2/9/2016 2:53:06 PM
NC4FB Amateur Extra Question Pool Comparison
Page 1 of 84
Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
1 E1A01 (D) [97.301, 97.305]
1 E1A01 (D) [97.301, 97.305]
2 When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phon 2 When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of pho
3 A. The exact upper band edge
3 A. The exact upper band edge
4 B. 300 Hz below the upper band edge
4 B. 300 Hz below the upper band edge
5 C. 1 kHz below the upper band edge
5 C. 1 kHz below the upper band edge
6 D. 3 kHz below the upper band edge
6 D. 3 kHz below the upper band edge
7 ~~
7 ~~
8 E1A02 (D) [97.301, 97.305]
8 E1A02 (D) [97.301, 97.305]
9 When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phon 9 When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of pho
10 A. The exact lower band edge
10 A. The exact lower band edge
11 B. 300 Hz above the lower band edge
11 B. 300 Hz above the lower band edge
12 C. 1 kHz above the lower band edge
12 C. 1 kHz above the lower band edge
13 D. 3 kHz above the lower band edge
13 D. 3 kHz above the lower band edge
14 ~~
14 ~~
15 E1A03 (C) [97.301, 97.305]
15 E1A03 (C) [97.301, 97.305]
16 With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone sign 16 With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone sig
17 A. Yes, because you were not the station calling CQ
17 A. Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
18 B. Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band 18 B. Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band
19 C. No, the sideband will extend beyond the band edge
19 C. No, my sidebands will extend beyond the band edge
20 D. No, U.S. stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 20 D. No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above
21 ~~
21 ~~
22 E1A04 (C) [97.301, 97.305]
22 E1A04 (C) [97.301, 97.305]
23 With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone sign 23 With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone sig
24 A. Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
24 A. Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
25 B. Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 75 meter phone 25 B. Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 75 meter phon
26 C. No, the sideband will extend beyond the edge of the phone band se 26 C. No, my sidebands will extend beyond the edge of the phone band s
27 D. No, U.S. stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 27 D. No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below
28 ~~
28 ~~
29 E1A05 (C) [97.313]
29 E1A05 (C) [97.313]
30 What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?
30 What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?
31 A. 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic ra 31 A. 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic r
32 B. 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
32 B. 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
33 C. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a 33 C. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a
34 D. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic r 34 D. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic
35 ~~
35 ~~
36 E1A06 (B) [97.15]
36 E1A06 (B) [97.303]
37 Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply wit 37 Which of the following describes the rules for operation on the 60
38 A. At the lowest frequency of the channel
38 A. Working DX is not permitted
39 B. At the center frequency of the channel
39 B. Operation is restricted to specific emission types and specific
40 C. At the highest frequency of the channel
40 C. Operation is restricted to LSB
41 D. On any frequency where the signal’s sidebands are within the chan 41 D. All of these choices are correct
42 ~~
42 ~~
43 E1A07 (D) [97.303]
43 E1A07 (D) [97.303]
44 Which amateur band requires transmission on specific channels rather 44 What is the only amateur band where transmission on specific channe
45 A. 12 meter band
45 A. 12 meter band
46 B. 17 meter band
46 B. 17 meter band
47 C. 30 meter band
47 C. 30 meter band
48 D. 60 meter band
48 D. 60 meter band
49 ~~
49 ~~
50 E1A08 (B) [97.219]
50 E1A08 (B) [97.219]
51 If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a 51 If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards
52 A. The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
52 A. The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
53 B. The control operator of the originating station
53 B. The control operator of the originating station
54 C. The control operators of all the stations in the system
54 C. The control operators of all the stations in the system
55 D. The control operators of all the stations in the system not authe 55 D. The control operators of all the stations in the system not auth
56 ~~
56 ~~
57 E1A09 (A) [97.219]
57 E1A09 (A) [97.219]
58 What is the first action you should take if your digital message for 58 What is the first action you should take if your digital message fo
59 A. Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aw 59 A. Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become a
60 B. Notify the originating station that the communication does not co 60 B. Notify the originating station that the communication does not c
61 C. Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer’s office
61 C. Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer’s office
62 D. Discontinue forwarding all messages
62 D. Discontinue forwarding all messages
63 ~~
63 ~~
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NC4FB Amateur Extra Question Pool Comparison
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
64 E1A10 (A) [97.11]
64 E1A10 (A) [97.11]
65 If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what c 65 If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what
66 A. Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the p 66 A. Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the
67 B. The amateur station operator must agree not to transmit when the 67 B. The amateur station operator must agree to not transmit when the
68 C. The amateur station must have a power supply that is completely i 68 C. It must have a power supply that is completely independent of th
69 D. The amateur operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsem 69 D. Its operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on
70 ~~
70 ~~
71 E1A11 (B) [97.5]
71 E1A11 (B) [97.5]
72 Which of the following describes authorization or licensing required 72 What authorization or licensing is required when operating an amate
73 A. Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
73 A. Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
74 B. Any FCC-issued amateur license
74 B. Any FCC-issued amateur license or a reciprocal permit for an ali
75 C. Only General class or higher amateur licenses
75 C. Only General class or higher amateur licenses
76 D. An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
76 D. An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
77 ~~
77 ~~
78 E1A12 (C) [97.301, 97.305]
78 E1A12 (C) [97.301, 97.305]
79 With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of CW signals 79 With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of CW signal
80 A. Yes, the DX station initiated the contact
80 A. Yes, the DX station initiated the contact
81 B. Yes, the displayed frequency is within the 80 meter CW band segme 81 B. Yes, the displayed frequency is within the 80 meter CW band segm
82 C. No, one of the sidebands of the CW signal will be out of the band 82 C. No, sidebands from the CW signal will be out of the band.
83 D. No, U.S. stations are not permitted to use CW emissions below 3.5 83 D. No, USA stations are not permitted to use CW emissions below 3.5
84 ~~
84 ~~
85 E1A13 (B) [97.5]
85 E1A13 (B) [97.5]
86 Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amate 86 Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amat
87 A. Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio
87 A. Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio
88 B. Any person holding an FCC issued amateur license or who is author 88 B. Any person holding an FCC-issued amateur license or who is autho
89 C. Only a person named in an amateur station license grant
89 C. Only a person named in an amateur station license grant
90 D. Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person 90 D. Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person
91 ~~
91 ~~
92 E1A14 (D) [97.303]
93 What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?
94 A. 60 Hz
95 B. 170 Hz
96 C. 1.5 kHz
97 D. 2.8 kHz
98 ~~
99 E1B01 (D) [97.3]
92 E1B01 (D) [97.3]
100 Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?
93 Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?
101 A. An amateur station transmission made at random without the proper 94 A. An amateur station transmission made at random without the prope
102 B. A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station othe 95 B. A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station oth
103 C. Any transmitted signal that unintentionally interferes with anoth 96 C. Any transmitted bogus signal that interferes with another licens
104 D. An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced o 97 D. An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced
105 ~~
98 ~~
106 E1B02 (D) [97.13]
99 E1B02 (D) [97.13]
107 Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of 100 Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of
108 A. The location is near an area of political conflict
101 A. The location is near an area of political conflict
109 B. The location is of geographical or horticultural importance
102 B. The location is of geographical or horticultural importance
110 C. The location is in an ITU Zone designated for coordination with o 103 C. The location is in an ITU zone designated for coordination with
111 D. The location is of environmental importance or significant in Ame 104 D. The location is of environmental importance or significant in Am
112 ~~
105 ~~
113 E1B03 (A) [97.13]
106 E1B03 (A) [97.13]
114 Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitori 107 Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitor
115 A. 1 mile
108 A. 1 mile
116 B. 3 miles
109 B. 3 miles
117 C. 10 miles
110 C. 10 miles
118 D. 30 miles
111 D. 30 miles
119 ~~
112 ~~
120 E1B04 (C) [97.13, 1.1305-1.1319]
113 E1B04 (C) [97.13, 1.1305-1.1319]
121 What must be done before placing an amateur station within an offici 114 What must be done before placing an amateur station within an offic
122 A. A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service
115 A. A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service
123 B. A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Societ 116 B. A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Socie
124 C. An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
117 C. An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
125 D. A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior 118 D. A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interio
126 ~~
119 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
127 E1B05 (C) [97.3]
120 E1B05 (D) [97.303]
128 What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?
121 What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?
129 A. An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Arecibo Radio Telescope
122 A. 60 Hz
130 B. An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area
123 B. 170 Hz
131 C. An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory
124 C. 1.5 kHz
132 D. An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral
125 D. 2.8 kHz
133 ~~
126 ~~
134 E1B06 (A) [97.15]
127 E1B06 (A) [97.15]
135 Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing 128 Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing
136 A. You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and re 129 A. You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and r
137 B. No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less tha 130 B. No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less th
138 C. You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA befo 131 C. You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA bef
139 D. You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning aut 132 D. You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning au
140 ~~
133 ~~
141 E1B07 (B) [97.307]
134 E1B07 (B) [97.15]
142 What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modula 135 Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply wi
143 A. 0.5
136 A. At the lowest frequency of the channel
144 B. 1.0
137 B. At the center frequency of the channel
145 C. 2.0
138 C. At the highest frequency of the channel
146 D. 3.0
139 D. On any frequency where the signal’s sidebands are within the cha
147 ~~
140 ~~
148 E1B08 (D) [97.121]
141 E1B08 (D) [97.121]
149 What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its sign 142 What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its sig
150 A. The amateur station must cease operation
143 A. The amateur station must cease operation
151 B. The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 144 B. The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies belo
152 C. The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 145 C. The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies abov
153 D. The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours 146 D. The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours
154 ~~
147 ~~
155 E1B09 (C) [97.407]
148 E1B09 (C) [97.407]
156 Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?
149 Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES?
157 A. Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operator 150 A. Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operato
158 B. Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class
151 B. Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class opera
159 C. Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civ 152 C. Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible ci
160 D. Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Au 153 D. Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military A
161 ~~
154 ~~
162 E1B10 (A) [97.407]
155 E1B10 (A) [97.407]
163 What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating unde 156 What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station participating
164 A. All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operato 157 A. All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operat
165 B. Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF band 158 B. Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF ban
166 C. Specific local government channels
159 C. Specific local government channels
167 D. Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS) channels
160 D. Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels
168 ~~
161 ~~
169 E1B11 (A) [97.307]
162 E1B11 (A) [97.307]
170 What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative t 163 What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative
171 A. At least 43 dB below
164 A. At least 43 dB below
172 B. At least 53 dB below
165 B. At least 53 dB below
173 C. At least 63 dB below
166 C. At least 63 dB below
174 D. At least 73 dB below
167 D. At least 73 dB below
175 ~~
168 ~~
169 E1B12 (B) [97.307]
170 What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modul
171 A. .5
172 B. 1.0
173 C. 2.0
174 D. 3.0
175 ~~
176 E1C01 (D) [97.3]
176 E1C01 (D) [97.3]
177 What is a remotely controlled station?
177 What is a remotely controlled station?
178 A. A station operated away from its regular home location
178 A. A station operated away from its regular home location
179 B. A station controlled by someone other than the licensee
179 B. A station controlled by someone other than the licensee
180 C. A station operating under automatic control
180 C. A station operating under automatic control
181 D. A station controlled indirectly through a control link
181 D. A station controlled indirectly through a control link
182 ~~
182 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
183 E1C02 (A) [97.3, 97.109]
183 E1C02 (A) [97.3, 97.109]
184 What is meant by automatic control of a station?
184 What is meant by automatic control of a station?
185 A. The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control 185 A. The use of devices and procedures for control so that the contro
186 B. A station operating with its output power controlled automaticall 186 B. A station operating with its output power controlled automatical
187 C. Remotely controlling a station’s antenna pattern through a direct 187 C. Remotely controlling a station’s antenna pattern through a direc
188 D. The use of a control link between a control point and a locally c 188 D. The use of a control link between a control point and a locally
189 ~~
189 ~~
190 E1C03 (B) [97.3, 97.109]
190 E1C03 (B) [97.3, 97.109]
191 How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under auto 191 How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under aut
192 A. Under local control there is no control operator
192 A. Under local control there is no control operator
193 B. Under automatic control the control operator is not required to b 193 B. Under automatic control the control operator is not required to
194 C. Under automatic control there is no control operator
194 C. Under automatic control there is no control operator
195 D. Under local control a control operator is not required to be pres 195 D. Under local control a control operator is not required to be pre
196 ~~
196 ~~
197 E1C04 (A)
197 E1C04 (B) [97.109]
198 What is meant by IARP?
198 When may an automatically controlled station retransmit third party
199 A. An international amateur radio permit that allows U.S. amateurs t 199 A. Never
200 B. The internal amateur radio practices policy of the FCC
200 B. Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
201 C. An indication of increased antenna reflected power
201 C. When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stati
202 D. A forecast of intermittent aurora radio propagation
202 D. When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information
203 ~~
203 ~~
204 E1C05 (A) [97.109]
204 E1C05 (A) [97.109]
205 When may an automatically controlled station originate third party c 205 When may an automatically controlled station originate third party
206 A. Never
206 A. Never
207 B. Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
207 B. Only when transmitting an RTTY or data emissions
208 C. When agreed upon by the sending or receiving station
208 C. When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stati
209 D. When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information A 209 D. When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information
210 ~~
210 ~~
211 E1C06 (C) [97.109]
211 E1C06 (C) [97.109]
212 Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled ama 212 Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled am
213 A. Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remot 213 A. Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remo
