feedback controls
C) mistakes
D) no mistakes
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Mistakes are part of every learning process, so a small number of mistakes
are expected in any delegation of work. However, mistakes or an absence of mistakes are
certainly not required for successful delegation, making these two choices incorrect
responses. What is required for successful delegation is a set of meaningful feedback controls
that allow the manager to monitor the work that has been delegated and make sure it stays on
track, making feedback controls the correct response for this question. Abdication is the
opposite of successful delegation so that choice is an incorrect response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 336
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.3
126) Rather than delegate too much work to employees, inexperienced managers are likely to
________.
A) do too much themselves
B) do too little themselves
C) delegate the wrong kind of tasks
D) delegate tasks that are too hard or easy
Answer: A
Explanation: A) A common mistake of inexperienced managers is to delegate too little and
try to make up for it by trying to do too much on their own by themselves. Managers need to
learn to trust their employees rather than exhaust themselves trying to do too much. This
makes doing too much themselves the correct response and eliminates doing too little as a
correct response. The other two choices are incorrect because the kind of tasks that managers
delegate are not usually related to how much they trust their employees.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 336
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.3
127) When delegating work, the best policy is for a manager to specify what the ________.
A) goals are and how they should be reached
B) goals are only
C) task is but not the goals
D) task is and how it should be carried out
Answer: B
Explanation: B) If possible, managers should strive to give employees as much freedom as
possible in performing a task in their own way. This means that goals alone should be
provided without specifying how those goals should be reached, making "goals only" the
correct response and ruling out "goals and how they should be reached." Allowing this
freedom increases employee motivation and trust between managers and employees. The
other two choices fail to specify goals so both responses are incorrect for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 336
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.3
128) Feedback controls are designed to ________.
A) control every move that employees make
B) assess the task only after it has been completed
C) monitor progress without being constraining
D) monitor details but leave the goals to the employees
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The point of feedback controls is to make sure that a task is proceeding
along a path that is likely to be successful. To do this, managers should avoid being overly
controlling, losing sight of the "big picture" or waiting too long and jeopardizing the success
of the task. Instead, managers should monitor progress in a macro sense, being concerned
with progress only and not being overly concerned with process as long as the effort seems
likely to be successful.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 337
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.3
129) When delegating tasks, managers should expect ________.
A) to be ignored by employees
B) secrecy on the part of employees
C) that employees will not be entirely honest
D) small mistakes made by employees
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Secrecy, dishonesty, or being ignored by employees are things that should
not be expected or tolerated by managers when they delegate tasks—all of these items are
indications that the task is not being carried out successfully. What managers should expect
are a moderate amount of small mistakes, making small mistakes the correct response.
Monitoring should be done frequently enough to ensure that the small mistakes don't turn into
large mistakes.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 337
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.3
130) Which item was rated most important for management development programs to deal
with in a survey of managers?
A) decision making
B) leadership
C) conflict management
D) communication skills
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Though communication skills, decision making, and leadership are all
considering key management skills, the area in which managers see the most need for
training is conflict management. Studies estimate that managers spend 20 percent of their
time dealing with conflict.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 337
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.3
131) The human relations view of conflict states that conflict ________.
A) must be avoided
B) is natural and inevitable
C) is necessary for successful group performance
D) should be ignored
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The human relations view of conflict states that conflict is natural and
inevitable when groups interact, and can be a positive or negative force in a group, making
natural and inevitable the correct response. The traditional view of conflict holds that conflict
is a serious group problem and should be avoided. The interactionist view of conflict holds
that conflict can not only be positive, it is needed for groups to function successfully. No
recognized view of conflict advocates that conflict should be ignored.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 338
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.3
132) The interactionist view of conflict states that conflict ________.
A) is easily prevented
B) must be avoided
C) is natural and inevitable
D) is necessary for successful group performance
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The interactionist view of conflict holds that conflict not only can be
positive, it is needed for groups to function successfully, making "necessary for success" the
correct response. The human relations view of conflict states that conflict is natural,
inevitable when groups interact, and can be a positive or negative force in a group. The
traditional view of conflict holds that conflict is a serious group problem and should be
avoided. No recognized view of conflict contends that conflict can be easily prevented.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 338
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.3
133) Research shows that ________ conflict has a positive effect on group performance.
A) a high level of task
B) a low-to- moderate level of task
C) a high level of process
D) a moderate level of personal
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Studies show that a medium level of task conflict stimulates spirited
discussions and creative ideas and has a positive influence on group performance, making
low-to- moderate the correct response. To be functional, process conflict must exist at low,
not high, levels. Personal conflict is thought not to be functional or beneficial for groups at
any level.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 338
Objective: 12.3
134) Personal conflicts are thought ________.
A) to be beneficial at low levels
B) to be functional at moderate levels
C) always to be dysfunctional
D) to be dysfunctional only at high levels
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Studies show that personal conflicts have no beneficial effects—they are
dysfunctional in all cases, making that choice the correct response and ruling out all other
responses. Other forms of conflict, process conflict and task conflict, are thought to have
positive effects at low or moderate levels.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 338
Objective: 12.3
135) The first step in initiating functional conflict is to ________.
A) challenge the views of employees
B) bring up controversial issues with employees
C) inform employees that conflict has a legitimate place in group interactions
D) bring in outside consultants who have been instructed to upset the status quo
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The most important step in stimulating conflict is to assure the group that
conflict is not always destructive or dysfunctional and that employees should welcome some
types of conflict. This makes informing employees of conflict's legitimacy the correct
response and eliminates all other responses. Challenging employees or shaking up employees
with controversy or outsiders all can be used to stimulate conflict, but they are not correct
choices for this question because they are not good "first moves" for stimulating conflict.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 340
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.3
136) Distributive bargaining is ________.
A) win- win bargaining
B) no-win bargaining
C) zero-win bargaining
D) zero-sum bargaining
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Distributive bargaining operates under zero-sum conditions—that is, the
algebraic sum of one party's gain is precisely equal to the other party's loss. This makes zerosum bargaining the correct response. Win- win bargaining identifies integrative bargaining in
which both sides gain from the negotiation rather than one side gaining at the expense of the
other. No-win and zero-win bargaining are not recognized forms of negotiation.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 341
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 12.3
137) Integrative bargaining is ________.
A) single-win bargaining
B) win-win bargaining
C) zero-sum bargaining
D) no-sum bargaining
Answer: B
Chapter 13 Foundations of Control
43) The control management function ensures that ________ in an organization.
A) goals are set
B) goals are met
C) plans are made
D) plans are realistic
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The control function does not involve making plans or setting goals for the
future. Instead, control is involved with looking back after plans have been made and seeing
that goals have been successfully met, making "goals being met" the correct respo nse for this
question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 350
Objective: 13.1
44) A major part of the controlling function of management is to ________.
