courserevision 456d133bfe556dec8543643bb3427400 (1)

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Course Revision Material
Questions Bank
1. One of the advantages of self-completion questionnaires over structured interviews is that:
A. They create interviewer effects
B. They have greater measurement validity
C. They are less prone to inter-coder variation
D. They are quicker and cheaper to administer
2. An open question is one that:
A. Allows respondents to answer in their own terms
B. Does not suggest or provide a limited range of responses
C. Can help to generate answers for closed questions
D. All of the above
3. In order to post-code answers to open questions, it is necessary to:
A. Categorize unstructured material and assign a code number to each category
B. Count the frequency with which each answer has been given
C. Identify the three most commonly cited responses and give them a code
D. Find out where each respondent lives and make a note of their postcode
4. Which of the following is a general rule of thumb for designing questions?
A. Never ask a closed question
B. Always use vignettes rather than open questions
C. Always bear in mind your research questions
D. Use ambiguous terms to put respondents at ease
5. Leading questions should also be avoided because:
A. They suggest ways of answering and so may bias the results
B. They create a mismatch between the question and its possible answers
C. They involve negative terms and unnecessary jargon
D. They ask about several different things at the same time
6. The value of piloting a questionnaire is that it helps you to:
A. Identify and amend any problems in the question wording, order and format
B. Test out your questions on some of the people who will be in the final sample
C. Find out what a trained pilot would think of the subject matter
D. All of the above
7. What is meant by the term "reactive effect"?
A. Research subjects may have a bad reaction to the drugs they are given
B. If people know they are being observed, they may change their behavior
C. Researchers sometimes react to their informants' behavior with horror
D. The categories on an observation schedule may not be mutually exclusive
8. The key advantage of structured observation over survey research is that:
A. It allows you to observe people's behavior directly
B. It does not rely on the researcher's ability to take notes
C. The researcher is immersed as a participant in the field they are studying
D. It does not impose any expectations of behavior on the respondents
9. Quantitative content analysis is an approach that aims to:
A. Reach an interpretive understanding of social action
B. Engage in a critical dialogue about ethical issues in research
C. Provide a feminist alternative to 'male-stream' quantitative methods
D. Objectively and systematically measure the content of a text
10. Which of the following is not an example of a 'unit of analysis'?
A. Students and Professors
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B. Words
C. Subjects and themes
D. Validity
11. The term "secondary analysis" refers to the technique of:
A. Analyzing existing data that has been collected by another person or organization
B. Conducting a study of seconds, minutes and other measures of time
C. Analyzing your own data in two different ways
D. Working part time on a project alongside other responsibilities
12. What is one of the advantages that official statistics have over structured interview data?
A. The researcher can conduct natural experiments in the field
B. They are completely objective and reliable
C. They allow the researcher to identify social trends over time
D. They have greater measurement validity
13. What is the "ecological fallacy"?
A. The error of making inferences about individual behavior from aggregate data
B. The assumption that secondary data analysis can be carried out at home
C. The mistake of observing people in their natural setting
D. The myth that it is easy to research environmentalist action groups
14. Why has the secondary analysis of official statistics been seen as an "unobtrusive" method?
A. It increases the risk of "reactive effects" from participants
B. The data were originally collected for the same purposes as those of the current researcher
C. The researcher is removed from (not a part of) the social settings that they are investigating
D. They do not intrude too much into the researcher's spare time
15. What is the difference between interval/ratio and ordinal variables?
A. Ordinal data can be rank ordered, but interval/ratio data cannot
B. Interval/ratio variables contain only two categories
C. Ordinal variables have a fixed zero point, whereas interval/ratio variables do not
D. The distance between categories is equal across the range of interval/ratio data
16. What is an outlier?
A. An extreme value at either end of a distribution
B. A type of variable that cannot be quantified
C. An average value of timeseries data
D. A score that is left out of the analysis because of missing data
17. What is the function of a contingency table, in the context of bivariate analysis?
A. It shows the results you would expect to find by chance
B. It summarizes the frequencies of two variables so that they can be compared
