GCE MARKING SCHEME
GEOGRAPHY
AS/Advanced
SUMMER 2010
INTRODUCTION
The marking schemes which follow were those used by WJEC for the Summer 2010
examination in GCE GEOGRAPHY. They were finalised after detailed discussion at
examiners' conferences by all the examiners involved in the assessment. The conferences
were held shortly after the papers were taken so that reference could be made to the full
range of candidates' responses, with photocopied scripts forming the basis of discussion.
The aim of the conferences was to ensure that the marking schemes were interpreted and
applied in the same way by all examiners.
It is hoped that this information will be of assistance to centres but it is recognised at the
same time that, without the benefit of participation in the examiners' conferences, teachers
may have different views on certain matters of detail or interpretation.
WJEC regrets that it cannot enter into any discussion or correspondence about these
marking schemes.
GEOGRAPHY
The Assessment of Quality of Written Communication at AS
Opportunities for assessment of quality of written communication are found within each of
the Assessment Objectives and thus within all questions that demand continuous prose that
are marked out of ten.
For each of the ten mark questions in G1 and G2, the following criteria for quality of written
communication should be applied to the levels of assessment.
Mark Band Criteria for the Assessment of Quality of Written Communication for 10
mark questions at AS.
•
•
Level 1
•
•
Level 2
•
•
•
Level 3
•
•
Information is randomly organised and lacks clarity.
Statements are brief and bald and the language is simplistic with limited
use of geographical vocabulary.
Spelling, punctuation and grammar are weak with errors that may be
intrusive.
Information is relatively clear but points and arguments are not always
direct or logically developed.
The use of geographical vocabulary is variable and prose style may lack
precision or accuracy.
There are some errors of spelling, punctuation and grammar that may
make the meaning unclear.
Information is organised clearly and coherently and arguments are
logically developed and tightly structured.
Candidate writes in continuous prose using relevant and accurate
geographical vocabulary.
There are relatively few errors of spelling, punctuation and grammar.
1
Assessment Objectives Grid for G1
Knowledge
and
Understanding
Application
Skills
Total
Key
Question
(a)
0
2
3
5
1.2
(b)
8
2
10
1.3
(c)
7
3
10
1.4
15
7
3
25
(a)
0
2
3
5
2.2
(b)
8
2
10
2.2
(c)
7
3
10
2.3
15
7
3
25
(a)
1
1
5
7
(b)
2
1
5
8
(c)
3
2
5
10
6
4
15
25
36
18
21
(48%)
(24%)
(28%)
Question 1
Question 2
Question 3
2
GCE GEOGRAPHY - G1
CHANGING PHYSICAL ENVIRONMENTS
Q.1.
(a)
Describe the changes in greenhouse gas emissions shown in Figure 1.
(1.2) [5]
There are a number of patterns that can be identified from the graph/table.
• total increase in GHG ouputs
• energy rises fastest most greatest variability (1)
• agriculture rises after initial decrease
• slow increase in industrial processes
• decline in waste
Allow 1 mark for for identification of each change with extra mark for use of
data from resource.
(b)
Outline two changes to the physical environment that provide evidence
for climate change.
(1.3) [10]
Question is looking for changes to the physical environment so allow credit for
comment that may address the atmosphere, hydrosphere and biosphere. Do
not allow credit that refers to impacts on humans or human activity. The
command looks for description of change but allow explanation of how
climate change leads to the identified modification.
Expect reference to the following:
• modification of atmosphere
• changing frequency of extreme climatic events
• changing distribution of climate belts
• sea level variations
• salinity variations in oceans
• species distribution
• glacier retreat and advances and alterations of the ice caps
• permafrost changes
• changing hydrological character of rivers
Level 3
8-10 marks
Detailed and developed knowledge of changes to physical
environment.
Good development of examples.
Level 2
4-7 marks
Some knowledge of changes to physical environment.
Examples may be evident and enhance knowledge.
Max. If no examples given.
Level 1
0-3marks
Superficial knowledge of changes to physical environment.
Simplistic use of examples.
3
(c)
Examine how the impacts of climate change differ between regions.
(6.4) [10]
Many candidates will approach this question with a comparison of the impacts
of climate change on rich and poor countries. Comment may be made on the
differences in the scale and type of impact with reference made to the
variations in economic, demographic and social impact. This could be done
by a comparison of two countries or by a comparison of LEDC and MEDC.
The explanation in this case will usually refer to the different financial
capabilities of different regions to prepare for, and mitigate against, the
impacts of climate change.
Other candidates may take a different basis for comparison such as a coastal
and inland regions, upland and lowland regions, populated or unpopulated
regions, different climatic regions etc. These approaches are valid in the
context of the question as long as they identify valid differences in the impacts
and provide a rational explanation that links effectively to the variation of
impacts.
Accept answers that approach the question from a physical viewpoint such as
variations in rainfall, examination of impacts on biomes.
Level 3
8-10 marks
Detailed and developed knowledge of regional variations in
the impacts of climate change.
Developed and linked understanding of the nature of
variation in the impacts of climate change.
Good development of examples.
Level 2
4-7 marks
Some knowledge of regional variations in the impacts of
climate change.
Some understanding of nature of variation in impacts of
climate change.
Examples are evident and enhance the explanation.
Max. If only one region examined or if straight description.
Level 1
0-3marks
Superficial knowledge of regional variations in the impacts
of climate change. Superficial understanding of how the
impacts of climate change vary.
Little use of examples.
4
Q.2
(a)
Describe the local impacts of earthquake activity shown in Figure 2.
(2.2) [5]
Candidates may make reference to a variety of impacts that have been felt in
L’Aquila and Onna. The first picture may bring comments associated with the
loss of cultural heritage and may also refer to economic loss that may ensue
due to loss of tourism. The second picture may examine economic impacts on
local people as cars have been damaged and housing has been destroyed.
There is also evidence of disruption of transport systems. It is also possible to
examine impacts on people in the form of injury and mortality. The question is
looking for local impacts and is focused on the photographs. Allow 1 mark for
a valid impact with a further mark for evidence from the photographs.
Max 3 if no reference to photographs, or a simplistic list.
(b)
Discuss some of the social impacts that are the result of tectonic
activity.
(2.2) [10]
The answer to this question requires candidates to display knowledge and
understanding of the social impacts of tectonic activity. There will need to be
reference to at least two impacts for Level 3 and they can be related to
earthquakes and/or volcanic activity. The scale used can be local, regional or
global or can be a combination of these related to a particular event. It is
expected that the impacts dealt with will by candidates will mainly be negative
but be prepared to credit comment that is positive in nature such as increased
social cohesion. There should be reference to exemplar material and many
answers will be formulated using case study materials.
The question has a focus on social impacts rather than economic,
demographic and environmental but answers may introduce the social
element using these as a starting point. As social is a rather broad category
there will need to be some flexibility in the marking of answers.
Common approaches may examine, as social issues impacts on:
health
water supplies
power supplies
housing
transport
sanitation
social cohesion
Family (psychological/stress)
Be prepared to credit other valid social impacts. Allow breadth or depth of
approach for full marks.
Level 3
8-10 marks
Detailed and developed understanding of social impacts
produced by tectonic activity.
Good development of examples.
Level 2
4-7 marks
Some understanding of social impacts produced by tectonic
activity.
Examples are evident and enhance the explanation.
Lacks balance. Max. If no examples or lacks balance.
Level 1
0-3marks
Superficial understanding of social impacts produced by
tectonic activity.
Little use of examples.
5
(c)
Outline two different stategies used to manage tectonic hazards.
(2.3) [10]
There will be a great variety of strategies used depending on the hazard(s)
selected and the examples that have been studied. Credit strategies that
address prediction, prevention, preparation, adaptation and land use
planning. The focus of the question is outline so expect to see answers that
describe the identified strategy and how it manages the hazard. The
management may refer to how the strategy allows people to avoid the hazard,
to absorb the impacts the impacts of the hazard or to alleviate the impacts of
the hazard after it has occured.