214 B. A control operator need not be present at the control point
214 B. A control operator need not be present at the control point
215 C. A control operator must be present at the control point
215 C. A control operator must be present at the control point
216 D. Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled
216 D. Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled
217 ~~
217 ~~
218 E1C07 (C) [97.3]
218 E1C07 (C) [97.3]
219 What is meant by local control?
219 What is meant by local control?
220 A. Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link
220 A. Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link
221 B. Automatically manipulating local station controls
221 B. Automatically manipulating local station controls
222 C. Direct manipulation of the transmitter by a control operator
222 C. Direct manipulation of the transmitter by a control operator
223 D. Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver
223 D. Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver
224 ~~
224 ~~
225 E1C08 (B) [97.213]
225 E1C08 (B) [97.213]
226 What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled st 226 What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled s
227 A. 30 seconds
227 A. 30 seconds
228 B. 3 minutes
228 B. 3 minutes
229 C. 5 minutes
229 C. 5 minutes
230 D. 10 minutes
230 D. 10 minutes
231 ~~
231 ~~
232 E1C09 (D) [97.205]
232 E1C09 (D) [97.205]
233 Which of these ranges of frequencies is available for an automatical 233 Which of these frequencies are available for an automatically contr
234 A. 18.110 MHz - 18.168 MHz
234 A. 18.110 - 18.168 MHz
235 B. 24.940 MHz - 24.990 MHz
235 B. 24.940 - 24.990 MHz
236 C. 10.100 MHz - 10.150 MHz
236 C. 10.100 - 10.150 MHz
237 D. 29.500 MHz - 29.700 MHz
237 D. 29.500 - 29.700 MHz
238 ~~
238 ~~
239 E1C10 (B) [97.113]
239 E1C10 (B) [97.113]
240 What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radi 240 What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the rad
241 A. Only beacon, repeater or space stations
241 A. Only beacon, repeater or space stations
242 B. Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations
242 B. Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations
243 C. Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craft
243 C. Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craft
244 D. Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations
244 D. Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations
245 ~~
245 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
246 E1C11 (A) [97.5]
247 Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed
248 A. CEPT agreement
249 B. IARP agreement
250 C. ITU reciprocal license
251 D. All of these choices are correct
252 ~~
253 E1C12 (C) [97.117]
254 What types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations
255 A. Business-related messages for non-profit organizations
256 B. Messages intended for connection to users of the maritime satelli
257 C. Communications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service a
258 D. All of these choices are correct
259 ~~
260 E1C13 (C)
261 Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance
262 A. You must identify in the official language of the country in whic
263 B. The U.S. embassy must approve of your operation
264 C. You must bring a copy of FCC Public Notice DA 11-221
265 D. You must append "/CEPT" to your call sign
266 ~~
267 E1D01 (A) [97.3]
246 E1D01 (A) [97.3]
268 What is the definition of the term telemetry?
247 What is the definition of the term telemetry?
269 A. One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measu 248 A. One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the meas
270 B. Two-way radiotelephone transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
249 B. Two-way radiotelephone transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
271 C. Two-way single channel transmissions of data
250 C. Two-way single channel transmissions of data
272 D. One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the 251 D. One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the
273 ~~
252 ~~
274 E1D02 (C) [97.3]
253 E1D02 (C) [97.3]
275 What is the amateur satellite service?
254 What is the amateur satellite service?
276 A. A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of se 255 A. A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of s
277 B. A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
256 B. A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
278 C. A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on sa 257 C. A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on s
279 D. A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites 258 D. A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellite
280 ~~
259 ~~
281 E1D03 (B) [97.3]
260 E1D03 (B) [97.3]
282 What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?
261 What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?
283 A. An amateur station located on the Earth’s surface for communicati 262 A. An amateur station located on the Earth’s surface for communicat
284 B. An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, mod 263 B. An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, mo
285 C. An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth’s surf 264 C. An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth’s sur
286 D. An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measure 265 D. An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measur
287 ~~
266 ~~
288 E1D04 (A) [97.3]
267 E1D04 (A) [97.3]
289 What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?
268 What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?
290 A. An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface intended f 269 A. An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface intended
291 B. An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur 270 B. An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur
292 C. An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measure 271 C. An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measur
293 D. Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth
272 D. Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth
294 ~~
273 ~~
295 E1D05 (C) [97.207]
274 E1D05 (C) [97.207]
296 What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a 275 What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of
297 A. All except Technician Class
276 A. All except Technician Class
298 B. Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class
277 B. Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class
299 C. Any class with appropriate operator privileges
278 C. All classes
300 D. Only Amateur Extra Class
279 D. Only Amateur Extra Class
301 ~~
280 ~~
302 E1D06 (A) [97.207]
281 E1D06 (A) [97.207]
303 Which of the following is a requirement of a space station?
282 Which of the following special provisions must a space station inco
304 A. The space station must be capable of terminating transmissions by 283 A. The space station must be capable of terminating transmissions b
305 B. The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years
284 B. The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years
306 C. The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever 285 C. The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever
307 D. All of these choices are correct
286 D. All of these choices are correct
308 ~~
287 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
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309 E1D07 (A) [97.207]
288 E1D07 (A) [97.207]
310 Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized for space 289 Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized to space
311 A. Only the 40 m, 20 m, 17 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m bands
290 A. Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m, 12m and 10m
312 B. Only the 40 m, 20 m, 17 m, 15 m and 10 m bands
291 B. Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m and 10m bands
313 C. Only the 40 m, 30 m, 20 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m bands
292 C. 40m, 30m, 20m, 15m, 12m and 10m bands
314 D. All HF bands
293 D. All HF bands
315 ~~
294 ~~
316 E1D08 (D) [97.207]
295 E1D08 (D) [97.207]
317 Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space 296 Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for spac
318 A. 6 meters and 2 meters
297 A. 6 meters and 2 meters
319 B. 6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
298 B. 6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
320 C. 2 meters and 1.25 meters
299 C. 2 meters and 1.25 meters
321 D. 2 meters
300 D. 2 meters
322 ~~
301 ~~
323 E1D09 (B) [97.207]
302 E1D09 (B) [97.207]
324 Which UHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for a spa 303 Which amateur service UHF bands have frequencies available for a sp
325 A. 70 cm only
304 A. 70 cm
326 B. 70 cm and 13 cm
305 B. 70 cm, 23 cm, 13 cm
327 C. 70 cm and 33 cm
306 C. 70 cm and 33 cm
328 D. 33 cm and 13 cm
307 D. 33 cm and 13 cm
329 ~~
308 ~~
330 E1D10 (B) [97.211]
309 E1D10 (B) [97.211]
331 Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?
310 Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?
332 A. Any amateur station designated by NASA
311 A. Any amateur station designated by NASA
333 B. Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee, 312 B. Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee,
334 C. Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
313 C. Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
335 D. All of these choices are correct
314 D. All of these choices are correct
336 ~~
315 ~~
337 E1D11 (D) [97.209]
316 E1D11 (D) [97.209]
338 Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?
317 Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?
339 A. Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notifica 318 A. Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notific
340 B. Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators 319 B. Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
341 C. Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
320 C. Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
342 D. Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of op 321 D. Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of o
343 ~~
322 ~~
344 E1E01 (D) [97.509]
323 E1E01 (D) [97.509]
345 What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer a 324 What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer
346 A. 5
325 A. 5
347 B. 2
326 B. 2
348 C. 4
327 C. 4
349 D. 3
328 D. 3
350 ~~
329 ~~
351 E1E02 (C) [97.523]
330 E1E02 (C) [97.523]
352 Where are the questions for all written U.S. amateur license examina 331 Where are the questions for all written US amateur license examinat
353 A. In FCC Part 97
332 A. In FCC Part 97
354 B. In a question pool maintained by the FCC
333 B. In a question pool maintained by the FCC
355 C. In a question pool maintained by all the VECs
334 C. In a question pool maintained by all the VECs
356 D. In the appropriate FCC Report and Order
335 D. In the appropriate FCC Report and Order
357 ~~
336 ~~
358 E1E03 (C) [97.521]
337 E1E03 (C) [97.521]
359 What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?
338 What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?
360 A. A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator licen 339 A. A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator lice
361 B. A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license 340 B. A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license
362 C. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC t 341 C. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC
363 D. The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be t 342 D. The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be
364 ~~
343 ~~
365 E1E04 (D) [97.509, 97.525]
344 E1E04 (D) [97.509, 97.525]
366 Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accredi 345 Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accred
367 A. Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automa 346 A. Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is autom
368 B. The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administ 347 B. The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination adminis
369 C. The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC
348 C. The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC
370 D. The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets 349 D. The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meet
371 ~~
350 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
372 E1E05 (B) [97.503]
351 E1E05 (B) [97.503]
373 What is the minimum passing score on amateur operator license examin 352 What is the minimum passing score on amateur operator license exami
374 A. Minimum passing score of 70%
353 A. Minimum passing score of 70%
375 B. Minimum passing score of 74%
354 B. Minimum passing score of 74%
376 C. Minimum passing score of 80%
355 C. Minimum passing score of 80%
377 D. Minimum passing score of 77%
356 D. Minimum passing score of 77%
378 ~~
357 ~~
379 E1E06 (C) [97.509]
358 E1E06 (C) [97.509]
380 Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision 359 Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision
381 A. The VEC coordinating the session
360 A. The VEC coordinating the session
382 B. The FCC
361 B. The FCC
383 C. Each administering VE
362 C. Each administering VE
384 D. The VE session manager
363 D. The VE session manager
385 ~~
364 ~~
386 E1E07 (B) [97.509]
365 E1E07 (B) [97.509]
387 What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner 366 What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examine
388 A. Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result i 367 A. Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result
389 B. Immediately terminate the candidate’s examination
368 B. Immediately terminate the candidate’s examination
390 C. Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate t 369 C. Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate
391 D. Immediately terminate everyone’s examination and close the sessio 370 D. Immediately terminate everyone’s examination and close the sessi
392 ~~
371 ~~
393 E1E08 (C) [97.509]
372 E1E08 (C) [97.509]
394 To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an exami 373 To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an exam
395 A. Employees of the VE
374 A. Employees of the VE
396 B. Friends of the VE
375 B. Friends of the VE
397 C. Relatives of the VE as listed in the FCC rules
376 C. Relatives of the VE as listed in the FCC rules
398 D. All of these choices are correct
377 D. All of these choices are correct
399 ~~
378 ~~
400 E1E09 (A) [97.509]
379 E1E09 (A) [97.509]
401 What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or cer 380 What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or ce
402 A. Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the susp 381 A. Revocation of the VE’s amateur station license grant and the sus
403 B. A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence
382 B. A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence
404 C. A sentence of up to one year in prison
383 C. A sentence of up to one year in prison
405 D. All of these choices are correct
384 D. All of these choices are correct
406 ~~
385 ~~
407 E1E10 (C) [97.509]
386 E1E10 (C) [97.509]
408 What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a suc 387 What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a su
409 A. They must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading 388 A. They must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for gradin
410 B. They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VE 389 B. They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating V
411 C. They must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC 390 C. They must submit the application document to the coordinating VE
412 D. They must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to 391 D. They must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to
413 ~~
392 ~~
414 E1E11 (B) [97.509]
393 E1E11 (B) [97.509]
415 What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on al 394 What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on a
416 A. Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC f 395 A. Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC
417 B. Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the lic 396 B. Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the li
418 C. Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license
397 C. Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license
419 D. All these choices are correct
398 D. All these choices are correct
420 ~~
399 ~~
421 E1E12 (A) [97.509]
400 E1E12 (A) [97.509]
422 What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee d 401 What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee
423 A. Return the application document to the examinee
402 A. Return the application document to the examinee
424 B. Maintain the application form with the VEC's records
403 B. Maintain the application form with the VEC’s records
425 C. Send the application form to the FCC and inform the FCC of the gr 404 C. Send the application form to the FCC and inform the FCC of the g
426 D. Destroy the application form
405 D. Destroy the application form
427 ~~
406 ~~
428 E1E13 (B) [97.509]
407 E1E13 (A) [97.519]
429 Which of these choices is an acceptable method for monitoring the ap 408 What are the consequences of failing to appear for re-administratio
430 A. Record the exam session on video tape for later review by the VE 409 A. The licensee's license will be cancelled
431 B. Use a real-time video link and the Internet to connect the exam s 410 B. The person may be fined or imprisoned
432 C. The exam proctor observes the applicants and reports any violatio 411 C. The licensee is disqualified from any future examination for an
433 D. Have each applicant sign an affidavit stating that all session ru 412 D. All these choices are correct
434 ~~
413 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
435 E1E14 (A) [97.527]
414 E1E14 (A) [97.527]
436 For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state 415 For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules stat
437 A. Preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examinat 416 A. Preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examina
438 B. Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation cour 417 B. Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation cou
439 C. No expenses are authorized for reimbursement
418 C. No expenses are authorized for reimbursement
440 D. Providing amateur operator license examination preparation traini 419 D. Providing amateur operator license examination preparation train
441 ~~
420 ~~
442 E1F01 (B) [97.305]
421 E1F01 (B) [97.305]
443 On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?
422 On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?
444 A. Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
423 A. Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
445 B. Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz
424 B. Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz
446 C. Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz
425 C. Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz
447 D. Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz
426 D. Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz
448 ~~
427 ~~
449 E1F02 (C) [97.107]
428 E1F02 (A) [97.5]
450 What privileges are authorized in the U.S. to persons holding an ama 429 Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-license
451 A. None, they must obtain a U.S. license
430 A. CEPT agreement
452 B. All privileges of the Extra Class license
431 B. IARP agreement
453 C. The operating terms and conditions of the Canadian amateur servic 432 C. ITU reciprocal license
454 D. Full privileges, up to and including those of the Extra Class Lic 433 D. All of these choices are correct
455 ~~
434 ~~
456 E1F03 (A) [97.315]
435 E1F03 (A) [97.315]
457 Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power ampl 436 Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amp
458 A. It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and i 437 A. It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and
459 B. The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
438 B. The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
460 C. It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not re 439 C. It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not r
461 D. It was imported from a manufacturer in another country and was ce 440 D. It was imported from a manufacturer in another country, and it w
462 ~~
441 ~~
463 E1F04 (A) [97.3]
442 E1F04 (A) [97.3]
464 Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describ 443 Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately descri
465 A. A line roughly parallel to and south of the U.S.-Canadian border 444 A. A line roughly parallel to and south of the US-Canadian border
466 B. A line roughly parallel to and west of the U.S. Atlantic coastlin 445 B. A line roughly parallel to and west of the US Atlantic coastline
467 C. A line roughly parallel to and north of the U.S.-Mexican border a 446 C. A line roughly parallel to and north of the US-Mexican border an
468 D. A line roughly parallel to and east of the U.S. Pacific coastline 447 D. A line roughly parallel to and east of the US Pacific coastline
469 ~~
448 ~~
470 E1F05 (D) [97.303]
449 E1F05 (D) [97.303]
471 Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequenc 450 Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequen
472 A. 440 MHz - 450 MHz
451 A. 440 - 450 MHz
473 B. 53 MHz - 54 MHz
452 B. 53 - 54 MHz
474 C. 222 MHz - 223 MHz
453 C. 222 - 223 MHz
475 D. 420 MHz - 430 MHz
454 D. 420 - 430 MHz
476 ~~
455 ~~
477 E1F06 (A) [1.931]
456 E1F06 (C) [97.3]
478 Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Aut 457 What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?