C. It lists the different levels of p value for tests of significance
D. It compares the results you might get from various statistical tests
18. If there were a perfect positive correlation between two interval/ratio variables, the Pearson's
r test would give a correlation coefficient of:
A. 0.328
B. +0.328
C. 1
D. +1
19. When might it be appropriate to conduct a multivariate analysis test?
A. If the relationship between two variables might be spurious
B. If there could be an intervening variable
C. If a third variable might be moderating the relationship
D. All of the above
20. What is meant by a "spurious" relationship between two variables?
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A. One that is so ridiculously illogical it cannot possibly be true
B. An apparent relationship that is so curious it demands further attention
C. One that produces a perfect negative correlation on a scatter diagram
D. A relationship that appears to be true because each variable is related to a third one
21. What is research? Which answer is NOT correct?
A. Research is defined as a careful consideration of study regarding a particular concern or a
problem using scientific methods.
B. Research is a creative and systematic work undertaken to increase the stock of knowledge
C. Research is a process to discover new knowledge.
D. Research is simply the process of collecting information on a specific subject.
E. All of the above correct
22. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Structure of a typical research paper includes anabstract summarizing the study; introduction
with background information, motivation and research objectives; literature review with
discussion of theoretical framework and other empirical works; methodology with data
description, model specification and econometric technique applied; discussion of empirical
results; conclusion and policy implications; and references to literature used.
B. Qualitative data is information about qualities; that is, information that can't actually be
measured. Some examples of qualitative data are opinions, feelings, and colors. Data can take
a form of words, texts, stories, or images.
C. Quantitative data is information about quantities; that is, information that can be measured and
written down with numbers. Some examples of quantitative data are distance, weight, volume,
amounts, or other numerical and statistical data.
D. All of the above is true
E. All of the above is false
23. Which one is NOT a core ingredient of the research?
A. Appendix
B. Introduction
C. Literature review
D. Research methods
E. Discussion of empirical results and conclusion
24. Research methodology section of a research paper includes the following element(s):
A. Description of data
B. Model specification
C. Econometric approach or technique
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
25. The following shows _____, where the theory is an outcome of the research process.
Observation
Pattern
Hypothesis
Theory
A. Inductive approach
B. Literature review
C. Research objective
D. Deductive approach
E. None of the above
26. The following shows_____, when the theory drives the research process in all its phases.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Theory
Deductive approach
Literature review
Research objective
Inductive approach
Hypothesis
Observation
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E. None of the above
27. Why research questions are important for research? Select the correct answer.
A. They help in searching the relevant literature.
B. They guide our decisions about research design, the type of data we will collect and from whom
we will collect, our data analysis, and our final write-up.
C. They make us focused and stop from going off in unnecessary directions.
D. They will our readers a clearer sense of what our research is about.
E. All of the above
28. What is the purpose of literature review?
A. It displays our competence and knowledge about a field of study.
B. It establishes whether the research we have planned has already been done by others.
C. It provides theories, concepts, evidence and arguments that exist in relation to our topic.
D. It identifies any remaining gaps or questions to be answered.
E. All of the above
29. _____ is data that is collected by a researcher from first-hand sources, using methods like
surveys, interviews, observations, or experiments.
A. Primary data
B. Sample data
C. Population data
D. Secondary data
E. Observation data
30. _____ is data gathered from studies, surveys, or experiments that have been collected and
run by other people or for other research.
A. Primary data
B. Sample data
C. Population data
D. Secondary data
E. Observation data
31. The structure of timeseries data (time series design) is a collection of observations for ___.
A. the multiple units at a single point in time [N=∞, T=1].
B. a single unit at different time periods [N=1, T=∞].
C. a single unit at a single point in time [N=1, T=1].
D. the multiple units at different time periods [N=∞, T=∞].
E. All of the above
32. The structure of cross-sectional data (cross-sectional design) is a collection of observations
for ___.
