Science 10 Examination Booklet August 2006 Form A DO NOT OPEN ANY EXAMINATION MATERIALS UNTIL INSTRUCTED TO DO SO. Examination Instructions 1. On your Answer Sheet, fill in the bubble (Form A, B, C, D, E, F, G or H) that corresponds to the letter on this Examination Booklet. 2. Use a pencil to fill in bubbles when answering questions on your Answer Sheet. 3. When the examination begins, remove the data pages located in the centre of this booklet. 4. Read the Examination Rules on the back of this Booklet. Contents: 37 pages 116 selected-response questions Examination: 2 hours Additional Time Permitted: 60 minutes © Province of British Columbia Suggested Time: 120 minutes INSTRUCTIONS: For each question, select the best answer and record your choice on the Answer Sheet provided. Using a pencil, completely fill in the bubble that has the letter corresponding to your answer. You have Examination Booklet Form A. In the box above #1 on your Answer Sheet, fill in the bubble as follows. Exam Booklet Form/ A Cahier d’examen B C D E F G H LIFE SCIENCE Cells 1. Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis in a cell. A. True B. False Match each Term on the left with the best Descriptor on the right. Each Descriptor may be used as often as necessary. Term Descriptor 2. cilia A. related to osmosis in cells 3. cell walls B. provide support for plant cells 4. centriole C. responsible for movement of cells 5. chloroplast D. sugar + oxygen Æ carbon dioxide + water 6. cellular respiration E. carbon dioxide + water Æ sugar + oxygen F. the site of the origin of spindle fibres in animal cells Science 10 – 0608 Form A Page 1 7. A nucleus is to cell function as a cell membrane is to nutrient storage. A. True B. False 8. Mitochondria are found in leaf cells. A. True B. False 9. Which of the following describes the surface area to volume ratio of a shrinking cell? A. B. C. D. increasing decreasing remaining the same increasing then decreasing Use the following diagrams of the stages of mitosis to answer question 10. M N O P Q 10. What is the correct order of these stages? A. B. C. D. Page 2 N, M, P, Q, O N, P, Q, M, O N, Q, P, M, O Q, P, M, N, O Science 10 – 0608 Form A 11. Bacteria must infect a living host cell in order to reproduce. A. True B. False 12. Strawberry plants produce new plants at the end of long stems called runners. Which type of asexual reproduction is represented? A. B. C. D. budding regeneration binary fission vegetative reproduction 13. Which of the following characteristics of sexual reproduction correctly compare it to asexual reproduction? A. B. C. D. I Two parents are required. II Only one parent is required. III A greater genetic variety of offspring result. IV Larger numbers of offspring are produced. I and III only I and IV only II and III only III and IV only 14. Which one of the following describes the products of mitosis? A. B. C. D. gametes mutation identical cells different cells Science 10 – 0608 Form A Page 3 15. The diagram illustrates asexual reproduction. n n 2n n n A. True B. False 16. Four sperm cells are produced with the sex chromosomes distributed as shown. Which of the following is the most likely explanation? X A. B. C. D. X YY A chromatid pair failed to separate. The chromosomes failed to duplicate. The chromatid pair failed to become visible. The chromatid pairs failed to line up at the equator. 17. Which of the following represents the homozygous recessive genotype? A. B. C. D. aa aA Aa AA 18. In incomplete dominance, heterozygous individuals have an intermediate phenotype. A. True B. False Page 4 Science 10 – 0608 Form A 19. Which of the following are genotype? A. B. C. D. I TT II a short-haired cat III the alleles for a particular trait IV the physical appearance of an organism I and III only I and IV only II and III only II and IV only Use the following representation of a Punnett square to answer question 20. P Q R S T U V W 20. Which of the following represent the position of the gametes? A. B. C. D. P, Q, S, T P, Q, R, U R, S, U, V S, T, V, W ________________________________________________ 21. Which of the following conditions must be present for a recessive trait to be expressed? A. B. C. D. one recessive allele one dominant allele two recessive alleles two dominant alleles Science 10 – 0608 Form A Page 5 Use the following information to answer question 22. A purebred male brown hamster was mated with a purebred female golden hamster. All the