2006 science 10

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Science 10
Examination Booklet
August 2006
Form A
DO NOT OPEN ANY EXAMINATION MATERIALS UNTIL INSTRUCTED TO DO SO.
Examination Instructions
1. On your Answer Sheet, fill in the bubble (Form A, B, C, D, E, F, G or H) that corresponds
to the letter on this Examination Booklet.
2. Use a pencil to fill in bubbles when answering questions on your Answer Sheet.
3. When the examination begins, remove the data pages located in the centre of this booklet.
4. Read the Examination Rules on the back of this Booklet.
Contents: 37 pages
116 selected-response questions
Examination: 2 hours
Additional Time Permitted: 60 minutes
© Province of British Columbia
Suggested Time: 120 minutes
INSTRUCTIONS: For each question, select the best answer and record your choice on the Answer
Sheet provided. Using a pencil, completely fill in the bubble that has the letter
corresponding to your answer.
You have Examination Booklet Form A. In the box above #1 on your Answer Sheet,
fill in the bubble as follows.
Exam Booklet Form/ A
Cahier d’examen
B
C
D
E
F
G
H
LIFE SCIENCE
Cells
1. Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis in a cell.
A. True
B. False
Match each Term on the left with the best Descriptor on the right.
Each Descriptor may be used as often as necessary.
Term
Descriptor
2. cilia
A. related to osmosis in cells
3. cell walls
B. provide support for plant cells
4. centriole
C. responsible for movement of cells
5. chloroplast
D. sugar + oxygen Æ carbon dioxide + water
6. cellular respiration
E. carbon dioxide + water Æ sugar + oxygen
F. the site of the origin of spindle fibres in animal cells
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
Page 1
7. A nucleus is to cell function as a cell membrane is to nutrient storage.
A. True
B. False
8. Mitochondria are found in leaf cells.
A. True
B. False
9. Which of the following describes the surface area to volume ratio of a shrinking cell?
A.
B.
C.
D.
increasing
decreasing
remaining the same
increasing then decreasing
Use the following diagrams of the stages of mitosis to answer question 10.
M
N
O
P
Q
10. What is the correct order of these stages?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Page 2
N, M, P, Q, O
N, P, Q, M, O
N, Q, P, M, O
Q, P, M, N, O
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
11. Bacteria must infect a living host cell in order to reproduce.
A. True
B. False
12. Strawberry plants produce new plants at the end of long stems called runners.
Which type of asexual reproduction is represented?
A.
B.
C.
D.
budding
regeneration
binary fission
vegetative reproduction
13. Which of the following characteristics of sexual reproduction correctly compare it to
asexual reproduction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
I
Two parents are required.
II
Only one parent is required.
III
A greater genetic variety of offspring result.
IV
Larger numbers of offspring are produced.
I and III only
I and IV only
II and III only
III and IV only
14. Which one of the following describes the products of mitosis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
gametes
mutation
identical cells
different cells
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
Page 3
15. The diagram illustrates asexual reproduction.
n
n
2n
n
n
A. True
B. False
16. Four sperm cells are produced with the sex chromosomes distributed as shown.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
X
A.
B.
C.
D.
X
YY
A chromatid pair failed to separate.
The chromosomes failed to duplicate.
The chromatid pair failed to become visible.
The chromatid pairs failed to line up at the equator.
17. Which of the following represents the homozygous recessive genotype?
A.
B.
C.
D.
aa
aA
Aa
AA
18. In incomplete dominance, heterozygous individuals have an intermediate phenotype.
A. True
B. False
Page 4
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
19. Which of the following are genotype?
A.
B.
C.
D.
I
TT
II
a short-haired cat
III
the alleles for a particular trait
IV
the physical appearance of an organism
I and III only
I and IV only
II and III only
II and IV only
Use the following representation of a Punnett square to answer question 20.
P
Q
R
S
T
U
V
W
20. Which of the following represent the position of the gametes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
P, Q, S, T
P, Q, R, U
R, S, U, V
S, T, V, W
________________________________________________
21. Which of the following conditions must be present for a recessive trait to be expressed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
one recessive allele
one dominant allele
two recessive alleles
two dominant alleles
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
Page 5
Use the following information to answer question 22.
A purebred male brown hamster was
mated with a purebred female golden hamster.
All the offspring were brown.
Brown Hamster (
)
Golden Hamster (
)
22. Which of the following describes the genotype of the offspring?
A.
B.
C.
D.
heterozygous
homozygous recessive
homozygous dominant
heterozygous dominant and homozygous recessive
Use the following information to answer question 23.
A male black mouse was mated
with a female white mouse.
Black Mouse (
)
White Mouse (
)
23. Which of the following describes the allele for black if all of the offspring were white?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Page 6
recessive
dominant
sex-linked
codominant
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
Use the following information to answer question 24.
Australian Shepherd dogs
Australian Shepherd dogs have white coats, merle coats or tricolour coats.
Homozygous dominant dogs are white and have serious eye disorders.
white (MM)
with serious eye disorders
merle (Mm)
with normal eyes
tricolour (mm)
with normal eyes
24. If two heterozygous merle dogs are crossed, what is the probability of the offspring being white
and having serious eye disorders?