Popular strategies that may be used are:
Earthquakes: building engineering, earthquake preparedness, household
seismic safety, seismic retrofit, education for citizens, emergency service
training, evacuation for tsunamis, land use plans, aid and earthquake
prediction.
Volcanoes: early warning systems, evacuation, emergency plans, education
for citizens, emergency service training, building engineering, land use plans
and aid.
Accept approaches that have a case study structure.
Level 3
8-10 marks
Knowledge of strategies and mitigation are detailed and
developed.
Good use of examples.
Level 2
4-7 marks
Some depth to knowledge of strategies and mitigation.
Examples are evident.
Level 1
0-3marks
Superficial knowledge of strategies and mitigation.
Little use of examples.
6
Q.3
(a)
Use information from Figure 3 to suggest how effective the flood
prevention scheme may be.
[7]
The resource provides a number of comments that can be used to come to a
view on the effectiveness of the scheme. Effectiveness could refer to costs,
time for completion, benefits of the scheme.
Positives that result from the scheme can be seen as economic – less money
lost as risk of flooding reduced, social – peace of mind to residents and
businesses, recreation in new wetland and physical – protects against the 1 in
a 100 year flood, increases size of culvert, less risk of blockage, cope with
heavy rainfall, new area for wildlife.
There may also be negative comments that look at the cost of the scheme
and the amount of time it took to build.
6-7 marks
Level 2
3-5 marks
Level 1
0-2marks
(b)
Shows clear and detailed identification and description of
aspects of the scheme. Developed comments on the
effectiveness.
Extensive use of data.
Shows some ability to identify and describe aspects of the
scheme.
Uses some information from resource.
Limited comments on effectiveness. Max for pure
descriptions of scheme
Limited ability to identify and describe positives and
negatives of scheme.
Outline how you could collect information on people’s views about the
Afon Adda flood prevention scheme.
[8]
The majority of candidates will refer to the collection of information via the use
of a questionnaire. In these circumstances there may be reference to the
structure of the questionnaire in the form of content and type of question.
Candidates may also refer to the type of sample with the idea of a structured
sample as the ideal. The number of people surveyed may be commented on
as will the time, location and format of delivery (street based, house based,
personal or postal etc). There may be some candidates who examine
extended interviews of key selected members of the population to gain views
and comment on what questions should be asked to whom. Some candidates
may look for other sources of information such as local government or opinion
firms’ websites, blogs, newspapers etc. Be prepared to accept valid methods
as long as they contain a description of the method and an explanation of
how it can be used to gain people’s views.
Level 3
6-8 marks
Good knowledge of data collection methods.
Developed explanation.
Level 2
3-5 marks
Some knowledge of data collection methods
Some explanation.
Level 1
0-2 marks
Limited knowledge of data collection methods
Superficial explanation.
7
(c)
Describe and assess one or more ways used to represent data for an
investigation into a changing physical environment that you have
completed.
[10]
You should state clearly the question you have investigated.
Expect a great variety of responses according to the investigation that has
taken place. Many will describe tabulation, different graphs that have been
produced such as pie, bar, line scatter etc. Other answers may refer to maps
that have been drawn to show information such as located symbols, flow line,
choropleth, isoline etc. Some candidates may look at the data in the form of
visual representation as annotated photographs, sketches or video materials.
The actual valid method is less important than the description and evaluation
of the method – which again will take a variety of formats according to the
investigation completed.
(Markers must be flexible in their application of the mark scheme)
Level 3
8-10 marks
Developed description of one or more ways used in the
investigation.
Clear comment on why used in the investigation.
Good assessment of the methods of representation.
Level 2
4-7 marks
Some description of one or more ways used in the
investigation.
Some comment on why used in the investigation.
Some assessment of the methods of representation.
Lacks balance.
Level 1
0-3marks
Superficial description of data representation in the
investigation.
Superficial comment on why used in the investigation.
Little or superficial assessment of the methods of
representation.
8
Assessment Objectives Grid for G2
Knowledge
and
Understanding
Application
Skills
Total
Key
Question
(a)
0
2
3
5
1.2
(b)
8
2
10
1.6
(c)
7
3
10
1.3
15
7
3
25
(a)
0
2
3
5
2.5
(b)
8
2
10
2.2
(c)
7
3
10
2.4
15
7
3
25
(a)
1
1
5
7
(b)
2
1
5
8
(c)
3
2
5
10
6
4
15
25
36
18
21
75
(48%)
(24%)
(28%)
(100%)
Question 1
Question 2
Question 3
9
GEOGRAPHY - G2
CHANGING HUMAN ENVIRONMENTS
Q.1
(a)
Use information from Figure 1 to describe the global pattern of total
fertility rates.
(1.2) [5]
There are a variety of points which could be made. Some suggestions appear
below, but are not exhaustive. Award marks for equally valid points.
•
•
•
•
•
•
The lowest rates of approximately 1 are in Eastern Europe.
Russia has very low rates approaching 1.
Western and Northern Europe have rates around 2.
Central America and NW South America have rates of 3 to 4 as do a
couple of countries in North Africa and also India.
Africa and the Middle East have the highest rates of 5, 6 and 7.
Generally it is the poorest countries which have the highest rate.
No reasons or a critique of the data are required and no credit should be
awarded for such.
Up to 5 marks for a logical pattern.
Max 4 if continent / country names and/or orientation numerical
exemplifications are not specific.
(b)
Outline policies to tackle the demographic challenge of high birth rates.
(1.6) [10]
e.g. Kenya (Birth Rate 40/1000), Tanzania (38/1000). [2008]
Policies to reduce the birth rates along with the progressive increase in health
and educational initiatives. The most famous anti-natal policy is that of China
which since 1979 has had the one child policy. Other countries also have birth
reduction policies (Kenya, India). Answers do not have to apply to the whole
country.
A suggested case study example:
In Kerala (SW India) fertility has dropped from 7 to 3.
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
Sterilisation of women.
Health care.
Contraceptive advice.
Education on family planning.
High (90%) literacy rate amongst women.
Education gives women confidence to take control of their own lives.
Economic changes bring stability to society such as a minimum wage,
owning property, the establishment of trade unions to argue for workers’
rights.
General statements about providing education, food and jobs for a growing
population need to be connected with a specific policy to tackle the children
issue in order to be highly relevant.
Alternative ideas to birth rate policies such as governments encouraging
TNCs to establish to provide work for the expanding labour force deserve
credit.
10
(c)
Level 3:
8-10 marks
Developed knowledge and detailed understanding of
specific policies to manage birth rates.
Good development of examples.
Level 2:
4-7 marks
Some knowledge and understanding of policies to manage
birth rates with perhaps only one policy adequately
outlined.
Examples are evident and enhance the outline.
Max if answer dominated by outcomes.
Level 1:
0-3 marks
Superficial knowledge and understanding of policies to
manage birth rates.
Little use of examples.
Contrast the characteristics of two different types of migration.
(1.3) [10]
•
•
•
•
Voluntary versus forced.
Permanent versus temporary.
Reasons: economic v social v environmental v political.
Numbers involved v distance.
Lots of contrasting types of migration exist. Accept approaches that contrast
two identified migrations.
A minimum of two migrations is necessary for a contrast to be valid.
Level 3
8-10 marks
Developed knowledge and detailed understanding of two
contrasting migrations.
Good development of examples
Level 2:
4-7 marks
Some knowledge and understanding of two contrasting
migrations. The migrations could be inappropriate as
contrasting ones.
Examples are evident and enhance the contrast.
Max level for two distinct accounts without explicit contrast.
Level 1:
0-3 marks
Superficial knowledge and understanding of contrasting
migrations.
Little use of examples.
11
Q.2
(a)
Use Figure 2 to describe the variety of land uses and their locations.
(2.5) [5]
There are many possibilities. Suggestions could include:
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
A commuter dormitory village to the NW.