offspring were brown. Brown Hamster ( ) Golden Hamster ( ) 22. Which of the following describes the genotype of the offspring? A. B. C. D. heterozygous homozygous recessive homozygous dominant heterozygous dominant and homozygous recessive Use the following information to answer question 23. A male black mouse was mated with a female white mouse. Black Mouse ( ) White Mouse ( ) 23. Which of the following describes the allele for black if all of the offspring were white? A. B. C. D. Page 6 recessive dominant sex-linked codominant Science 10 – 0608 Form A Use the following information to answer question 24. Australian Shepherd dogs Australian Shepherd dogs have white coats, merle coats or tricolour coats. Homozygous dominant dogs are white and have serious eye disorders. white (MM) with serious eye disorders merle (Mm) with normal eyes tricolour (mm) with normal eyes 24. If two heterozygous merle dogs are crossed, what is the probability of the offspring being white and having serious eye disorders? A. 0% B. 25% C. 50% D. 75% ________________________________________________ 25. Which of the following describes the phenotypic ratio of the offspring of a purebred dominant tall individual and a purebred recessive short individual? A. B. C. D. 100% tall 100% short 50% tall, 50% short 75% tall, 25% short 26. What are the probable genotypes of the parents of the F1 generation, if the genotypic ratio of the F2 generation is 1 : 2 : 1? A. B. C. D. Tt ¥ tt Tt ¥ Tt TT ¥ tt TT ¥ Tt Science 10 – 0608 Form A Page 7 Use the following information to answer question 27. I XF X f ¥ X f Y II XF X f ¥ XF Y III Xf Xf ¥ Xf Y IV XF XF ¥ X f Y 27. The allele for full colour vision (F) is dominant and the allele for colour-blindness (f) is recessive. Which of the following arranges the crosses listed above according to the probability of producing a colour-blind child? Lowest Probability Highest Probability A. I II III IV B. II IV I III C. III II I IV D. IV II I III ________________________________________________ 28. A mutation is the alteration of a normal gene. A. True B. False 29. A mutation can be negative for an organism. A. True B. False Page 8 Science 10 – 0608 Form A PHYSICAL SCIENCE REFER TO DATA PAGES Chemicals and Reactions For this section of the examination, refer to: • Names, Formulae and Charges of Some Common Ions on Data Page 1 • Alphabetical Listing of the Elements on Data Page 2 • Periodic Table of the Elements on Data Page 3 30. An ion always has more electrons than protons. A. True B. False 31. Which neutral atom has 31 neutrons and 28 electrons? A. B. C. D. nickel gallium phosphorus praseodymium Use the following information to answer 32. 52 ? ? represents the symbol of the element 24 32. Which of the following describes a neutral atom of the element? Element Sub-Atomic Particles A. tellurium 24 electrons, 52 protons B. tellurium 24 electrons, 52 neutrons C. chromium 24 electrons, 24 protons D. chromium 24 protons, 52 neutrons Science 10 – 0608 Form A Page 9 33. The Bohr model represents the electron arrangement for which of the following? 7p 7n A. B. C. D. an ion of nitrogen an atom of silicon an atom of nitrogen a molecule of nitrogen 34. The following is a Bohr model of a noble gas element. Bohr Model 10p 10n A. True B. False Use the following information to answer question 35. A new element Xn has recently been discovered. It forms compounds with the following formulae: Xn3PO4 , XnCl 2 , Xn( MnO4 )2 35. Xn is an alkaline earth metal. A. This statement is supported by the information. B. This statement is refuted by the information. C. This statement is neither supported nor refuted by the information. Page 10 Science 10 – 0608 Form A 36. There are seven electrons in the outer shell of an alkali metal atom. A. True B. False 37. Which of the following represents the Bohr model for a magnesium atom? A. B. 12p 10n 2 6 C. 12p 12n 6 6 12p 12n 2 6 4 D. 12p 12n 2 8 2 38. Which of the following statements about F – are true? A. B. C. D. I It symbolizes an ion. II It symbolizes an atom. III Fluorine has lost one electron. IV Fluorine has gained one electron. I and III only I and IV only II and III only II and IV only 39. The formula CO2 represents a covalent compound. A. True B. False Science 10 – 0608 Form A Page 11 40. The formula F2 represents a diatomic molecule. A. True B. False 41. What is the chemical formula for iron(II) sulphite? A. FeSO 3 B. Fe2 SO 3 C. Fe(SO 3 )2 D. Fe2 (SO 3 )2 42. Which