INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2014
INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST - 20
GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I
Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
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INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST SERIES FOR CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2014
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Page 1
1. What
does
the
term
“Intergenerational equity” mean in the
context of development?
a) Balancing out the present interests
of nations on the path of
sustainable development
b) Balancing out the interests of the
present generation with that of
the upcoming generations.
c) Treading
the
principle
of
“Common
but
differentiated
responsibilities” on the path of
economic development
d) None of the above
2. With reference to Vachana sahitya,
consider the following statements
a)
b)
c)
d)
4.
1 and 3
1 and 2
2 and 3
All of the above
Consider the following statements
about Goods and Services Tax (GST):
1. It will replace most of the direct
and indirect tax presently levied in
the country.
2. It
will
be
administered
concurrently by the Central and
state governments.
3. The GST is an origin-based regime,
against the current regime which is
destination-based.
Choose the correct option using the codes
below:
1. It is as old as Sangam literature of
Tamil
a)
b)
c)
d)
2. This form of literature consisted
mainly of stories of ordinary
people in the form of pure prose
Which of
incorrect?
a)
b)
c)
d)
the
above
statements
is/are
5. Consider the following statements
1. Mahanadi flows only through
Odisha and Chhattisgarh
2. Mahanadi enters the Bay of Bengal
at Dhamra in Odisha
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
3. Sulphur is a major pollutant. It can
enter the atmosphere through which of
the following sources?
1. Volcanic eruptions
2. Combustion of fossil fuels
3. From surface of ocean and from
gases released by decomposition
Choose the correct option from the codes
below:
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1 and 2
1 and 3
2 and 3
Only 2
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
6.
“To be in line with Basel-III norms
there is a requirement to infuse
2,40,000 crore as equity by 2018 in our
banks” as mentioned in the Budget
2014-15. Consider the following
statements about the key focus areas in
Page 2
the
banking
system:
2. Projects may be executed under the
Public Private partnership (PPP)
model in the scheme.
3. Irrigation is also an area of focus in
the scheme.
1. Investment in risky assets
2. Regular
disclosure
of
information to the Central bank
3. Merger of banks
Which of these areas are dealt with by the
Basel
III
norms?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Choose the correct option using the codes
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
9.
7.
“Kisan Vikasa Patra” -a savings
scheme
which
doubles
money
invested after certain number of years
– was re-introduced in the Budget
2014-15. Who were eligible to invest in
the scheme previously?
1. Business entities
2. Adult citizens of India including
farmers
3. Farmers
4. Trusts
1 and 2
1 and 3
2 and 3
All of the above
To ensure “Health for All”, which of
the following initiatives have been
taken up in the Budget 2014-15:
1. Free drug service
2. Free diagnosis service
3. Free treatment service
Choose the correct option using the codes
below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) All of the above
Choose the correct option using the codes
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
8.
Only 2
All of the above
2, 3 and 4
Only 3
10. Consider the following areas that are
to be covered in the newly launched
scheme “Digital India” in the budget
2014-15:
Van Bandhu Kalyan scheme was
launched in the Budget 2014-15. A
similar scheme with the same name is
being administered in Gujarat state
too. Consider the following statements
about it:
1. It includes the provision of
broadband connectivity at rural
level.
2. Greater transparency in the
government processes
3. Increased indigenous production of
IT hardware and software for
exports
1. The programme focuses on both
social and civil infrastructure.
Choose the correct option using the codes
below:
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Page 3
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
1 and 3
2 and 3
All of the above
11. Which of the following funds to
support various sectors have been
launched in the Budget 2014-15?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Choose the
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Agri-Tech Infrastructure Fund
National Adaptation Fund
Rurban Renewal Fund
Price Stabilization Fund
Warehouse Infrastructure Fund
Technology Development Fund
correct answer using the codes
All except 3 and 5
All except 2 and 4
All except 1 and 6
All of the above
12. A new institution “3P India” is
proposed to be established in the
Budget 2014-15. What is the objective
behind setting up the institution?
a) Quick
dispute
redressal
mechanism for PPP projects.
b) Providing
support
for
mainstreaming the PPP projects.
c) Finance economically unviable
PPP projects in the social sector.
d) Finance economically unviable
PPP
projects
in
the
infrastructural sector.
13. “To promote cleaner and more
efficient thermal power, the Budget
2014-15 proposed a scheme named
“Ultra-Modern Super Critical Coal
Based Thermal Power Technology.”