A) formulate strategies
B) set standards
C) correct performance problems
D) structure an organization
Answer: C
Explanation: C) In addition to making sure that goals have been met, a major function of
controlling is to correct performances that are not up to standards, making "orrecting
performance problems" the correct response. Formulating strategies and setting standards
both fall primarily under the planning function, while structuring an organization is part of
the organizing function.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 350
Objective: 13.1
45) The more a control system helps an organization ________, the more successful it is
judged to be.
A) make a profit
B) help employees achieve job satisfaction
C) meet its goals
D) help employees be productive
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The purpose of a control system is first and foremost to help a company
achieve its goals, whatever they are, making "meeting its goals" the correct response. Though
productivity, profit, and job satisfaction are all important to many organizations, they may not
be specific goals of a given organization, so they are not correct responses for this ques tion.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 350
Objective: 13.1
46) A well-run company that has well-thought-out plans, motivated and productive workers,
and an efficient organizational structure ________.
A) always attains its goals
B) may not always be attaining its goals
C) rarely attains its goals
D) has no reason to monitor its performance
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Though it is likely that a well-run company will attain its goals, only
monitoring an organization's activities and comparing them to standards can co nfirm that
those goals have been met. This rules out "rarely attaining its goals," since most well- run
companies do attain goals, and it also rules out "always attaining goals" because a company
may seem to do everything right and still not attain its goals. "Having no reason to monitor
performance" is incorrect because monitoring is the one way in which a company can
determine for sure whether it has achieved goals. Since all other choices have been
eliminated, "not always attaining goals" is the correct response for this question since it
correctly identifies the unlikely but still possible eventuality that a company that does all the
right things could still fail to attain its goals.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 350
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 13.1
47) The value of the controlling function is seen in three specific areas: planning, ________.
A) organizing, and leading
B) protecting employees, and empowering the workplace
C) protecting employees, and protecting the workplace
D) empowering employees, and protecting the workplace
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The value of the controlling function is seen in planning, the empowering of
employees, and the protecting of the workplace, making "empowering employees and
protecting the workplace" the correct response and ruling out all other responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 350
Objective: 13.1
48) Controlling is the ________ in the management process.
A) first step
B) final step
C) most important step
D) least important step
Answer: B
Explanation: B) All four steps in the management process are more or less equal in
importance, making both choices regarding importance incorrect responses for this question.
Controlling comes after planning, organizing, and leading in the management process, so it is
the final, not the first step in the management process, making final step the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 351
Objective: 13.1
49) Controlling compares ________ to see if goals are being achieved.
A) planned performance to standard performance
B) standard performance to ideal performance
C) actual performance to competitor performance
D) actual performance to planned performance
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Controlling compares how the organization actually performed to the goals
and plans that were set during the planning stage of the management process, making "actual
performance to planned performance" the correct response and ruling out all other responses.
If the actual performance matches what was planned, goals are considered met and the
organization in most cases can consider itself successful. However, if actual performance is
judged to be insufficient for some reason, then the organization will consider its performance
to be inadequate and take some kind of action to remedy the situation.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 351
Objective: 13.1
50) Effective controlling can help managers who are afraid to delegate authority ________.
A) empower their employees
B) set their goals
C) maximize risk
D) minimize employee empowerment
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Effective controlling gives managers a way to delegate authority but still
make sure that empowered employees are progressing effectively toward organizational
goals, making "empowering employees" the correct response and ruling out "minimization of
employee empowerment," since controlling maximizes rather than minimizes empowerment.
Setting goals is not a correct response because controlling takes place long after goals have
been set. Maximizing risk can be eliminated as a correct response because effective
controlling would serve to reduce, or minimize, not maximize risk.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 351
Objective: 13.1
51) The controlling function helps managers protect an organization's ________.
A) reputation for honesty
B) assets
C) standing
D) good name
Answer: B
Explanation: B) While protecting an organization's good name, standing in the community,
or reputation for honesty are all important, none of these functions requires explicit use of the
controlling function. Controlling does, however, explicitly protect organizational assets
against disruptions and harm of any kind, making assets the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 351
Objective: 13.1
52) The first step in the control process is to ________.
A) take action
B) measure actual performance
C) compare performance against a standard
D) compare a standard against an ideal
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The first step in the control process is to find out how the organization went
about its business—that is, to measure the actual performance of the organization, making
"measuring actual performance" the correct response. Comparing actual performance against
a standard is the second step of the control process, while taking action is the final step in the
process. Comparing the standard against an ideal is not a step in the control process, making
that choice an incorrect response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 352
Objective: 13.2
53) Managers always use these for performance standards during the control process.
A) goals created during the planning process
B) plans created during the planning process
C) generic performance standards for the industry
D) standards developed by performance experts
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The performance standards to which the actual performance of the
organization is compared during the control process are simply the goals that were created
during the planning stage of organizational activity. This makes "goals created" the correct
response and eliminates generic or expert-developed standards as correct responses. "Plans
created" is incorrect because the standards are goals, not plans.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 352
Objective: 13.2
54) A manager measuring actual performance is like a teacher ________.
A) composing a test
B) grading a test
C) helping a student study for a test
D) making an assignment
Answer: B
Explanation: B) When a teacher composes a test, gives an assignment, or helps a student
prepare for a test, she is not actually assessing or measuring performance. Instead she is
creating the tools for assessing performance. Only when a teacher evaluates the test is she
measuring actual performance, making "grading a test" the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 352
Objective: 13.2
55) This is the most informal form of performance measurement.
A) oral reports
B) written reports
C) statistical reports
D) personal observation
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Oral reports, statistical reports, and written reports all have specific formats
and conventions that are required, making them formal types of performance measurement.
For example, a statistical report must include statistical tables or graphs showing how the
standard categories of data compare. Personal observations, on the other hand, can take on a
variety of different forms and examine a variety of different charac teristics and attributes of
an organization, making personal observation the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 353
Objective: 13.2
56) MBWA stands for management by ________.
A) work area
B) work action
C) written action
D) walking around
Answer: D
Explanation: D) MBWA is an informal examination of the workplace that the manager
carries out by "walking around," making walking around the correct answer and ruling out
the other three choices. MBWA allows the manager to get a feel for the work area and the
moods and attitudes of the people who work there.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 353
Objective: 13.2
57) An advantage of management by walking around is ________.
A) perceptual biases
B) obtrusiveness
C) personal contact
D) objectivity
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Few would try to make the claim that MBWA does not usually suffer from
personal biases, as one person's outstanding trait might go unnoticed by another observer.
Interfering in the daily activities of the workplace can also be the source of misconception in
MBWA, making obtrusiveness an incorrect response. MBWA is highly subjective rather than
objective, so objectivity is not correct. Finally, personal contact is the correct response
because MBWA involves a great deal of personal interaction, which gives managers a
valuable view of their workplace.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 353
Objective: 13.2
58) For a baseball player a statistical report would feature such things as ________.