one of the following chemical equations is balanced? A. B. C. D. SO2 + O2 Æ SO 3 3SO2 + O2 Æ 3SO3 SO2 + 2O2 Æ 2SO 3 2SO2 + O2 Æ 2SO 3 Use the following chemical formula for manganese(III) chlorate to answer questions 43 to 45. Mn( ClO3 ) 3 Match the Term on the left with the correct Number of Units on the right. Each Number of Units may be used as often as necessary. Term Number of Units 43. oxygen A. 1 44. chlorine B. 3 45. chlorate C. 6 D. 9 E. 12 F. 13 Page 12 Science 10 – 0608 Form A 46. Which of the following is the formula for the compound formed by beryllium and arsenic? A. B. C. D. BeAs BeAs 3 Be2 As 3 Be 3 As2 47. Which of the following is the name for K2 CO 3 ? A. B. C. D. potassium carbide potassium chlorate potassium carbonate potassium hydrogen carbonate 48. Which of the following sets of coefficients will balance the equation? ____ Al2 (SO 4 ) 3 + _____ BaCl2 Æ _____ AlCl 3 + _____ BaSO 4 A. B. C. D. 1, 2, 1, 1 1, 2, 2, 2 1, 3, 1, 3 1, 3, 2, 3 49. Which of the following represents a synthesis reaction? A. H2 + Cl2 Æ 2HCl B. 2KClO 3 Æ 2KCl + 3O2 C. Mg + 2HCl Æ MgCl2 + H2 D. AgNO 3 + KCl Æ AgCl + KNO 3 50. In what type of chemical reaction does one larger molecule react to produce two smaller molecules? A. B. C. D. synthesis neutralization decomposition single replacement Science 10 – 0608 Form A Page 13 Match each set of Reactants on the left with the most probable Reaction Type on the right. Each Reaction Type may be used as often as necessary. Reactants Reaction Type 51. Mg(NO 3 )2 + 2NaOH Æ A. synthesis 52. 2Al + Fe2O 3 Æ B. neutralization C. decomposition D. single replacement E. double replacement PHYSICAL SCIENCE REFER TO DATA PAGES Radioactivity For this section of the examination, refer to: • Periodic Table of the Elements on Data Page 3 • The Electromagnetic Spectrum on Data Page 6 • Common Isotope Pairs Chart on Data Page 6 53. Ultraviolet light has a higher frequency than infrared light. A. True B. False 54. Beta particles will easily pass through a human body. A. True B. False 55. Consider the following nuclear equation. 238 92 U Æ 234 90Th + 4 2a The equation shows uranium undergoing alpha decay. A. True B. False Page 14 Science 10 – 0608 Form A 56. Which of the following describes the changes that take place in the nucleus of an atom as a result of gamma ( g ) decay? Number of Protons Number of Neutrons A. decrease by 1 increase by 1 B. no change no change C. increase by 1 decrease by 1 D. increase by 2 decrease by 2 57. What is the name of the process of joining smaller nuclei into larger nuclei? A. B. C. D. fusion fission diffusion fragmentation 58. Why are lead aprons used on dental patients during X-rays? A. B. C. D. Lead focuses X-rays. Lead produces X-rays. X-rays produce unwanted tans. X-rays can damage the DNA in cells. Science 10 – 0608 Form A Page 15 PHYSICAL SCIENCE REFER TO DATA PAGES Electricity and Magnetism For this section of the examination, refer to: • Units and Abbreviations on Data Page 4 • Formulae on Data Page 4 • The Electromagnetic Spectrum on Data Page 6 59. A positively charged object and a negatively charged object will be attracted to each other. A. True B. False Use the following information to answer question 60. A student removes her shoes and walks across a thick carpet in her socks. The air in the room is dry. As she reaches for a doorknob, she immediately experiences an electric shock in her hand. 60. The student is negatively charged. A. This statement is supported by the information. B. This statement is refuted by the information. C. This statement is neither supported nor refuted by the information. ________________________________________________ 61. Which of the following best explains why an object is neutral? A. B. C. D. Page 16 The object has an excess of protons. The object has an excess of electrons. The object has the same number of protons as electrons. The object has an excess of protons, electrons and neutrons. Science 10 – 0608 Form A 62. When a piece of acetate is rubbed with a cloth, some electrons are transferred from the acetate to the cloth. Which of the following is true about the cloth? A. B. C. D. It is now neutral. It is now positively charged. It lost protons to the acetate. It is now negatively charged. 