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Consider the following statements
about this technology:
1. Plants based on this technology
operate at a higher water
pressure.
2. These plants operate above the
critical point of water.
3. At super critical parameters, the
Latent heat of Vaporization is
Zero, hence, water directly
becomes steam without boiling.
Choose the correct option using the codes
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
1 and 3
2 and 3
All of the above
14. As per the Budget 2014-15, it the
Government‟s intention to accelerate
production and exploitation of “Coal
Bed Methane reserves”. Consider the
following statements about Coal Bed
methane:
1. It refers to the methane absorbed
into the solid matrix of the coal.
2. It is called „sweet gas‟ because it
lacks hydrogen sulfide.
3. It occurs in underground mines
where it presents a serious safety
risk.
4. Unlike
natural
gas
from
conventional
reservoirs,
it
contains very little heavier
hydrocarbons
such
as propane or butane.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below:
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 3 and 4 only
Page 4
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2, 3 and 4
15. Consider the following statements
1. India is the first developing
country to extend duty free quota
free (DFQF) scheme under WTO
to Least Developed Countries
2. At present India provides dutyfree market access on 96.4 per cent
of India‟s tariff lines
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
16. While passing through a rural area
you smell an unusual odour. You
suspect that it is a natural gas pipeline
leak. Which of the following types of
odour may assure that it is a natural
gas pipeline leak?
1. Sulphur-like odour
2. Rotten egg like odour
3. Sewer gas odour
Choose the correct option using the codes
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
1 and 3
2 and 3
All of the above
17. What happens to value of Rupee
when there is a heavy outflow of
Dollars from India?
a) Rupee appreciates
b) Rupee Depreciates
c) Its value remains constant
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d) None of the above
18. Cleaning the river Ganges has been
taken up on a priority basis by the
government. Which of the following
pollutants have reached unacceptable
levels in the river Ganges?
1. Chromium
2. Coliform Bacteria
3. Zolena protozoa
Choose the correct option using the codes
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
1 and 3
2 and 3
All of the above
19. Consider the following statements
1. India‟s major exports to China in
last ten years include mineral
products,
machinery
and
appliances
2. India‟s current exports to China
constitute one per cents of China‟s
overall imports
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
20. A crop is grown for a specific period
of time, and then plowed under and
incorporated into the soil while green
or shortly after flowering. What is this
practice called?
a) Using Green Manures
b) Conservation tillage
Page 5
c) Mulching
d) None of the above
21. Which of the following is/are
components of India‟s long-term
external debt?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
External Commercial Borrowings
NRI Deposits
Multilateral Borrowings
Export Credit
IMF Debt
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below
a)
b)
c)
d)
1,2 and 4 Only
1,2 and 3 Only
2,3 and 5 Only
1,3 and 5 Only
22. Consider the following statements
with reference to Sangam Literature
1. Sangam literature dealt both with
personal lives such as love and
relationships as well as ethics,
heroism, values and social
customs
2. Both men and women poets
composed Sangam literature
1. Anti-dumping legislation
2. Exchange rate manipulation
3. Employment based immigration
restrictions
Choose the correct option using the codes
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
1 and 3
2 and 3
All of the above
24. The General Anti-Avoidance Rules
(GAAR) were proposed by the Central
Government to check the problem of
tax-evasion. Some rules have also been
notified and it is proposed to be
implemented from the assessment year
2016-17. The rules generally apply to
which of the following?
1. FII
2. FDI
3. Domestic investors
Choose the correct option using the codes
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
1 and 3
2 and 3
All of the above
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
25. Consider the following statements
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
23. Which
of
the
following
policies/techniques can be tweaked to
practice
“Protectionism”
as
understood in the context of economic
transactions between nations?
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1. India
ranks
first
in
milk
production, accounting for 17 per
cent of world production
2. India ranks second in world fish
production, contributing about 5.4
per cent of global fish production.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
Page 6
c) Both
d) None
26. Besides the five great vows for ascetics
and twelve vows for laypeople,
Jainism lays great emphasis on
observance of rules of conducts and
rules of avoidance of misconducts.
They are called as
a)
b)
c)
d)
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Samitis
Guptis
Both Above
None of the above
27. Consider the following cases:
1. A business sets up an undertaking
in an under developed area by
putting
in
substantial investment of capital,
carries out manufacturing activiti
es therein and claims a tax dedu
ction on sale of such production
/manufacturing.