479 A. To provide for experimental amateur communications
458 A. An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Aricebo Radio Telescope
480 B. To allow regular operation on Land Mobile channels
459 B. An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area
481 C. To provide additional spectrum for personal use
460 C. An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory
482 D. To provide temporary operation while awaiting normal licensing
461 D. An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral
483 ~~
462 ~~
484 E1F07 (D) [97.113]
463 E1F07 (D) [97.113]
485 When may an amateur station send a message to a business?
464 When may an amateur station send a message to a business?
486 A. When the total money involved does not exceed $25
465 A. When the total money involved does not exceed $25
487 B. When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another gover 466 B. When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another gove
488 C. When transmitting international third-party communications
467 C. When transmitting international third-party communications
489 D. When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary 468 D. When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary
490 ~~
469 ~~
491 E1F08 (A) [97.113]
470 E1F08 (A) [97.113]
492 Which of the following types of amateur station communications are p 471 Which of the following types of amateur station communications are
493 A. Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, exc 472 A. Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, ex
494 B. Communications that have a political content, except as allowed b 473 B. Communications that have a political content, except as allowed
495 C. Communications that have a religious content
474 C. Communications that have a religious content
496 D. Communications in a language other than English
475 D. Communications in a language other than English
497 ~~
476 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
498 E1F09 (D) [97.311]
477 E1F09 (D) [97.311]
499 Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spe 478 Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread sp
500 A. A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interfe 479 A. A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interf
501 B. The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC 480 B. The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC
502 C. The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any c 481 C. The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any
503 D. All of these choices are correct
482 D. All of these choices are correct
504 ~~
483 ~~
505 E1F10 (C) [97.313]
484 E1F10 (C) [97.313]
506 What is the maximum permitted transmitter peak envelope power for an 485 What is the maximum transmitter power for an amateur station transm
507 A. 1 W
486 A. 1 W
508 B. 1.5 W
487 B. 1.5 W
509 C. 10 W
488 C. 10 W
510 D. 1.5 kW
489 D. 1.5 kW
511 ~~
490 ~~
512 E1F11 (D) [97.317]
491 E1F11 (D) [97.317]
513 Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must 492 Which of the following best describes one of the standards that mus
514 A. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 493 A. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5
515 B. It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and 494 B. It must be capable of external RF switching between its input an
516 C. It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range 495 C. It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output rang
517 D. It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operat 496 D. It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when opera
518 ~~
497 ~~
519 E1F12 (B) [97.201]
498 E1F12 (B) [97.201]
520 Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?
499 Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?
521 A. Any licensed amateur operator
500 A. Any licensed amateur operator
522 B. Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operato 501 B. Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operat
523 C. Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
502 C. Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
524 D. Only Amateur Extra Class operators
503 D. Only Amateur Extra Class operators
525 ~~
504 ~~
505 E1F13 (C) [97.117]
506 What types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations
507 A. Business-related messages for non-profit organizations
508 B. Messages intended for connection to users of the maritime satell
509 C. Communications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service
510 D. All of these choices are correct
511 ~~
512 E1F14 (A) [1.931]
513 Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a "Special Temporary A
514 A. To provide for experimental amateur communications
515 B. To allow regular operation on Land Mobile channels
516 C. To provide additional spectrum for personal use
517 D. To provide temporary operation while awaiting normal licensing
518 ~~
526 E2A01 (C)
519 E2A01 (C)
527 What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite? 520 What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite
528 A. From west to east
521 A. From west to east
529 B. From east to west
522 B. From east to west
530 C. From south to north
523 C. From south to north
531 D. From north to south
524 D. From north to south
532 ~~
525 ~~
533 E2A02 (A)
526 E2A02 (A)
534 What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite? 527 What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite
535 A. From north to south
528 A. From north to south
536 B. From west to east
529 B. From west to east
537 C. From east to west
530 C. From east to west
538 D. From south to north
531 D. From south to north
539 ~~
532 ~~
540 E2A03 (C)
533 E2A03 (C)
541 What is the orbital period of an Earth satellite?
534 What is the orbital period of an Earth satellite?
542 A. The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit
535 A. The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit
543 B. The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit
536 B. The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit
544 C. The time it takes for a satellite to complete one revolution arou 537 C. The time it takes for a satellite to complete one revolution aro
545 D. The time it takes for a satellite to travel from perigee to apoge 538 D. The time it takes for a satellite to travel from perigee to apog
546 ~~
539 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
547 E2A04 (B)
540 E2A04 (B)
548 What is meant by the term mode as applied to an amateur radio satell 541 What is meant by the term mode as applied to an amateur radio satel
549 A. The type of signals that can be relayed through the satellite
542 A. The type of signals that can be relayed through the satellite
550 B. The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
543 B. The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
551 C. The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth
544 C. The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth
552 D. Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit
545 D. Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit
553 ~~
546 ~~
554 E2A05 (D)
547 E2A05 (D)
555 What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?
548 What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?
556 A. Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions
549 A. Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions
557 B. The location of the ground control station
550 B. The location of the ground control station
558 C. The polarization of uplink and downlink signals
551 C. The polarization of uplink and downlink signals
559 D. The uplink and downlink frequency ranges
552 D. The uplink and downlink frequency ranges
560 ~~
553 ~~
561 E2A06 (A)
554 E2A06 (A)
562 On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating 555 On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating
563 A. 435 MHz - 438 MHz
556 A. 435-438 MHz
564 B. 144 MHz - 146 MHz
557 B. 144-146 MHz
565 C. 50.0 MHz - 50.2 MHz
558 C. 50.0-50.2 MHz
566 D. 29.5 MHz - 29.7 MHz
559 D. 29.5 to 29.7 MHz
567 ~~
560 ~~
568 E2A07 (D)
561 E2A07 (D)
569 Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a lin 562 Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a li
570 A. FM and CW
563 A. FM and CW
571 B. SSB and SSTV
564 B. SSB and SSTV
572 C. PSK and Packet
565 C. PSK and Packet
573 D. All of these choices are correct
566 D. All of these choices are correct
574 ~~
567 ~~
575 E2A08 (B)
568 E2A08 (B)
576 Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a line 569 Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a lin
577 A. To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
570 A. To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
578 B. To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users
571 B. To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users
579 C. To prevent the satellite from emitting out-of-band signals
572 C. To prevent the satellite from emitting out of band signals
580 D. To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs
573 D. To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs
581 ~~
574 ~~
582 E2A09 (A)
575 E2A09 (A)
583 What do the terms L band and S band specify with regard to satellite 576 What do the terms L band and S band specify with regard to satellit
584 A. The 23 centimeter and 13 centimeter bands
577 A. The 23 centimeter and 13 centimeter bands
585 B. The 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands
578 B. The 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands
586 C. FM and Digital Store-and-Forward systems
579 C. FM and Digital Store-and-Forward systems
587 D. Which sideband to use
580 D. Which sideband to use
588 ~~
581 ~~
589 E2A10 (A)
582 E2A10 (A)
590 Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rapi 583 Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rap
591 A. Because the satellite is spinning
584 A. Because the satellite is spinning
592 B. Because of ionospheric absorption
585 B. Because of ionospheric absorption
593 C. Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude
586 C. Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude
594 D. Because of the Doppler Effect
587 D. Because of the Doppler Effect
595 ~~
588 ~~
596 E2A11 (B)
589 E2A11 (B)
597 What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin mod 590 What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin mo
598 A. A linearly polarized antenna
591 A. A linearly polarized antenna
599 B. A circularly polarized antenna
592 B. A circularly polarized antenna
600 C. An isotropic antenna
593 C. An isotropic antenna
601 D. A log-periodic dipole array
594 D. A log-periodic dipole array
602 ~~
595 ~~
603 E2A12 (D)
596 E2A12 (D)
604 What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given ti 597 What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given t
605 A. By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite
598 A. By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite
606 B. By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination
599 B. By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination
607 C. By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination
600 C. By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination
608 D. By calculations using the Keplerian elements for the specified sa 601 D. By calculations using the Keplerian elements for the specified s
609 ~~
602 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
610 E2A13 (B)
603 E2A13 (B)
611 What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky? 604 What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?
612 A. HEO
605 A. HEO
613 B. Geostationary
606 B. Geostationary
614 C. Geomagnetic
607 C. Geomagnetic
615 D. LEO
608 D. LEO
616 ~~
609 ~~
617 E2A14 (C)
618 What technology is used to track, in real time, balloons carrying am
619 A. Radar
620 B. Bandwidth compressed LORAN
621 C. APRS
622 D. Doppler shift of beacon signals
623 ~~
624 E2B01 (A)
610 E2B01 (A)
625 How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan 611 How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan
626 A. 30
612 A. 30
627 B. 60
613 B. 60
628 C. 90
614 C. 90
629 D. 120
615 D. 120
630 ~~
616 ~~
631 E2B02 (C)
617 E2B02 (C)
632 How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television fram 618 How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television fra
633 A. 30
619 A. 30
634 B. 60
620 B. 60
635 C. 525
621 C. 525
636 D. 1080
622 D. 1080
637 ~~
623 ~~
638 E2B03 (D)
624 E2B03 (D)
639 How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC 625 How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTS
640 A. By scanning two fields simultaneously
626 A. By scanning two fields simultaneously
641 B. By scanning each field from bottom to top
627 B. By scanning each field from bottom to top
642 C. By scanning lines from left to right in one field and right to le 628 C. By scanning lines from left to right in one field and right to l
643 D. By scanning odd numbered lines in one field and even numbered lin 629 D. By scanning odd numbered lines in one field and even numbered on
644 ~~
630 ~~
645 E2B04 (B)
631 E2B04 (B)
646 What is blanking in a video signal?
632 What is blanking in a video signal?
647 A. Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync pulses
633 A. Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync pulses
648 B. Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from right to 634 B. Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from right t
649 C. Turning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a transmission 635 C. Turning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a transmissio
650 D. Transmitting a black and white test pattern
636 D. Transmitting a black and white test pattern
651 ~~
637 ~~
652 E2B05 (C)
638 E2B05 (C)
653 Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband f 639 Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband
654 A. The vestigial sideband carries the audio information
640 A. The vestigial sideband carries the audio information
655 B. The vestigial sideband contains chroma information
641 B. The vestigial sideband contains chroma information
656 C. Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple vi 642 C. Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple v
657 D. Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen th 643 D. Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen t
658 ~~
644 ~~
659 E2B06 (A)
645 E2B06 (A)
660 What is vestigial sideband modulation?
646 What is vestigial sideband modulation?
661 A. Amplitude modulation in which one complete sideband and a portion 647 A. Amplitude modulation in which one complete sideband and a portio
662 B. A type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted
648 B. A type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted
663 C. Narrow-band FM modulation achieved by filtering one sideband from 649 C. Narrow-band FM transmission achieved by filtering one sideband f
664 D. Spread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation fol 650 D. Spread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation fo
665 ~~
651 ~~
666 E2B07 (B)
652 E2B07 (B)
667 What is the name of the signal component that carries color informat 653 What is the name of the signal component that carries color informa
668 A. Luminance
654 A. Luminance
669 B. Chroma
655 B. Chroma
670 C. Hue
656 C. Hue
671 D. Spectral Intensity
657 D. Spectral Intensity
672 ~~
658 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
673 E2B08 (D)
659 E2B08 (D)
674 Which of the following is a common method of transmitting accompanyi 660 Which of the following is a common method of transmitting accompany
675 A. Frequency-modulated sub-carrier
661 A. Frequency-modulated sub-carrier
676 B. A separate VHF or UHF audio link
662 B. A separate VHF or UHF audio link
677 C. Frequency modulation of the video carrier
663 C. Frequency modulation of the video carrier
678 D. All of these choices are correct
664 D. All of these choices are correct
679 ~~
665 ~~
680 E2B09 (D)
666 E2B09 (D)
681 What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suita 667 What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suit
682 A. A special IF converter
668 A. A special IF converter
683 B. A special front end limiter
669 B. A special front end limiter
684 C. A special notch filter to remove synchronization pulses
670 C. A special notch filter to remove synchronization pulses
685 D. No other hardware is needed
671 D. No other hardware is needed
686 ~~
672 ~~
687 E2B10 (A)
673 E2B10 (A)
688 Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio 674 Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio
689 A. 3 KHz
675 A. 3 KHz
690 B. 10 KHz
676 B. 10 KHz
691 C. 15 KHz
677 C. 15 KHz
692 D. 20 KHz
678 D. 20 KHz
693 ~~
679 ~~
694 E2B11 (B)
680 E2B11 (B)
695 What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code 681 What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code
696 A. To lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images
682 A. To lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images
697 B. To identify the SSTV mode being used
683 B. To identify the SSTV mode being used
698 C. To provide vertical synchronization
684 C. To provide vertical synchronization
699 D. To identify the call sign of the station transmitting
685 D. To identify the call sign of the station transmitting
700 ~~
686 ~~
701 E2B12 (D)
687 E2B12 (D)
702 How are analog SSTV images typically transmitted on the HF bands?
688 How are analog SSTV images typically transmitted on the HF bands?
703 A. Video is converted to equivalent Baudot representation
689 A. Video is converted to equivalent Baudot representation
704 B. Video is converted to equivalent ASCII representation
690 B. Video is converted to equivalent ASCII representation
705 C. Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted u 691 C. Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted
706 D. Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted u 692 D. Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted
707 ~~
693 ~~
708 E2B13 (C)
694 E2B13 (C)
709 How many lines are commonly used in each frame of an amateur slow-sc 695 How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-s
710 A. 30 or 60
696 A. 30 to 60
711 B. 60 or 100
697 B. 60 or 100
712 C. 128 or 256
698 C. 128 or 256
713 D. 180 or 360
699 D. 180 or 360
714 ~~
700 ~~
715 E2B14 (A)
701 E2B14 (A)
716 What aspect of an amateur slow-scan television signal encodes the br 702 What aspect of an amateur slow-scan television signal encodes the b
717 A. Tone frequency
703 A. Tone frequency
718 B. Tone amplitude
704 B. Tone amplitude
719 C. Sync amplitude
705 C. Sync amplitude
720 D. Sync frequency
706 D. Sync frequency
721 ~~
707 ~~
722 E2B15 (A)
708 E2B15 (A)
723 What signals SSTV receiving equipment to begin a new picture line? 709 What signals SSTV receiving equipment to begin a new picture line?