A. the multiple units at a single point in time [N=∞, T=1].
B. a single unit at different time periods [N=1, T=∞].
C. a single unit at a single point in time [N=1, T=1].
D. the multiple units at different time periods [N=∞, T=∞].
E. None of the above
33. The structure of panel data (panel or longitudinal design) is a collection of observations for
___.
A. the multiple units at a single point in time [N=∞, T=1].
B. a single unit at different time periods [N=1, T=∞].
C. a single unit at a single point in time [N=1, T=1].
D. the multiple units at different time periods [N=∞, T=∞].
E. All of the above
34. Which of the following is a form of plagiarism?
A. Copying text from someone else’s work into your writing and presenting them as your own
ideas.
B. Copying text from another piece of your own writing and pretending that it is new.
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C. Unintentionally failing to reference properly, so that some of the works used do not appear in the
bibliography.
D. Presenting a full sentence or paragraph without quotation marks or page references, as if it were
your own paraphrasing of the author’s ideas.
E. All of the above
35. ______ is a process of selecting a limited number of ‘units’ (such as individuals, companies,
or institutions) on which to carry out the research, instead of studying every unit in the
population.
A. Probability
B. Sample
C. Population
D. Units
E. Cases
36. Select the correct sentence from the following:
A. Population is the universe of units from which the sample is selected.
B. Sample is a subset of the population that is selected for investigation.
C. Deductive reasoning occurs when the researcher starts with a theory or hypothesis and
attempts to test it with empirical data, which may confirm or refute the theory.
D. Inductive reasoning involves the researcher beginning more tentatively with the data, and
searching for theoretical insights that emerge from it.
E. All of the above is correct
37. Look at Figure 1. Which of three figures show cross-sectional structure of data?
A. Figure A
B. Figure B
C. Figure C
D. Figure B and Figure C
E. Figure A and Figure C
38. Look at Figure 1. Which of three figures represents panel structure of data?
A. Figure A
B. Figure B
C. Figure C
D. Figure B and Figure C
E. Figure A and Figure C
39. Look at Figure 1. Which of three figures represents time series structure of data?
A. Figure A
B. Figure B
C. Figure C
D. Figure B and Figure C
E. Figure A and Figure C
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Figure 1: Structure of data
40. Which of the following is NOT an example of research questions:
A. Does Y happen under circumstances A and B? (Predicting an outcome)
B. Is Y affected by X or is Y a consequence of Y? (Explaining causes and consequences of a
phenomenon)
C. Does Y exhibit the benefits that it is claimed to have? (Evaluating a phenomenon)
D. What is Y like or what forms does Y assume? (Describing a phenomenon)
E. All above are examples of research questions.
41. Probing is when ___
A. Interviewer suggests possible answers to the respondent.
B. Interviewer repeats question or asks for more information for the purpose of clarification.
C. Interviewer applies probability sampling method.
D. Interviewer tries analyzing using panel data.
E. Interviewer uses email to collect data.
42. In interviewing, _____ is when using a group discussion to explore a topic.
A. Semi-structured interview
B. Focus group
C. Topic exploration
D. Literature review
E. Group interview
43. In this type of interview, the interviewer has a set of questions to cover but can vary their
sequence and improve additional questions.
A. Structured interview
B. Semi-structured interview
C. Unstructured interview
D. Group interview
E. Snowball sampling
44. The problem of a ___ occurs when people respond to a series of questions in a consistent
way but one that is irrelevant to their real opinions on the topic.
A. response set
B. cross-sectional data
C. missing data
D. relativity
E. responsibility
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45. In this type of interview, interviewer has a list of topics to cover but can vary the wording and
sequence of the questions.