A reservoir in the NW.
A motorway junction, centre West.
Main road / motorway / one from E to W the other from SE to NW.
Agricultural land to the north of the E-W motorway
Trees at the motorway intersection.
A golf course SE of the motorway intersection.
Trees following a river snaking from NE to SW.
Dominated by suburban housing estates either side of the SE–NW
motorway.
Industrial estate/shopping centre between the river and the E-W motorway
to the E.
Flat regular agricultural fields in SE corner.
Up to 5 marks for distinguishing different land uses with their locations.
Max 3 if no use of orientation and/or scale.
Max 4 if vague use of orientation and/or scale.
Allow reference to land uses, e.g. motorway for relative location.
(b)
Explain why the rural-urban fringe is changing.
(2.2) [10]
Pull factors to the fringe:
Cheaper land, so bigger houses are affordable (NOT CHEAPER HOUSES).
Advancements in physical communications, i.e. motorway construction and
outer ring roads making the fringe more accessible.
The increase in personal mobility, i.e. more cars.
Tele-communications, mobiles, fax and broadband allow businesses to locate
in more remote locations so more jobs are available in the fringe.
Tele-communications in the fringe also allows people to work effectively from
home, hence encouraging more people to move into the fringe.
More disposable income has enabled people to purchase relatively expensive
rural housing.
The perception of a low crime rate, low levels of noise and other atmospheric
and land and water pollution.
The perception of schools which are full of bright, obedient children.
The perception of road traffic which is less frequent.
Often such perceptions, although pull factors, turn out to be just that…
perceptions!
Push factors from urban areas:
Noisy, smelly, polluted, derelict areas, particularly in some inner city locations.
Fear of crime and vandalism.
Graffiti prone areas where drugs and prostitution may upset the local
community.
An influx of a different cultural group into the neighbourhood.
The closure of businesses, hence the loss of a job, so a new start is required.
12
Other related reasons:
Businesses (retail, warehouse/distribution, cinemas, and golf courses) now
occupy fringe positions; thus fringe residents no longer have to visit the town
centre for such services, hence encouraging a snowball effect.
Park and ride car parks are established in the fringe encouraging more fringe
occupation.
Answers would usefully incorporate one or more specific case studies of
fringe development as exemplification. Accept reference to Green Belt if
linked to explanation of change.
The question is why, the process of change, and not how, a description of
change. Descriptions only can reach Level 2.
Level 3:
8-10 marks
Developed knowledge and detailed understanding of the
factors that may lead to why the rural-urban fringe is
changing.
Good development of example(s).
Level 2:
4-7 marks
Some knowledge and understanding of the factors that may
lead to why the rural-urban fringe is changing. Pure
description of changes.
Example(s) may be evident and enhance the outline.
Level 1:
0-3 marks
Superficial knowledge and understanding of the factors that
may lead to why the rural-urban fringe is changing.
Little or no use of example(s).
13
(c)
Explain why it is important to maintain a vibrant and exciting retailing
experience within the CBD.
(2.4) [10]
Answers should show an understanding of the necessity of maintaining /
enhancing a vibrant retailing experience in the face of competition from other
retail locations away from the CBD and from the Internet.
Reasons could include:
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
reduction of crime
economic welfare of the whole city
competition from other cities / centres
maintaining tourism attractions
enhancement of shopping experience
linking retail to other services
environmental improvement
attracting employment
encouraging the twenty-four hour city
Any combination of the above ideas for at least one CBD.
Level 3:
8-10 marks
Developed knowledge and detailed understanding of why it
is important for a CBD to maintain its attraction to
shoppers.
Good development of examples.
Level 2:
4-7 marks
Some knowledge and understanding of why it is important
for a CBD to maintain its attraction to shoppers.
Examples are evident and enhance the explanation of
CBD change.
May be dominated by how the CBD has changed.
Level 1:
0-3 marks
Superficial knowledge and understanding of CBD change.
14
Q.3
Figure 3 shows secondary data collected as part of an investigation into rural
change.
(a)
Use Figure 3 to describe the projected changes in rural population in
the UK by 2028.
[7]
The difference between 2003 and 2028 in the children, adult and old categories for
both males and females.
Illustrations of points should be made with figures taken from the data:
•
Demographically the population is becoming older with a predominance of old
females: approximately 3.8% of the population at age 60-64.
•
There is a dent in the pyramid in the 20-29 age range. This dent appears to be
exacerbated by 2028. There are predicted to be only approximately 2.1% females
and 2.4% males by 2028.
•
Below 60 there will be a decrease in population in every age group and above 60
there will be an increase.
•
The 35-39 age groups for both genders appear to have the largest decrease of
approximately 0.8% for both males and females.
•
The percentage of 0-4 year olds is low and will shrink further.
Any other valid points.
Demographically the population will age, become older-female dominated with a
dearth of 20 - 29 year olds, both male and female, but with slightly more males.
Level 3:
6-7 Marks
Developed description of the predicted population changes
incorporating a wide range of specific population data.
Level 2:
3-5 marks
Some description of the predicted population changes.
Some quantification.
Level 1:
0-2 marks
Superficial description with vague references to the population
pyramids.
Max if change is not addressed.
15
(b)
Outline and justify two additional pieces of information or data needed
for an investigation into rural change.
[8]
Suggestions:
•
•
•
•
•
Land use survey of the rural environment to ascertain the service
provision and house style, house type and newer land uses.
Environmental quality survey to ascertain the state of the local
environment as this can influence the social aspects of the area regarding
dereliction and graffiti for example.
Photographs to give a visual impression of the environment.
Structured interviews with individuals such as the manager of the post
office, the local church leader.
Questionnaire to gain information on e.g. shopping patterns.
Secondary research information is also valid.
•
•
•
•
•
Census data to quantify change in population totals.
Social and economic statistics can also be gleaned from the census.
Records from the local council on council tax charges and second homes
in the area.
Maps and aerial photographs from, for example, multimap.com and
Google Earth to locate the study.
Local transport timetables for accessibility information.
Each suggestion should be justified in the context of the investigation on rural
change.
Level 3:
7-8 marks
Level 2:
4-6 marks
Level 1:
0-3 marks
Developed knowledge of two pieces of additional
information or date.
Detailed and developed understanding of the justification for
the additional pieces of information or data.
Some knowledge of the additional information or data.
Some understanding of the justification for the additional
information or data.
Superficial knowledge of additional information and
understanding of the justification for the additional
information or data.
16
(c)
Summarise how you planned your own investigation into a changing
human environment.
[10]
Marking will depend on the quality of response and must be adjusted to suit
individual studies presented.
•
An expectation would be a discussion of the need to devise a question, a
hypothesis (positive or negative) or investigate an issue.
•
Discussion of where, when and how might include the construction of
recording sheets and a discussion on sampling. The discussion should be
about planning, not describing what actually happened.
•
A risk assessment may involve identifying specific risks, judging the
outcome if the risk factor actually materialised and assessing the
probability of the risk factor occurring.
•
A research investigation would not require the elements involved in
primary fieldwork collection, but a variety of pre-planning ideas would be
expected. These would include discussion of the initial aim, hypothesis
and objectives and a variety of specific secondary data resources would
have to be thought through before commencement of the study.
Level 3:
8-10 Marks
Developed knowledge and detailed and developed
understanding of the investigation planning process.
Good development using the context of the investigation.
Level 2:
4-7 marks
Some knowledge of the investigation planning process
Some development using the context of the investigation.
Level 1:
0-3 marks
Superficial knowledge of the investigation planning process.
Little use of the investigation.
Max if narrative account of the enquiry.