724 A. Specific tone frequencies
710 A. Specific tone frequencies
725 B. Elapsed time
711 B. Elapsed time
726 C. Specific tone amplitudes
712 C. Specific tone amplitudes
727 D. A two-tone signal
713 D. A two-tone signal
728 ~~
714 ~~
729 E2B16 (D)
715 E2B16 (D)
730 Which is a video standard used by North American Fast Scan ATV stati 716 Which of the following is the video standard used by North American
731 A. PAL
717 A. PAL
732 B. DRM
718 B. DRM
733 C. Scottie
719 C. Scottie
734 D. NTSC
720 D. NTSC
735 ~~
721 ~~
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736 E2B17 (B)
722 E2B17 (B)
737 What is the approximate bandwidth of a slow-scan TV signal?
723 What is the approximate bandwidth of a slow-scan TV signal?
738 A. 600 Hz
724 A. 600 Hz
739 B. 3 kHz
725 B. 3 kHz
740 C. 2 MHz
726 C. 2 MHz
741 D. 6 MHz
727 D. 6 MHz
742 ~~
728 ~~
743 E2B18 (D)
729 E2B18 (D)
744 On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV t 730 On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV
745 A. 14.230 MHz
731 A. 14.230 MHz
746 B. 29.6 MHz
732 B. 29.6 MHz
747 C. 52.525 MHz
733 C. 52.525 MHz
748 D. 1255 MHz
734 D. 1255 MHz
749 ~~
735 ~~
750 E2B19 (C)
736 E2B19 (C)
751 What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow sc 737 What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow s
752 A. None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies
738 A. None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies
753 B. They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345 MHz, and 28. 739 B. They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345, MHz, and 2
754 C. They are restricted to phone band segments and their bandwidth ca 740 C. They are restricted to phone band segments and their bandwidth c
755 D. They are not permitted above 54 MHz
741 D. They are not permitted above 54 MHz
756 ~~
742 ~~
757 E2C01 (A)
743 E2C01 (A)
758 Which of the following is true about contest operating?
744 Which of the following is true about contest operating?
759 A. Operators are permitted to make contacts even if they do not subm 745 A. Operators are permitted to make contacts even if they do not sub
760 B. Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore accep 746 B. Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acce
761 C. It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being wo 747 C. It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being w
762 D. Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange
748 D. Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange
763 ~~
749 ~~
764 E2C02 (A)
750 E2C02 (A)
765 Which of the following best describes the term self-spotting in rega 751 Which of the following best describes the term “self-spotting” in r
766 A. The generally prohibited practice of posting one’s own call sign 752 A. The generally prohibited practice of posting one’s own call sign
767 B. The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of sta 753 B. The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of st
768 C. A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a statio 754 C. A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a stati
769 D. An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a stati 755 D. An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a stat
770 ~~
756 ~~
771 E2C03 (A)
757 E2C03 (A)
772 From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting genera 758 From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting gener
773 A. 30 m
759 A. 30 meters
774 B. 6 m
760 B. 6 meters
775 C. 2 m
761 C. 2 meters
776 D. 33 cm
762 D. 33 cm
777 ~~
763 ~~
778 E2C04 (A)
764 E2C04 (D)
779 What type of transmission is most often used for a ham radio mesh ne 765 On which of the following frequencies is an amateur radio contest c
780 A. Spread spectrum in the 2.4 GHz band
766 A. 3.525 MHz
781 B. Multiple Frequency Shift Keying in the 10 GHz band
767 B. 14.020 MHz
782 C. Store and forward on the 440 MHz band
768 C. 28.330 MHz
783 D. Frequency division multiplex in the 24 GHz band
769 D. 146.52 MHz
784 ~~
770 ~~
785 E2C05 (B)
771 E2C05 (B)
786 What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?
772 What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?
787 A. To allocate frequencies for DXpeditions
773 A. To allocate frequencies for DXpeditions
788 B. To handle the receiving and sending of confirmation cards for a D 774 B. To handle the receiving and sending of confirmation cards for a
789 C. To run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station 775 C. To run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station
790 D. To relay calls to and from a DX station
776 D. To relay calls to and from a DX station
791 ~~
777 ~~
792 E2C06 (C)
778 E2C06 (C)
793 During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to 779 During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to
794 A. At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contes 780 A. At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for conte
795 B. In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequ 781 B. In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling freq
796 C. In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity 782 C. In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activit
797 D. In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national call 783 D. In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national cal
798 ~~
784 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
799 E2C07 (A)
785 E2C07 (A)
800 What is the Cabrillo format?
786 What is the Cabrillo format?
801 A. A standard for submission of electronic contest logs
787 A. A standard for submission of electronic contest logs
802 B. A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO
788 B. A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO
803 C. The most common set of contest rules
789 C. The most common set of contest rules
804 D. The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors
790 D. The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors
805 ~~
791 ~~
806 E2C08 (B)
792 E2C08 (A)
807 Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the U.S. QS 793 Why are received spread-spectrum signals resistant to interference?
808 A. Special event contacts between stations in the U.S.
794 A. Signals not using the spectrum-spreading algorithm are suppresse
809 B. Contacts between a U.S. station and a non-U.S. station
795 B. The high power used by a spread-spectrum transmitter keeps its s
810 C. Repeater contacts between U.S. club members
796 C. The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker circuit
811 D. Contacts using tactical call signs
797 D. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the t
812 ~~
798 ~~
813 E2C09 (C)
799 E2C09 (D)
814 What type of equipment is commonly used to implement a ham radio mes 800 How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?
815 A. A 2 meter VHF transceiver with a 1200 baud modem
801 A. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the t
816 B. An optical cable connection between the USB ports of 2 separate c 802 B. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the t
817 C. A standard wireless router running custom software
803 C. A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of
818 D. A 440 MHz transceiver with a 9600 baud modem
804 D. The frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly
819 ~~
805 ~~
820 E2C10 (D)
806 E2C10 (D)
821 Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another freq 807 Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another fre
822 A. Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is 808 A. Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that i
823 B. To separate the calling stations from the DX station
809 B. To separate the calling stations from the DX station
824 C. To improve operating efficiency by reducing interference
810 C. To reduce interference, thereby improving operating efficiency
825 D. All of these choices are correct
811 D. All of these choices are correct
826 ~~
812 ~~
827 E2C11 (A)
813 E2C11 (A)
828 How should you generally identify your station when attempting to co 814 How should you generally identify your station when attempting to c
829 A. Send your full call sign once or twice
815 A. Send your full call sign once or twice
830 B. Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make c 816 B. Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make
831 C. Send your full call sign and grid square
817 C. Send your full call sign and grid square
832 D. Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words "this 818 D. Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words this
833 ~~
819 ~~
834 E2C12 (B)
820 E2C12 (B)
835 What might help to restore contact when DX signals become too weak t 821 What might help to restore contact when DX signals become too weak
836 A. Switch to a higher frequency HF band
822 A. Switch to a higher frequency HF band
837 B. Switch to a lower frequency HF band
823 B. Switch to a lower frequency HF band
838 C. Wait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass
824 C. Wait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass
839 D. Wait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band 825 D. Wait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the ban
840 ~~
826 ~~
841 E2C13 (D)
842 What indicator is required to be used by U.S.-licensed operators whe
843 A. / followed by the USPS two letter abbreviation for the state in w
844 B. /R# where # is the district of the remote station
845 C. The ARRL section of the remote station
846 D. No additional indicator is required
847 ~~
848 E2D01 (B)
827 E2D01 (B)
849 Which of the following digital modes is especially designed for use 828 Which of the following digital modes is especially designed for use
850 A. WSPR
829 A. WSPR
851 B. FSK441
830 B. FSK441
852 C. Hellschreiber
831 C. Hellschreiber
853 D. APRS
832 D. APRS
854 ~~
833 ~~
855 E2D02 (D)
834 E2D02 (A)
856 Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor scatter 835 What is the definition of baud?
857 A. 15 second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating 836 A. The number of data symbols transmitted per second
858 B. Use of high speed CW or digital modes
837 B. The number of characters transmitted per second
859 C. Short transmission with rapidly repeated call signs and signal re 838 C. The number of characters transmitted per minute
860 D. All of these choices are correct
839 D. The number of words transmitted per minute
861 ~~
840 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
862 E2D03 (D)
841 E2D03 (D)
863 Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME co 842 Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME c
864 A. FSK441
843 A. FSK441
865 B. PACTOR III
844 B. PACTOR III
866 C. Olivia
845 C. Olivia
867 D. JT65
846 D. JT65
868 ~~
847 ~~
869 E2D04 (C)
848 E2D04 (C)
870 What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Ama 849 What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Am
871 A. To upload operational software for the transponder
850 A. To upload operational software for the transponder
872 B. To delay download of telemetry between satellites
851 B. To delay download of telemetry between satellites
873 C. To store digital messages in the satellite for later download by 852 C. To store digital messages in the satellite for later download by
874 D. To relay messages between satellites
853 D. To relay messages between satellites
875 ~~
854 ~~
876 E2D05 (B)
855 E2D05 (B)
877 Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbi 856 Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orb
878 A. Digipeating
857 A. Digipeating
879 B. Store-and-forward
858 B. Store-and-forward
880 C. Multi-satellite relaying
859 C. Multi-satellite relaying
881 D. Node hopping
860 D. Node hopping
882 ~~
861 ~~
883 E2D06 (A)
862 E2D06 (A)
884 Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contac 863 Which of the following is a commonly used 2-meter APRS frequency?
885 A. Time synchronous transmissions alternately from each station
864 A. 144.39 MHz
886 B. Storing and forwarding digital messages
865 B. 144.20 MHz
887 C. Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons reflecte 866 C. 145.02 MHz
888 D. High speed CW identification to avoid fading
867 D. 146.52 MHz
889 ~~
868 ~~
890 E2D07 (C)
869 E2D07 (C)
891 What digital protocol is used by APRS?
870 Which of the following digital protocols is used by APRS?
892 A. PACTOR
871 A. PACTOR
893 B. 802.11
872 B. 802.11
894 C. AX.25
873 C. AX.25
895 D. AMTOR
874 D. AMTOR
896 ~~
875 ~~
897 E2D08 (A)
876 E2D08 (A)
898 What type of packet frame is used to transmit APRS beacon data?
877 Which of the following types of packet frames is used to transmit A
899 A. Unnumbered Information
878 A. Unnumbered Information
900 B. Disconnect
879 B. Disconnect
901 C. Acknowledgement
880 C. Acknowledgement
902 D. Connect
881 D. Connect
903 ~~
882 ~~
904 E2D09 (D)
883 E2D09 (D)
905 Which of these digital modes has the fastest data throughput under c 884 Under clear communications conditions, which of these digital commu
906 A. AMTOR
885 A. AMTOR
907 B. 170 Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
886 B. 170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
908 C. PSK31
887 C. PSK31
909 D. 300 baud packet
888 D. 300-baud packet
910 ~~
889 ~~
911 E2D10 (C)
890 E2D10 (C)
912 How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service com 891 How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service co
913 A. An APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automati 892 A. An APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automat
914 B. APRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically r 893 B. APRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically
915 C. An APRS station with a GPS unit can automatically transmit inform 894 C. An APRS station with a GPS unit can automatically transmit infor
916 D. All of these choices are correct
895 D. All of these choices are correct
917 ~~
896 ~~
918 E2D11 (D)
897 E2D11 (D)
919 Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communic 898 Which of the following data are used by the APRS network communicat
920 A. Polar coordinates
899 A. Polar coordinates
921 B. Time and frequency
900 B. Time and frequency
922 C. Radio direction finding spectrum analysis
901 C. Radio direction finding LOPs
923 D. Latitude and longitude
902 D. Latitude and longitude
924 ~~
903 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
925 E2D12 (A)
904 E2D12 (A)
926 How does JT65 improve EME communications?
905 How does JT65 improve EME communications?
927 A. It can decode signals many dB below the noise floor using FEC
906 A. It can decode signals many dB below the noise floor using FEC
928 B. It controls the receiver to track Doppler shift
907 B. It controls the receiver to track Doppler shift
929 C. It supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon
908 C. It supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon
930 D. All of these choices are correct
909 D. All of these choices are correct
931 ~~
910 ~~
932 E2D13 (A)
933 What type of modulation is used for JT65 contacts?
934 A. Multi-tone AFSK
935 B. PSK
936 C. RTTY
937 D. IEEE 802.11
938 ~~
939 E2D14 (B)
940 What is one advantage of using JT65 coding?
941 A. Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth
942 B. The ability to decode signals which have a very low signal to noi
943 C. Easily copied by ear if necessary
944 D. Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth
945 ~~
946 E2E01 (B)
911 E2E01 (B)
947 Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz? 912 Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?