2. A business sets up a factory for
manufacturing
in
an
under
developed tax exempt area. It then
diverts its production from other
connected manufacturing units and
shows the same as manufactured in
the tax exempt unit (while doing
only process of packaging there).
Which of the following cases would be
covered under GAAR?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1. Tropical evergreen vegetation is
not found in the Himalayas
2. Deodar cedar, a highly valued
endemic species, grows mainly
in the western part of the
Himalayan Ranges
Only 1
Only 2
Both
None of the above
28. Consider the following statements
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1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
29. Which of the following compulsory
provisions are made by the 74th
constitutional amendment act?
1. Provision of audit of accounts by
the CAG.
2. Provision of Personnel matters
3. Authority to levy taxes by the
Municipality
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
Only 1
None of the above
30. Which
of
the
following
powers/functions may be conferred
by the state governments to the
Panchayats?
1. Power to maintain law and order in
petty matters
2. Implementing
social
sector
schemes
3. Supervise public schools in the
locality
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below:
Page 7
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
31. Which of the following is/are the great
vows of Jainism?
1. Aparigraha
2. Brahmacharya
3. Achaurya or Asteya
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 and 3 Only
2 Only
All
32. As per the constitution, the Governor
has
the
authority
to
make
appointments, but can not remove
which of the following from their
posts?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Chief Justice of High Court
Chief Minister
Advocate general of the state
State Election Commissioner
Choose the correct option from the codes
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
2, 3 and 4
2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4
Only 2
2. He establishes the State Finance
commission as per part VI of the
constitution.
3. Unlike the President in the Lok
Sabha, he can not nominate
members of the Anglo-Indian
community to the legislative
assembly of the state.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
Only 1
1 and 3
34. In which of the following cases, the
Governor can act on his own
discretion without the advice of
Council of Ministers?
1. Recommend President‟s rule in
the state.
2. Reserve certain bills for the
consideration of the President.
3. Administering a Union territory
which he has been authorized to
in addition to that particular
state.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
35. Consider the following statements
33. Consider the following statements
about the Powers of the Governor:
1. He holds the Contingency fund of
the state.
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1. Non – government debt is steadily
increasing in India‟s external debt
2. Non – government debt is less
than government debt in India‟s
external debt component
Page 8
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
36. Which of the following is correct
about the State Legislative Council?
1. It is a permanent body.
2. It cannot be abolished without the
recommendation of the Governor.
3. It can discuss and vote demand for
grants in the budget of the state.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
Only 1
to
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
a) Watershed development
b) Rural Drinking water
c) Treatment of solid waste and
sewage discharged in major rivers
of the country.
d) None of the above
39. Which of the following contains
provisions related to cooperatives in
the constitution of India?
1. Fundamental Duties.
2. Fundamental Rights.
3. Directive Principle of State policy.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below:
37. Cooperatives are important for
inclusive and broad-based socioeconomic growth of India. The 97th
amendment to the constitution makes
some
provision
regarding
cooperatives. Which of the following
is/are these provisions?
1. Reservation for SCs and STs
2. Mandatory audit
3. Fixing term of elections
cooperatives
38. A programme “Neeranchal” has been
launched in the Budget 2014-15. The
programme focuses exclusively on:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
40. Consider the following statements
1. Taiga is the world‟s terrestrial
largest biome
2. Alaska, Sweden and Finland are
part of the Taiga biome
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 Only
Both
None
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
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Page 9
41. Which
of
the
following
are
Fundamental Rights under Part III of
the constitution of India?
1. Right to vote
2. Right to Education
3. Right to information
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
All of the above
1 and 3
None of the above
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below:
44. Consider the following statements:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
42. Consider the following statements
1. Buddhism believes that bad
actions in a previous life can
follow a person into their next
life and cause bad effects
2. According to Buddhism, we can
resolve any suffering in the
present moment through the
Buddhist
teachings
of
mindfulness and action based
upon good motives.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
43. Which of the following criteria to
declare an area as Scheduled Area
is/are mentioned in the constitution?
1. Pre-ponderance
of
tribal
population
2. Marked economic disparity
3. Density and extent of permanent
forests in the area
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1. Fifth Schedule cannot be amended
by ordinary legislation by the
Parliament.
2. The governor can alter the area
under fifth schedule without
requiring necessary permission
from the President.