63. Materials that allow electric current to easily pass through them are called insulators. A. True B. False 64. The nucleus of an atom is positively charged. A. True B. False 65. A compass placed beside a current-carrying wire can be used to indicate when current flow is reversed. A. True B. False 66. Magnetic field lines outside a permanent magnet point from the south end of the magnet to the north end of the magnet. A. True B. False Science 10 – 0608 Form A Page 17 67. The arrow shown in the diagram below represents the direction of conventional current. + – wire A. True B. False Use the following diagram to answer question 68. + – 68. In which direction will the needle point if a compass is placed at the end of the solenoid as shown? Page 18 A. B. C. D. Science 10 – 0608 Form A Use the following circuit diagram to answer question 69. 20 W 60 V 69. What is the current in the circuit? A. 0.33 A B. 3A C. 80 A D. 1200 A Use the following circuit diagram to answer question 70. LEGEND L1 3V I1 = 2 A L2 Lamp L1 Lamp 1 L2 Lamp 2 70. What is the resistance of Lamp 1? A. 0.67 W B. 1.5 W C. 5W D. 6W Science 10 – 0608 Form A Page 19 Use the following information to answer question 71. LEGEND 1.5 V cell lamp 71. In which diagram would the lamp shine the brightest? A. B. C. D. Voltage (V) Use the following graph to answer question 72. Current (A) 72. Which of the following is represented by the slope of the graph? A. B. C. D. Page 20 work power energy resistance Science 10 – 0608 Form A Use the following circuit diagram to answer questions 73 to 77. I4 = ? LEGEND R1 = 1 W I1 = ? 6V V1 = ? resistor I2 = 2 A V2 = ? I3 = 3 A R3 = ? cell Match each Question on the left with its corresponding Value on the right. Each Value may be used as often as necessary. Question Value 73. I1 = A. 6A 74. I 4 = B. 11 A 75. V1 = C. 2V 76. V2 = D. 6V 77. R 3 = E. 2W F. 18 W Science 10 – 0608 Form A Page 21 Use the following circuit diagram to answer question 78. LEGEND cell L2 lamp L1 L3 L1 = Lamp 1 L2 = Lamp 2 L3 = Lamp 3 78. The voltage drop across L1 equals the voltage drop across L2 and L 3. A. True B. False Use the following circuit diagrams to answer question 79. Before After L2 L1 L2 L1 L3 LEGEND cell lamp L1 = Lamp 1 L2 = Lamp 2 L3 = Lamp 3 79. What will happen to the current in Lamp 1 if Lamp 3 is added to the circuit as shown above? A. B. C. D. Page 22 The current will increase. The current will decrease. The current will stop flowing. The current will stay the same. Science 10 – 0608 Form A 80. A 120 V appliance draws 30 A of current. If electricity costs $0.065 kW ◊ h , how much does it cost to operate the appliance for 3.5 hours? A. $0.82 B. $66.85 C. $234.00 D. $820.00 81. Which of the following can be used to calculate the amount of energy used by an appliance? A. B. C. D. power and time current and time voltage and time voltage and current Use the following information to answer question 82. Circuit I Circuit II The voltage across a resistor is 15 V and there is a 4 A current flowing through it. The energy consumed by a light bulb is 3600 J in 60 seconds. 82. Which of the following correctly compares the power of Circuit I and Circuit II? A. B. C. D. The power of Circuit I is greater. The power of Circuit II is greater. The power of both circuits is equal. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given. ________________________________________________ 83. A step-up transformer is used close to homes to ensure the voltage is appropriate for household use. A. True B. False Science 10 – 0608 Form A Page 23 84. In household wiring, there are three separate wires: a black, a white and a bare copper. Which is the grounding wire? A. the black wire B. the white wire C. the bare copper wire Use the following diagram of a standard household outlet to answer question 85. I II III 85. Through which of the following are 120 V delivered to an operating appliance? A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III ________________________________________________ 86. When a cell phone charger is plugged into a 120 V outlet it produces 4.5 V. Which of the following devices makes this possible? A. B. C. D. Page 24 a fuse a resistor a step-up transformer a step-down transformer Science 10 – 0608 Form A 87. A 12 V, 3 A motor takes 120 minutes to do a certain job. A 120 V, 2 A motor takes 5 minutes to do the same job. Which motor uses the least energy and by how much? A. B. C. D. The 12 V motor uses 36 kW ◊ h less energy. The 120 V motor uses 36 kW ◊ h less energy. The 12 V motor uses 0.052 kW ◊ h less energy. The 120 V motor uses 0.052 kW ◊ h less energy. EARTH AND SPACE SCIENCE Earth Forces For this