948 A. DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
913 A. DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
949 B. FSK
914 B. FSK
950 C. Pulse modulation
915 C. Pulse modulation
951 D. Spread spectrum
916 D. Spread spectrum
952 ~~
917 ~~
953 E2E02 (A)
918 E2E02 (A)
954 What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?
919 What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?
955 A. Forward Error Correction
920 A. Forward Error Correction
956 B. First Error Correction
921 B. First Error Correction
957 C. Fatal Error Correction
922 C. Fatal Error Correction
958 D. Final Error Correction
923 D. Final Error Correction
959 ~~
924 ~~
960 E2E03 (C)
925 E2E03 (C)
961 How is the timing of JT65 contacts organized?
926 How is Forward Error Correction implemented?
962 A. By exchanging ACK/NAK packets
927 A. By the receiving station repeating each block of three data char
963 B. Stations take turns on alternate days
928 B. By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station alo
964 C. Alternating transmissions at 1 minute intervals
929 C. By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correc
965 D. It depends on the lunar phase
930 D. By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal accordi
966 ~~
931 ~~
967 E2E04 (A)
932 E2E04 (A)
968 What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse 933 What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellips
969 A. Selective fading has occurred
934 A. Selective fading has occurred
970 B. One of the signal filters is saturated
935 B. One of the signal filters has saturated
971 C. The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency 936 C. The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequenc
972 D. The mark and space signal have been inverted
937 D. The mark and space signal have been inverted
973 ~~
938 ~~
974 E2E05 (A)
939 E2E05 (D)
975 Which type of digital mode does not support keyboard-to-keyboard ope 940 How does ARQ accomplish error correction?
976 A. Winlink
941 A. Special binary codes provide automatic correction
977 B. RTTY
942 B. Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
978 C. PSK31
943 C. If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
979 D. MFSK
944 D. If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested
980 ~~
945 ~~
981 E2E06 (C)
946 E2E06 (C)
982 What is the most common data rate used for HF packet?
947 What is the most common data rate used for HF packet communications
983 A. 48 baud
948 A. 48 baud
984 B. 110 baud
949 B. 110 baud
985 C. 300 baud
950 C. 300 baud
986 D. 1200 baud
951 D. 1200 baud
987 ~~
952 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
988 E2E07 (B)
953 E2E07 (B)
989 What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal? 954 What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal
990 A. 31 Hz
955 A. 31 Hz
991 B. 316 Hz
956 B. 316 Hz
992 C. 550 Hz
957 C. 550 Hz
993 D. 2.16 kHz
958 D. 2.16 kHz
994 ~~
959 ~~
995 E2E08 (B)
960 E2E08 (B)
996 Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer bina 961 Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer bin
997 A. Hellschreiber
962 A. Hellschreiber
998 B. PACTOR
963 B. PACTOR
999 C. RTTY
964 C. RTTY
1000 D. AMTOR
965 D. AMTOR
1001 ~~
966 ~~
1002 E2E09 (D)
967 E2E09 (D)
1003 Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding 968 Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding
1004 A. RTTY
969 A. RTTY
1005 B. PACTOR
970 B. PACTOR
1006 C. MT63
971 C. MT63
1007 D. PSK31
972 D. PSK31
1008 ~~
973 ~~
1009 E2E10 (C)
974 E2E10 (C)
1010 Which of these digital modes has the narrowest bandwidth?
975 Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandw
1011 A. MFSK16
976 A. MFSK16
1012 B. 170 Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
977 B. 170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
1013 C. PSK31
978 C. PSK31
1014 D. 300-baud packet
979 D. 300-baud packet
1015 ~~
980 ~~
1016 E2E11 (A)
981 E2E11 (A)
1017 What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?
982 What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?
1018 A. Direct FSK applies the data signal to the transmitter VFO
983 A. Direct FSK applies the data signal to the transmitter VFO
1019 B. Audio FSK has a superior frequency response
984 B. Audio FSK has a superior frequency response
1020 C. Direct FSK uses a DC-coupled data connection
985 C. Direct FSK uses a DC-coupled data connection
1021 D. Audio FSK can be performed anywhere in the transmit chain
986 D. Audio FSK can be performed anywhere in the transmit chain
1022 ~~
987 ~~
1023 E2E12 (C)
988 E2E12 (A)
1024 Which type of control is used by stations using the Automatic Link E 989 Which type of digital communication does not support keyboard-to-ke
1025 A. Local
990 A. Winlink
1026 B. Remote
991 B. RTTY
1027 C. Automatic
992 C. PSK31
1028 D. ALE can use any type of control
993 D. MFSK
1029 ~~
1030 E2E13 (D)
1031 Which of the following is a possible reason that attempts to initiat
1032 A. Your transmit frequency is incorrect
1033 B. The protocol version you are using is not the supported by the di
1034 C. Another station you are unable to hear is using the frequency
1035 D. All of these choices are correct
1036 ~~
994 ~~
1037 E3A01 (D)
995 E3A01 (D)
1038 What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surfac 996 What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surfa
1039 A. 500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
997 A. 500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
1040 B. 2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee
998 B. 2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee
1041 C. 5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
999 C. 5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
1042 D. 12,000 miles, if the Moon is visible by both
1000 D. 12,000 miles, as long as both can “see” the Moon
1043 ~~
1001 ~~
1044 E3A02 (B)
1002 E3A02 (B)
1045 What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal?
1003 What characterizes libration fading of an Earth-Moon-Earth signal?
1046 A. A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
1004 A. A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
1047 B. A fluttery irregular fading
1005 B. A fluttery irregular fading
1048 C. A gradual loss of signal as the Sun rises
1006 C. A gradual loss of signal as the Sun rises
1049 D. The returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the t1007 D. The returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the
1050 ~~
1008 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
1051 E3A03 (A)
1009 E3A03 (A)
1052 When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will general1010 When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will genera
1053 A. When the Moon is at perigee
1011 A. When the Moon is at perigee
1054 B. When the Moon is full
1012 B. When the Moon is full
1055 C. When the Moon is at apogee
1013 C. When the Moon is at apogee
1056 D. When the MUF is above 30 MHz
1014 D. When the MUF is above 30 MHz
1057 ~~
1015 ~~
1058 E3A04 (D)
1016 E3A04 (D)
1059 What do Hepburn maps predict?
1017 What type of receiving system is desirable for EME communications?
1060 A. Sporadic E propagation
1018 A. Equipment with very wide bandwidth
1061 B. Locations of auroral reflecting zones
1019 B. Equipment with very low dynamic range
1062 C. Likelihood of rain-scatter along cold or warm fronts
1020 C. Equipment with very low gain
1063 D. Probability of tropospheric propagation
1021 D. Equipment with very low noise figures
1064 ~~
1022 ~~
1065 E3A05 (C)
1023 E3A05 (A)
1066 Tropospheric propagation of microwave signals often occurs along wha1024 Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME conta
1067 A. Gray-line
1025 A. Time synchronous transmissions with each station alternating
1068 B. Lightning discharges
1026 B. Storing and forwarding digital messages
1069 C. Warm and cold fronts
1027 C. Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons from th
1070 D. Sprites and jets
1028 D. High speed CW identification to avoid fading
1071 ~~
1029 ~~
1072 E3A06 (C)
1030 E3A06 (B)
1073 Which of the following is required for microwave propagation via rai1031 What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in
1074 A. Rain droplets must be electrically charged
1032 A. 144.000 - 144.001 MHz
1075 B. Rain droplets must be within the E layer
1033 B. 144.000 - 144.100 MHz
1076 C. The rain must be within radio range of both stations
1034 C. 144.100 - 144.300 MHz
1077 D. All of these choices are correct
1035 D. 145.000 - 145.100 MHz
1078 ~~
1036 ~~
1079 E3A07 (C)
1037 E3A07 (D)
1080 Atmospheric ducts capable of propagating microwave signals often for1038 What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in
1081 A. Mountain ranges
1039 A. 430.000 - 430.150 MHz
1082 B. Forests
1040 B. 430.100 - 431.100 MHz
1083 C. Bodies of water
1041 C. 431.100 - 431.200 MHz
1084 D. Urban areas
1042 D. 432.000 - 432.100 MHz
1085 ~~
1043 ~~
1086 E3A08 (A)
1044 E3A08 (A)
1087 When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region o1045 When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region
1088 A. The E layer
1046 A. The E layer
1089 B. The F1 layer
1047 B. The F1 layer
1090 C. The F2 layer
1048 C. The F2 layer
1091 D. The D layer
1049 D. The D layer
1092 ~~
1050 ~~
1093 E3A09 (C)
1051 E3A09 (C)
1094 Which of the following frequency range is most suited for meteor sca1052 Which of the following frequency ranges is well suited for meteor-s
1095 A. 1.8 MHz - 1.9 MHz
1053 A. 1.8 - 1.9 MHz
1096 B. 10 MHz - 14 MHz
1054 B. 10 - 14 MHz
1097 C. 28 MHz - 148 MHz
1055 C. 28 - 148 MHz
1098 D. 220 MHz - 450 MHz
1056 D. 220 - 450 MHz
1099 ~~
1100 E3A10 (B)
1101 Which type of atmospheric structure can create a path for microwave
1102 A. The jet stream
1103 B. Temperature inversion
1104 C. Wind shear
1105 D. Dust devil
1106 ~~
1107 E3A11 (B)
1108 What is a typical range for tropospheric propagation of microwave si
1109 A. 10 miles to 50 miles
1110 B. 100 miles to 300 miles
1111 C. 1200 miles
1112 D. 2500 miles
1113 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
1114 E3A12 (C)
1115 What is the cause of auroral activity?
1116 A. The interaction in the F2 layer between the solar wind and the Va
1117 B. A low sunspot level combined with tropospheric ducting
1118 C. The interaction in the E layer of charged particles from the Sun
1119 D. Meteor showers concentrated in the extreme northern and southern
1120 ~~
1121 E3A13 (A)
1122 Which emission mode is best for aurora propagation?
1123 A. CW
1124 B. SSB
1125 C. FM
1126 D. RTTY
1127 ~~
1057 ~~
1128 E3A14 (B)
1129 From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should
1130 A. South
1131 B. North
1132 C. East
1133 D. West
1134 ~~
1135 E3A15 (C)
1136 What is an electromagnetic wave?
1137 A. A wave of alternating current, in the core of an electromagnet
1138 B. A wave consisting of two electric fields at parallel right angles
1139 C. A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field oscil
1140 D. A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each
1141 ~~
1142 E3A16 (D)
1058 E3A10 (D)
1143 Which of the following best describes electromagnetic waves travelin1059 Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor-scatte
1144 A. Electric and magnetic fields become aligned as they travel
1060 A. 15 second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating
1145 B. The energy propagates through a medium with a high refractive ind1061 B. Use of high speed CW or digital modes
1146 C. The waves are reflected by the ionosphere and return to their sou1062 C. Short transmission with rapidly repeated call signs and signal r
1147 D. Changing electric and magnetic fields propagate the energy
1063 D. All of these choices are correct
1148 ~~
1149 E3A17 (B)
1150 What is meant by circularly polarized electromagnetic waves?
1151 A. Waves with an electric field bent into a circular shape
1152 B. Waves with a rotating electric field
1153 C. Waves that circle the Earth
1154 D. Waves produced by a loop antenna
1155 ~~
1064 ~~
1156 E3B01 (A)
1065 E3B01 (A)
1157 What is transequatorial propagation?
1066 What is transequatorial propagation?
1158 A. Propagation between two mid-latitude points at approximately the 1067 A. Propagation between two mid-latitude points at approximately the
1159 B. Propagation between any two points located on the magnetic equato1068 B. Propagation between any two points located on the magnetic equat
1160 C. Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magn1069 C. Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the mag
1161 D. Propagation between two stations at the same latitude
1070 D. Propagation between two stations at the same latitude
1162 ~~
1071 ~~
1163 E3B02 (C)
1072 E3B02 (C)
1164 What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequator1073 What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequato
1165 A. 1000 miles
1074 A. 1000 miles
1166 B. 2500 miles
1075 B. 2500 miles
1167 C. 5000 miles
1076 C. 5000 miles
1168 D. 7500 miles
1077 D. 7500 miles
1169 ~~
1078 ~~
1170 E3B03 (C)
1079 E3B03 (C)
1171 What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?
1080 What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?
1172 A. Morning
1081 A. Morning
1173 B. Noon
1082 B. Noon
1174 C. Afternoon or early evening
1083 C. Afternoon or early evening
1175 D. Late at night
1084 D. Late at night
1176 ~~
1085 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
1177 E3B04 (B)
1086 E3B04 (A)
1178 What is meant by the terms extraordinary and ordinary waves?
1087 What type of propagation is probably occurring if an HF beam antenn
1179 A. Extraordinary waves describe rare long skip propagation compared 1088 A. Long-path
1180 B. Independent waves created in the ionosphere that are elliptically1089 B. Sporadic-E
1181 C. Long path and short path waves
1090 C. Transequatorial
1182 D. Refracted rays and reflected waves
1091 D. Auroral
1183 ~~
1092 ~~
1184 E3B05 (C)
1093 E3B05 (C)
1185 Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?
1094 Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?