Which of these is/are true?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1
Only 2
Both
None of the above
45. Who among the following can be
removed in same manner as that of a
Supreme Court Judge?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Chairman, UPSC
Chief Election Commissioner
Chairman, CVC
Attorney General of India
Choose the correct option from the codes
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 2
1 and 2
2 and 3
1, 3 and 4
Page 10
46. Recommendations
pertaining
to
which of the following is/are a part of
the mandate of the Union Finance
Commission set up every five years?
1. Principles for the division of plan
and non-plan expenditure.
2. Measures for the state government
to augment the consolidated fund
of the state on the basis of
recommendations made by state
finance commission.
3. Principles for determining grantsin-aid to the states.
Choose the correct option from the codes
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3
1 and 2
2 and 3
All of the above
1. Federal system of government
2. Constitutionality of local bodies
3. System of judicial review
Choose the correct option from the codes
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3
1 and 2
2 and 3
All of the above
49. As mentioned in the last Budget
Speech by the Finance Minister, which
of the following factors may have
possibly made fiscal consolidation
difficult in past two financial years at
the Centre?
1. Almost static industrial growth
2. High Tax buoyancy
3. Decrease in the collection
indirect taxes
of
47. Consider the following statements
about State Legislative Council:
1. Approval of ordinances issued by
the Governor.
2. Consideration of reports of the
constitutional bodies like State
finance commission, CAG etc.
3. Enlargement of the jurisdiction of
State public service Commission
In which of these, the council has an equal
status with that of legislative assembly?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
48. Which of the following factors limit
the sovereignty of the Indian
Parliament?
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Choose the correct option using the codes
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
1 and 3
Only 1
Only
3
50. The constitutional validity of a
legislative enactment or an executive
order
can be challenged in the Supreme
Court on which of the following
grounds?
1. If it infringes the fundamental
Rights.
2. If it is outside the competence of
the authority who has framed it.
3. If it is repugnant to existing laws.
Page 11
Choose the correct option from the codes
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3
1 and 2
2 and 3
All of the above
Which of these is/are true?
a)
b)
c)
d)
only 1
Only 2
Both
None
53. With reference to Buddhist meditation,
consider the following statements
51. Consider the following statements:
1. Any enlargement in the powers of
the Supreme Court would require a
special agreement between the
Centre and states i.e. the nod of the
Parliament as well as that of a
majority of the state legislatures.
2. The Supreme Court is the final
interpreter of the constitution and
the Parliament can not reverse
these
interpretation
by
a
constitutional amendment or a
legal enactment.
Which of these is/are true?
a)
b)
c)
d)
only 1
Only 2
Both
None
52. Consider the following statements
about ordinances in states and Union
Territories (UTs):
1. The Lieutenant Governor of a
UT has the power to issue
ordinance only in the recess of
the assembly and only after
receiving the prior assent of the
President.
2. The Governor can not issue an
ordinance without the assent of
the President in certain cases.
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1. The bases for all meditation, as it
was understood even in the
earliest years of Buddhism, are
shamatha and vipashyana.
2. Shamatha is the development of
tranquility that is a prerequisite to
any further development
3. Vipashyana is clear seeing or
special insight, and involves
intuitive cognition of suffering,
impermanence, and egolessness.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 Only
2 and 3 Only
1 Only
All
54. Consider the following statements
about Administrative tribunals in
India:
1. Only a sitting or a retired judge can
be the chairman of the Central
Administrative tribunal (CAT).
2. Administrative tribunals are active
in the Centre as well as the states.
3. Appeals against the judgement of
the CAT can be made only before
the Supreme Court, and not the
High courts.
Choose the correct option from the codes
below:
Page 12
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3
1 and 2
2 and 3
All of the above
57. Which of the following elements
circulate by means of a sedimentary
cycle?
1. Phosphorous
2. Calcium
3. Magnesium
55. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): There is a practice of
measuring amount of pollutants in fatty
tissues of organisms for getting a measure of
the pollutants that have a tendency for „BioMagnification‟.
Reason (R): If the pollutant is soluble in
water, it will be excreted by the organism.
But, pollutants that dissolve in fats may be
retained for a longer period of time.
In the context of these statements, choose the
correct option:
a) A and R both are true, and R may
be a possible reason for A.
b) A and R both are true, but R does
not explain A.
c) A is true, R is false.
d) A is false, R is true.
56. Nitrogen fixation on earth can be
achieved in which of the following
ways?