A) a newspaper profile of the player
B) batting average and slugging percentage
C) filmed highlights of great plays
D) scouting reports on the player
Answer: B
Explanation: B) A newspaper article, highlight films, or scouting reports are all
measurements of a player's value but they are not statistical measurements so they are
incorrect responses. Batting average and slugging percentage are statistical measurements, so
this choice is the correct response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 353
Objective: 13.2
59) A disadvantage of a statistical report is that it may leave out ________ measurements of
performance.
A) subjective
B) objective
C) positive
D) negative
Answer: A
Explanation: A) A statistical report is objective rather than subjective and is no more likely
to leave out positive or negative performance evaluations than any other form of assessment,
making objective, positive, and negative all incorrect responses for this question. Since a
statistical report is objective it tends to disregard subjective information, making subjective
the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 353
Objective: 13.2
60) This type of performance measurement format would be most likely to include graphs,
tables, and computer outputs.
A) oral report
B) statistical report
C) MBWA
D) written report
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Since both an oral report or MBWA include written material, neither would
be likely to feature charts and graphs, making those two choices incorrect responses. A
written report might include quantitative data, but quantitative data would not be an essential
element of the report as it would be in a statistical report. This makes statistical report the
correct response and eliminates written report as a correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 353
Objective: 13.2
61) This kind of performance measurement method is fast and is a good platform for
feedback, yet it can be private and scheduled for a single employee ahead of time.
A) written report
B) MBWA
C) oral report
D) statistical report
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Both statistical and written reports are slow and do not allow for immediate
feedback, so those two choices can be eliminated as correct responses. MBWA and oral
reports are both fast and allow for feedback, but MBWA is not private and cannot be
personally scheduled, making oral report the correct response and ruling out MBWA.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 353
Objective: 13.2
62) The most comprehensive form of performance measurement is this.
A) MBWA
B) oral report
C) statistical report
D) written report
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The informality of MBWA and oral reports make them less complete and
thorough than statistical and written reports, making those two choices incorrect responses.
Statistical and written reports are both readable documents, but a written report is likely to be
more comprehensive since it could include both quantitative and qualitative information,
while a statistical report would be quantitative only (or primarily), making written report the
correct response and ruling out statistical report.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 353
Objective: 13.2
63) Steve has a taped record of this one-on-one meeting with his boss.
A) a statistical report
B) an oral report
C) MBWA
D) a written report
Answer: B
Explanation: B) A one-on-one meeting is a personal interaction, not a written-out document,
so both a statistical and written report can be ruled out as correct responses, since both are
characterized by written documents. Oral reports and MBWA are both personal interactions,
but MBWA is a group interaction rather than a one-on-one meeting so MBWA cannot be a
correct response. An oral report is the correct response because it is a personal interaction and
because it was taped—a characteristic of an oral report but not MBWA.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 353
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 13.2
64) Jessie's whole work section that consists of three work groups was assessed by this
method of performance measurement and informally judged to be "creative, innovative, hardworking, and fun- loving."
A) MBWA
B) written report
C) statistical report
D) oral report
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The subjective, informal character of the assessment rules out a written and
statistical report as possible right answers for this question, since written and statistical
methods tend to be formal. The assessment is more impressionistic than specific, more a
sense of an entire work area than an evaluation of an individual or a specific group, making
MBWA the correct response and ruling out oral report.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 353
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 13.2
65) These forms of performance measurement provide the best and most immediate forms of
feedback.
A) oral report and written report
B) written report and statistical report
C) MBWA and oral report
D) statistical report and MBWA
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The three incorrect choices all include written-document forms of
measurement (written or statistical reports), so they can be ruled out since the most effective
forms of feedback are generally verbal (including intonation, facial expressions, and body
language) and immediate. This makes MBWA and oral report the correct response, since
both MBWA and oral reports are verbal forms of evaluation that allow evaluators and
subjects to interact and exchange feedback and other forms of information personally.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 353
Objective: 13.2
66) What managers choose to measure largely determines an organization's ________.
A) goals
B) structure
C) image
D) leaders and leadership style
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The choice of what managers measure in terms of performance largely
determines what the organization will try to excel at—in other words, its goals, making goals
the correct response. While structure, leadership, and image can be affected by choice of
performance measurement, these items are not directly affected, so they are incorrect
responses for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 353
Objective: 13.2
67) A car company that puts more effort into measuring quality than total units sold most
likely wants to excel at ________.
A) customer satisfaction
B) efficiency
C) employee satisfaction
D) cost per unit
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The company is showing its priorities by what it chooses to measure. Since
it is concerned with quality, the company is clearly less interested in efficiency and unit cost
than how satisfied its customers are, making customer satisfaction the correct response.
Employee satisfaction is not directly related to measuring quality so it is not a correct
response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 354
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 13.2
68) A software company that puts almost all of its performance measurement effort into
measuring the total number of units that the company and its competitors sell most likely
wants to excel at ________.
A) efficiency
B) market share
C) cost per unit
D) labor per unit
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The company is showing its priorities by what it chooses to measure. Since
it is concerned with the total sales of itself and its competitors, the company is clearly more
interested in market share than efficiency, cost per unit, or labor per unit.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 354
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 13.2
69) A state motor vehicles agency that is interested in serving the public might choose to
measure ________.
A) total revenue rather than customer wait time
B) total customers rather than total revenue
C) customer wait time rather than total customers
D) employee turnover rather than customer wait time
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Since the agency is interested in serving the public, its priority should be
something that the public cares about—how long it needs to wait to be processed at the
agency, making customer wait the correct response. The number of customers or revenue
they generate are clearly secondary concerns for an organization whose primar y aim is to
serve the public. Employee turnover rate does not involve customers so it can also be ruled
out as a correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 354
Objective: 13.2
70) Which of the following performance measurement categories must be measured
subjectively rather than in objective or quantifiable terms?
A) budget
B) absenteeism
C) efficiency
D) job satisfaction
Answer: D
Explanation: D) A budget, absentee data, or efficiency data can all be tallied and quantified
using objective numerical values. Job satisfaction, on the other hand, is a more subjective
thing to rate that often relies on feelings and impressions rather than quantifiable facts,
making job satisfaction the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 354
Objective: 13.2
71) The second step in the control process is to ________.
A) compare a standard against an ideal
B) measure actual performance
C) compare performance against a standard
D) take action
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The first step in the control process is to find out ho w the organization went
about its business—that is, to measure the actual performance of the organization. Comparing
that actual performance against a standard is the second step of the control process, making
that choice the correct response for this question. Taking action is the final step in the
process. Comparing the standard against an ideal is not a step in the control process, making
that choice an incorrect response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 352
Objective: 13.2
72) To carry out the second step of the control process, managers at an electric shaver
company need to compare the number of actual shavers sold to ________.