1186 A. 160 meters to 40 meters
1095 A. 160 to 40 meters
1187 B. 30 meters to 10 meters
1096 B. 30 to 10 meters
1188 C. 160 meters to 10 meters
1097 C. 160 to 10 meters
1189 D. 6 meters to 2 meters
1098 D. 6 meters to 2 meters
1190 ~~
1099 ~~
1191 E3B06 (B)
1100 E3B06 (B)
1192 Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-p1101 Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long1193 A. 80 meters
1102 A. 80 meters
1194 B. 20 meters
1103 B. 20 meters
1195 C. 10 meters
1104 C. 10 meters
1196 D. 6 meters
1105 D. 6 meters
1197 ~~
1106 ~~
1198 E3B07 (D)
1107 E3B07 (D)
1199 Which of the following could account for hearing an echo on the rece1108 Which of the following could account for hearing an echo on the rec
1200 A. High D layer absorption
1109 A. High D layer absorption
1201 B. Meteor scatter
1110 B. Meteor scatter
1202 C. Transmit frequency is higher than the MUF
1111 C. Transmit frequency is higher than the MUF
1203 D. Receipt of a signal by more than one path
1112 D. Receipt of a signal by more than one path
1204 ~~
1113 ~~
1205 E3B08 (D)
1114 E3B08 (D)
1206 What type of HF propagation is probably occurring if radio signals t1115 What type of HF propagation is probably occurring if radio signals
1207 A. Transequatorial
1116 A. Transequatorial
1208 B. Sporadic-E
1117 B. Sporadic-E
1209 C. Long-path
1118 C. Long-path
1210 D. Gray-line
1119 D. Gray-line
1211 ~~
1120 ~~
1212 E3B09 (A)
1121 E3B09 (A)
1213 At what time of year is Sporadic E propagation most likely to occur?1122 At what time of day is gray-line propagation most likely to occur?
1214 A. Around the solstices, especially the summer solstice
1123 A. At sunrise and sunset
1215 B. Around the solstices, especially the winter solstice
1124 B. When the Sun is directly above the location of the transmitting
1216 C. Around the equinoxes, especially the spring equinox
1125 C. When the Sun is directly overhead at the middle of the communica
1217 D. Around the equinoxes, especially the fall equinox
1126 D. When the Sun is directly above the location of the receiving sta
1218 ~~
1127 ~~
1219 E3B10 (B)
1128 E3B10 (B)
1220 What is the cause of gray-line propagation?
1129 What is the cause of gray-line propagation?
1221 A. At midday, the Sun super heats the ionosphere causing increased r1130 A. At midday, the Sun being directly overhead superheats the ionosp
1222 B. At twilight and sunrise, D-layer absorption is low while E-layer 1131 B. At twilight, D-layer absorption drops while E-layer and F-layer
1223 C. In darkness, solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ion1132 C. In darkness, solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric io
1224 D. At mid-afternoon, the Sun heats the ionosphere decreasing radio w1133 D. At mid afternoon, the Sun heats the ionosphere decreasing radio
1225 ~~
1226 E3B11 (D)
1227 At what time of day is Sporadic-E propagation most likely to occur?
1228 A. Around sunset
1229 B. Around sunrise
1230 C. Early evening
1231 D. Any time
1232 ~~
1233 E3B12 (B)
1234 What is the primary characteristic of chordal hop propagation?
1235 A. Propagation away from the great circle bearing between stations
1236 B. Successive ionospheric reflections without an intermediate reflec
1237 C. Propagation across the geomagnetic equator
1238 D. Signals reflected back toward the transmitting station
1239 ~~
1134 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
1240 E3B13 (A)
1135 E3B11 (C)
1241 Why is chordal hop propagation desirable?
1136 Which of the following describes gray-line propagation?
1242 A. The signal experiences less loss along the path compared to norma1137 A. Backscatter contacts on the 10 meter band
1243 B. The MUF for chordal hop propagation is much lower than for normal1138 B. Over the horizon propagation on the 6 and 2 meter bands
1244 C. Atmospheric noise is lower in the direction of chordal hop propag1139 C. Long distance communications at twilight on frequencies less tha
1245 D. Signals travel faster along ionospheric chords
1140 D. Tropospheric propagation on the 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands
1246 ~~
1141 ~~
1247 E3B14 (C)
1248 What happens to linearly polarized radio waves that split into ordin
1249 A. They are bent toward the magnetic poles
1250 B. Their polarization is randomly modified
1251 C. They become elliptically polarized
1252 D. They become phase-locked
1253 ~~
1254 E3C01 (B)
1142 E3C01 (D)
1255 What does the term ray tracing describe in regard to radio communica1143 Which of the following effects does Aurora activity have on radio c
1256 A. The process in which an electronic display presents a pattern
1144 A. SSB signals are raspy
1257 B. Modeling a radio wave's path through the ionosphere
1145 B. Signals propagating through the Aurora are fluttery
1258 C. Determining the radiation pattern from an array of antennas
1146 C. CW signals appear to be modulated by white noise
1259 D. Evaluating high voltage sources for X-Rays
1147 D. All of these choices are correct
1260 ~~
1148 ~~
1261 E3C02 (A)
1149 E3C02 (C)
1262 What is indicated by a rising A or K index?
1150 What is the cause of Aurora activity?
1263 A. Increasing disruption of the geomagnetic field
1151 A. The interaction between the solar wind and the Van Allen belt
1264 B. Decreasing disruption of the geomagnetic field
1152 B. A low sunspot level combined with tropospheric ducting
1265 C. Higher levels of solar UV radiation
1153 C. The interaction of charged particles from the Sun with the Earth
1266 D. An increase in the critical frequency
1154 D. Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes
1267 ~~
1155 ~~
1268 E3C03 (B)
1156 E3C03 (D)
1269 Which of the following signal paths is most likely to experience hig1157 Where in the ionosphere does Aurora activity occur?
1270 A. Transequatorial propagation
1158 A. In the F1-region
1271 B. Polar paths
1159 B. In the F2-region
1272 C. Sporadic-E
1160 C. In the D-region
1273 D. NVIS
1161 D. In the E-region
1274 ~~
1162 ~~
1275 E3C04 (C)
1163 E3C04 (A)
1276 What does the value of Bz (B sub Z) represent?
1164 Which emission mode is best for Aurora propagation?
1277 A. Geomagnetic field stability
1165 A. CW
1278 B. Critical frequency for vertical transmissions
1166 B. SSB
1279 C. Direction and strength of the interplanetary magnetic field
1167 C. FM
1280 D. Duration of long-delayed echoes
1168 D. RTTY
1281 ~~
1169 ~~
1282 E3C05 (A)
1170 E3C05 (B)
1283 What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that incom1171 Which of the following describes selective fading?
1284 A. Southward
1172 A. Variability of signal strength with beam heading
1285 B. Northward
1173 B. Partial cancellation of some frequencies within the received pas
1286 C. Eastward
1174 C. Sideband inversion within the ionosphere
1287 D. Westward
1175 D. Degradation of signal strength due to backscatter
1288 ~~
1176 ~~
1289 E3C06 (A)
1177 E3C06 (A)
1290 By how much does the VHF/UHF radio horizon distance exceed the geome1178 By how much does the VHF/UHF radio-path horizon distance exceed the
1291 A. By approximately 15 percent of the distance
1179 A. By approximately 15% of the distance
1292 B. By approximately twice the distance
1180 B. By approximately twice the distance
1293 C. By approximately 50 percent of the distance
1181 C. By approximately one-half the distance
1294 D. By approximately four times the distance
1182 D. By approximately four times the distance
1295 ~~
1183 ~~
1296 E3C07 (D)
1184 E3C07 (B)
1297 Which of the following descriptors indicates the greatest solar flar1185 How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized 3-elemen
1298 A. Class A
1186 A. The main lobe takeoff angle increases with increasing height
1299 B. Class B
1187 B. The main lobe takeoff angle decreases with increasing height
1300 C. Class M
1188 C. The horizontal beam width increases with height
1301 D. Class X
1189 D. The horizontal beam width decreases with height
1302 ~~
1190 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
1303 E3C08 (A)
1191 E3C08 (B)
1304 What does the space weather term G5 mean?
1192 What is the name of the high-angle wave in HF propagation that trav
1305 A. An extreme geomagnetic storm
1193 A. Oblique-angle ray
1306 B. Very low solar activity
1194 B. Pedersen ray
1307 C. Moderate solar wind
1195 C. Ordinary ray
1308 D. Waning sunspot numbers
1196 D. Heaviside ray
1309 ~~
1197 ~~
1310 E3C09 (C)
1198 E3C09 (C)
1311 How does the intensity of an X3 flare compare to that of an X2 flare1199 Which of the following is usually responsible for causing VHF signa
1312 A. 10 percent greater
1200 A. D-region absorption
1313 B. 50 percent greater
1201 B. Faraday rotation
1314 C. Twice as great
1202 C. Tropospheric ducting
1315 D. Four times as great
1203 D. Ground wave
1316 ~~
1204 ~~
1317 E3C10 (B)
1205 E3C10 (B)
1318 What does the 304A solar parameter measure?
1206 How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounte
1319 A. The ratio of X-Ray flux to radio flux, correlated to sunspot numb1207 A. The main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction
1320 B. UV emissions at 304 angstroms, correlated to solar flux index
1208 B. The main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction
1321 C. The solar wind velocity at 304 degrees from the solar equator, co1209 C. The horizontal beam width decreases in the downhill direction
1322 D. The solar emission at 304 GHz, correlated to X-Ray flare levels 1210 D. The horizontal beam width increases in the uphill direction
1323 ~~
1211 ~~
1324 E3C11 (C)
1212 E3C11 (B)
1325 What does VOACAP software model?
1213 From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction shoul
1326 A. AC voltage and impedance
1214 A. South
1327 B. VHF radio propagation
1215 B. North
1328 C. HF propagation
1216 C. East
1329 D. AC current and impedance
1217 D. West
1330 ~~
1218 ~~
1331 E3C12 (C)
1219 E3C12 (C)
1332 How does the maximum distance of ground-wave propagation change when1220 How does the maximum distance of ground-wave propagation change whe
1333 A. It stays the same
1221 A. It stays the same
1334 B. It increases
1222 B. It increases
1335 C. It decreases
1223 C. It decreases
1336 D. It peaks at roughly 14 MHz
1224 D. It peaks at roughly 14 MHz
1337 ~~
1225 ~~
1338 E3C13 (A)
1226 E3C13 (A)
1339 What type of polarization is best for ground-wave propagation?
1227 What type of polarization is best for ground-wave propagation?
1340 A. Vertical
1228 A. Vertical
1341 B. Horizontal
1229 B. Horizontal
1342 C. Circular
1230 C. Circular
1343 D. Elliptical
1231 D. Elliptical
1344 ~~
1232 ~~
1345 E3C14 (D)
1233 E3C14 (D)
1346 Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizo1234 Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horiz
1347 A. E-region skip
1235 A. E-region skip
1348 B. D-region skip
1236 B. D-region skip
1349 C. Downward bending due to aurora refraction
1237 C. Downward bending due to aurora refraction
1350 D. Downward bending due to density variations in the atmosphere
1238 D. Downward bending due to density variations in the atmosphere
1351 ~~
1239 ~~
1352 E3C15 (B)
1353 What might a sudden rise in radio background noise indicate?
1354 A. A meteor ping
1355 B. A solar flare has occurred
1356 C. Increased transequatorial propagation likely
1357 D. Long-path propagation is occurring
1358 ~~
1359 E4A01 (C)
1240 E4A01 (C)
1360 Which of the following parameter determines the bandwidth of a digit1241 How does a spectrum analyzer differ from an oscilloscope?