1. By micro-organisms.
2. By man using industrial processes.
3. By thunder and lightning.
Choose the correct option from the codes
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3
1 and 2
2 and 3
All of the above
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Choose the correct option from the codes
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3
1 and 2
2 and 3
All of the above
58. With
reference
to
Finance
commissions in India, consider the
following statements
1. Because of their constitutional
nature, their recommendations are
binding of the government
2. Finance commissions are seen as
institutional
mechanism
for
transferring resources from the
Centre to states.
3. The 14th Finance Commission has
been asked to take the base of
population figures as of 1971 in all
cases where population is a factor
for determination of devolution of
taxes and duties and grants-in-aid
4. The recommendations of Finance
Commission applies only to the
Union government
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1,2 and 4 Only
1 and 2 Only
2,3 and 4 Only
All
Page 13
59. Acidic and low-nutrient soils can be
found in which of the following
regions?
1. Tropical equatorial forests
2. Coniferous (Boreal) forests
3. Tropical deciduous forests
Choose the correct option from the codes
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3
1 and 2
2 and 3
All of the above
60. “Transfer pricing is a major area of
litigation for both resident and nonresident taxpayers” mentions the
Finance Minister in the recent Budget
speech. What is transfer pricing?
a) The tax that both resident and nonresident Indians need to pay while
transferring the shares of a
company they own in some other
nation to that in India.
b) It is a tax that is levied on
retrospective deals made in the
transfer of a company from one
nation to the other.
c) Transfer pricing is the setting of the
price for goods and services sold
between controlled (or related)
legal entities within an enterprise.
d) None of the above
61. While travelling through Thar Desert,
which of the species is likely to be
found?
Choose the correct option from the codes
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3
1 and 2
2 and 3
All of the above
62. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Increasing the temperature of a
water body increases the rate at which
oxygen is depleted from water.
Reason (R): Oxygen is less soluble in warm
water and warm water also enhances
decomposer activity.
In the context of these statements, choose the
correct option:
a) A and R both are true, and R may be
a possible reason for A.
b) A and R both are true, but R does
not explain A.
c) A is true, R is false.
d) A is false, R is true.
63. With reference to the Government of
India Act 1919, consider the following
statements
1. The Act provided a dual form of
government
for
the
major
provinces
2. Under the act, the 'reserved list'
remained under the control of the
Viceroy
3. The reserved list included foreign
affairs,
communications
and
defence
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. Great Indian Bustard
2. Blackbuck
3. Asiatic Wild Ass
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a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
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d) All
64. Frescoes type of painting refers to
a) Painting is done on freshly laid
lime plaster
b) Oil painting done on lime coated
walls
c) Ancient Portugese technique of
painting on cotton clothes
d) None of the above
65. What is “Red Tide”?
a) Algal bloom in water bodies
b) High tide levels threatening local
populations which is also an
indication of a nearby tsunami.
c) The phenomenon where Moon
turns reddish brown and tides are
usually higher than normal.
d) None of the above
66. Which of the following functions may
be performed by wetlands?
1. Nutrient recycling
2. Floods mitigation
3. Buffer shorelines against erosion
Choose the correct option from the codes
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3
1 and 2
2 and 3
All of the above
67. In which of the following areas is one
not likely to find any Mangroves?
1. Cauvery delta
2. Sundarbans
3. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
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Choose the correct option from the codes
below:
a) Only 1
b) 1 and 2
c) Only 3
d) None of the above
68. Consider the following statements
1. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was invited to
attend Round Table Conference in
London in 1932 because of
his
prominence and popular
support
amongst
untouchable
community
2. Dr. Ambedkar dropped his
demand for a separate electorate
under the Poona Pact
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
69. Suppose the weight of two bodies of
equal mass on equator and poles is
assigned by We and Wp. If the earth
were not rotating then
a)
b)
c)
d)
Wp would be more.
Wp would remain unchanged
We would remain unchanged
We would be less.