A) a competitor's sales totals
B) planning goals for sales totals
C) sales totals from last year
D) the number of possible shaver customers
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The second step of the control process compares actual performance to goals
that have been determined in the planning stage of the managerial process, making planning
goals the correct response. This means that while sales totals from last year, a competitor, or
a comparison with the total number of potential customers may all be meaningful, they are
not the stated goals laid out in the planning process so they are incorrect responses for this
question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 354
Objective: 13.2
73) In the second step of the control process, actual performance can be considered
acceptable as long as the performance doesn't fall ________.
A) short of goals by more than 15 percent
B) short of goals by more than 30 percent
C) inside of an acceptable range of variation
D) outside of an acceptable range of variation
Answer: D
Explanation: D) There are no hard and fast rules with respect to deviation. One situation
might allow a 50 percent deviation, while a second might determine that a 5 percent deviation
is too high. Therefore, all that is required is that deviation fall within the individual manager's
accepted variation range, making outside an acceptable range the correct response and ruling
out inside an acceptable range. The other two choices are not correct because they quantify
performance limits.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 354
Objective: 13.2
74) In general, ________ that falls outside of an acceptable range of variation must be dealt
with by a manager.
A) an overperformance
B) an underperformance
C) any deviation
D) a small overperformance or a large underperformance
Answer: C
Explanation: C) By definition, any deviation that lies outside of an acceptable range of
variation is unacceptable, therefore it must be dealt with. This means that any deviation is the
correct response and the other three choices are incorrect because they are too limited in
scope. What matters is that performance lies outside of the acceptable range, not whether
performance is above or below that range.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 354
Objective: 13.2
75) The third step in the control process is to ________.
A) measure actual performance
B) compare a standard against an ideal
C) take action
D) compare performance to a standard
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The first step in the control process is to find out how the organization went
about its business—that is, to measure the actual performance of the organization. Comparing
that actual performance against a standard is the second step of the control process. Taking
action is the third and final step in the process, making taking action the correct response for
this question. Comparing the standard against an ideal is not a step in the control process,
making that choice an incorrect response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 352
Objective: 13.2
76) When actual performance falls outside of an acceptable range of variation, it is termed
a(n) ________.
A) significant deviation
B) insignificant deviation
C) acceptable deviation
D) large deviation
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Any measure of actual performance that does not fall within the limits of
what the manager has termed an acceptable range of variation is termed a significant
deviation, making this choice the correct response and eliminating all other responses. Note
that a significant deviation is defined entirely by the situation and the manager. The same
deviation in two different situations, or when evaluated by two different managers, may be
assessed differently.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 356
Objective: 13.2
77) When should a manager's course of action be to do nothing?
A) if the cause of the variation has been identified
B) if the standard is acceptable
C) if the standard is not acceptable
D) if the variance is acceptable
Answer: D
Explanation: D) By definition, if the variance of performance is within an acceptable range,
it means that the manager finds that performance level to be functional or better, so there is
no need to take corrective action. This makes acceptable variance the correct response for this
question and rules out all other responses.
Diff: 1
Page Ref: 356
Objective: 13.2
78) Actual performance falls far short of planned goals, yet a manager takes no action.
Assuming this manager is a reasonable person and is not mistaken, what is the most likely
cause of his inaction?
A) He does not trust the data.
B) He does not consider the deviation significant.
C) He does not trust the goals that were set.
D) He does not believe in corrective action.
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The operative word here is reasonable—one assumes that the possibility of
the manager failing to believe in corrective action, failing to trust goals that were set, or
failing to believe performance data are all fairly unreasonable assumptions, making "not
considering the deviation significant" the only reasonable choice and therefore the correct
answer. Why would a manager fail to see a large deviation from a standard as significant? It
could be anything—special circumstances, new developments, etc. What matters here is that
the manager expanded his or her range of acceptable deviation for some legitimate reason and
the performance fell within that expanded range.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 356
Objective: 13.2
79) Which of the following is NOT a recognized possible course of action for managers to
take when actual performance falls outside of an acceptable range of variation?
A) take corrective action
B) change the standards
C) ignore the performance data
D) do nothing
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Corrective action, doing nothing, and changing standards are all recognized
ways of dealing with significant deviations. Ignoring the data is neither a recognized way of
dealing with deviations nor a responsible way for a manager to behave, making ignoring the
data the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 356
Objective: 13.2
80) If a manager of a tennis store sees sales totals for a particular racquet significantly
exceeding goals and deviating from acceptable range of variation, she might ________.
A) do nothing since sales exceeded goals
B) run a sale on the racquet
C) run a sale on other products
D) inquire about ordering more racquets
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Since the totals were outside of an acceptable range of variation, the
manager clearly must do something, so doing nothing can be ruled out. Running a sale on the
racquet would decrease profits so that choice can also be ruled out. Running a sale on other
products is irrelevant since other products are not outside an acceptable range of deviation.
The best thing for the manager to do is find out about ordering more racquets—if demand
increases she may be caught without enough supply in the months to come.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 356
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 13.2
81) After an extended period of unseasonably warm and sunny weather, revenues are down
sharply during the month of November at an indoor tennis club. The best strategy for the club
manager is to ________.
A) do nothing
B) run a sale on hourly rates
C) raise hourly rates to increase revenue
D) change her monthly goals for December
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The deviation in this case falls within an acceptable range. The drop in
customers had an explainable cause—unusually nice weather—that is not likely to become a
chronic problem. There is no reason to assume that December will be just as warm as
November, so the manager should not change her goals, run a sale, or raise rates. The best
strategy is to sit tight and wait for the normal customers to come in during December, making
doing nothing the correct response.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 356
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 13.2
82) Due to a recent construction of an upscale housing community near a tennis club,
customer use has skyrocketed during the year and the club is operating at all-time high levels,
far beyond the goals set the previous year. The best strategy for the manager is to ________.
A) do nothing
B) run a sale to increase customers
C) advertise
D) change goals for the following year
Answer: D
Explanation: D) In this situation, advertising or running a sale is likely to increase customers
that the club can't handle, so those choices can be ruled out. Doing nothing may not harm the
situation, but a better response to increased demand is to change the club's goals so
performance and goals once again fall within an acceptable range of variation.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 356
Objective: 13.2
83) Immediate corrective action is designed ________.
A) to get to the root cause of the problem
B) to get performance back on track
C) to shake up the organization
D) to punish employees for poor performance
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Immediate corrective action is the simplest corrective action a manager can
take. It solves the problem at hand quickly and effectively without necessarily getting at root
causes or shaking up the organization. While immediate corrective action may include
punishment, it would not necessarily require punishment so that choice is not a correct
response. These factors make getting performance back on track the correct response for this
question as it is the only choice that deals purely with performance.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 356
Objective: 13.2
84) For addressing the hardships accompanying unemployment, this is an example of
immediate corrective action.