1361 A. Input capacitance
1242 A. A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an oscillos
1362 B. Input impedance
1243 B. A spectrum analyzer displays the peak amplitude of signals; an o
1363 C. Sampling rate
1244 C. A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the frequency domain; an
1364 D. Sample resolution
1245 D. A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope
1246 ~~
2/9/2016 2:53:06 PM
Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
1365
1366
1367
1368
1369
1370
1371
1372
1373
1374
1375
1376
1377
1378
1379
1380
1381
1382
1383
1384
1385
1386
1387
1388
1389
1390
1391
1392
1393
1394
1395
1396
1397
1398
1399
1400
1401
1402
1403
1404
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1406
1407
1408
1409
1410
1411
1412
1413
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NC4FB Amateur Extra Question Pool Comparison
Page 23 of 84
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
1247 E4A02 (D)
1248 Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display
1249 A. SWR
1250 B. Q
1251 C. Time
1252 D. Frequency
~~
1253 ~~
E4A02 (B)
1254 E4A03 (A)
Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display 1255 Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display
A. RF amplitude and time
1256 A. Amplitude
B. RF amplitude and frequency
1257 B. Duration
C. SWR and frequency
1258 C. SWR
D. SWR and time
1259 D. Q
1260 ~~
1261 E4A04 (A)
1262 Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious
1263 A. A spectrum analyzer
1264 B. A wattmeter
1265 C. A logic analyzer
1266 D. A time-domain reflectometer
~~
1267 ~~
E4A03 (B)
1268 E4A05 (B)
Which of the following test instrument is used to display spurious s1269 Which of the following test instruments is used to display intermod
A. A wattmeter
1270 A. A wattmeter
B. A spectrum analyzer
1271 B. A spectrum analyzer
C. A logic analyzer
1272 C. A logic analyzer
D. A time-domain reflectometer
1273 D. A time-domain reflectometer
~~
1274 ~~
E4A04 (A)
What determines the upper frequency limit for a computer soundcard-b
A. Analog-to-digital conversion speed of the soundcard
B. Amount of memory on the soundcard
C. Q of the interface of the interface circuit
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
E4A05 (D)
1275 E4A06 (D)
What might be an advantage of a digital vs an analog oscilloscope? 1276 Which of the following could be determined with a spectrum analyzer
A. Automatic amplitude and frequency numerical readout
1277 A. The degree of isolation between the input and output ports of a
B. Storage of traces for future reference
1278 B. Whether a crystal is operating on its fundamental or overtone fr
C. Manipulation of time base after trace capture
1279 C. The spectral output of a transmitter
D. All of these choices are correct
1280 D. All of these choices are correct
~~
1281 ~~
E4A06 (A)
What is the effect of aliasing in a digital or computer-based oscill
A. False signals are displayed
B. All signals will have a DC offset
C. Calibration of the vertical scale is no longer valid
D. False triggering occurs
~~
E4A07 (B)
1282 E4A07 (B)
Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer 1283 Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer
A. Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance 1284 A. Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
B. Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source
1285 B. Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source
C. Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the mo1286 C. Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the m
D. All of these choices are correct
1287 D. All of these choices are correct
~~
1288 ~~
E4A08 (D)
1289 E4A08 (D)
Which of the following instrument would be best for measuring the SW1290 Which of the following instruments would be best for measuring the
A. A spectrum analyzer
1291 A. A spectrum analyzer
B. A Q meter
1292 B. A Q meter
C. An ohmmeter
1293 C. An ohmmeter
D. An antenna analyzer
1294 D. An antenna analyzer
~~
1295 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
1415 E4A09 (B)
1296 E4A09 (A)
1416 When using a computer’s soundcard input to digitize signals, what is1297 Which of the following describes a good method for measuring the in
1417 A. The same as the sample rate
1298 A. Transmit into a dummy load, receive the signal on a second recei
1418 B. One-half the sample rate
1299 B. Multiply the ALC level on the transmitter during a normal transm
1419 C. One-tenth the sample rate
1300 C. Use an RF voltmeter coupled to the transmitter output using appr
1420 D. It depends on how the data is stored internally
1301 D. All of these choices are correct
1421 ~~
1302 ~~
1422 E4A10 (D)
1303 E4A10 (D)
1423 Which of the following displays multiple digital signal states simul1304 Which of the following tests establishes that a silicon NPN junctio
1424 A. Network analyzer
1305 A. Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should b
1425 B. Bit error rate tester
1306 B. Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should b
1426 C. Modulation monitor
1307 C. Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be a
1427 D. Logic analyzer
1308 D. Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be a
1428 ~~
1309 ~~
1429 E4A11 (A)
1310 E4A11 (B)
1430 Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope p1311 Which of these instruments could be used for detailed analysis of d
1431 A. Keep the signal ground connection of the probe as short as possib1312 A. Dip meter
1432 B. Never use a high impedance probe to measure a low impedance circu1313 B. Oscilloscope
1433 C. Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit
1314 C. Ohmmeter
1434 D. All of these choices are correct
1315 D. Q meter
1435 ~~
1316 ~~
1436 E4A12 (B)
1317 E4A12 (B)
1437 Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to foll1318 Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to fol
1438 A. Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal 1319 A. Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal
1439 B. Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer 1320 B. Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer
1440 C. Match the antenna to the load
1321 C. Match the antenna to the load
1441 D. All of these choices are correct
1322 D. All of these choices are correct
1442 ~~
1323 ~~
1443 E4A13 (A)
1444 How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?
1445 A. A square wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the ho
1446 B. A high frequency sine wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted
1447 C. A frequency standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until
1448 D. A DC voltage standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted unti
1449 ~~
1450 E4A14 (D)
1451 What is the purpose of the prescaler function on a frequency counter
1452 A. It amplifies low level signals for more accurate counting
1453 B. It multiplies a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counte
1454 C. It prevents oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
1455 D. It divides a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter c
1456 ~~
1457 E4A15 (C)
1458 What is an advantage of a period-measuring frequency counter over a
1459 A. It can run on battery power for remote measurements
1460 B. It does not require an expensive high-precision time base
1461 C. It provides improved resolution of low-frequency signals within a
1462 D. It can directly measure the modulation index of an FM transmitter
1463 ~~
1464 E4B01 (B)
1324 E4B01 (B)
1465 Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a freque1325 Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequ
1466 A. Input attenuator accuracy
1326 A. Input attenuator accuracy
1467 B. Time base accuracy
1327 B. Time base accuracy
1468 C. Decade divider accuracy
1328 C. Decade divider accuracy
1469 D. Temperature coefficient of the logic
1329 D. Temperature coefficient of the logic
1470 ~~
1330 ~~
1471 E4B02 (C)
1331 E4B02 (C)
1472 What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance?1332 What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance
1473 A. It provides an excellent match under all conditions
1333 A. It provides an excellent match under all conditions
1474 B. It is relatively immune to drift in the signal generator source 1334 B. It is relatively immune to drift in the signal generator source
1475 C. It is very precise in obtaining a signal null
1335 C. The measurement is based on obtaining a signal null, which can b
1476 D. It can display results directly in Smith chart format
1336 D. It can display results directly in Smith chart format
1477 ~~
1337 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
1478 E4B03 (C)
1338 E4B03 (C)
1479 If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm read1339 If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm rea
1480 A. 165.2 Hz
1340 A. 165.2 Hz
1481 B. 14.652 kHz
1341 B. 14.652 kHz
1482 C. 146.52 Hz
1342 C. 146.52 Hz
1483 D. 1.4652 MHz
1343 D. 1.4652 MHz
1484 ~~
1344 ~~
1485 E4B04 (A)
1345 E4B04 (A)
1486 If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm read1346 If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm rea
1487 A. 14.652 Hz
1347 A. 14.652 Hz
1488 B. 0.1 MHz
1348 B. 0.1 MHz
1489 C. 1.4652 Hz
1349 C. 1.4652 Hz
1490 D. 1.4652 kHz
1350 D. 1.4652 kHz
1491 ~~
1351 ~~
1492 E4B05 (D)
1352 E4B05 (D)
1493 If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads1353 If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm read
1494 A. 146.52 Hz
1354 A. 146.52 Hz
1495 B. 10 Hz
1355 B. 10 Hz
1496 C. 146.52 kHz
1356 C. 146.52 kHz
1497 D. 1465.20 Hz
1357 D. 1465.20 Hz
1498 ~~
1358 ~~
1499 E4B06 (D)
1359 E4B06 (D)
1500 How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional powe1360 How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional pow
1501 A. 100 watts
1361 A. 100 watts
1502 B. 125 watts
1362 B. 125 watts
1503 C. 25 watts
1363 C. 25 watts
1504 D. 75 watts
1364 D. 75 watts
1505 ~~
1365 ~~
1506 E4B07 (A)
1366 E4B07 (A)
1507 What do the subscripts of S parameters represent?
1367 Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope
1508 A. The port or ports at which measurements are made
1368 A. Keep the signal ground connection of the probe as short as possi
1509 B. The relative time between measurements
1369 B. Never use a high impedance probe to measure a low impedance circ
1510 C. Relative quality of the data
1370 C. Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit
1511 D. Frequency order of the measurements
1371 D. All of these choices are correct
1512 ~~
1372 ~~
1513 E4B08 (C)
1373 E4B08 (C)
1514 Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter? 1374 Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?
1515 A. High reluctance input
1375 A. High reluctance input
1516 B. Low reluctance input
1376 B. Low reluctance input
1517 C. High impedance input
1377 C. High impedance input
1518 D. Low impedance input
1378 D. Low impedance input
1519 ~~
1379 ~~
1520 E4B09 (D)
1380 E4B09 (D)
1521 What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in 1381 What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in
1522 A. There is possibly a short to ground in the feed line
1382 A. There is possibly a short to ground in the feed line
1523 B. The transmitter is not properly neutralized
1383 B. The transmitter is not properly neutralized
1524 C. There is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feed line 1384 C. There is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feed line
1525 D. There is more power going into the antenna
1385 D. There is more power going into the antenna
1526 ~~
1386 ~~
1527 E4B10 (B)
1387 E4B10 (B)
1528 Which of the following describes a method to measure intermodulation1388 Which of the following describes a method to measure intermodulatio
1529 A. Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related radio 1389 A. Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related radio
1530 B. Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related audio 1390 B. Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related audio
1531 C. Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio freq1391 C. Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio fre
1532 D. Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio freq1392 D. Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio fre
1533 ~~
1393 ~~
1534 E4B11 (D)
1394 E4B11 (D)
1535 How should an antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna r1395 How should a portable antenna analyzer be connected when measuring
1536 A. Loosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base
1396 A. Loosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base
1537 B. Connect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the ante1397 B. Connect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the ant
1538 C. Loosely couple the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer
1398 C. Connect the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer
1539 D. Connect the antenna feed line directly to the analyzer's connecto1399 D. Connect the antenna feed line directly to the analyzer's connect
1540 ~~
1400 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
1541 E4B12 (A)
1401 E4B12 (A)
1542 What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms 1402 What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms
1543 A. The full scale reading of the voltmeter multiplied by its ohms pe1403 A. The full scale reading of the voltmeter multiplied by its ohms p
1544 B. When used as a galvanometer, the reading in volts multiplied by t1404 B. When used as a galvanometer, the reading in volts multiplied by
1545 C. When used as an ohmmeter, the reading in ohms divided by the ohms1405 C. When used as an ohmmeter, the reading in ohms divided by the ohm
1546 D. When used as an ammeter, the full scale reading in amps divided b1406 D. When used as an ammeter, the full scale reading in amps divided
1547 ~~
1407 ~~
1548 E4B13 (C)
1408 E4B13 (A)
1549 Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain?
1409 How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted
1550 A. S11
1410 A. A square wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the h
1551 B. S12
1411 B. A high frequency sine wave is displayed and the probe is adjuste
1552 C. S21
1412 C. A frequency standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted unti
1553 D. S22
1413 D. A DC voltage standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted unt
1554 ~~
1414 ~~
1555 E4B14 (B)
1415 E4B14 (B)
1556 What happens if a dip meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circui1416 What happens if a dip meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circu
1557 A. Harmonics are generated
1417 A. Harmonics are generated
1558 B. A less accurate reading results
1418 B. A less accurate reading results
1559 C. Cross modulation occurs
1419 C. Cross modulation occurs
1560 D. Intermodulation distortion occurs
1420 D. Intermodulation distortion occurs
1561 ~~
1421 ~~
1562 E4B15 (C)
1422 E4B15 (C)
1563 Which of the following can be used as a relative measurement of the 1423 Which of the following can be used as a relative measurement of the
1564 A. The inductance to capacitance ratio
1424 A. The inductance to capacitance ratio
1565 B. The frequency shift
1425 B. The frequency shift
1566 C. The bandwidth of the circuit's frequency response
1426 C. The bandwidth of the circuit's frequency response
1567 D. The resonant frequency of the circuit
1427 D. The resonant frequency of the circuit
1568 ~~
1428 ~~
1569 E4B16 (A)
1570 Which S parameter represents return loss or SWR?
1571 A. S11
1572 B. S12
1573 C. S21
1574 D. S22
1575 ~~
1576 E4B17 (B)
1577 What three test loads are used to calibrate a standard RF vector net
1578 A. 50 ohms, 75 ohms, and 90 ohms
1579 B. Short circuit, open circuit, and 50 ohms
1580 C. Short circuit, open circuit, and resonant circuit
1581 D. 50 ohms through 1/8 wavelength, 1/4 wavelength, and 1/2 wavelengt
1582 ~~
1583 E4C01 (D)
1429 E4C01 (D)
1584 What is an effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator s1430 What is an effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator
1585 A. It limits the receiver’s ability to receive strong signals
1431 A. It limits the receiver’s ability to receive strong signals
1586 B. It reduces receiver sensitivity
1432 B. It reduces receiver sensitivity
1587 C. It decreases receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dyna1433 C. It decreases receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dyn
1588 D. It can cause strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere wi1434 D. It can cause strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere w
1589 ~~
1435 ~~
1590 E4C02 (A)
1436 E4C02 (A)
1591 Which of the following portions of a receiver can be effective in el1437 Which of the following portions of a receiver can be effective in e
1592 A. A front-end filter or pre-selector
1438 A. A front-end filter or pre-selector
1593 B. A narrow IF filter
1439 B. A narrow IF filter
1594 C. A notch filter
1440 C. A notch filter
1595 D. A properly adjusted product detector
1441 D. A properly adjusted product detector
1596 ~~
1442 ~~
1597 E4C03 (C)
1443 E4C03 (C)
1598 What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another,1444 What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another
1599 A. Desensitization
1445 A. Desensitization
1600 B. Cross-modulation interference
1446 B. Cross-modulation interference
1601 C. Capture effect
1447 C. Capture effect
1602 D. Frequency discrimination
1448 D. Frequency discrimination
1603 ~~
1449 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
1604 E4C04 (D)
1450 E4C04 (D)
1605 How is the noise figure of a receiver defined?
1451 What is the definition of the noise figure of a receiver?
1606 A. The ratio of atmospheric noise to phase noise
1452 A. The ratio of atmospheric noise to phase noise
1607 B. The ratio of the noise bandwidth in Hertz to the theoretical band1453 B. The noise bandwidth in Hertz compared to the theoretical bandwid
1608 C. The ratio of thermal noise to atmospheric noise
1454 C. The ratio of thermal noise to atmospheric noise
1609 D. The ratio in dB of the noise generated by the receiver to the the1455 D. The ratio in dB of the noise generated by the receiver compared
1610 ~~
1456 ~~
1611 E4C05 (B)
1457 E4C05 (B)
1612 What does a value of -174 dBm/Hz represent with regard to the noise 1458 What does a value of -174 dBm/Hz represent with regard to the noise
1613 A. The minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency 1459 A. The minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency
1614 B. The theoretical noise at the input of a perfect receiver at room 1460 B. The theoretical noise at the input of a perfect receiver at room
1615 C. The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver
1461 C. The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver
1616 D. The galactic noise contribution to minimum detectable signal
1462 D. The galactic noise contribution to minimum detectable signal
1617 ~~
1463 ~~
1618 E4C06 (D)
1464 E4C06 (D)
1619 A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power d1465 A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power
1620 A. -174 dBm
1466 A. 174 dBm
1621 B. -164 dBm
1467 B. -164 dBm
1622 C. -155 dBm
1468 C. -155 dBm
1623 D. -148 dBm
1469 D. -148 dBm
1624 ~~
1470 ~~
1625 E4C07 (B)
1471 E4C07 (B)
1626 What does the MDS of a receiver represent?
1472 What does the MDS of a receiver represent?
1627 A. The meter display sensitivity
1473 A. The meter display sensitivity
1628 B. The minimum discernible signal
1474 B. The minimum discernible signal
1629 C. The multiplex distortion stability
1475 C. The multiplex distortion stability
1630 D. The maximum detectable spectrum
1476 D. The maximum detectable spectrum
1631 ~~
1477 ~~
1632 E4C08 (C)
1478 E4C08 (B)
1633 An SDR receiver is overloaded when input signals exceed what level? 1479 How might lowering the noise figure affect receiver performance?