section of the examination, refer to: • Geological Time Scale on Data Page 5 • Common Isotope Pairs Chart on Data Page 6 • Tectonic Plate Boundaries Map on Data Page 7 • Map of the Pacific Coast of North America on Data Page 8 REFER TO DATA PAGES 88. The interpretation of earthquake waves is an application of seismology. A. True B. False Match each Term on the left with the best letter from the Cross-sectional Diagram of the Earth’s Layers on the right. Term 89. inner core Cross-sectional Diagram of the Earth’s Layers A. 90. outer core B. 91. tectonic plates C. D. Layers not drawn to scale Science 10 – 0608 Form A Page 25 Match each Fossil on the left with the most appropriate Era on the right. Each Era may be used as often as necessary. Fossil Era 92. oldest bird fossil A. Cenozoic 93. oldest flowering plants fossil B. Mesozoic C. Paleozoic D. Precambrian 94. The picture shows a trilobite fossil. A. True B. False 95. Amphibians became extinct at the end of the Paleozoic Era. A. True B. False 96. How long did the Devonian Period last? A. B. C. D. Page 26 23 Ma 51 Ma 55 Ma 63 Ma Science 10 – 0608 Form A Use the following map and image of the Himalayan Mountains to answer question 97. Eurasian Plate India N W E S © NASA 97. Which of the following best explains the presence of marine fossils found high in the Himalayan Mountains? A. B. C. D. The fossils were carried into the mountains by people long ago. The fossils were deposited in ancient lakes high in the mountains. Ancient seafloor was scraped onto the converging plates as India approached Eurasia. The landmass of India was formerly an ancient ocean floor which was pushed up by the converging plates. ________________________________________________ 98. A rock sample contains 80 g of a radioactive element. How much of the radioactive element would remain after three half-lives? A. 5 g B. 10 g C. 20 g D. 40 g Science 10 – 0608 Form A Page 27 Use the following geological cross-section to answer question 99. X Y 99. The statement “Formation Y is younger than formation X” is an example of relative dating. A. True B. False Use the following geological cross-section to answer question 100. LEGEND Z sandstone Y shale granite X conglomerate W limestone U V igneous 100. What is the sequence of the four most recent features from oldest to youngest? Oldest Page 28 Youngest A. Y W X U B. U X W Y C. Z Y U X D. X U Y Z Science 10 – 0608 Form A Use the following illustration to answer question 101. 101. The conglomerate must be younger than the fossil in the pebble. A. True B. False Use the following geological cross-section to answer question 102. LEGEND Z Y shale sandstone X igneous rock W limestone 102. Which of the following correctly represents the order in which the features were formed? Oldest Youngest A. W Y X Z B. W Z X Y C. Y W X Z D. Y X Z W Science 10 – 0608 Form A Page 29 Use the following map to answer question 103. X 103. The plate boundary indicated by X is a divergent plate boundary. A. True B. False ________________________________________________ 104. Tectonic plates are composed of which of the following? A. B. C. D. Page 30 I ocean crust II asthenosphere III continental crust IV uppermost mantle III only I and III only I, II and IV only I, III and IV only Science 10 – 0608 Form A Use the following information to answer question 105. Cross-Sections of Plate Boundaries Map Views of Plate Boundaries P S Q T R out of the page into the page U 105. Which of the cross-sections and map views illustrate a convergent plate boundary? A. B. C. D. Q and S R and U P and S Q and U Science 10 – 0608 Form A Page 31 Use the following view of plate boundaries to answer question 106. W Y Z X 106. Where would the deepest earthquakes most likely occur? A. B. C. D. Page 32 W X Y Z Science 10 – 0608 Form A Use the following map and photograph of Kananga Volcano, Alaska to answer question 107. North American Plate Eurasian Plate N W E S © NASA 107. What type of plate boundary is indicated at the location featured above? A. B. C. D. oceanic-oceanic divergent oceanic-oceanic convergent oceanic-continental transform oceanic-continental convergent ________________________________________________ 108. Which of the following resulted from the convergence of the Juan de Fuca Plate and the North American Plate? A. B. C. D. the San Andreas Fault the Cascade Volcanoes the Juan de Fuca Ridge the Queen Charlotte Fault Science 10 – 0608 Form A Page 33 109. Which of