A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
________________________________________________
25. Which of the following describes the phenotypic ratio of the offspring of a purebred dominant
tall individual and a purebred recessive short individual?
A.
B.
C.
D.
100% tall
100% short
50% tall, 50% short
75% tall, 25% short
26. What are the probable genotypes of the parents of the F1 generation, if the genotypic ratio of
the F2 generation is 1 : 2 : 1?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Tt ¥ tt
Tt ¥ Tt
TT ¥ tt
TT ¥ Tt
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
Page 7
Use the following information to answer question 27.
I
XF X f ¥ X f Y
II
XF X f ¥ XF Y
III
Xf Xf ¥ Xf Y
IV
XF XF ¥ X f Y
27. The allele for full colour vision (F) is dominant and the allele for colour-blindness (f) is
recessive. Which of the following arranges the crosses listed above according to the probability
of producing a colour-blind child?
Lowest Probability
Highest Probability
A.
I
II
III
IV
B.
II
IV
I
III
C.
III
II
I
IV
D.
IV
II
I
III
________________________________________________
28. A mutation is the alteration of a normal gene.
A. True
B. False
29. A mutation can be negative for an organism.
A. True
B. False
Page 8
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
PHYSICAL SCIENCE
REFER TO
DATA PAGES
Chemicals and Reactions
For this section of the examination, refer to:
• Names, Formulae and Charges of Some Common Ions on Data Page 1
• Alphabetical Listing of the Elements on Data Page 2
• Periodic Table of the Elements on Data Page 3
30. An ion always has more electrons than protons.
A. True
B. False
31. Which neutral atom has 31 neutrons and 28 electrons?
A.
B.
C.
D.
nickel
gallium
phosphorus
praseodymium
Use the following information to answer 32.
52
?
? represents the symbol of the element
24
32. Which of the following describes a neutral atom of the element?
Element
Sub-Atomic Particles
A.
tellurium
24 electrons, 52 protons
B.
tellurium
24 electrons, 52 neutrons
C.
chromium
24 electrons, 24 protons
D.
chromium
24 protons, 52 neutrons
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
Page 9
33. The Bohr model represents the electron arrangement for which of the following?
7p
7n
A.
B.
C.
D.
an ion of nitrogen
an atom of silicon
an atom of nitrogen
a molecule of nitrogen
34. The following is a Bohr model of a noble gas element.
Bohr Model
10p
10n
A. True
B. False
Use the following information to answer question 35.
A new element Xn has recently been discovered.
It forms compounds with the following formulae:
Xn3PO4 , XnCl 2 , Xn( MnO4 )2
35. Xn is an alkaline earth metal.
A. This statement is supported by the information.
B. This statement is refuted by the information.
C. This statement is neither supported nor refuted by the information.
Page 10
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
36. There are seven electrons in the outer shell of an alkali metal atom.
A. True
B. False
37. Which of the following represents the Bohr model for a magnesium atom?
A.
B.
12p
10n
2 6
C.
12p
12n
6 6
12p
12n
2 6 4
D.
12p
12n
2 8 2
38. Which of the following statements about F – are true?
A.
B.
C.
D.
I
It symbolizes an ion.
II
It symbolizes an atom.
III
Fluorine has lost one electron.
IV
Fluorine has gained one electron.
I and III only
I and IV only
II and III only
II and IV only
39. The formula CO2 represents a covalent compound.
A. True
B. False
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
Page 11
40. The formula F2 represents a diatomic molecule.
A. True
B. False
41. What is the chemical formula for iron(II) sulphite?
A. FeSO 3
B.
Fe2 SO 3
C.
Fe(SO 3 )2
D. Fe2 (SO 3 )2
42. Which one of the following chemical equations is balanced?
A.
B.
C.
D.
SO2 + O2 Æ SO 3
3SO2 + O2 Æ 3SO3
SO2 + 2O2 Æ 2SO 3
2SO2 + O2 Æ 2SO 3
Use the following chemical formula for manganese(III) chlorate to answer questions 43 to 45.
Mn( ClO3 ) 3
Match the Term on the left with the correct Number of Units on the right.
Each Number of Units may be used as often as necessary.
Term
Number of Units
43. oxygen
A.
1
44. chlorine
B.
3
45. chlorate
C.
6
D.
9
E.
12
F.
13
Page 12
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
46. Which of the following is the formula for the compound formed by beryllium and arsenic?
A.
B.
C.
D.
BeAs
BeAs 3
Be2 As 3
Be 3 As2
47. Which of the following is the name for K2 CO 3 ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
potassium carbide
potassium chlorate
potassium carbonate
potassium hydrogen carbonate
48. Which of the following sets of coefficients will balance the equation?
____ Al2 (SO 4 ) 3 + _____ BaCl2 Æ _____ AlCl 3 + _____ BaSO 4
A.
B.
C.
D.
1, 2, 1, 1
1, 2, 2, 2
1, 3, 1, 3
1, 3, 2, 3
49. Which of the following represents a synthesis reaction?
A. H2 + Cl2 Æ 2HCl
B. 2KClO 3 Æ 2KCl + 3O2
C. Mg + 2HCl Æ MgCl2 + H2
D. AgNO 3 + KCl Æ AgCl + KNO 3
50. In what type of chemical reaction does one larger molecule react to produce two
smaller molecules?