17
Assessment Objectives Grid for G3
Question
G3 A
G3 A
G3B (a)
G3B (b)
AO1
Knowledge &
Understanding
13
(extend
geographical
ideas, concepts
& processes)
13
(extend
geographical
ideas, concepts
& processes)
3
6
(geographical
concepts)
35
46%
AO2
Application
7
(evaluations &
connections
between
aspects of
Geography)
7
(evaluations &
connections
between
aspects of
Geography)
3
3
(apply
understanding
and evaluation
of techniques)
20
27%
18
AO3
Skills
Total
5
(reach
conclusions &
communicate
findings)
25
5
(reach
conclusions &
communicate
findings)
25
4
6
(use a range of
skills &
techniques)
10
15
20
27%
75
(100%)
Levels Descriptors for G3A
Summary
Descriptor
Very good
Marks
out of 25
Good
16 – 20
Average
11 - 15
Marginal
6 - 10
Weak
21-25
1-5
Criteria
•
A response that demonstrates a high order of conceptual understanding
and an appreciation of the holistic nature of geography within the context
of the question.
• Critical analysis, synthesis and assessment of the connections between
the different elements of the subject.
• Wide-ranging, thorough and accurate knowledge.
• Detailed and possibly original exemplification.
• Well-directed and well-annotated sketch maps/diagrams.
• A well-structured, coherent and logical response.
• Complex ideas expressed clearly with few, if any, errors in grammar,
punctuation and spelling.
• A confident grasp of relevant concepts and principles.
• Sound analysis, synthesis and assessment of some of the connections
between the different elements of the subject.
• Good factual knowledge and understanding.
• Appropriate exemplification.
• Appropriate, basically accurate annotated sketch maps/diagrams.
• The response is clear, coherent and appropriately structured.
• The quality of English is consistently sound
At the lower end
• Arguments may not be fully developed
• Some lack of balance
• Minor flaws in logical ordering or linguistic expression
• Diagrams not well-integrated
• A reasonable grasp of relevant concepts and principles.
• Arguments are partial with points limited in range, depth and development
with only limited linkage.
• A secure, straightforward base of knowledge and understanding.
• Examples are superficial and may be variable.
• Limited use of basic diagrams.
• There may be some loss in coherence.
• Language is correct but simplistic.
At the lower end
• An unfocused or potentially relevant response
• Weaknesses in structure and expression
• Some grasp of concepts and principles is evident, but there may be
inaccuracies and misconceptions.
• Arguments are weakly presented and most points are generalised or of
partial relevance to the question with little or no linkage.
• Some knowledge and understanding, but it is limited in scope.
• There is limited use of examples.
• Sketch maps/diagrams contain inaccuracies.
• The response lacks fluency.
• Expression may be poor and there are basic errors in the spelling of
geographical terms.
At the lower end
• Understanding of the question is weak
•
•
•
•
•
•
There is minimal understanding of subject material.
Organisation of material is poor and although occasional relevant points
are made much is irrelevant.
The response demonstrates poor knowledge and understanding and
contains errors.
Little use of examples or if evident they are irrelevant to the question.
The response may be incomplete or difficult to follow.
The answer is poorly written and contains basic errors in the spelling of
geographical terms.
19
GEOGRAPHY G3
CONTEMPORARY THEMES AND RESEARCH IN GEOGRAPHY
SECTION A
CONTEMPORARY THEMES
Theme 1 - Extreme Environments
Q.1
Examine pressures on desert environments caused by human activity.
(1.2) [25]
Guidance:
Candidates:
(i)
should show knowledge and understanding of how human activity causes
pressures on desert environments; better candidates may discuss the positive
as well as the negative outcomes of human activity.
Candidates may examine the threats posed by population growth, agriculture,
tourism and mineral exploitation. They may refer to the negative impacts on a variety
of elements of the desert environment. Comment could be made on the role of
agriculture in desertification at a continental scale, the pollution of soils and
ecosystems by mineral exploitation such as that in Australia or the damage caused
by off-roading in Dubai. Do not expect all these for full marks. Expect examples to
be well integrated in the answer.
Q.2
Assess the effectiveness of strategies used to manage human activity in
tundra environments.
(1.6) [25]
Guidance:
Candidates:
(i)
should show knowledge of human activity in tundra environments;
(ii)
should show understanding of strategies used to manage human activity in
tundra environments; better candidates will assess the effectiveness of the
strategies discussed throughout, whereas the average candidate may only
assess the strategies in passing or perhaps briefly in their conclusion.
In relation to tundra environments, candidates may examine the threats posed by
airborne pollution, global warming, tourism and mineral exploitation. Do not expect
reference to all these for full marks. They may refer to the negative impacts on a
variety of elements of the tundra environment. When discussing the strategies used
to manage human activity candidates may present a range from conserving the
tundra environment, alleviating the impacts of human activity, controlling the use of
tundra environments and monitoring the impacts of human activity. Candidates
should display a grasp of a number of these, but do not expect all to be considered
as candidates may choose to use examples that enable only a limited number of
strategies to be discussed. The assessment could come in the form of comparisons
in place elsewhere to manage human impact or on the basis of the extent to which
they reduce the impact of different forms of human activity.
20
Theme 2 - Landforms and their Management
Glacial Environments
Q.3
Examine the role of depositional processes in the development of glacial
landforms.
(1.3) [25]
Guidance:
The focus of the essay is the relationship between process and landform. Some
candidates may look at deposition alone whilst others may look at the relative
influence of deposition compared to erosion.
Either approach is acceptable and open to maximum credit, but candidates:
(i)
should show a knowledge of the processes of deposition operating in a glacial
environment: better candidates will show a more detailed knowledge of a
wider range of processes;
(ii)
should show an understanding of the link between depositional processes
and landforms; better candidates will examine the role of deposition in the
production of landforms throughout, whereas the average candidate may only
examine its role in passing or perhaps in their conclusion.
Candidates should examine the production of at least two depositional landforms that
are the result of predominantly glacial or fluvioglacial processes. Candidates could
examine the production of landforms that are the result of predominantly glacial
processes (lodgement till, drumlins, erratics, moraines) or landforms that may be the
result of fluvioglacial deposition (eskers, kames, kame terraces, outwash plains).
Candidates who focus on a set of landforms that are essentially erosional can only
reach the top of good as long as the reference to deposition as an influence on their
development is central to the discussion.
21
Q.4
Assess the effectiveness of strategies used to manage the impacts of glacial
processes and landforms on human activity.
or
Assess the effectiveness of strategies used to manage the impact of human
activities on glacial environments.
(1.6) [25]
Guidance:
Candidates:
(i)
should show knowledge and understanding of the problems arising from the
impact of glacial processes and landforms on human activity or from the impact
of human activities on glacial environments;
(ii)
should show knowledge and understanding of the strategies put in place to
manage these impacts;
(iii)
should show an assessment of the effectiveness of the above strategies; better
candidates should make an assessment of the effectiveness of the strategies
discussed throughout, whereas the average candidate may only assess the
strategies in passing or perhaps briefly in their conclusion.
Candidates need to demonstrate their knowledge and understanding of the problems
arising from the impacts of glacial processes and landforms on human activity or the
impact of human activity on glacial environments. There may be a discussion not only of
the nature, but also of the seriousness of the impacts.
In order to assess the effectiveness of strategies adopted to deal with the impacts,
candidates will need to briefly describe the strategies. Strategies will vary depending on
the glacial environment chosen. The assessment should involve an evaluation of both the
positive and negative aspects of the strategies adopted in relation to the aims of the
strategies implemented.
Coastal Environments
Q.5
Examine the role of depositional processes in the development of coastal
landforms
(1.3) [25]
Guidance:
The focus of the essay is the relationship between process and landform. Some
candidates may look at deposition alone whilst others may look at the relative influence
of deposition compared to erosion.
Either approach is acceptable and open to maximum credit, but candidates:
(i)
should show a knowledge of the processes of deposition operating in a coastal
environment: better candidates will show a more detailed knowledge of a wider
range of processes;
(ii)
should show an understanding of the link between depositional processes and
landforms: better candidates will examine the role of deposition in the production
of landforms throughout, whereas the average candidate may only examine its
role in passing or perhaps in their conclusion.