the following is not included in the Theory of Continental Drift? A. B. C. D. Ancient reptiles were unable to cross oceans. Convection currents in the mantle move plates. Ancient rock formations match up on different continents. Paleoglaciation shows the orientation of continents in the past. 110. Where does mantle magma rise to produce new crust? A. B. C. D. at transform faults at subduction zones at divergent plate boundaries at convergent plate boundaries Use the following diagram of geological features to answer question 111. Coal deposits Ancient glacial deposits Matching folded mountains 111. Which of the following can be inferred from the geological features in the diagram? A. B. C. D. Page 34 Coal deposits form in cold climates. Glacial deposits do not occur in Africa. The folded mountains were formed by volcanoes. The continents were once together but have moved apart. Science 10 – 0608 Form A Use the following map and image of the island of Hawaii in the Hawaiian Island chain to answer questions 112 and 113. Eurasian Plate v v vv vv vv v v v v v vv v North American Plate vv vv v v v vv vv v v vv v v ➞ Juan De Fuca Plate Pacific Plate © NASA 112. What technique was used to produce the image of the island of Hawaii? A. B. C. D. mapping seismology remote sensing geological field work 113. Which of the following best explains why the island of Hawaii is the youngest island in the chain of Hawaiian Islands? A. B. C. D. The island of Hawaii is currently over the hot spot. The island of Hawaii has not yet eroded as much as the other islands. The island of Hawaii was the first island to form in the Hawaiian Island chain. The hot spot under the Hawaiian Island chain has been moving in a south-eastern direction. Science 10 – 0608 Form A Page 35 114. Earthquakes can impact the environment by causing which of the following? A. B. C. D. I faults II tsunamis III landslides IV magnetic reversals I only II and III only I, II and III only I, II, III and IV 115. Lava flows always occur as a result of volcanic eruption. A. True B. False Page 36 Science 10 – 0608 Form A Use the following map and photograph of Mt. Vesuvius and the city of Naples, Italy to answer question 116. Eurasian Plate African Plate © NASA 116. Naples is likely to experience future volcanic eruptions. A. True B. False You have Examination Booklet Form A. In the box above #1 on your Answer Sheet, ensure you filled in the bubble as follows. Exam Booklet Form/ A Cahier d’examen B C D E F G H END OF EXAMINATION Science 10 – 0608 Form A Page 37 Examination Rules 1. The time allotted for this examination is two hours. You may, however, take up to 60 minutes of additional time to finish. 2. Answers entered in this Booklet will not be marked. 3. Cheating on an examination will result in a mark of zero. The Ministry of Education considers cheating to have occurred if a student breaks any of the following rules: • Candidates must not give or receive assistance of any kind in answering an examination question during an examination, including allowing one’s paper to be viewed by others or copying answers from another student’s paper. • Candidates must not possess any book, paper or item that might assist in writing an examination, including a dictionary or piece of electronic equipment, that is not specifically authorized for the examination by ministry policy. • Candidates must immediately follow the invigilator’s order to stop writing at the end of the examination time and must not alter an Examination Booklet, Response Booklet or Answer Sheet after the invigilator has asked students to hand in examination papers. • Candidates must not communicate with another student during the examination. • Candidates must not remove any piece of the examination materials from the examination room, including work pages. • Candidates must not take or knowingly use any secure examination materials prior to the examination session. 4. The use of inappropriate language or content may result in a mark of zero being awarded. 