A. Structured interview
B. Unstructured interview
C. Semi-structured interview
D. Literature review
E. A & D only
46. Which of the following can help to improve the response rate of a postal questionnaire?
(Please select all that apply)
A. Monetary incentives
B. Cover letter
C. Keeping the questionnaire short
D. Include stamped, addressed envelope
E. None of the above
47. In this type of interview, questions must be asked in a strict sequence and with identical
phrasing in each interview.
A. Self-completion questionnaire
B. Diary
C. Experiment
D. Observation
E. None of the above
48. Which of the following should be included in an introductory statement at the beginning of a
structured interview? (Please select all that apply)
A. A clear statement about who you are and which institution/organization you represent.
B. A description of what the research is about and what it will involve.
C. An explanation of how and why the participant has been selected.
D. An assurance of anonymity and confidentiality.
E. A & D only
49. Which of the following is a general rule about question order in structured interviews?
(Please select all that apply)
A. Earlier questions can affect the salience (importance) of later questions
B. General questions should be placed before specific ones
C. Earlier questions should be directly related to the topic
D. Embarrassing questions should be left until later
E. None of the above
50. Prompting occurs when ____.
A. Interviewer uses email to collect data.
B. Interviewer repeats question or asks for more information for the purpose of clarification.
C. Interviewer applies probability sampling method.
D. Interviewer suggests possible answers to the respondent.
E. Interviewer tries analyzing using panel data.
51. How self-completion questionnaires are different from structured interviews? So, in selfcompletion questionnaires:
A. There is no interviewer present.
B. They have easier-to-follow designs, e.g. more closed questions.
C. They do not ask questions about personal data.
D. They are often shorter and more concise.
E. They can be sent by post office or email.
52. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the self-completion questionnaire in comparison
to the structured interview? (Please select all that apply)
A. Cannot probe or prompt
B. Uncertainty over who completes it
C. Questionnaire can be read as a whole
D. Greater risk of missing data
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E. A & B only
53. It is appropriate to arrange the possible answers to a question horizontally rather than
vertically when using a ______ scale.
A. Metric
B. Scatter diagram
C. Likert
D. Ratio
E. Ordinal
54. Which of the following is an advantage of researcher-driven diaries over self-completion
questionnaires? (Please select all that apply)
A. More valid and reliable data
B. More information about sequencing of behaviour
C. Less likely to suffer from respondent attrition
D. Easier to collect data on sensitive issues
E. None of the above
55. Intra-interviewer variability happens when an interviewer is inconsistent in the way that he
asks questions.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
56. Inter-interviewer variability can occur when interviewers differ from one another in the way
that they ask questions.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
57. The accuracy and ease of data processing associated with structured interviews is a
reflection of a lack of intra- and inter-coder variability.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
58. A filter question is one that filters out the useful respondents from the less helpful ones.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
59. An advantage of the self-completion questionnaire over the structured interview is that it is
quicker and cheaper to administer.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
60. An advantage of the self-completion questionnaire over the structured interview is the
absence of interviewer effects and interviewer variability.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
61. Varying the font style and size, use of bold print, italics and so on can help to make the
presentation of a questionnaire clearer.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
62. It is a good idea to split questions so that the question and its answer options appear on
different pages.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
63. Postal questionnaires tend to have a very high response rate.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
64. In structured interview, questions must be asked in a same order and with exactly sample
words.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
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65. The way how an interviewer asks questions (tone and body language) has NO impact on the
response by interviewee.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
66. Which of the following is an advantage of using open questions in survey research?
A. They allow respondents to offer answers that the researcher might not have considered.
B. They are time consuming to administer and code.
C. They require greater effort from respondents.
D. There is a risk of interviewer variability in the way that answers are recorded.
67. Which of the following is an advantage of using closed questions in a social survey?
A. Lack of spontaneity and variation between respondents’ answers.
B. Easy for respondents to complete.
C. Difficult to make forced choice answers exhaustive.
D. Variation in respondents’ interpretations of answer options.
68. When asked closed questions, the respondent can answer however they wish; and, when
asked open questions, the respondent is given a list of alternative answers from which to
choose. True or false?