A) a job training program
B) food stamps
C) a task force to see why jobs were lost
D) a job placement agency
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Immediate corrective action should directly remedy the problem at hand.
While training programs, task forces, and job agencies might help a person who lost a job in
the long term, over the short term only food stamps address the problem at hand, which is the
lack of the ability to feed one's family, making food stamps the correct response for this
question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 356
Objective: 13.2
85) For addressing unemployment, this is an example of basic corrective action.
A) a task force to see why jobs were lost
B) food stamps
C) unemployment compensation
D) a job training program
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Basic corrective action gets at root causes of performance deviations. Food
stamps, unemployment compensation, and training programs do not identify root causes of
unemployment, they simply remedy unemployment. A task force can determine root causes
of unemployment, making that choice the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 356
Objective: 13.2
86) In many cases, immediate corrective action rather than basic corrective action is taken by
managers because they ________.
A) want to be thorough
B) lack time
C) lack information
D) don't understand the situation
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Many managers occupy their time "putting out fires" and don't have the time
to get to the root causes of deviations so they take immediate corrective action rather than
basic corrective action to solve problems. This makes lacking time the correct answer and
rules out other choices.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 356
Objective: 13.2
87) Which of the following would constitute basic corrective action for employees whose
production has dropped?
A) changing the pay scale
B) taking away employee privileges
C) looking for causes of the production drop
D) changing how the work is carried out
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The three incorrect choices are short-term immediate corrective actions that
address the problem but not the cause of the problem. Changing pay, removing privileges,
and changing work practices may increase production, but these acts may not get at the cause
of the production drop. Only looking for causes gets at causes of the production drop, so it is
the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 356
Objective: 13.2
88) A law firm manager finds that one lawyer constitutes a significant deviation because she
consistently outperforms other lawyers at the firm. Which immediate corrective action s hould
the manager take?
A) none
B) make a compensation change
C) disciplinary action
D) study to see why she outperformed others
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Although no action might sound like a reasonable response, this
performance is recognized as a significant deviation so some kind of corrective action is
required. Disciplinary action can be ruled out since it is a punishment rather than a reward,
while a study is a basic corrective action, not an immediate corrective action. The only action
that makes sense is a monetary reward, making a compensation change the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 356
Objective: 13.2
89) A law firm manager finds that the firm loses too many of its civil cases while it wins an
inordinately high number of its criminal cases. Which basic corrective action can the manager
take?
A) pay criminal lawyers more
B) pay civil lawyers less
C) analyze civil and criminal cases
D) fire civil lawyers
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Paying lawyers more or less, or firing lawyers are all immediate corrective
actions that will not get at the root cause of the problem. Only an analysis of the situation, a
basic corrective action, might uncover the disparity in the two kinds of cases, making analysis
the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 356
Objective: 13.2
90) When might a manager be justified in revising a standard rather than taking corrective
action to remedy a significant performance deviation?
A) when performance exceeds the standard
B) when performance falls slightly short of the standard
C) when performance falls far short of the standard
D) when the standard is unrealistic
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The only reason to revise standards is when they are proven to be
unreasonable or unrealistic for some reason, making that choice the correct response.
Whether or not performance measures up to the standard are reasons to take corrective action,
not change standards—unless of course, those standards are flawed in some way.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 356
Objective: 13.2
91) A professor gives a new test to an otherwise normal class and finds that only 10 percent
of the students get grades of C or above. What is the most appropriate and fair response?
A) do nothing
B) revise the grading curve downward
C) revise the grading curve upward
D) revise the test itself
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Doing nothing would leave most of the class with a poor grade, so that is an
unappealing and probably unfair response. Revising the curve upward is inappropriate since
it would mean even fewer students get acceptable grades. Revising the curve downward
would remedy the grading problem, but it would not be the best response because there is
probably something wrong with the test itself—since a normal class performed so poorly. So
the best response would be to change the test itself, making that choice the correct response.
Diff: 3
Page Ref: 356
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Objective: 13.2
92) All of the following are dangers of revising production goals downward EXCEPT
________.
A) it destroys incentive to work harder
B) it increases incentive to work harder
C) it gives employees an excuse to be less productive
D) it gives employees something to blame for their lack of effort
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Destroying incentive, or giving employees excuses or something to blame
are all legitimate reasons not to revise production goals downward, so they are incorrect
responses. Revising goals downward does not increase incentive, so increasing incentives is
the correct response here since it is untrue.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 357
Objective: 13.3
93) Which kind of control takes place before the actual work is carried out?
A) feedback
B) concurrent
C) recurrent
D) feedforward
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Feedforward control occurs prior to the actual activity taking place in an
attempt to prevent problems before they occur, making feedforward the correct response.
Feedback control occurs after the activity has taken place, in an attempt to correct actions that
have already occurred and prevent future mistakes. Concurrent control occurs during an
activity, in an attempt to get live input into the process itself. Recurrent control is not a
recognized control term.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 357-358
Objective: 13.3
94) A cell phone maker tests its new model with a sample audience when it is fully
operational. What kind of control is this?
A) pre- market control
B) feedback control
C) concurrent control
D) feedforward control
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Since the phone has already been created, the company is using feedback
control because the samplers are reporting on features that already exist. Concurrent control
would have samplers participate in the designing and manufacturing processes themselves.
Feedforward control would have samplers participate in the planning o f the phone. Premarket control is not a recognized control term.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 357-358
Objective: 13.3
95) Which kind of control takes place while the actual work is carried out?
A) feedback
B) concurrent
C) reverse
D) feedforward
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Feedforward control occurs prior to the actual activity taking place in an
attempt to prevent problems before they occur. Feedback control occurs after the activity has
taken place, in an attempt to correct actions that have already occurred and prevent future
mistakes. Concurrent control occurs during the activity itself, in an attempt to get live input
into the process itself. Reverse control is not a recognized control term.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 357-358
Objective: 13.3
96) Direct supervision of employees is a form of ________ control.
A) concurrent
B) ineffective
C) feedback
D) feedforward
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The best-known form of concurrent control occurs when a manager directly
supervises an employee, telling him or her what to do while the work is being carried out.
This makes concurrent the correct response and rules out all other responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 357-358
Objective: 13.3
97) A comedy show producer has a read-through of a half- written show in which actors,
writers, producers, and the director are free to make comments and changes as the show
progresses. What kind of control is being used?
A) feedback control
B) concurrent control
C) spontaneous control
D) feedforward control
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Since the show is being edited in a "live" performance, concurrent control is
being used because the participants can make changes in the show as it is being created,
making concurrent control the correct response. Feedback control would have participants
making comments about the show after it was finished, while feedforward control would
have participants talk about what they would like to see in the show before it was written.