Candidates could examine the production of at least two landforms that are the result of
coastal processes Candidates could examine the production of landforms that are the
result of predominantly marine processes (beaches, spits, barrier beaches, tombolos,
cuspate forelands, sand dunes) or marine and fluvial processes (saltmarshes, deltas) or
examine the relative importance of sea level changes to deposition (estuaries).
Candidates who focus on a set of landforms that are essentially erosional can only reach
the top of good as long as the reference to deposition as an influence on their
development is central to the discussion.
22
Q.6
Assess the effectiveness of strategies used to manage the impacts of coastal
processes and landforms on human activity.
or
Assess the effectiveness of strategies used to manage the impact of human
activities on coastal environments.
(1.6) [25]
Guidance:
Candidates:
(i)
should show knowledge and understanding of the problems arising from the
impact of coastal processes and landforms on human activity or from the
impact of human activities on coastal environments;
(ii)
should show knowledge and understanding of the strategies put in place to
manage these impacts;
(iii)
should show an assessment of the effectiveness of the above strategies;
better candidates should make an assessment of the effectiveness of the
strategies discussed throughout, whereas the average candidate may only
assess the strategies in passing or perhaps briefly in their conclusion.
Candidates need to demonstrate their knowledge and understanding of the problems
arising from the impacts of coastal processes and landforms on human activity or the
impact of human activity on coastal environments. There may be a discussion not
only of the nature, but also of the seriousness of the impacts.
In order to assess the effectiveness of strategies adopted to deal with the impacts,
candidates will need to briefly describe the strategies. Strategies will vary depending
on the coastal environment chosen. The assessment should involve an evaluation of
both the positive and negative aspects of the strategies adopted in relation to the
aims of the strategies implemented.
23
Theme 3 - Climatic Hazards
Q.7
Describe and explain seasonal variations of climate.
(1.2) [25]
Guidance:
Candidates:
(i)
should show knowledge and understanding of seasonal climatic changes:
better candidates may offer some supporting statistics or qualified descriptive
statements in relation to temperature and precipitation changes;
(ii)
should show knowledge and understanding of the factors influencing these
changes: better candidates will mention a wider range of factors.
Candidates may refer to one climatic type from either a tropical or temperate region.
For the tropical region seasonal changes are far more marked in savanna and
monsoon climates and for the temperate region seasonal changes are more
pronounced for the continental interior and east coast margin, but most candidates
will probably take the British western margin type.
Reference should be made to temperature and precipitation change. It would be
pleasing to see some candidates offering some supporting statistics in relation to
temperature and precipitation changes, but if not, candidates should use qualified
descriptive statements.
For the tropical region the most important factor is the effect of the apparent seasonal
migration of the overhead sun and the associated migration of the ITCZ and
movement of pressure and wind belts. Other significant factors include the effects of
land and sea distribution, ocean currents and orographic influences vis-à-vis
prevailing winds.
For the temperate region, the movement of global pressure and wind belts should be
included as an important factor. In addition, the movement of the jet stream further
south in winter and the relative seasonal significance of the various air masses
should be referred to as important influences.
Whether the tropical or temperate region is taken, annotated diagrams are likely to
form an important component and good credit should be given to well annotated and
well integrated diagrams that clearly illustrate the factors being discussed.
Where only one factor is mentioned, the answer is unbalanced and unlikely to reach
beyond the average category. A range of factors need to be addressed in a
detailed and balanced way for candidates to reach the good and very good
categories.
24
Q.8
Describe the strategies used to reduce the impact of one type of climatic
hazard and assess their effectiveness.
(1.6) [25]
Guidance:
Candidates:
(i)
should show a knowledge of the damaging effects of the climatic hazard
selected;
(ii)
should show an understanding of the strategies employed, but better
candidates will show more detailed knowledge of a wider range of strategies;
(iii)
should show an assessment of the effectiveness of the above strategies:
better candidates will assess the effectiveness of the strategies discussed
throughout, whereas the average candidate may only assess the strategies in
passing or perhaps briefly in their conclusion.
Within either the tropical or the temperate region, candidates may refer to the effects
of a hazard associated with either cyclonic or anticyclonic situations. The effects
discussed are likely to be both environmental and human (demographic, economic
and social).
When discussing the measures taken to reduce the impacts of hazards associated
with either low or high pressure systems, candidates may present logically
sequenced points progressing from monitoring, prediction and warning, immediate
response to lessen the impact once it has occurred to long-term planning.
Candidates need to assess the effectiveness of the measures discussed. Measures
may be evaluated on the basis of the extent to which they reduce the impact of an
event, by comparison with strategies in place elsewhere to meet a similar hazard
event, on the basis of advances in strategy policies and implementation of them
compared to those in place prior to the last hazard event or an evaluation on the
basis of the finances and human resources available to the agencies involved in the
formulation and implementation of measures at a local, regional, national or
international level. Where there is limited evaluative comment, the answer is unlikely
to reach ‘good’ and to reach ‘very good’ a well-balanced answer with some depth of
discussion is needed.
25
Theme 4 - Development
Q.9
Examine indicators used to measure development and assess their usefulness.
(1.2) [25]
Guidance:
Candidates:
(i)
should show a knowledge and understanding of the range of indicators used
to measure development: better candidates will assess the usefulness of the
indicators discussed throughout, whereas the average candidate may only
assess the indicators in passing or perhaps briefly in their conclusion.
Candidates should have little difficulty in identifying the range of indicators used to
measure development. It is expected that candidate will make reference to simple
and composite quantitative measures and recent progress made towards the use of
qualitative measures that go beyond covering material conditions towards a
consideration of aspects such as freedom, security, the plight of indigenous groups
and sustainability.
Assessment of these indicators may include the partial picture each one gives of
world development patterns, the reliability of the statistics used and how
comprehensive the measures are in identifying the level of development at a country
level. Other points that may enter into the discussion include the fact that measures
quoted on a national scale hide serious regional inequalities as well as variations in
material well-being across society, the difficulty of quantifying some measures, the
dated nature of some statistics and the non availability of accurate statistics for some
countries.
Where there is limited assessment, the answer is unlikely to reach ‘good’ and to
reach ‘very good’ a well-balanced answer with some depth of discussion is needed.
Q.10
Examine reasons for recent changes in patterns of world development.
(1.4) [25]
Guidance:
Candidates:
(i)
should show a knowledge and understanding of why changes are taking
place;
(ii)
should show an understanding of the effect of the above on patterns of world
development.
Reference needs to be made to the factors responsible for change including
changing definitions and concepts of development, economic forces, changing
external relationships and changing internal conditions which will influence a
particular country’s or world region’s position in the global development spectrum.
Reference also needs to be made to the effect of change on accepted patterns of
world development such as the North/South divide and LEDC/MEDC divisions.
Answers need to provide clear explanatory comment together with reference to
altered patterns to get beyond the average band.
The emergence of South East Asian NICs and the BRIC countries (Brazil, Russia,
India and China) may be used as a good illustration of the effect of economic change
on changes in pattern. In general development changes are seen as positive, but in
the case of a number of African countries the change may be negative and the
recognition of this and the reasons for it are worthy of good credit.
26
Theme 5 - Globalisation
Q.11
Examine reasons for global shifts in economic activity.
(1.3) [25]
Guidance:
Candidates:
(i)
should show knowledge and understanding of the changing nature and
distribution of global economic activity;
(ii)
should show a knowledge and understanding of the reasons for these
changes.
Candidates are likely to refer to the changing nature and distribution of global
economic activity linked to the decline of traditional manufacturing in MEDCs and the
increasing importance of the service sector and the increased developments in
manufacturing, services and tourism in LEDCs. Candidates will probably develop
their answers by discussing the rapid expansion of the NICs in terms of their
percentage share of world trade.