A.
B.
C.
D.
synthesis
neutralization
decomposition
single replacement
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
Page 13
Match each set of Reactants on the left with the most probable Reaction Type on the right.
Each Reaction Type may be used as often as necessary.
Reactants
Reaction Type
51. Mg(NO 3 )2 + 2NaOH Æ
A. synthesis
52. 2Al + Fe2O 3 Æ
B. neutralization
C. decomposition
D. single replacement
E. double replacement
PHYSICAL SCIENCE
REFER TO
DATA PAGES
Radioactivity
For this section of the examination, refer to:
• Periodic Table of the Elements on Data Page 3
• The Electromagnetic Spectrum on Data Page 6
• Common Isotope Pairs Chart on Data Page 6
53. Ultraviolet light has a higher frequency than infrared light.
A. True
B. False
54. Beta particles will easily pass through a human body.
A. True
B. False
55. Consider the following nuclear equation.
238
92 U
Æ
234
90Th
+
4
2a
The equation shows uranium undergoing alpha decay.
A. True
B. False
Page 14
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
56. Which of the following describes the changes that take place in the nucleus of an atom as a
result of gamma ( g ) decay?
Number of Protons
Number of Neutrons
A.
decrease by 1
increase by 1
B.
no change
no change
C.
increase by 1
decrease by 1
D.
increase by 2
decrease by 2
57. What is the name of the process of joining smaller nuclei into larger nuclei?
A.
B.
C.
D.
fusion
fission
diffusion
fragmentation
58. Why are lead aprons used on dental patients during X-rays?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lead focuses X-rays.
Lead produces X-rays.
X-rays produce unwanted tans.
X-rays can damage the DNA in cells.
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
Page 15
PHYSICAL SCIENCE
REFER TO
DATA PAGES
Electricity and Magnetism
For this section of the examination, refer to:
• Units and Abbreviations on Data Page 4
• Formulae on Data Page 4
• The Electromagnetic Spectrum on Data Page 6
59. A positively charged object and a negatively charged object will be attracted to each other.
A. True
B. False
Use the following information to answer question 60.
A student removes her shoes and walks across a thick carpet in her socks.
The air in the room is dry. As she reaches for a doorknob, she immediately
experiences an electric shock in her hand.
60. The student is negatively charged.
A. This statement is supported by the information.
B. This statement is refuted by the information.
C. This statement is neither supported nor refuted by the information.
________________________________________________
61. Which of the following best explains why an object is neutral?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Page 16
The object has an excess of protons.
The object has an excess of electrons.
The object has the same number of protons as electrons.
The object has an excess of protons, electrons and neutrons.
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
62. When a piece of acetate is rubbed with a cloth, some electrons are transferred from the acetate
to the cloth. Which of the following is true about the cloth?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It is now neutral.
It is now positively charged.
It lost protons to the acetate.
It is now negatively charged.
63. Materials that allow electric current to easily pass through them are called insulators.
A. True
B. False
64. The nucleus of an atom is positively charged.
A. True
B. False
65. A compass placed beside a current-carrying wire can be used to indicate when
current flow is reversed.
A. True
B. False
66. Magnetic field lines outside a permanent magnet point from the south end of
the magnet to the north end of the magnet.
A. True
B. False
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
Page 17
67. The arrow shown in the diagram below represents the direction of conventional current.
+ –
wire
A. True
B. False
Use the following diagram to answer question 68.
+ –
68. In which direction will the needle point if a compass is placed at the end of the solenoid
as shown?
Page 18
A.
B.
C.
D.
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
Use the following circuit diagram to answer question 69.
20 W
60 V
69. What is the current in the circuit?
A.
0.33 A
B.
3A
C.
80 A
D. 1200 A
Use the following circuit diagram to answer question 70.
LEGEND
L1
3V
I1 = 2 A
L2
Lamp
L1
Lamp 1
L2
Lamp 2
70. What is the resistance of Lamp 1?
A. 0.67 W
B.
1.5 W
C.
5W
D.
6W
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
Page 19
Use the following information to answer question 71.
LEGEND
1.5 V cell
lamp
71. In which diagram would the lamp shine the brightest?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Voltage (V)
Use the following graph to answer question 72.
Current (A)
72. Which of the following is represented by the slope of the graph?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Page 20
work
power
energy
resistance
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
Use the following circuit diagram to answer questions 73 to 77.
I4 = ?
LEGEND
R1 = 1 W
I1 = ?
6V
V1 = ?
resistor
I2 = 2 A
V2 = ?
I3 = 3 A
R3 = ?
cell
Match each Question on the left with its corresponding Value on the right.
Each Value may be used as often as necessary.
Question
Value
73. I1 =
A.
6A
74. I 4 =
B.
11 A
75. V1 =
C.
2V
76. V2 =
D.
6V
77. R 3 =
E.
2W
F. 18 W
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
Page 21
Use the following circuit diagram to answer question 78.
LEGEND
cell
L2
lamp
L1
L3
L1 = Lamp 1
L2 = Lamp 2
L3 = Lamp 3
78. The voltage drop across L1 equals the voltage drop across L2 and L 3.
A. True
B. False
Use the following circuit diagrams to answer question 79.