Spontaneous control is not a recognized control term.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 357-358
Objective: 13.3
98) A fast food restaurant is querying prospective customers about the features they would
like to see in a new panini sandwich. What kind of control is being used?
A) concurrent control
B) feedback control
C) feedforward control
D) anticipation control
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Since the company is asking for input before the actual product exists,
feedforward control is being used, making this choice the correct response. Feedback control
would have participants making comments about the sandwich after it was created, while
concurrent control would have customers participate in the actual creation of the sandwich.
Anticipation control is not a recognized control term.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 357-358
Objective: 13.3
99) Which kind of control takes place after the actual work has been carried out?
A) feedback
B) forward
C) feedforward
D) concurrent
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Feedback control occurs after an activity has taken place, in an attempt to
correct actions that have already occurred and prevent future mistakes, making feedback the
correct response for this question. Feedforward control occurs prior to the actual activity
taking place in an attempt to prevent problems before they occur. Concurrent control occurs
during the activity itself, in an attempt to get live input into the process itself. Forward control
is not a recognized control term.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 357-358
Objective: 13.3
100) A basketball coach showing players how to position themselves on the court during
practice is carrying out ________, a form of concurrent control.
A) unstructured supervision
B) direct supervision
C) indirect supervision
D) feedback supervision
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Coaching is a form of direct supervision, since the coach is directing the
actions of individuals while the activity (playing basketball) is taking place, making direct
supervision the correct response. Coaching would not qualify as feedback since it occurs as
the activity is taking place, nor is coaching indirect or unstructured since the coach is directly
interacting with players in a highly formalized manner.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 357-358
Objective: 13.3
101) One advantage of feedback control over other forms of control is that it lets managers
focus on ________.
A) what is about to take place
B) how on-target their planning efforts were
C) how effective their organizing efforts were
D) the task as it is being carried out
Answer: B
Explanation: B) What is about to take place identifies feedforward rather than feedback
control, so it is incorrect. The task as it is being carried out identifies concurrent rather than
feedback control, so it is also incorrect. Feedback requires managers to compare actual
performance to goals. When goals and performance match closely, managers can conclude
that their planning efforts were on-target. This makes "how on-target their efforts were" the
correct choice and rules out "how effective they were" since it refers to the organizing, rather
than the planning process.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 357-358
Objective: 13.3
102) When feedback control shows that planning goals and actual performance were
dramatically different, the most likely conclusion is that ________.
A) planning was not on-target
B) performance measurements were unreliab le
C) planning was on-target
D) goals do not need to be changed
Answer: A
Explanation: A) When goals and actual performance are wildly different, one can conclude
that the goals were off in some way, making "planning not being on-target" the correct
response and ruling out that it was on-target. Concluding that honest measurements were
inaccurate is possible, but not a likely or reasonable assumption, so "performance
measurements being unreliable" is not correct. "Goals not needing to be changed" is incor rect
because if anything, when goals and performance are very different, goals do need to be
changed.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 357-358
Objective: 13.3
103) An advantage of feedback control is that it improves ________.
A) motivation
B) productivity
C) employee- manager relations
D) employee-employee relations
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Though feedback control may marginally or indirectly improve
productivity, relations between employees, or between managers and employees, none of
these effects has been identified as a primary benefit of feedback control. Motivational
improvements, on the other hand, have definitely been seen as the result of feedback, making
motivation the correct response for this question. Feedback gives workers a view of how well
they are doing and what they need to do to improve, so it increases motivation to attain that
improvement.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 357-358
Objective: 13.3
104) During a performance feedback session, managers should make an effort to create a
________ environment.
A) high-pressure
B) supportive
C) personal
D) fun
Answer: B
Explanation: B) A feedback session is not a place for fun, so fun can be ruled out as a correct
response. Feedback ideally should focus on impersonal rather than personal comments, so
personal is not a correct response. Instead of a high-pressure atmosphere, the manager should
try to make the employee feel at ease in a supportive and empathetic environment, making
supportive the correct response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 359
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 13.3
105) Comments in a performance feedback session ideally should be ________.
A) both personal and specific
B) personal
C) both impersonal and specific
D) both personal and general
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Performance feedback sessions should avoid personal comments and keep
comments job-related, specific, and impersonal, making "both impersonal and specific" the
correct response. The other three choices can all be eliminated because they specify personal
comments, which are not recommended because they tend to be subjective and focus on
character traits that are much more difficult to change than specific work-related issues.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 359
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 13.3
106) During a performance feedback session, making sure that negative comments are
________ can prevent employees from getting the feeling that they are being attacked.
A) subjective
B) job-related
C) general
D) non-job-related
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Negative comments are much more likely to be accepted when they are
objective rather than subjective, specific and fact-based rather than general, and job-related
rather than non-job-related, making job-related the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 359
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 13.3
107) Giving an employee ample time to speak during a performance feedback session allows
the employee to ________.
A) make excuses
B) be empathetic
C) give his or her side of the situation
D) blame circumstances for any shortcomings
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The purpose of giving an employee ample opportunity to speak is not to
allow excuses to be made or place blame. Being empathetic is the manager's job, not the
employee's job, so being empathetic is incorrect. Being allowed to speak freely often brings
up information that might otherwise not come out during a feedback session and gives the
employee the chance to present his or her case, making "giving one's side of the situation" the
correct response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 359
AACSB: Communication
Objective: 13.3
108) A performance feedback session should end with this.
A) promises to improve
B) an apology
C) mutual pledges to change
D) a plan of action for the future
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Feedback doesn't stop when all issues have been covered. In order to
remedy deficiencies and improve performance, a plan of action for the future should end all
sessions, making a plan of action for the future the correct answer. Promises, apologies, and
pledges are all fairly inappropriate measures for a performance feedback session because they
focus on the negative rather than the positive and offer no systematic or organized path to
improvement.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 359
Objective: 13.3
109) Managers exert financial control on an organization using ________ analysis.
A) activity
B) productivity
C) ratio and budget
D) productivity and resource
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Financial controls on organizations are applied using ratio and budget
analyses, making that choice the correct response and ruling out all other responses. Ratio
analysis includes the computation of such things as liquidity, leverage, and profitability.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 360
Objective: 13.3
110) ________ is a measure of an organization's ability to meet its current debt obligations.
A) Leverage
B) Activity
C) Liquidity
D) Profitability
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Liquidity, the ratio of current assets to current liabilities, is a measure of an
organization's ability to meet its debt payments, making that the correct response. Leverage,
the ratio of total debt to total assets, is a measure of how much debt a company has to finance
its assets. Activity, the ratio of sales to inventory, is a measure of how well a company uses
its assets. Profitability, the ratio of net after-tax profits to total sales, is a measure of how
good a company is at using its assets to generate profits.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 360
Objective: 13.3
111) ________ is a measure of an organization's ability to meet its current debt obligations.