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
69. Personal factual questions are those that ask a respondent about particularly embarrassing
issues.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
70. Which of the following might be included in a questionnaire survey?
A. Questions about attitudes and opinions
B. Questions about beliefs and values
C. Questions about normative standards
D. Questions about knowledge
E. All of the above
71. A _______ question is one that asks about two different things in one question.
A. double-barrelled
B. research
C. leading
D. vignette
E. structured
72. Secondary analysis means analysing your own data twice: once quantitatively and then
again qualitatively.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
73. The reliability of official statistics may be compromised (weakened) by the fact that the data
are affected by the social processes involved in their collection.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
74. One advantage of official statistics is that the data will not be affected by the reactivity effect.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
75. Which of the following is an advantage of secondary data analysis?
A. Absence of key variables
B. Lack of familiarity with data
C. The risk of losing one’s objectivity
D. No control of data quality
E. None of the above
76. A _______ question is one that directs the respondent towards answering in a particular way.
A. vignette
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B. leading
C. double-barrelled
D. research
E. qualitative
77. The ______ fallacy is the error of assuming that we can make inferences about individuals
from the findings of aggregate data.
A. ecological
B. environmental
C. individual
D. aggregate
E. statistical
78. Frequency tables are an example of _____ analysis.
A. multivariate
B. univariate
C. bivariate
D. unique
E. correlation
79. Which of the following is an advantage of doing secondary data analysis?
A. Opportunity for longitudinal (panel) analysis
B. Re-analysis may offer new interpretations
C. Saves money and time
D. Opportunity for sub-group analysis
E. All of the above
80. Interval/ratio is data in which distances between categories are identical across the range of
categories; and Dichotomous data is the one that can be fitted into one of only two variables,
like gender.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
81. Which of the following is an ‘unobtrusive’ method or source of data?
A. Archive materials
B. Simple observation
C. Found data or physical traces
D. Retrieved data
E. All of the above
82. Nominal data is one in which categories can be rank ordered; and, Ordinal data is one in
which categories cannot be rank ordered.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
83. ______ data arise when respondents fail to reply to an item in a questionnaire.
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Traditional
D. Response
E. Missing
84. A _____ question is one that presents respondents with a scenario and then asks them how
they would respond to such circumstances.
A. leading
B. quantitative
C. double-barrelled
D. research
E. vignette
85. Which of the following is FALSE?
A. Mean is a sum of all values divided by number of values.
B. Median is a mid-point in a distribution.
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C. Mode is the difference between Mean and Median.
D. All of the above is TRUE.
86. Range is the difference between minimum and maximum value in a distribution; and,
Standard deviation is the average amount of variation around the mean.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
87. ______ analysis involves the analysis of two variables at a time in order to establish whether,
and how, they might be related.
A. Univariate
B. Bivariate
C. Multivariate
D. Multifunctional
E. Bilingual
88. Correlation is a bivariate analysis that measures the strength of association between two
variables and the direction of the relationship.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
89. A key advantage of closed questions in survey research is that it is easy to code the
answers.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
90. A general rule of thumb to use when designing a questionnaire or structured interview is to
keep the questions relevant to your ______ questions.
A. research
B. leading
C. structured
D. semi-structured
E. unstructured
For essays:
The structure of a typical research paper is as follows:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Abstract: Brief summary of the study
Introduction: Background information, motivation, research questions/objectives.
Literature Review: Revision of existing theories and empirical works.
Research Methodology: Data (primary or secondary), model, research technique.
Discussion of Results: Explanation of findings.
Conclusion and Policy Implications: Summarizing the paper and providing solutions.
References: List of works that were cited.
Appendix (if any): Additional information
What is the purpose/importance of each of these section? Provide examples.
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