When examining the reasons for such changes candidates are likely to focus on the
economic changes (role of TNCs; Product life cycle and NIDL, consumer demand in
MEDCs), technological changes (improvements in transport, use of the internet, telesales) and political changes (trading blocs and role of international organisations)
which have resulted in increasing manufacturing production in LEDCs. Candidates
have the opportunity to make a reasoned assessment of the balance of these factors
and to link the factors with the change in the distribution of economic activity.
Candidates may approach the question from both a temporal and spatial perspective,
identifying the stages of global shift and the resultant distribution of economic activity.
Expect examples of the operations of named TNCs/MNEs to be well integrated into
the answer.
Q.12
‘Globalisation results in more losers than winners’. Discuss.
(1.4 & 1.5) [25]
Guidance:
Candidates:
(i)
should show knowledge and understanding of the losers who result from the
globalisation of economic activity;
(ii)
should show knowledge and understanding of the winners who result from the
globalisation of economic activity;
(iii)
should show the ability to assess the overall impact of globalisation: better
candidates make a reasoned assessment of whether the globalisation of
economic activity results in more losers than winners throughout, whereas the
average candidate may only make their assessment in passing or perhaps
briefly in their conclusion.
Reference needs to be made to the fact that globalising TNCs have the opportunity
to choose locations for their operations that they perceive to be most advantageous.
Costs are a prime consideration. Some locations are less favoured both in MEDCs
and LEDCs (particularly sub-Saharan African countries). Such regions are the losers.
The process of globalisation also has negative social and environmental effects on
MEDCs, LEDCs and NICs. There are also winners from globalisation. A global shift
of manufacturing and, more recently services, to NICs and RICs has brought
opportunities for employment and economic development to many parts of the world,
especially India, China and south and south-east Asia as well as benefits to investing
countries and companies. Expect examples of the operations of named TNCs/MNEs
and their positive and negative impacts on economic activity, society and the
environment to be well integrated into the answer.
27
Theme 6 - Emerging Asia
China
Q.13
Examine the effects of globalisation on China.
(1.5) [25]
Guidance:
Candidates:
(i)
should show knowledge and understanding of the economic and political
effects on China associated with the globalisation of economic activity;
(ii)
should show the ability to assess these effects: better candidates make a
reasoned assessment of the effects throughout, whereas the average
candidate may only make their assessment in passing or perhaps briefly in
their conclusion.
Economic effects include benefits such as the expansion of industries and services,
increased international trade and exponential growth in exports and the entry of
China into the WTO in 2001, rising incomes and infrastructure improvements.
Competition from abroad will help the Chinese to raise levels of efficiency and force
the large SOEs (State Owned Enterprises) to either modernise or dismantle.
Economic costs include widening regional disparities as economic activity is
concentrated in core growth areas along the east coast, labour exploitation,
exposure to the influences of westernisation, increased consumerism and the
increase in China’s ‘floating’ population. Political impacts may include the expansion
of the influence of TNCs, the change in state economic policies and the move to a
socialist market economy.
The assessment may take the form of an assessment of costs compared to benefits,
but be prepared to credit those candidates who see a spatial difference in effects. In
order to reach the good band, in addition to sound factual content of the effects on
China associated with the globalisation of economic activity, there needs to be sound
critical assessment of these.
Q.14
Discuss the economic and social challenges facing rural communities in
China.
(1.3) [25]
Guidance:
Candidates:
(i)
should show knowledge and understanding of the economic and social
challenges facing rural communities in China; better candidates will
demonstrate a more detailed knowledge and understanding.
Economic challenges associated with China's rural communities include the changes
in the organisation of agriculture and rural economic activities. Social challenges
include welfare provision such as health and education and the impact of migration.
The discussion may look at the relative worth of each variable or may take the form
of an assessment of rural challenges as compared with urban. A combination of both
approaches is also valid. To reach the ‘good’ category of response there must be a
discussion of the challenges identified. The term ‘challenges’ may be interpreted by
candidates as simply the difficulties experienced in rural communities, rather than in
the wider sense of demands that require a response. Answers that interpret the
question in this way are acceptable, but a sound discussion of these difficulties is
needed for the response to reach the ‘good’ category of assessment.
28
India
Q.15
Examine the effects of globalisation on India.
(1.5) [25]
Guidance:
Candidates:
(i)
should show knowledge and understanding of the effects on India associated
with the globalisation of economic activity;
(ii)
should show the ability to assess these effects: better candidates make a
reasoned assessment of the effects throughout, whereas the average
candidate may only make their assessment in passing or perhaps briefly in
their conclusion.
Economic impacts include benefits such as the growth of Indian TNCs, expansion of
industries and services, increased international trade and growth in exports, rising
incomes and infrastructure improvements. Economic costs include widening social
and regional disparities, exposure to the influences of westernisation, increased
consumerism and the negative impact of globalisation on India’s poor.
The assessment may take the form of an assessment of costs compared to benefits,
but be prepared to credit those candidates who see a spatial difference in effects. In
order to reach the good band, in addition to sound factual content of the effects
associated with the globalisation of economic activity, there needs to be sound
assessment of these.
Q.16
Discuss the economic and social challenges facing rural communities in India.
(1.3) [25]
Guidance:
Candidates:
(i)
should show knowledge and understanding of the economic and social
challenges facing rural communities in India: better candidates will
demonstrate a more detailed knowledge and understanding.
Economic challenges associated with India's rural communities include the
challenges of food production and land reform and problems of infrastructure and
service provision. Social challenges include population growth, hunger and
malnutrition and migration. The discussion may look at the relative worth of each
variable or may take the form of an assessment of rural challenges as compared with
urban. A combination of both approaches is also valid. To reach the ‘good’ category
of response there must be a discussion of the challenges identified. The term
‘challenges’ may be interpreted by candidates as simply the difficulties experienced
in rural communities, rather than in the wider sense of demands that require a
response. Answers that interpret the question in this way are acceptable, but a sound
discussion of these difficulties is needed for the response to reach the ‘good’
category of assessment.
29
Generic Mark Scheme for G3 B
G3 B contains 10 two part questions marked out of 10 (Part a) and 15 (Part b).
Part (a) is marked in three Levels.
Level
Description of
quality
Marks
range
Very Good
8-10
3
Good
2
Average
4-7
1
Weak
1-3
Very good knowledge and understanding used critically
which is applied to aspect(s) of research enquiry examined.
The work is obviously based on research and uses it to
provide good supporting evidence. A clear, coherent mini
essay that is grammatically correct. May include wellannotated maps and/or diagrams to support answer.
Good knowledge and understanding with some critical
appreciation of the aspect(s) of research enquiry examined.
A clear structured mini essay that uses good quality of
written communication but argues points soundly rather than
strongly. Appropriate diagrams and/or maps not always fully
labelled.
Some limited knowledge and understanding of aspect(s) of
research enquiry examined but some points may be partial
and lack exemplar support from the research. May use
taught material of variable relevance. All I know rather than
an answer to the question. Language is variable; lacking
paragraphs and may have weak grammar and syntax.
Part (b) is marked in four Levels
Level
Description of
quality
Marks
range
Excellent
4
13-15
Very Good
3
Good
9-12
Average
5-8
2
Marginal
1
Weak
1-4
Characteristics of level (It is not necessary to meet all of
the characteristics to be placed in a Level.)
Very good knowledge of the topic studied and a critical
awareness of the route to enquiry and findings as applied to
the topic in question. Provides very good support from own
research. May have some good diagrammatic material and
maps to support answer. Written in a sound coherent essay
style which is grammatically correct with a sequence of
ideas that enable the question to be answered fully.
Concludes in relation to the question. May include wellannotated maps and/or diagrams to support answer.
Good knowledge of the topic with some gaps.
Understanding of the route to enquiry and findings is
present with some critical awareness, but this may be sound
rather than strong. A clearly structured essay that uses good
quality of written communication. Appropriate diagrams
and/or maps not always fully labelled.