5. Upon completion of the examination, return all examination materials to the supervising invigilator. NAMES, FORMULAE AND CHARGES OF SOME COMMON IONS Positive Ions Al 3+ + Li Aluminum + 2+ Lithium Magnesium Ammonium Mg Ba2+ Barium Mn Ca2+ Calcium Mn Cr2+ Chromium(II) Hg22+ Mercury(I) Chromium(III) Hg 2+ Mercury(II) NH4 Cr 3+ + 2+ 4+ Cu Copper(I) K Cu 2+ Copper(II) Ag H+ Hydrogen Na Fe 2+ Iron(II) Sn Fe 3+ Iron(III) Sn Pb 2+ Lead(II) Zn Pb 4+ + + + 2+ 4+ 2+ Manganese(II) Manganese(IV) Potassium Silver Sodium Tin(II) Tin(IV) Zinc Lead(IV) Negative Ions Br CO3 2– ClO3 Cl ClO2 - CrO4 2– CN Cr 2O7 2– CH3 COO F HCO3 - HSO4 HS HSO3 Science 10 - Bromide Carbonate OH ClO I Chlorate - Hydroxide Hypochlorite Iodide Chloride NO3- Nitrate Chlorite NO2- Nitrite Chromate Cyanide Dichromate O 2– ClO4MnO4- Oxide Perchlorate Permanganate Acetate 3– PO 4 Phosphate Fluoride 3– PO 3 Phosphite Hydrogen carbonate, bicarbonate SO 42– Sulphate 2– Sulphide Hydrogen sulphate, bisulphate S Hydrogen sulphide, bisulphide 2– SO 3 Sulphite Hydrogen sulphite, bisulphite Data Page 1 ALPHABETICAL LISTING OF THE ELEMENTS Any value in parentheses is the mass number of the most stable or best known isotope for elements that do not occur naturally. Element Actinium Aluminum Americium Antimony Argon Arsenic Astatine Barium Berkelium Beryllium Bismuth Boron Bromine Cadmium Calcium Californium Carbon Cerium Cesium Chlorine Chromium Cobalt Copper Curium Dubnium Dysprosium Einsteinium Erbium Europium Fermium Fluorine Francium Gadolinium Gallium Germanium Gold Hafnium Helium Holmium Hydrogen Indium Iodine Iridium Iron Krypton Lanthanum Lawrencium Lead Lithium Lutetium Magnesium Manganese Mendelevium Data Page 2 Symbol Atomic Number Atomic Mass Ac Al Am Sb Ar As At Ba Bk Be Bi B Br Cd Ca Cf C Ce Cs Cl Cr Co Cu Cm Db Dy Es Er Eu Fm F Fr Gd Ga Ge Au Hf He Ho H In I Ir Fe Kr La Lr Pb Li Lu Mg Mn Md 89 13 95 51 18 33 85 56 97 4 83 5 35 48 20 98 6 58 55 17 24 27 29 96 105 66 99 68 63 100 9 87 64 31 32 79 72 2 67 1 49 53 77 26 36 57 103 82 3 71 12 25 101 (227) 27.0 (243) 121.8 39.9 74.9 (210) 137.3 (247) 9.0 209.0 10.8 79.9 112.4 40.1 (251) 12.0 140.1 132.9 35.5 52.0 58.9 63.5 (247) (262) 162.5 (252) 167.3 152.0 (257) 19.0 (223) 157.3 69.7 72.6 197.0 178.5 4.0 164.9 1.0 114.8 126.9 192.2 55.8 83.8 138.9 (262) 207.2 6.9 175.0 24.3 54.9 (258) Element Mercury Molybdenum Neodymium Neon Neptunium Nickel Niobium Nitrogen Nobelium Osmium Oxygen Palladium Phosphorus Platinum Plutonium Polonium Potassium Praseodymium Promethium Protactinium Radium Radon Rhenium Rhodium Rubidium Ruthenium Rutherfordium Samarium Scandium Selenium Silicon Silver Sodium Strontium Sulphur Tantalum Technetium Tellurium Terbium Thallium Thorium Thulium Tin Titanium Tungsten Uranium Vanadium Xenon Ytterbium Yttrium Zinc Zirconium Symbol Atomic Number Atomic Mass Hg Mo Nd Ne Np Ni Nb N No Os O Pd P Pt Pu Po K Pr Pm Pa Ra Rn Re Rh Rb Ru Rf Sm Sc Se Si Ag Na Sr S Ta Tc Te Tb Tl Th Tm Sn Ti W U V Xe Yb Y Zn Zr 80 42 60 10 93 28 41 7 102 76 8 46 15 78 94 84 19 59 61 91 88 86 75 45 37 44 104 62 21 34 14 47 11 38 16 73 43 52 65 81 90 69 50 22 74 92 23 54 70 39 30 40 200.6 95.9 144.2 20.2 (237) 58.7 92.9 14.0 (259) 190.2 16.0 106.4 31.0 195.1 (244) (209) 39.1 140.9 (145) 231.0 (226) (222) 186.2 102.9 85.5 101.1 (261) 150.4 45.0 79.0 28.1 107.9 23.0 87.6 32.1 180.9 (98) 127.6 158.9 204.4 232.0 168.9 118.7 47.9 183.8 238.0 50.9 131.3 173.0 88.9 65.4 91.2 Science 10 Science 10 Data Page 3 (226) Alkaline Earth Metals (223) Alkali Metals 3+ 3+ (227) Actinium Ac 89 138.9 Lanthanum La 4+ (261) Rutherfordium Rf 104 178.5 Hafnium Hf 72 91.2 4+ 3+ 4+ Zirconium Zr 3+ 40 47.9 Titanium Ti 22 Any value in parentheses is the mass of the most stable or best known isotope for elements which do not occur naturally. Based on mass of C-12 at 12.00. Radium Francium 2+ Ra 88 87 + 137.3 132.9 Fr Barium Cesium 57 2+ 56 Ba + 55 Cs 88.9 87.6 Yttrium Strontium Y 39 45.0 85.5 2+ 3+ Scandium Rubidium 38 37 21 Sc Sr 40.1 39.1 2+ Rb Calcium Potassium + Ca 20 19 + 24.3 23.0 K Magnesium Sodium 2+ Mg 12 11 + 9.0 6.9 2+ Na Beryllium Lithium 4 Be + + Li 3 1.0 Hydrogen H 1 5+ 4+ 2+ 3+ 6+ Protactinium 231.0 232.0 5+ 4+ Thorium 91 Pa Th 90 140.9 3+ 4+ Praseodymium Pr 59 (263) Seaborgium Sg 106 183.8 Tungsten W 74 95.9 Molybdenum Mo 42 52.0 Chromium 3+ 2+ 140.1 4+ 3+ 4+ 5+ 3+ 5+ 24 Cr Cerium Ce 58 (262) Dubnium Db 105 180.9 Tantalum Ta 73 92.9 Niobium Nb 41 50.9 Vanadium V 23 25 7+ 3+ 4+ 7+ 238.0 Uranium U 92 144.2 6+ 4+ 5+ Neodymium Nd 60 (262) Bohrium Bh 107 186.2 Rhenium Re 75 (98) Technetium Tc 43 54.9 Manganese Mn 2+ 3+ 4+ Atomic Number Symbol Name Atomic Mass 3+ 4+ 3+ 2+ (266) 3+ 4+ 150.4 Samarium Sm 152.0 3+ 2+ 4+ 2+ Europium Eu 63 195.1 Platinum Pt 78 106.4 2+ 3+ 2+ 4+ Palladium Pd 46 58.7 Nickel Ni 28 3+ 3+ 1+ 1+ 2+ 1+ (247) Curium Cm 96 157.3 3+ Gadolinium Gd 64 197.0 Gold Au 79 107.9 Silver Ag 47 63.5 Copper Cu 29 Ion charge(s) 4+ 95 3+ 