70. Three cubes of different metals, each
having the same mass are weighed in
water. Which of these should be true?
a) All cubes weigh equal
b) The cube with minimum density
weighs minimum
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c) Cube with minimum
weighs maximum
d) None of the above
density
c) Water near the bottom of the lake
does not freeze
d) Ice is a good conductor of heat
71. The swing of cricket ball in the air can
be explained on the basis of
75. With reference to bauxite mining in
India,
consider
the
following
statements
a)
b)
c)
d)
Sudden change in wind direction
Buoyancy of air
Turbulence caused by wind
Pressure difference on different
sides of the ball
72. In a sprayer, the liquid rises in the
tube due to
a) Capillarity
b) Evaporation
c) Lower pressure at the upper end
of the sprayer
d) None of the above
73. Consider the following statements
1. Sugarcane provides raw material
for the second largest agro-based
industry after textile
2. Sacchurum robustum is the most
cultivated species of sugarcane in
India
1. Gujarat alone accounts for 52% of
country's resources of bauxite
followed by Andhra Pradesh (18%)
2. In India bauxite is mined only by
public sector companies
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 only
Both
None
76. With reference to the Constituent
Assemble of India, consider the
following statements
1. On 26 January 1950 it became
the Provisional Parliament of India
2. All the members of Muslim League
who were part of the Constituent
Assemble resigned from it
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
74. Fish can survive inside a frozen lake
because
a) They are warm blooded animals
b) They can hibernate in ice
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a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 only
Both
None
77. Half-cooked potatoes, if eaten with
food, are not digested. This is because
a) starch in semi-cooked potatoes is in
insoluble form and fails to form a
complex with the concerned
enzyme
Page 16
b) starch granules in semi-cooked
potatoes are coated with cellulose
which, in turn, is not digested
c) starch granules in semi-cooked
potatoes are coated with lignin
which, in turn, is not digested
d) insufficient heat does not convert
cellulose to starch
78. Which are the five „megadiverse‟
countries in Asia?
a) India, China, Indonesia, Malaysia
and Philippines
b) China, Bangladesh, Japan, Sri
Lanka and Maldives
c) Russia, China, India, Japan and
Singapore
d) India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Singapore
and China
79. Premature fruit fall results in
significant loss of yield in some cases.
This can be stopped by which of the
following:
1. Adequate irrigation
2. Auxin sprays
3. Increasing fertilizer application
4. Increasing availability of minerals
Choose the correct option from the codes
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1
2 and 3
Only 2
Only 4
80. Which of the following matches of
national parks/wildlife sanctuaries
with the states concerned are correct?
1. Vansada National Park - Gujarat
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2. Nandan Kana national park Orissa
3. Wayanad wild life sanctuary Kerala
4. Karera wild life sanctuary –
Madhya Pradesh
Choose the correct option from the codes
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
3 and 4
Only 3
All of the above
81. Consider the following statements
1. The Secretary of State for India was
the British Cabinet minister
2. The Secretary of State for India post
was created in 1858 when the East
India
Company's
rule
in Bengal ended
and
British
India was brought under the direct
administration of the government
in London
3. The Secretary of State for India post
continued to exist till India became
republic
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 Only
2 and 3 Only
1 and 3 Only
All
82. Which of the flowing freedom fighter
was elected as the president of Indian
National Congress, elected to Bengal
Legislative Assembly and actively
participated
in
Non-Cooperation
movement?
a) Usha Mehta
b) Kalpana Dutta
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c) Nellie Sengupta
d) Mira Alphonse
83. The sons of a colour blind woman are
always blind but not the daughters
because:
a) the gene for colour blindness
inherited from mother is dominant
over the natural gene from the
father
b) the colour blindness gene is a
recessive gene borne on the X
chromosome and the sons inherit it
only from mother but daughters
inherit from both father and
mother
c) the gene for colour blindness is
recessive gene inherited by sons
only from mother and the
daughters inherit it only from
father
d) the female hormone in girls does
not allow the expression of the
colour blindness gene in daughters
84. High Conservation
(HCVAs) are
Value
Areas
a) Natural habitats, which are of
critical importance due to their
high
environmental,
socioeconomic, biodiversity or
landscape values
b) Forest regions in India classified
by the Ministry of Environment
c) Biodiversity hotspots where
IUCN critically endangered
species predominantly live
d) None of the above
85. Photographic plates are covered with
black paper because
b) sunlight is easily absorbed by black
paper and it helps develop the film
c) the silver bromide present on the
plate is very sensitive to light and
black paper prevents contact with
light
d) None of the above explains it
86. Consider the following statements
about transfats:
1. They are saturated fats.
2. They are used in processed food to
increase its shelf life, inter alia.
3. Consumption of transfats increases
the risk of coronary heart disease in
humans.
Choose the correct option from the codes
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3
1 and 2
2 and 3
All of the above
87. Consider the following statements
about QR codes:
1. With the present technology it can
be read faster than conventional
bar codes.