Knowledge & understanding present but some points may
be partial and lack exemplar support from research theme
studied or may only be of potential relevance to the
research topic. Language is straightforward and will possibly
lack paragraphing. Perhaps going off at a tangent with an
‘all I know’ answer.
Some knowledge and understanding but with gaps and
misconceptions that indicate an inability to understand the
question. Evidence that the research was superficial. Only
limited support from research. Language is variable and
slips occur.
30
G3
CONTEMPORARY THEMES AND RESEARCH IN GEOGRAPHY
SECTION B: RESEARCH
MARK SCHEME
(a)
Evaluate different ways that ICT could be used to support an investigation into
(context).
[10]
There is no requirement to draw parallels with their own study, but this should be
credited if it helps to develop the answer. Candidates should demonstrate their
knowledge of how ICT could be used: to establish locations for fieldwork (GIS,
Google maps or OS website), obtain background information, secondary data, refine
data into tables using excel spreadsheets, record and present data collected using
word or excel in the context of their selected research area and evaluate the
usefulness of the ways identified.
Level 3
(8-10 marks)
Answers contain a detailed description of ways ICT could be
used in the context of the selected research area developed in
some depth with clear evaluation of its uses
Level 2
(4-7 marks)
Answers at this level are likely to develop a description of ways
ICT could be used, either by describing a greater variety of uses
or by developing the description of fewer uses in greater detail.
Candidates may provide some evaluation of the uses identified.
Level 1
(1-3 marks)
Answers provide a simple description of a limited number of uses
for ICT, with little or no evaluation of the selected uses.
31
(b)
Discuss how one or more of the conclusions of your personal research into
(context) offers scope for further investigation.
[15]
The content will depend on the investigation undertaken, but in their answers
candidates should summarise the conclusion(s) drawn from their personal research
and identify ways in which their conclusion(s) offer scope for further investigation in
terms of unanswered questions, the generation of additional sub-questions, the
collection of new or additional primary or secondary data and other opportunities for
extending their investigation either spatially or temporally or both.
Level 4
(13-15 marks)
Level 3
(9-12 marks)
Answers contain a sound summary of the conclusions of their
investigation. Expect either a variety of conclusions or greater
depth if fewer conclusions. Answers contain a detailed discussion
of the ways in which the investigation could be
improved/extended/broadened.
Answers contain a clear summary of the conclusions of their
investigation. Expect either a variety of conclusions or greater
depth if fewer conclusions. Answers contain a generalised
discussion of the ways in which the investigation could be
improved/extended/broadened, but at the lower end this is less
well developed. Answers need to provide a balance between
conclusions and further investigation to reach Level 3.
Level 2
(5-8 marks)
Answers contain a generalised summary of the conclusions of
their investigation. Answers contain a limited discussion of the
ways in which the investigation could be
improved/extended/broadened.
Level 1
(1-4 marks)
Conclusions are outlined briefly. Answers contain a simplistic
description of ways in which the investigation could be
improved/extended/broadened.
32
Assessment Objectives Grid for G4
Question
AO1
Knowledge &
Understanding
AO2
Application
AO3
Skills
1
4
(concepts of place, space
and diversity)
3
(interpreting & unfamiliar
context)
3
(analyse and synthesise
geographical information
2
3
(select human processes
underpinning concepts,
examples)
4
(application in unfamiliar
contexts)
3
(carry out research and
use of methods)
3
3
(people-environment
interactions)
3
(analysis and unfamiliar
contexts)
4
(research and
communication)
10
4
7
(extend geographical
ideas, concepts and
processes)
11
(consider new ideas and
developments,
evaluation)
7
(synthesise information,
reach conclusions, and
communicate findings)
25
7
(extend geographical
ideas, concepts and
processes)
11
(evaluation of viewpoints,
(extend geographical
ideas, concepts and
processes)
7
(reach conclusions and
communicate findings)
25
24
(30%)
32
(40%)
24
(30%)
80
(100%)
5
Total
33
Total
10
10
G4
Generic Mark Scheme
These give an outline of the qualities expected of answers at each level. Normally, these will
be written into the mark scheme for a specific examination, and may be modified beyond
these descriptors to accommodate the demands of individual questions.
If a candidate answers in an unanticipated way, but it is clear that there is some substance
to the answer, the following guidelines may be used in allocating a mark to the answer.
If in any doubt, please consult you team leader.
10 mark questions
Explanation of some kind is the most likely demand of these questions. For other kinds of
command, comparable qualities to those given for explanation can be expected.
Level 3 (8 - 10 marks)
Answers at this level have a good explanation. Explanations may be brief or quite long, their
distinguishing quality is that they are clear. Answers need not be fully comprehensive but
should be extensive enough to cover most aspects that can be reasonably expected for the
question posed. Points of explanation should have some supporting evidence, either from
resources provided or from knowledge gained from the candidate’s own studies. If the
question has more than one aspect, then these will all be addressed soundly.
Level 2 (4 - 7 marks)
Answers in level 2 will either (i) contain a small amount of clear explanation but several
points that might reasonably be expected will be missing, or (ii) be answers that are more
comprehensive but the explanation is not really clear, or (iii) be clear on several points but
support for the explanations will be missing or be too generalised, ‘as in the Amazon’. If the
question has more than one aspect, one may be dealt with adequately, but others may be
underdeveloped, leading to an unbalanced answer.
Level 1 (1 - 3 marks)
Answers at this level there will only be the beginnings of an answer to the question, and will
have major weaknesses. Explanations will be unclear or may be missing altogether.
Correct information that could be relevant may be stated, but it will be left to the reader to put
two and two together. Answers that deal with more than one point will be over simple on all
of them. Any support that is given will be very general ‘e.g. Africa’. If a question has more
than one aspect, only one may be addressed and others ignored. Answers may be incorrect
or faulty in some other way.
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25 mark questions
These questions will have a strong evaluative element. Some form of debate needs to be
engaged in to reach the two top levels. Some questions may have a command for
description or explanation in the early part of the wording. If only those parts are attempted,
answers can gain a maximum mark of the top of Level 3.
Level 5 (22 - 25 marks)
A range of evidence in support of more than one conclusion will be clearly stated. There will
be a good attempt to weigh up the evidence. This may be by showing that one piece of
evidence carries more weight than others, or that there are far more points in favour of one
point of view than for any others. These questions will often have a ‘how far’ or ‘to what
extent’ element, and evidence given will be used deal with such aspects. The structure of
the answer will be evaluative throughout. Conceptual understanding and extensive support
will both be very good. Answers will be well ordered and logical, with clear expression in the
chosen language.
Level 4 (17 - 21 marks)
A reasonable amount of evidence on both sides of the debate will be presented here. There
will be some attempt to weigh up the evidence in order to show that it points more one way
than the other, or to try and assess ‘how far’. These will either be limited, confined to just
one or two sentences, or unbalanced, being too sweeping for one side over others. All other
aspects of the answer expected up to Level 3 will be present. Conceptual understanding or
evidence may be good, but not necessarily both. Answers will have only minor flaws in
logical ordering or linguistic expression.
Level 3 (10 - 16 marks)
These answers will have a good explanation. There will be some attempt to show that there
are arguments on both sides of the case, but these will be few, scattered and in most
instances, not supported by any evidence. There may be some evidence of conceptual
understanding, and/or the odd piece supporting evidence.. Structure and expression may
have flaws.
Level 2 (5 - 9 marks)
Answers at this level will be mainly explanatory, with evidence of some of the comparable
qualities expected at Level 3 for the 10 mark questions. Any attempt to deal with the
evaluative components will be brief, and either be very simple, confined only to one side or
have very little support. There will be weaknesses of structure and expression.
Level 1 (1 - 4 marks)
Some relevant knowledge may be stated, but few points will be explained. Any evaluation
will be a simple statement of a point of view without any valid supporting evidence. The
structure may be muddled and expression weak or unclear. Planning notes or fragments
can be given a mark in this range.