A) Profitability
B) Activity
C) Leverage
D) Liquidity
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Activity, the ratio of sales to inventory, is a measure of how well a company
uses its assets, making that choice the correct response. Leverage, the ratio of total debt to
total assets, is a measure of how much debt a company acquires to finance its assets.
Liquidity, the ratio of current assets to current liabilities, is a measure of an organization's
ability to meet its debt payments. Profitability, the ratio of net after-tax profits to total sales,
is a measure of how good a company is at using its assets to generate profits.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 360
Objective: 13.3
112) ________ is a measure of an organization's ability to meet its current debt obligations.
A) Profitability
B) Liquidity
C) Activity
D) Leverage
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Leverage, the ratio of total debt to total assets, is a measure of how much
debt a company acquires to finance its assets, making that choice the correct response.
Profitability, the ratio of net after-tax profits to total sales, is a measure of how good a
company is at using its assets to generate profits. Liquidity, the ratio of current assets to
current liabilities, is a measure of an organization's ability to meet its debt payments.
Activity, the ratio of sales to inventory, is a measure of how well a company uses its assets.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 360
Objective: 13.3
113) ________ is a measure of how readily a company can use its assets to generate profits.
A) Profitability
B) Leverage
C) Liquidity
D) Activity
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Profitability, the ratio of net after-tax profits to total sales, is a measure of
how good a company is at using its assets to generate profits, making that choice the correct
response. Liquidity, the ratio of current assets to current liabilities, is a measure of an
organization's ability to meet its debt payments. Activity, the ratio of sales to inventory, is a
measure of how well a company uses its assets. Leverage, the ratio of total debt to total
assets, is a measure of how much debt a company acquires to finance its assets.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 360
Objective: 13.3
114) When a budget is formulated, it is being used as a(n) ________ tool.
A) organizing
B) controlling
C) planning
D) leadership
Answer: C
Explanation: C) When first formulated, a budget functions as a planning tool because it is
used to estimate costs and allocate resources in the future. This makes planning the correct
response and eliminates the other three choices because they refer to management functions
that occur later in the sequence.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 360
Objective: 13.3
115) When a budget is used for controlling, it provides ________ against which resource
consumption can be compared.
A) quantitative standards
B) qualitative standards
C) flexible standards
D) non-numerical standards
Answer: A
Explanation: A) A budget provides definite, quantitative standards that can be used for
comparison with actual consumption data, making quantitative standards the correct
response. Budgets provide precise quantities that are clearly not non-numerical, flexible, or
qualitative.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 360
Objective: 13.3
116) A household that cuts back on supermarket spending after going over-budget on its food
budget is using the budget as a(n) ________.
A) planning tool
B) controlling tool
C) organizing tool
D) leading tool
Answer: B
Explanation: B) In this case, the budget is being used as a controlling tool because the
household is adjusting its consumption as a result of exceeding its budget in a particular area.
The budget is providing a check on spending. This makes "controlling tool" the correct
response. When the budget was first formulated, it was being used as a planning tool. Later,
when the budget was used to guide spending it was being used as a leadership tool. When the
budget helped determine who was going to buy what and when, it was being used as an
organizing tool.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 360
Objective: 13.3
117) A family that is using a computer program to create a formal household budget is using
the budget as a(n) ________.
A) planning tool
B) controlling tool
C) organizing tool
D) leading tool
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Here, the budget is being used as a planning tool because the family is
creating a household spending plan, making "planning tool" the correct response for this
question. The budget is not being used as a controlling tool because it is simply a plan at this
stage; it is not allowing family members to adjust their behavior, making "controlling tool" an
incorrect response. Later, if the budget gets used to guide spending it will be used as a
leadership tool. Similarly, if the budget is referred to to help determine who is going to buy
what and when, it will be used as an organizing tool.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 360
Objective: 13.3
118) A management information system (MIS) provides managers with ________ data.
A) analyzed and processed
B) raw
C) unanalyzed
D) numerical
Answer: A
Explanation: A) An MIS is useful because it provides managers with organized, processed,
useful forms of data, not data that is raw or unanalyzed. Numerical is not correct because
much of the data that an MIS supplies will not be numerical.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 361
Objective: 13.3
119) All of the following are important in efforts to protect information in an organization
EXCEPT ________.
A) firewalls
B) encryption
C) search engines
D) data backups
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Firewalls protect information by providing barriers that prevent hackers and
other unauthorized users from accessing organizational files. Encryption protects information
by encoding data into a form that can't be penetrated or accessed by unauthorized users. Data
backups protect information by saving valuable files that can get lost or damaged in a
computer system. Search engines are the one choice in this question that are not explicitly
used for protecting information so this choice is the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 361
Objective: 13.3
120) A balanced scorecard approach creates goals in four key performance areas and assesses
________.
A) whether all four goals are met
B) whether all four goals are met equally
C) whether any of the four goals are met
D) which goals are exceeded
Answer: B
Explanation: B) A balanced approach sets goals in four performance areas—financial,
customer, internal processes, people/innovation/growth—and assesses how well balanced the
company's performance is, making "whether all four goals are met equally" the correct
response and eliminating all other responses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 362
Objective: 13.3
121) When a company's scorecard is not balanced, it usually tends to overemphasize the area
that ________.
A) involves customers
B) has to do with productivity
C) best matches its organizational style and philosophy
D) contrasts most with its organizational style and philosophy
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Companies strive for a balanced approach but in reality shade toward the
area that best matches their style, making that choice the correct response. For example, a
bottom- line oriented company's scorecard will favor the financial area, while an innovative
company's scorecard might lean toward the people/innovation/growth area.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 362
Objective: 13.3
122) In general, the greater the distance between the home office of a global company and its
branch, the ________.
A) more formalized the controls
B) less formalized the controls
C) more automated the controls
D) less automated the controls
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Though branches of global companies like Seven-Eleven do use automated
controls to keep tabs on such things as inventory, there is no predictable relationship between
distance and automation, so both choices regarding automation are incorrect responses. There
is a clear relationship between distance and the formalization of control—longer distances
tend to require more formal control mechanisms making more formalized the correct
response and eliminating less formalized.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 362
AACSB: Technology
Objective: 13.4
123) In which country would highly centralized decision making be more likely to be
prevalent?