Before
After
L2
L1
L2
L1
L3
LEGEND
cell
lamp
L1 = Lamp 1
L2 = Lamp 2
L3 = Lamp 3
79. What will happen to the current in Lamp 1 if Lamp 3 is added to the circuit as shown above?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Page 22
The current will increase.
The current will decrease.
The current will stop flowing.
The current will stay the same.
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
80. A 120 V appliance draws 30 A of current. If electricity costs $0.065 kW ◊ h , how much does it
cost to operate the appliance for 3.5 hours?
A.
$0.82
B.
$66.85
C. $234.00
D. $820.00
81. Which of the following can be used to calculate the amount of energy used by an appliance?
A.
B.
C.
D.
power and time
current and time
voltage and time
voltage and current
Use the following information to answer question 82.
Circuit I
Circuit II
The voltage across a resistor is 15 V and
there is a 4 A current flowing through it.
The energy consumed by a light bulb
is 3600 J in 60 seconds.
82. Which of the following correctly compares the power of Circuit I and Circuit II?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The power of Circuit I is greater.
The power of Circuit II is greater.
The power of both circuits is equal.
The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
________________________________________________
83. A step-up transformer is used close to homes to ensure the voltage is appropriate for
household use.
A. True
B. False
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
Page 23
84. In household wiring, there are three separate wires: a black, a white and a bare copper.
Which is the grounding wire?
A. the black wire
B. the white wire
C. the bare copper wire
Use the following diagram of a standard household outlet to answer question 85.
I
II
III
85. Through which of the following are 120 V delivered to an operating appliance?
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
________________________________________________
86. When a cell phone charger is plugged into a 120 V outlet it produces 4.5 V. Which of the
following devices makes this possible?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Page 24
a fuse
a resistor
a step-up transformer
a step-down transformer
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
87. A 12 V, 3 A motor takes 120 minutes to do a certain job. A 120 V, 2 A motor takes 5 minutes
to do the same job. Which motor uses the least energy and by how much?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The 12 V motor uses 36 kW ◊ h less energy.
The 120 V motor uses 36 kW ◊ h less energy.
The 12 V motor uses 0.052 kW ◊ h less energy.
The 120 V motor uses 0.052 kW ◊ h less energy.
EARTH AND SPACE SCIENCE
Earth Forces
For this section of the examination, refer to:
• Geological Time Scale on Data Page 5
• Common Isotope Pairs Chart on Data Page 6
• Tectonic Plate Boundaries Map on Data Page 7
• Map of the Pacific Coast of North America on Data Page 8
REFER TO
DATA PAGES
88. The interpretation of earthquake waves is an application of seismology.
A. True
B. False
Match each Term on the left with the best letter from
the Cross-sectional Diagram of the Earth’s Layers on the right.
Term
89. inner core
Cross-sectional Diagram of the Earth’s Layers
A.
90. outer core
B.
91. tectonic plates
C.
D.
Layers not
drawn to scale
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
Page 25
Match each Fossil on the left with the most appropriate Era on the right.
Each Era may be used as often as necessary.
Fossil
Era
92. oldest bird fossil
A. Cenozoic
93. oldest flowering plants fossil
B. Mesozoic
C. Paleozoic
D. Precambrian
94. The picture shows a trilobite fossil.
A. True
B. False
95. Amphibians became extinct at the end of the Paleozoic Era.
A. True
B. False
96. How long did the Devonian Period last?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Page 26
23 Ma
51 Ma
55 Ma
63 Ma
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
Use the following map and image of the Himalayan Mountains
to answer question 97.
Eurasian Plate
India
N
W
E
S
© NASA
97. Which of the following best explains the presence of marine fossils found high in the
Himalayan Mountains?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The fossils were carried into the mountains by people long ago.
The fossils were deposited in ancient lakes high in the mountains.
Ancient seafloor was scraped onto the converging plates as India approached Eurasia.
The landmass of India was formerly an ancient ocean floor which was pushed up by the
converging plates.
________________________________________________
98. A rock sample contains 80 g of a radioactive element. How much of the radioactive element
would remain after three half-lives?
A. 5 g
B. 10 g
C. 20 g
D. 40 g
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
Page 27
Use the following geological cross-section to answer question 99.
X
Y
99. The statement “Formation Y is younger than formation X” is an example of
relative dating.
A. True
B. False
Use the following geological cross-section to answer question 100.
LEGEND
Z
sandstone
Y
shale
granite
X
conglomerate
W
limestone
U
V
igneous
100. What is the sequence of the four most recent features from oldest to youngest?
Oldest
Page 28
Youngest
A.
Y
W
X
U
B.
U
X
W
Y
C.
Z
Y
U
X
D.
X
U
Y
Z
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
Use the following illustration to answer question 101.
101. The conglomerate must be younger than the fossil in the pebble.
A. True
B. False
Use the following geological cross-section to answer question 102.
LEGEND
Z
Y
shale
sandstone
X
igneous rock
W
limestone
102. Which of the following correctly represents the order in which the features were formed?
Oldest
Youngest
A.