35
GEOGRAPHY G4
SUSTAINABILITY
Mark Scheme
Q.1
Outline ways in which fossil fuels and renewable sources of energy may result
in damage to the environment.
[10]
Evidence to support answers is scattered throughout the resource in both country
information and on extracts about individual sources of energy. Figure 18
summarises the global warming problem from fossil fuels, and nuclear power
problems are given in Figure 19. Figure 22 outlines some of the problems of HEP,
and Figure 29 discusses biofuels. Figure 24 may be used to illustrate small-scale
environments. Nuclear energy may be put forward as either a fossil fuel or a
renewable, accept either interpretation. Full mark answers can come from
candidates who use only the Resource Folder, but credit information that goes
beyond the Resource Folder provided it is relevant to the answer.
Level 3
(8-10 marks)
Outline is very clear on damage in more than one way for both
fossil fuels and renewables. Focus is on the environment.
Extensive supporting evidence.
Level 2
(4-7 marks)
Answers may lack either balance between fossil fuels and
renewables, or lack clarity about the ways. Some support given.
Level 1
(1-3 marks)
Ways may be named, but not made clear. Answer may stray from
damage to the environment. Evidence may not be given or be
merely the name of a place.
36
Q.2
Explain why countries have different mixes of energy sources.
[10]
The mix of energy sources is given for Botswana, Malaysia and France in the
Resource Folder. Candidates may wish to select from countries other than those in
the Resource Folder, so credit any other mixes provided they are well detailed and
involve clear explanation. Explanations can cover a range of factors such as
availability, cost, environmental factors, demand etc. There is no set range of factors
required. Answers should account for differences between countries. Supporting
information should be well founded and relevant to the country being considered. It
is likely that Figures 4, 5 & 7 may be used for the mix for Botswana, Figures 9 to 11
for Malaysia, and Figures 13 and 14 for France. Allow a generous interpretation of
mix.
Q.3
Level 3
(8-10 marks)
The mix for at least two countries will be explained in some detail.
The answer will explain clearly why they are different. Extensive
supporting evidence is given.
Level 2
(4-7 marks)
Only one country explained well. There may be imbalance in detail
between countries, or the range and/or depth of explanation may
be limited. There may be some explaining why they are different.
Answers may dwell on description. Some evidence given.
Level 1
(1-3 marks)
A few isolated points may be made. Answers will be poorly related
to any countries or differences. Evidence may not be given or just
a name tagged on at the end, 'e.g. Canada', and could be applied
anywhere.
Explain why the demand for water differs throughout the world.
[10]
Figure 2 on page 4 gives some starting points to aid recall of factors that influence
demand. Figure 11 on page 8 introduces the link between hydro-power and water
supply. Figure 22 on page 14 develops this idea and introduces others. Figure 30
on page 18 has information on water conservation. Figures 31 & 32 on page 19
shows the rainfall distribution throughout the world, and where water stress is being
experienced. It should be possible for good candidates to select this information and
produce a full mark answer. It is possible that candidates will recall class case study
material or research carried out in the six weeks leading up to the exam and such
material should be credited. Good answers will outline the demand for water in at
least two locations, and will bring out differences between the locations selected.
Locations may be selected from within the same country, e.g. North and South
California.
Level 3
(8-10 marks)
Demand for at least two contrasting locations will be considered.
Explanation will be clear and logical. Reasons for differences will
be explained. Evidence will be used. Answers may use two
locations in depth or make a wide range of points from many.
Level 2
(4-7 marks)
There may be imbalance between locations chosen, or be
limitations in explanations. There may be little to explain
differences. Some evidence given. General reference to one
location limited to top of Level 2.
Level 1
(1-3 marks)
Some isolated points are made, but not organised into an answer
to the question. Evidence may not be given or just a name
provided.
37
Q.4
'Global economic development is the greatest threat to the sustainability of
world energy supplies.'
How far do you agree with this statement?
[25]
Candidates should recognise the existing high levels of energy usage by economies
that are already developed, and that the rapid economic development in certain
areas of the world (India and China are likely examples) is creating further demand.
From this perspective some assessment is possible. Material may be drawn from
many sections of the resource Folder. Figures 9 -11 may be used to illustrate rapid
growth in Malaysia, Figures 12 to 14 can be used to show existing high levels in
France. Much of the material in Figures 15 to 29 deals with sustainability. Accept
answers that argue that economic development can support sustainability. It is likely
that material from other parts of Geography studies could well be introduced, and this
should be rewarded.
Full answers (Level 5) should consider:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
economic development;
threats to energy supply;
sustainability;
global element;
assessment - how far;
support.
Level 4 may be weak on two or more of these.
Level 3 and below may have one or more of these elements missing.
Level 5
(22-25 marks)
Current and likely future demands for energy will be discussed for
a range of levels and stages of economic development.
Knowledge of several supplies is good. Other threats/opportunities
identified. Evaluation of evidence leading to it, will account for a
large part of the answer. Evidence in support is extensive. The
answer will be logically structured, and expressed in clear
language.
Level 4
(17-21 marks)
Demands for energy will be discussed for different levels or stages
of economic development. Role of supplies and/or some other
threat/opportunity recognised. Some sound evaluation in parts of
the answer. Evidence given to support several points. The
answer will mainly be logically structured, and mainly expressed in
clear language.
Level 3
(10-16 marks)
Demands for energy linked to economic growth. Some different
levels/stages of development described. May mention
supply/other threat/opportunity, but limited. Some evidence in
support. Minor flaws in structure or expression.
Level 2
(5-9 marks)
Simple points about energy demand/supply. Level/stage of
development simplistic if introduced. Any evidence given relates
poorly to points made. Structure and expression weak in several
places.
Level 1
1-4 Marks
Some potentially relevant points made, but not organised into an
answer. At this level, candidates are likely to just agree (or just
disagree) with the statement with no justification for doing so.
Poorly organised and expression may be ambiguous and/or
contradictory.
38
Q.5
Outline the factors that influence the sustainability of food supplies. Assess
their relative importance.
[25]
There are many factors that could be introduced. For good answers, we can expect
extensive discussion of influences from at least two factors. From both their A2 and
AS studies, candidates should have knowledge of other threats from land use for
house building, industry, retailing, various kinds of transport, environmental
degradation, etc. There is the opportunity to bring in mining, other resource
exploitation and damming of rivers leading to areas being flooded. They may link
such ideas not only to the amount of land available, but also to changes in
agricultural production. The sustainability of the use of chemicals, irrigation,
machinery, hybrid seeds and GMOs may be used. It would be possible to introduce
ideas on population growth. The answer can be developed in a number of ways, so
it is not possible to insist on particular content. Good answers should show
considerable assessment.
Level 5 answers should contain:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
food supplies;
factors influencing them;
sustainability;
assessment;
support.
Level 4 may be weak on two or more of these.
Level 3 and below may have one or more of these elements missing.
Level 5
(22-25 marks)
Good knowledge and understanding of at least two factors.
Assessment, or evidence leading to it, dominates the answer.
Extensive evidence given in support. The answer will be logically
structured, and expressed in clear language.
Level 4
(17-21 marks)
Some knowledge and understanding of at least two factors. Some
sound assessment. Good supporting evidence in several places.
The answer will mainly be logically structured, and mainly
expressed in clear language.
Level 3
(10-16 marks)
Good knowledge of one factor, or more sketchy knowledge if
more. Some evidence in support. Minor flaws in structure or
expression. Answers referring to factors only limited to top of
Level 3.
Level 2
(5-9 marks)
Level 1
1-4 Marks
Basic knowledge of one factor. Any other introduced will be very
superficial. Any evidence given relates poorly to points made.
Structure and expression weak in several places.
Some potentially relevant points made, but not organised into an
answer. At this level, candidates are likely to make an assessment
but with no reasons for doing so. Poorly organised and expression
may be ambiguous and/or contradictory.
GCE Geography MS - Summer 2010
39
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