A) Mexico
B) Scotland
C) Japan
D) Australia
Answer: A
Explanation: A) In less technologically advanced countries such as Mexico, direct
supervision and highly centralized decision making are more common than in advanced
countries, where computer technology takes care of many monitoring functions. This makes
Mexico the correct response for this question and rules out more techno logically advanced
countries like Scotland, Japan, and Australia.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 363
AACSB: Globalizations
Objective: 13.4
124) Direct supervision as a basic means of control is much more common in ________
A) small countries
B) democracies
C) more technologically advanced countries
D) less technologically advanced countries
Answer: D
Explanation: D) In countries that are technologically advanced, computers often play an
important role in monitoring basic transactions. For example, supermarket bar codes monitor
sales and inventories in places where they are available. In less technologically advanced
places there is no choice but for direct supervision and monitoring to be used instead of these
electronic forms of control, making less technologically advanced countries the correct
response and ruling out more advanced as a correct response. Whether a country is small or a
democracy has no bearing on how technologically advanced it is, so these choices are not
correct.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 363
AACSB: Technology
Objective: 13.4
125) When comparing Mexico to Scotland, you would expect Scottish workers to have
________.
A) greater productivity, but lower labor cost per worker
B) lower productivity, but higher labor cost per worker
C) greater productivity and higher labor cost per worker
D) lower productivity and lower labor cost per worker
Answer: C
Explanation: C) As a more technologically advanced country, you would expect a Scottish
facility to be less labor intensive and more productive pe r worker than a Mexican facility,
making greater productivity and higher labor cost the correct response for this question. Both
choices regarding lower productivity can be ruled out because they indicate lower
productivity. Greater productivity but lower labor cost per worker is not a correct response
because it identifies lower, not higher labor costs per worker.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 363
AACSB: Globalizations
Objective: 13.4
126) Which statement about employee privacy is correct?
A) Employers have a legal right to monitor on-the-job employee phone calls.
B) Employers have no legal right to monitor on-the-job employee phone calls.
C) Employers have the legal right to monitor all employee phone calls.
D) Employers do not have the right to monitor any employee phone calls.
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The correct statement is that employers have the right to monitor any
workplace activity, whether it is phone calls, computer use, or some other activity. This right
makes the choice indicating no legal right to monitor on-the-job phone calls an incorrect
response. What employers don't have is the right to intrude in employees' lives outside of the
workplace, making the choice indicating a legal right to monitor all phone calls an incorrect
response. Employers not having the right to monitor any phone calls is not correct because it
rules out all phone calls, and clearly employers can monitor in- house workplace calls.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 363
AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities
Objective: 13.4
127) Which of the following employer practices is NOT legal?
A) reading employee email
B) monitoring employees in a bathroom
C) tracking an employee's whereabouts
D) monitoring an employee's personal home computer
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Surprisingly, employers can legally read email, monitor employees
anywhere in the workplace, including the bathroom, and track employees' whereabouts in the
workplace. What employers cannot do is monitor anything of a personal nature at home or
away from the workplace, making monitoring an employee's personal home computer the
correct response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 363
Objective: 13.4
128) Among the choices below, this is the most common reason for companies firing
employees.
A) misuse of office phones
B) inappropriate computer use
C) watching online video
D) leaking company secrets
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Though abuse of office telephones is a major concern for companies, it is
small compared to overall inappropriate computer use, which inc ludes shopping, video,
emailing, and web surfing. Watching online video is incorrect because watching online video
comprises part of overall inappropriate computer use. Leaking company secrets is also a
major problem, but there are no statistics that show the problem is even remotely as
widespread as computer abuses.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 364
AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities
Objective: 13.4
129) This has proved to be very helpful in establishing culpability in sexual harassment cases.
A) monitoring phone calls
B) monitoring emails
C) monitoring employee whereabouts
D) monitoring Internet use
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Though the monitoring of phone calls might be marginally helpful in
combatting sexual harassment, emails have proved to be a major way to find out what really
happened in these cases, making monitoring emails the correct response. A common way for
alleged harassers and victims to communicate is via email, so harassment cases almost
always leave an email trail. If companies keep email records, they can recreate events and
often eliminate ambiguity in these cases. Monitoring employee whereabouts and overall
Internet use have no real bearing on harassment cases, so these are not correct choices.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 364
Objective: 13.4
130) What fraction of U.S. employees do personal website surfing every day?
A) less than one-quarter
B) slightly less than half
C) more than half
D) almost all
Answer: C
Explanation: C) A recent survey indicated that over 50 percent of employees did personal
web surfing on the Internet everyday, making more than half the correct response.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 364
Objective: 13.4
131) Losses from organizational theft and fraud amount to about ________ per worker.
A) $500
B) $2500
C) $4500
D) $6000
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Shockingly, the losses from workers taking equipment, software, supplies,
and filing false expense reports comes to about $4500 per person per year, making that choice
the correct response and ruling out all other responses. These abuses include everything from
loading company software on home computers to stealing a copy machine from a store room.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 364
AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities
Objective: 13.4
132) An effective feedforward strategy for dealing with employee theft is ________.
A) screen workers before they are hired
B) openly state the real costs of stealing
C) have managers set good examples
D) hire professional investigators
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Though stating costs and setting good examples may be helpful, these are
concurrent, not feedforward measures so they are incorrect responses. Hiring investigators is
a feedback response, so is an incorrect response. Of the choices given, only pre-screening
workers is a feedforward strategy, so screening workers before they are hired is the correct
response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 365
AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities
Objective: 13.4
133) An effective concurrent strategy for dealing with employee theft of supplies and
equipment is ________.
A) establish theft policies
B) redesign all control measures
C) "lock-out" options on electronic devices
D) video surveillance
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Though establishing theft policies and redesigning all control measures may
be helpful, these are not concurrent measures so they are incorrect responses. "Lock-out"
options would work for electronic crimes, but not theft of material equipment, so this choice
is not a correct response for this question. Of the choices given, only video surveillance
would be a deterrent to stealing tangible material equipment and supplies, so video
surveillance is the correct response for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 365
AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities
Objective: 13.4
134) All of the following are common rationalizations that workers use to justify workplace
theft EXCEPT ________.
A) "Everyone does it."
B) "They'll never miss it."
C) "I deserve this."
D) "I owe money from gambling."
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The three incorrect choices are commonly heard rationalizations that people
use to justify stealing from large organizations. They all make sense and sound plausible, but
they do not in any way morally or legally justify theft. Owing gambling money, on the other
hand, is not an after-the-fact rationalization but rather an actual reason for stealing—the
person needs the money—making that choice the correct response for this question. Note that
though this choice provides a reason for stealing, it still doesn't in any way justify stealing in
a moral or legal sense.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 365
AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities
Objective: 13.4
135) In any given week about ________ workers are attacked by coworkers or former
coworkers and seriously injured.
A) 1 percent of all
B) 10
C) 25
D) 100
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Every year, about 1300 workers are assaulted by current or former
coworkers and seriously injured. This comes out to about 25 of these incidents per week,
making 25 the correct response and ruling out all other responses for this question.
Diff: 2
Page Ref: 366
Objective: 13.4
136) Workplace violence is likely to occur in ________
A) open organic workplaces
B) functional workplaces
C) dysfunctional workplaces
D) both functional or dysfunctional workplaces—violence shows no pattern
Answer: C