W
Y
X
Z
B.
W
Z
X
Y
C.
Y
W
X
Z
D.
Y
X
Z
W
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
Page 29
Use the following map to answer question 103.
X
103. The plate boundary indicated by X is a divergent plate boundary.
A. True
B. False
________________________________________________
104. Tectonic plates are composed of which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Page 30
I
ocean crust
II
asthenosphere
III
continental crust
IV
uppermost mantle
III only
I and III only
I, II and IV only
I, III and IV only
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
Use the following information to answer question 105.
Cross-Sections of Plate Boundaries
Map Views of Plate Boundaries
P
S
Q
T
R
out
of the page
into
the page
U
105. Which of the cross-sections and map views illustrate a convergent plate boundary?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Q and S
R and U
P and S
Q and U
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
Page 31
Use the following view of plate boundaries to answer question 106.
W
Y
Z
X
106. Where would the deepest earthquakes most likely occur?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Page 32
W
X
Y
Z
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
Use the following map and photograph of Kananga Volcano, Alaska
to answer question 107.
North American
Plate
Eurasian
Plate
N
W
E
S
© NASA
107. What type of plate boundary is indicated at the location featured above?
A.
B.
C.
D.
oceanic-oceanic divergent
oceanic-oceanic convergent
oceanic-continental transform
oceanic-continental convergent
________________________________________________
108. Which of the following resulted from the convergence of the Juan de Fuca Plate and
the North American Plate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
the San Andreas Fault
the Cascade Volcanoes
the Juan de Fuca Ridge
the Queen Charlotte Fault
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
Page 33
109. Which of the following is not included in the Theory of Continental Drift?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ancient reptiles were unable to cross oceans.
Convection currents in the mantle move plates.
Ancient rock formations match up on different continents.
Paleoglaciation shows the orientation of continents in the past.
110. Where does mantle magma rise to produce new crust?
A.
B.
C.
D.
at transform faults
at subduction zones
at divergent plate boundaries
at convergent plate boundaries
Use the following diagram of geological features to answer question 111.
Coal
deposits
Ancient glacial
deposits
Matching folded
mountains
111. Which of the following can be inferred from the geological features in the diagram?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Page 34
Coal deposits form in cold climates.
Glacial deposits do not occur in Africa.
The folded mountains were formed by volcanoes.
The continents were once together but have moved apart.
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
Use the following map and image of the island of Hawaii
in the Hawaiian Island chain to answer questions 112 and 113.
Eurasian Plate
v
v
vv
vv
vv v v v v v vv
v
North American
Plate
vv
vv
v
v
v
vv
vv
v
v vv v v
➞
Juan
De Fuca
Plate
Pacific Plate
© NASA
112. What technique was used to produce the image of the island of Hawaii?
A.
B.
C.
D.
mapping
seismology
remote sensing
geological field work
113. Which of the following best explains why the island of Hawaii is the youngest island in the
chain of Hawaiian Islands?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The island of Hawaii is currently over the hot spot.
The island of Hawaii has not yet eroded as much as the other islands.
The island of Hawaii was the first island to form in the Hawaiian Island chain.
The hot spot under the Hawaiian Island chain has been moving in a south-eastern direction.
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
Page 35
114. Earthquakes can impact the environment by causing which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
I
faults
II
tsunamis
III
landslides
IV
magnetic reversals
I only
II and III only
I, II and III only
I, II, III and IV
115. Lava flows always occur as a result of volcanic eruption.
A. True
B. False
Page 36
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
Use the following map and photograph of Mt. Vesuvius and
the city of Naples, Italy to answer question 116.
Eurasian
Plate
African
Plate
© NASA
116. Naples is likely to experience future volcanic eruptions.
A. True
B. False
You have Examination Booklet Form A. In the box above #1 on your Answer Sheet, ensure
you filled in the bubble as follows.
Exam Booklet Form/ A
Cahier d’examen
B
C
D
E
F
G
H
END OF EXAMINATION
Science 10 – 0608 Form A
Page 37
Examination Rules
1. The time allotted for this examination is two hours.
You may, however, take up to 60 minutes of additional time to finish.