5+ 94 3+ Pu 6+ Am 4+ 3+ 5+ 4+ Neptunium 6+ Plutonium 5+ Americium 6+ (237) (244) (243) Np 93 (145) 3+ 4+ Meitnerium Mt 109 192.2 Iridium Ir 77 102.9 3+ 4+ 2+ 3+ } Rhodium Rh 45 58.9 Cobalt Co 27 4+ 3+ 3+ 62 3+ 4+ Promethium Pm 61 (265) Hassium Hs 108 190.2 Osmium Os 76 101.1 Ruthenium Ru 44 55.8 Iron Fe 26 28.1 47.9 Silicon Titanium Si Ti 14 22 METALS 3+ 4+ 3+ 4+ 2+ 1+ (247) Berkelium Bk 97 158.9 Terbium Tb 65 200.6 Mercury Hg 80 112.4 2+ 2+ Cadmium Cd 48 65.4 Zinc Zn 30 PERIODIC TABLE OF THE ELEMENTS 3+ 3+ 1+ 3+ 3+ 3+ 3+ (251) Californium Cf 98 162.5 Dysprosium Dy 66 204.4 Thallium Tl 81 114.8 Indium In 49 69.7 Gallium Ga 31 27.0 Aluminum Al 13 10.8 Boron B 5 4+ 3+ 3+ 2+ 4+ 4+ 2+ (252) Einsteinium Es 99 164.9 Holmium Ho 67 207.2 Lead Pb 82 118.7 Tin Sn 50 72.6 Germanium Ge 32 28.1 Silicon 3– 3– (257) Fermium Fm 100 167.3 Erbium Er 68 209.0 Bismuth Bi 83 121.8 Antimony Sb 51 74.9 Arsenic As 33 31.0 3+ 3+ 2+ 3+ 3+ 2+ 2+ 4+ 2– 2– 2– 2– (258) Mendelevium Md 101 168.9 Thulium Tm 69 (209) Polonium Po 127.6 Tellurium Te 52 79.0 Selenium Se 34 32.1 Sulphur S 16 16.0 Oxygen O 8 3+ 84 5+ 3+ 5+ 3– Phosphorus P 15 14 Si 14.0 Nitrogen N 7 12.0 Carbon C 6 NON-METALS 1 – – – – – – (259) Nobelium No 3+ 2+ 102 2+ 3+ 173.0 Ytterbium Yb 70 Halogens (210) Astatine At 85 126.9 Iodine I 53 79.9 Bromine Br 35 35.5 Chlorine Cl 17 19.0 Fluorine F 9 1.0 Hydrogen H 0 0 0 0 3+ 3+ (262) Lawrencium Lr 103 175.0 Lutetium Lu 71 0 0 Noble Gases (222) Radon Rn 86 131.3 Xenon Xe 54 83.8 Krypton Kr 36 39.9 Argon Ar 18 20.2 Neon Ne 10 4.0 Helium He 2 UNITS AND ABBREVIATIONS Quantity Unit Symbol Distance (d) metre m Voltage (V) volt V Current (I) ampere A Resistance (R) ohm W Power (P) watt W Work (W) joule J Force (F) newton N Energy (E) joule J Time (t) second s Time (t) minute min Time (t) hour h Time (t) year a FORMULAE Data Page 4 V = IR P = VI E = Pt R= V I I= P V P= E t I= V R V= P I t= E P Science 10 Science 10 Paleocene Eocene Oligocene Miocene Pliocene Pleistocene Holocene EPOCH BIOSPHERE Dinosaurs Conifers Land plants Ammonoids Single-celled aquatic life Multicellular aquatic life Cambrian Explosion Mammals 4600 544 490 441 418 355 300 251 200 145 65 55 34 24 5.3 1.6 0.01 TIME (Ma) Invertebrates Fish Amphibians Reptiles Mammals Age of The MAJOR EXTINCTIONS Primates Birds Trilobites 21% O2 0% Formation of the Earth Red iron oxide deposits Burgess shale deposited Pangea forming Pangea breaking apart Rocky Mountains forming Atlantic Ocean forming Himalayan Mountains forming Grand Canyon forming LITHOSPHERE Dates according to Geological Time Scale, 1999. Geological Survey of Canada Open File 3040. It is recognized that there is some variation in the dates given in the literature. Cambrian Ordovician Silurian Devonian Carboniferous Permian Triassic Jurassic Cretaceous Tertiary Quaternary PERIOD Flowering plants Precambrian Paleozoic Mesozoic Cenozoic ERA GEOLOGICAL TIME SCALE Oxygen in the Atmosphere Data Page 5 Data Page 6 Science 10 Aircraft and Shipping Bands Lead-206 Argon-40 Nitrogen-14 Uranium-238 Potassium-40 Carbon-14 Isotope Microwaves Radar Infrared Light 5730 1.3 billion 4.5 billion Half-life of Parent (years) COMMON ISOTOPE PAIRS CHART TV and FM Radio Daughter Shortwave Radio Parent AM Radio Long Wavelength Low Frequency Low Energy Ultraviolet Light X rays up to 50 000 10 000 to 3 billion 1 million to 4.5 billion Gamma-rays Short Wavelength High Frequency High Energy Effective Dating Range (years) THE ELECTROMAGNETIC SPECTRUM © NASA Visible Pacific Plate Cocos Plate Juan De Fuca Plate Nazca Plate ➞ Mi d- African Plate W E Transform boundary S N ➞ Indian-Australian Plate Eurasian Plate Plate movement relative to the African Plate Convergent boundary Antarctic Plate South American Plate North American Plate Divergent boundary ➞ ise ➞ lantic Ridge ➞ East Pacific R TECTONIC PLATE BOUNDARIES MAP ➞ ➞ Science 10 At Data Page 7 Mountains Volcanoes ➞ MAP OF THE PACIFIC COAST OF NORTH AMERICA I AL EN D T UL FA A ALEUT IAN TR E NC SK A AL H ➞ YU KO N N.W .T. FAU LT STIKINE VOLCAN IC BELT B.C . ALB ER TA QUEEN CHARLOTTE PACIFIC PLATE ANAHIM VOLCAN IC BELT EXPLORER RIDGE EXPLORER PLATE CA ES FU EV OL CA NO JUAN DE FUCA PLATE AD NORTH AMERICAN PLATE SC O CA G GORDA PLATE OR CAL IF. TAN A EG ON SAN IDA NEV HO ADA G R MON AND MIIN ID DA R . UTA H REA WYO E G WA SH ➞ DE AN E JU IDG R Data Page 8 O CO LO NEW E MEXIC ONA W S RADO T AUL SF Transform fault ARIZ N LEGEND Convergent Divergent Plate movement Mountains Science 10