2. It can be generally read by smart
phones.
3. In future there is a possibility that
it can be used to carry parts of
genetic codes of humans.
Choose the correct option from the codes
below:
a) 1 and 3
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) All of the above
a) the cellulose acetate of the paper
must remain fresh
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88. The Bagh Caves where beautiful
frescoes have been found, is located in
which of the following states?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Maharashtra
Madhya Pradesh
Gujarat
Chhattisgarh
89. What can be the possible reason(s) for
the use of tubeless tyres in aircrafts?
1. Heat is produced during landing.
Tube tyres can stretch heavily.
2. At high speeds before landing, to
avoid the detachment of the tyre
from the rim.
3. Tubeless tyres can withstand shock
better.
Choose the correct option from the codes
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3
1 and 2
2 and 3
All of the above
90. Consider the following statements
1. He was the president of the Indian
National Congress in 1940 to 1946
2. He was posthumously awarded
India's highest civilian honour,
Bharat Ratna in 1992.
To which freedom fighter, above statements
refer to?
a)
b)
c)
d)
C. Rajagopalachari
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Maulana Abul kalam Azad
J B Kripalani
91. Consider the following statements
1. The real effective exchange rate
(REER) is the weighted average of
a country's currency relative to an
index or basket of other major
currencies adjusted for the effects
of inflation.
2. The real effective exchange rate
(REER) is an indicator of the
competitiveness of the country.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
92. Consider the following statements;
Assertion (A): Metal pans do not work
well in micro-ovens.
Reason (R): Metals reflect microwaves.
In the context of these statements, choose the
correct option:
a) A and R both are true, and R may
be a possible reason for A.
b) A and R both are true, but R does
not explain A.
c) A is true, R is false.
d) A is false, R is true.
93. Consider the following statements
1. In Jainism, Arihant is the one
who conquers his inner enemies
like anger, greed, passion, ego,
etc.
2. In Jainism, Jina is the one who
destroys his inner enemies like
anger, greed, passion, ego, etc
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
http://insightsonindia.com
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b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
2. NRI deposits are part of short –
term borrowings
Which of
incorrect?
94. In mobile screens, two types of
screens are generally used – LCD and
AMOLED. What is the basic difference
between these two?
a) In LCD screens all the pixels are
turned off or on together, but in
AMOLED individual pixels can be
turned off or on.
b) In AMOLED screens all the pixels
are turned off or on together, but in
LCD individual pixels can be
turned off or on.
c) AMOLED screens can offer high
resolution display, but LCD cannot.
d) None of the above
95. Consider the following statements
1. Metamorphic rocks are made of
different minerals than other kinds
of rocks and have a wide range of
color and luster
2. Metamorphic rocks generally show
signs of stretching or squeezing,
giving them a striped appearance
3. Limestone is a good example of
metamorphic rock
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 Only
2 and 3 Only
1 and 3 Only
None
a)
b)
c)
d)
the
above
statements
is/are
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
97. Consider the following statements
1. In Tundra biome, the tree growth is
hindered by low temperatures and
short growing seasons
2. Tundra region has permafrost
which if melts might release
greenhouse
gases
to
the
atmosphere
Which of
incorrect?
a)
b)
c)
d)
the
above
statements
is/are
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
98. Consider the following statements
1. India‟s top three trading partners
are China, USA and UAE
2. India had bilateral trade surplus
with four countries, namely the
USA, UAE, Singapore, and Hong
Kong, in 2013-14 with high increase
in the export-import ratio with the
USA.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
96. Consider the following statements
1. India‟s external debt continues to
preponderantly consist of shortterm borrowings
http://insightsonindia.com
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
2 Only
Both
None
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c) Both
d) None
99. Consider the following statements
with reference to IUCN‟s Red List
1. The latest International Union for
Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
Red List (2014) indicates 173
species in the country are now
threatened
2. Andaman green pigeon, ashyheaded green pigeon, red-headed
falcon,
Himalayan
griffon,
bearded vulture and yunnan
nuthatch – all birds, have been
listed as „near threatened‟
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
100.
Current Account deficit (CAD)
from the year 2012-13 to present
financial year (FY), as a percentage of
GDP has
a) Increased marginally by less
than 0.5% of GDP
b) Decreased marginally by less
than 0.5% of GDP
c) Increased heavily by more than
2% of GDP
d) Decreased heavily by more
than 2% of GDP
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
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