2. Answers entered in this Booklet will not be marked.
3. Cheating on an examination will result in a mark of zero. The Ministry of Education
considers cheating to have occurred if a student breaks any of the following rules:
•
Candidates must not give or receive assistance of any kind in answering an
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5. Upon completion of the examination, return all examination materials to the supervising
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NAMES, FORMULAE AND CHARGES OF SOME COMMON IONS
Positive Ions
Al
3+
+
Li
Aluminum
+
2+
Lithium
Magnesium
Ammonium
Mg
Ba2+
Barium
Mn
Ca2+
Calcium
Mn
Cr2+
Chromium(II)
Hg22+
Mercury(I)
Chromium(III)
Hg 2+
Mercury(II)
NH4
Cr
3+
+
2+
4+
Cu
Copper(I)
K
Cu 2+
Copper(II)
Ag
H+
Hydrogen
Na
Fe 2+
Iron(II)
Sn
Fe 3+
Iron(III)
Sn
Pb 2+
Lead(II)
Zn
Pb
4+
+
+
+
2+
4+
2+
Manganese(II)
Manganese(IV)
Potassium
Silver
Sodium
Tin(II)
Tin(IV)
Zinc
Lead(IV)
Negative Ions
Br CO3 2–
ClO3
Cl
ClO2
-
CrO4 2–
CN Cr 2O7 2–
CH3 COO
F
HCO3
-
HSO4 HS HSO3
Science 10
-
Bromide
Carbonate
OH
ClO
I
Chlorate
-
Hydroxide
Hypochlorite
Iodide
Chloride
NO3-
Nitrate
Chlorite
NO2-
Nitrite
Chromate
Cyanide
Dichromate
O
2–
ClO4MnO4-
Oxide
Perchlorate
Permanganate
Acetate
3–
PO 4
Phosphate
Fluoride
3–
PO 3
Phosphite
Hydrogen carbonate, bicarbonate
SO 42–
Sulphate
2–
Sulphide
Hydrogen sulphate, bisulphate
S
Hydrogen sulphide, bisulphide
2–
SO 3
Sulphite
Hydrogen sulphite, bisulphite
Data Page 1
ALPHABETICAL LISTING OF THE ELEMENTS
Any value in parentheses is the mass number of the most stable or
best known isotope for elements that do not occur naturally.
Element
Actinium
Aluminum
Americium
Antimony
Argon
Arsenic
Astatine
Barium
Berkelium
Beryllium
Bismuth
Boron
Bromine
Cadmium
Calcium
Californium
Carbon
Cerium
Cesium
Chlorine
Chromium
Cobalt
Copper
Curium
Dubnium
Dysprosium
Einsteinium
Erbium
Europium
Fermium
Fluorine
Francium
Gadolinium
Gallium
Germanium
Gold
Hafnium
Helium
Holmium
Hydrogen
Indium
Iodine
Iridium
Iron
Krypton
Lanthanum
Lawrencium
Lead
Lithium
Lutetium
Magnesium
Manganese
Mendelevium
Data Page 2
Symbol
Atomic
Number
Atomic
Mass
Ac
Al
Am
Sb
Ar
As
At
Ba
Bk
Be
Bi
B
Br
Cd
Ca
Cf
C
Ce
Cs
Cl
Cr
Co
Cu
Cm
Db
Dy
Es
Er
Eu
Fm
F
Fr
Gd
Ga
Ge
Au
Hf
He
Ho
H
In
I
Ir
Fe
Kr
La
Lr
Pb
Li
Lu
Mg
Mn
Md
89
13
95
51
18
33
85
56
97
4
83
5
35
48
20
98
6
58
55
17
24
27
29
96
105
66
99
68
63
100
9
87
64
31
32
79
72
2
67
1
49
53
77
26
36
57
103
82
3
71
12
25
101
(227)
27.0
(243)
121.8
39.9
74.9
(210)
137.3
(247)
9.0
209.0
10.8
79.9
112.4
40.1
(251)
12.0
140.1
132.9
35.5
52.0
58.9
63.5
(247)
(262)
162.5
(252)
167.3
152.0
(257)
19.0
(223)
157.3
69.7
72.6
197.0
178.5
4.0
164.9
1.0
114.8
126.9
192.2
55.8
83.8
138.9
(262)
207.2
6.9
175.0
24.3
54.9
(258)
Element
Mercury
Molybdenum
Neodymium
Neon
Neptunium
Nickel
Niobium
Nitrogen
Nobelium
Osmium
Oxygen
Palladium
Phosphorus
Platinum
Plutonium
Polonium
Potassium
Praseodymium
Promethium
Protactinium
Radium
Radon
Rhenium
Rhodium
Rubidium
Ruthenium
Rutherfordium
Samarium
Scandium
Selenium
Silicon
Silver
Sodium
Strontium
Sulphur
Tantalum
Technetium
Tellurium
Terbium
Thallium
Thorium
Thulium
Tin
Titanium
Tungsten
Uranium
Vanadium
Xenon
Ytterbium
Yttrium
Zinc
Zirconium
Symbol
Atomic
Number
Atomic
Mass
Hg
Mo
Nd
Ne
Np
Ni
Nb
N
No
Os
O
Pd
P
Pt
Pu
Po
K
Pr
Pm
Pa
Ra
Rn
Re
Rh
Rb
Ru
Rf
Sm
Sc
Se
Si
Ag
Na
Sr
S
Ta
Tc
Te
Tb
Tl
Th
Tm
Sn
Ti
W
U
V
Xe
Yb
Y
Zn
Zr
80
42
60
10
93
28
41
7
102
76
8
46
15
78
94
84
19
59
61
91
88
86
75
45
37
44
104
62
21
34
14
47
11
38
16
73
43
52
65
81
90
69
50
22
74
92
23
54
70
39
30
40
200.6
95.9
144.2
20.2
(237)
58.7
92.9
14.0
(259)
190.2
16.0
106.4
31.0
195.1
(244)
(209)
39.1
140.9
(145)
231.0
(226)
(222)
186.2
102.9
85.5
101.1
(261)
150.4
45.0
79.0
28.1
107.9
23.0
87.6
32.1
180.9
(98)
127.6
158.9
204.4
232.0
168.9
118.7
47.9
183.8
238.0
50.9
131.3
173.0
88.9
65.4
91.2
Science 10
Science 10
Data Page 3
(226)
Alkaline
Earth
Metals
(223)
Alkali
Metals
3+
3+
(227)
Actinium
Ac
89
138.9
Lanthanum
La
4+
(261)
Rutherfordium
Rf
104
178.5
Hafnium
Hf
72
91.2
4+
3+
4+
Zirconium
Zr
3+ 40
47.9
Titanium
Ti
22
Any value in parentheses
is the mass of the most
stable or best known isotope for
elements which do not occur naturally.
Based on mass of C-12 at 12.00.
Radium
Francium
2+
Ra
88
87
+
137.3
132.9
Fr
Barium
Cesium
57
2+
56
Ba
+
55
Cs
88.9
87.6
Yttrium
Strontium
Y
39
45.0
85.5
2+
3+
Scandium
Rubidium
38
37
21
Sc
Sr
40.1
39.1
2+
Rb
Calcium
Potassium
+
Ca
20
19
+
24.3
23.0
K
Magnesium
Sodium
2+
Mg
12
11
+
9.0
6.9
2+
Na
Beryllium
Lithium
4
Be
+
+
Li
3
1.0
Hydrogen
H
1
5+
4+
2+
3+
6+
Protactinium
231.0
232.0
5+
4+
Thorium
91
Pa
Th
90
140.9
3+
4+
Praseodymium
Pr
59
(263)
Seaborgium
Sg
106
183.8
Tungsten
W
74
95.9
Molybdenum
Mo
42
52.0
Chromium
3+
2+
140.1
4+
3+
4+
5+
3+
5+
24
Cr
Cerium
Ce
58
(262)
Dubnium
Db
105
180.9
Tantalum
Ta
73
92.9
Niobium
Nb
41
50.9
Vanadium
V
23
25
7+
3+
4+
7+
238.0
Uranium
U
92
144.2
6+
4+
5+
Neodymium
Nd
60
(262)
Bohrium
Bh
107
186.2
Rhenium
Re
75
(98)
Technetium
Tc
43
54.9
Manganese
Mn
2+
3+
4+
Atomic Number
Symbol
Name
Atomic Mass
3+
4+
3+
2+
(266)
3+
4+
150.4
Samarium
Sm
152.0
3+
2+
4+
2+
Europium
Eu
63
195.1
Platinum
Pt
78
106.4
2+
3+
2+
4+
Palladium
Pd
46
58.7
Nickel
Ni
28
3+
3+
1+
1+
2+
1+
(247)
Curium
Cm
96
157.3
3+
Gadolinium
Gd
64
197.0
Gold
Au
79
107.9
Silver
Ag
47
63.5
Copper
Cu
29
Ion charge(s)
4+ 95
3+
5+ 94
3+ Pu 6+ Am 4+
3+
5+
4+
Neptunium 6+ Plutonium 5+ Americium 6+
(237)
(244)
(243)
Np
93
(145)
3+
4+
Meitnerium
Mt
109
192.2
Iridium
Ir
77
102.9
3+
4+
2+
3+
}
Rhodium
Rh
45
58.9
Cobalt
Co
27
4+
3+
3+ 62
3+
4+
Promethium
Pm
61
(265)
Hassium
Hs
108
190.2
Osmium
Os
76
101.1
Ruthenium
Ru
44
55.8
Iron
Fe
26
28.1
47.9
Silicon
Titanium
Si
Ti
14
22
METALS
3+
4+
3+
4+
2+
1+
(247)
Berkelium
Bk
97
158.9
Terbium
Tb
65
200.6
Mercury
Hg
80
112.4
2+
2+
Cadmium
Cd
48
65.4
Zinc
Zn
30
PERIODIC TABLE OF THE ELEMENTS
3+
3+
1+
3+
3+
3+
3+
(251)
Californium
Cf
98
162.5
Dysprosium
Dy
66
204.4
Thallium
Tl
81
114.8
Indium
In
49
69.7
Gallium
Ga
31
27.0
Aluminum
Al
13
10.8
Boron
B
5
4+
3+
3+
2+
4+
4+
2+
(252)
Einsteinium
Es
99
164.9
Holmium
Ho
67
207.2
Lead
Pb
82
118.7
Tin
Sn
50
72.6
Germanium
Ge
32
28.1
Silicon
3–
3–
(257)
Fermium
Fm
100
167.3
Erbium
Er
68
209.0
Bismuth
Bi
83
121.8
Antimony
Sb
51
74.9
Arsenic
As
33
31.0
3+
3+
2+
3+
3+
2+
2+
4+
2–
2–
2–
2–
(258)
Mendelevium
Md
101
168.9
Thulium
Tm
69
(209)
Polonium
Po
127.6
Tellurium
Te
52
79.0
Selenium
Se
34
32.1
Sulphur
S
16
16.0
Oxygen
O
8
3+ 84
5+
3+
5+
3–
Phosphorus
P
15
14
Si
14.0
Nitrogen
N
7
12.0
Carbon
C
6
NON-METALS
1
–
–
–
–
–
–
(259)
Nobelium
No
3+
2+
102 2+
3+
173.0
Ytterbium
Yb
70
Halogens
(210)
Astatine
At
85
126.9
Iodine
I
53
79.9
Bromine
Br
35
35.5
Chlorine
Cl
17
19.0
Fluorine
F
9
1.0
Hydrogen
H
0
0
0
0
3+
3+
(262)
Lawrencium
Lr
103
175.0
Lutetium
Lu
71
0
0
Noble
Gases
(222)
Radon
Rn
86
131.3
Xenon
Xe
54
83.8
Krypton
Kr
36
39.9
Argon
Ar
18
20.2
Neon
Ne
10
4.0
Helium
He
2
UNITS AND ABBREVIATIONS
Quantity
Unit
Symbol
Distance (d)
metre
m
Voltage (V)
volt
V
Current (I)
ampere
A
Resistance (R)
ohm
W
Power (P)
watt
W
Work (W)
joule
J
Force (F)
newton
N
Energy (E)
joule
J
Time (t)
second
s
Time (t)
minute
min
Time (t)
hour
h
Time (t)
year
a
FORMULAE
Data Page 4
V = IR
P = VI
E = Pt
R= V
I
I= P
V
P= E
t
I= V
R
V= P
I
t= E
P
Science 10
Science 10
Paleocene
Eocene
Oligocene
Miocene
Pliocene
Pleistocene
Holocene
EPOCH
BIOSPHERE
Dinosaurs
Conifers
Land plants
Ammonoids
Single-celled aquatic life
Multicellular aquatic life
Cambrian Explosion
Mammals
4600
544
490
441
418
355
300
251
200
145
65
55
34
24
5.3
1.6
0.01
TIME (Ma)
Invertebrates
Fish
Amphibians
Reptiles
Mammals
Age of
The
MAJOR EXTINCTIONS
Primates
Birds
Trilobites
21%
O2
0%
Formation of the Earth
Red iron oxide deposits
Burgess shale deposited
Pangea forming
Pangea breaking apart
Rocky Mountains forming
Atlantic Ocean forming
Himalayan Mountains forming
Grand Canyon forming
LITHOSPHERE
Dates according to Geological Time Scale, 1999. Geological Survey of Canada Open File 3040. It is recognized that there is some variation in the dates given in the literature.
Cambrian
Ordovician
Silurian
Devonian
Carboniferous
Permian
Triassic
Jurassic
Cretaceous
Tertiary
Quaternary
PERIOD
Flowering plants
Precambrian
Paleozoic
Mesozoic
Cenozoic
ERA
GEOLOGICAL TIME SCALE
Oxygen in the Atmosphere
Data Page 5
Data Page 6
Science 10
Aircraft and
Shipping
Bands
Lead-206
Argon-40
Nitrogen-14
Uranium-238
Potassium-40
Carbon-14
Isotope
Microwaves
Radar
Infrared
Light
5730
1.3 billion
4.5 billion
Half-life of Parent
(years)
COMMON ISOTOPE PAIRS CHART
TV and
FM Radio
Daughter
Shortwave
Radio
Parent
AM
Radio
Long Wavelength
Low Frequency
Low Energy
Ultraviolet
Light
X rays
up to 50 000
10 000 to 3 billion
1 million to 4.5 billion
Gamma-rays
Short Wavelength
High Frequency
High Energy
Effective Dating Range
(years)
THE ELECTROMAGNETIC SPECTRUM
© NASA
Visible
Pacific Plate
Cocos Plate
Juan
De Fuca
Plate
Nazca Plate
➞
Mi
d-
African
Plate
W
E
Transform boundary
S
N
➞
Indian-Australian
Plate
Eurasian Plate
Plate movement relative to the African Plate
Convergent boundary
Antarctic Plate
South
American
Plate
North American Plate
Divergent boundary
➞
ise
➞
lantic Ridge
➞
East Pacific R
TECTONIC PLATE BOUNDARIES MAP
➞
➞
Science 10
At
Data Page 7
Mountains
Volcanoes
➞
MAP OF THE PACIFIC COAST OF NORTH AMERICA
I
AL
EN
D
T
UL
FA
A
ALEUT
IAN
TR
E
NC
SK
A
AL
H
➞
YU
KO
N
N.W
.T.
FAU
LT
STIKINE
VOLCAN
IC
BELT
B.C
.
ALB
ER
TA
QUEEN CHARLOTTE
PACIFIC
PLATE
ANAHIM
VOLCAN
IC
BELT
EXPLORER RIDGE
EXPLORER PLATE
CA
ES
FU
EV
OL
CA
NO
JUAN DE FUCA
PLATE
AD
NORTH
AMERICAN
PLATE
SC
O
CA
G
GORDA
PLATE
OR
CAL
IF.
TAN
A
EG
ON
SAN
IDA
NEV
HO
ADA
G
R
MON
AND
MIIN
ID
DA
R
.
UTA
H
REA
WYO
E
G
WA
SH
➞
DE
AN E
JU IDG
R
Data Page 8
O CO
LO
NEW
E
MEXIC
ONA
W
S
RADO
T
AUL
SF
Transform fault
ARIZ
N
LEGEND
Convergent
Divergent
Plate movement
Mountains
Science 10
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