1634 A. One-half the maximum sample rate
1480 A. It would reduce the signal to noise ratio
1635 B. One-half the maximum sampling buffer size
1481 B. It would improve weak signal sensitivity
1636 C. The maximum count value of the analog-to-digital converter
1482 C. It would reduce bandwidth
1637 D. The reference voltage of the analog-to-digital converter
1483 D. It would increase bandwidth
1638 ~~
1484 ~~
1639 E4C09 (C)
1485 E4C09 (C)
1640 Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high1486 Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a hig
1641 A. Fewer components in the receiver
1487 A. Fewer components in the receiver
1642 B. Reduced drift
1488 B. Reduced drift
1643 C. Easier for front-end circuitry to eliminate image responses
1489 C. Easier for front-end circuitry to eliminate image responses
1644 D. Improved receiver noise figure
1490 D. Improved receiver noise figure
1645 ~~
1491 ~~
1646 E4C10 (B)
1492 E4C10 (B)
1647 Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an a1493 Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an
1648 A. 100 Hz
1494 A. 100 Hz
1649 B. 300 Hz
1495 B. 300 Hz
1650 C. 6000 Hz
1496 C. 6000 Hz
1651 D. 2400 Hz
1497 D. 2400 Hz
1652 ~~
1498 ~~
1653 E4C11 (B)
1499 E4C11 (B)
1654 Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an a1500 Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an
1655 A. 1 kHz
1501 A. 1 kHz
1656 B. 2.4 kHz
1502 B. 2.4 kHz
1657 C. 4.2 kHz
1503 C. 4.2 kHz
1658 D. 4.8 kHz
1504 D. 4.8 kHz
1659 ~~
1505 ~~
1660 E4C12 (D)
1506 E4C12 (D)
1661 What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth i1507 What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth
1662 A. Output-offset overshoot
1508 A. Output-offset overshoot
1663 B. Filter ringing
1509 B. Filter ringing
1664 C. Thermal-noise distortion
1510 C. Thermal-noise distortion
1665 D. Undesired signals may be heard
1511 D. Undesired signals may be heard
1666 ~~
1512 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
1667 E4C13 (C)
1513 E4C13 (C)
1668 How does a narrow-band roofing filter affect receiver performance? 1514 How does a narrow-band roofing filter affect receiver performance?
1669 A. It improves sensitivity by reducing front end noise
1515 A. It improves sensitivity by reducing front end noise
1670 B. It improves intelligibility by using low Q circuitry to reduce ri1516 B. It improves intelligibility by using low Q circuitry to reduce r
1671 C. It improves dynamic range by attenuating strong signals near the 1517 C. It improves dynamic range by attenuating strong signals near the
1672 D. All of these choices are correct
1518 D. All of these choices are correct
1673 ~~
1519 ~~
1674 E4C14 (D)
1520 E4C14 (D)
1675 What transmit frequency might generate an image response signal in a1521 On which of the following frequencies might a signal be transmittin
1676 A. 13.845 MHz
1522 A. 13.845 MHz
1677 B. 14.755 MHz
1523 B. 14.755 MHz
1678 C. 14.445 MHz
1524 C. 14.445 MHz
1679 D. 15.210 MHz
1525 D. 15.210 MHz
1680 ~~
1526 ~~
1681 E4C15 (D)
1527 E4C15 (D)
1682 What is usually the primary source of noise that is heard from an HF1528 What is the primary source of noise that can be heard from an HF re
1683 A. Detector noise
1529 A. Detector noise
1684 B. Induction motor noise
1530 B. Induction motor noise
1685 C. Receiver front-end noise
1531 C. Receiver front-end noise
1686 D. Atmospheric noise
1532 D. Atmospheric noise
1687 ~~
1533 ~~
1688 E4C16 (A)
1689 Which of the following is caused by missing codes in an SDR receiver
1690 A. Distortion
1691 B. Overload
1692 C. Loss of sensitivity
1693 D. Excess output level
1694 ~~
1695 E4C17 (D)
1696 Which of the following has the largest effect on an SDR receiver’s l
1697 A. CPU register width in bits
1698 B. Anti-aliasing input filter bandwidth
1699 C. RAM speed used for data storage
1700 D. Analog-to-digital converter sample width in bits
1701 ~~
1702 E4D01 (A)
1534 E4D01 (A)
1703 What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?
1535 What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?
1704 A. The difference in dB between the noise floor and the level of an 1536 A. The difference in dB between the noise floor and the level of an
1705 B. The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals1537 B. The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signal
1706 C. The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order 1538 C. The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order
1707 D. The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce th1539 D. The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce t
1708 ~~
1540 ~~
1709 E4D02 (A)
1541 E4D02 (A)
1710 Which of the following describes two problems caused by poor dynamic1542 Which of the following describes two problems caused by poor dynami
1711 A. Cross-modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from s1543 A. Cross-modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from
1712 B. Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ab1544 B. Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of a
1713 C. Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio pow1545 C. Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio po
1714 D. Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the1546 D. Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but th
1715 ~~
1547 ~~
1716 E4D03 (B)
1548 E4D03 (B)
1717 How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur? 1549 How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur?
1718 A. When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals cause f1550 A. When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals cause
1719 B. When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals mix in 1551 B. When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals mix in
1720 C. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase1552 C. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phas
1721 D. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase fro1553 D. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase fr
1722 ~~
1554 ~~
1723 E4D04 (B)
1555 E4D04 (B)
1724 Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation inter1556 Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation inte
1725 A. A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and r1557 A. A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and
1726 B. A properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter1558 B. A properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitte
1727 C. A Class C final amplifier
1559 C. A Class C final amplifier
1728 D. A Class D final amplifier
1560 D. A Class D final amplifier
1729 ~~
1561 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
1730 E4D05 (A)
1562 E4D05 (A)
1731 What transmitter frequencies would cause an intermodulation-product 1563 What transmitter frequencies would cause an intermodulation-product
1732 A. 146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz
1564 A. 146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz
1733 B. 146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz
1565 B. 146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz
1734 C. 146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz
1566 C. 146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz
1735 D. 173.35 MHz and 139.40 MHz
1567 D. 173.35 MHz and 139.40 MHz
1736 ~~
1568 ~~
1737 E4D06 (D)
1569 E4D06 (D)
1738 What is the term for unwanted signals generated by the mixing of two1570 What is the term for unwanted signals generated by the mixing of tw
1739 A. Amplifier desensitization
1571 A. Amplifier desensitization
1740 B. Neutralization
1572 B. Neutralization
1741 C. Adjacent channel interference
1573 C. Adjacent channel interference
1742 D. Intermodulation interference
1574 D. Intermodulation interference
1743 ~~
1575 ~~
1744 E4D07 (D)
1576 E4D07 (D)
1745 Which describes the most significant effect of an off-frequency sign1577 Which of the following describes the most significant effect of an
1746 A. A large increase in background noise
1578 A. A large increase in background noise
1747 B. A reduction in apparent signal strength
1579 B. A reduction in apparent signal strength
1748 C. The desired signal can no longer be heard
1580 C. The desired signal can no longer be heard
1749 D. The off-frequency unwanted signal is heard in addition to the des1581 D. The off-frequency unwanted signal is heard in addition to the de
1750 ~~
1582 ~~
1751 E4D08 (C)
1583 E4D08 (C)
1752 What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?
1584 What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?
1753 A. Too little gain
1585 A. Too little gain
1754 B. Lack of neutralization
1586 B. Lack of neutralization
1755 C. Nonlinear circuits or devices
1587 C. Nonlinear circuits or devices
1756 D. Positive feedback
1588 D. Positive feedback
1757 ~~
1589 ~~
1758 E4D09 (C)
1590 E4D09 (C)
1759 What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?1591 What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver
1760 A. To store often-used frequencies
1592 A. To store often-used frequencies
1761 B. To provide a range of AGC time constants
1593 B. To provide a range of AGC time constants
1762 C. To increase rejection of unwanted signals
1594 C. To increase rejection of unwanted signals
1763 D. To allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device
1595 D. To allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device
1764 ~~
1596 ~~
1765 E4D10 (C)
1597 E4D10 (C)
1766 What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect 1598 What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect
1767 A. Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order in1599 A. Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order i
1768 B. The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise flo1600 B. The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise fl
1769 C. A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-orde1601 C. A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-ord
1770 D. A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodu1602 D. A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermod
1771 ~~
1603 ~~
1772 E4D11 (A)
1604 E4D11 (A)
1773 Why are third-order intermodulation products created within a receiv1605 Why are third-order intermodulation products created within a recei
1774 A. The third-order product of two signals which are in the band of i1606 A. The third-order product of two signals which are in the band of
1775 B. The third-order intercept is much higher than other orders
1607 B. The third-order intercept is much higher than other orders
1776 C. Third-order products are an indication of poor image rejection 1608 C. Third-order products are an indication of poor image rejection
1777 D. Third-order intermodulation produces three products for every inp1609 D. Third-order intermodulation produces three products for every in
1778 ~~
1610 ~~
1779 E4D12 (A)
1611 E4D12 (A)
1780 What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by1612 What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused b
1781 A. Desensitization
1613 A. Desensitization
1782 B. Quieting
1614 B. Quieting
1783 C. Cross-modulation interference
1615 C. Cross-modulation interference
1784 D. Squelch gain rollback
1616 D. Squelch gain rollback
1785 ~~
1617 ~~
1786 E4D13 (B)
1618 E4D13 (B)
1787 Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization?
1619 Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization?
1788 A. Audio gain adjusted too low
1620 A. Audio gain adjusted too low
1789 B. Strong adjacent channel signals
1621 B. Strong adjacent-channel signals
1790 C. Audio bias adjusted too high
1622 C. Audio bias adjusted too high
1791 D. Squelch gain misadjusted
1623 D. Squelch gain misadjusted
1792 ~~
1624 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
1793 E4D14 (A)
1625 E4D14 (A)
1794 Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver1626 Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receive
1795 A. Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
1627 A. Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
1796 B. Raise the receiver IF frequency
1628 B. Raise the receiver IF frequency
1797 C. Increase the receiver front end gain
1629 C. Increase the receiver front end gain
1798 D. Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC
1630 D. Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC
1799 ~~
1631 ~~
1800 E4E01 (A)
1632 E4E01 (A)
1801 Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced 1633 Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced
1802 A. Ignition noise
1634 A. Ignition noise
1803 B. Broadband white noise
1635 B. Broadband white noise
1804 C. Heterodyne interference
1636 C. Heterodyne interference
1805 D. All of these choices are correct
1637 D. All of these choices are correct
1806 ~~
1638 ~~
1807 E4E02 (D)
1639 E4E02 (D)
1808 Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced 1640 Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced
1809 A. Broadband white noise
1641 A. Broadband white noise
1810 B. Ignition noise
1642 B. Ignition noise
1811 C. Power line noise
1643 C. Power line noise
1812 D. All of these choices are correct
1644 D. All of these choices are correct
1813 ~~
1645 ~~
1814 E4E03 (B)
1646 E4E03 (B)
1815 Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be abl1647 Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be ab
1816 A. Signals which are constant at all IF levels
1648 A. Signals which are constant at all IF levels
1817 B. Signals which appear across a wide bandwidth
1649 B. Signals which appear across a wide bandwidth
1818 C. Signals which appear at one IF but not another
1650 C. Signals which appear at one IF but not another
1819 D. Signals which have a sharply peaked frequency distribution
1651 D. Signals which have a sharply peaked frequency distribution
1820 ~~
1652 ~~
1821 E4E04 (D)
1653 E4E04 (D)
1822 How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alterna1654 How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile altern
1823 A. By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead 1655 A. By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead
1824 B. By installing a noise suppression resistor and a blocking capacit1656 B. By installing a noise suppression resistor and a blocking capaci
1825 C. By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power1657 C. By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's powe
1826 D. By connecting the radio's power leads directly to the battery and1658 D. By connecting the radio's power leads directly to the battery an
1827 ~~
1659 ~~
1828 E4E05 (B)
1660 E4E05 (B)
1829 How can noise from an electric motor be suppressed?
1661 How can noise from an electric motor be suppressed?
1830 A. By installing a high pass filter in series with the motor’s power1662 A. By installing a high pass filter in series with the motor’s powe
1831 B. By installing a brute-force AC-line filter in series with the mot1663 B. By installing a brute-force AC-line filter in series with the mo
1832 C. By installing a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads 1664 C. By installing a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads
1833 D. By using a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used t1665 D. By using a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used
1834 ~~
1666 ~~
1835 E4E06 (B)
1667 E4E06 (B)
1836 What is a major cause of atmospheric static?
1668 What is a major cause of atmospheric static?
1837 A. Solar radio frequency emissions
1669 A. Solar radio frequency emissions
1838 B. Thunderstorms
1670 B. Thunderstorms
1839 C. Geomagnetic storms
1671 C. Geomagnetic storms
1840 D. Meteor showers
1672 D. Meteor showers
1841 ~~
1673 ~~
1842 E4E07 (C)
1674 E4E07 (C)
1843 How can you determine if line noise interference is being generated 1675 How can you determine if line noise interference is being generated
1844 A. By checking the power line voltage with a time domain reflectomet1676 A. By checking the power line voltage with a time domain reflectome
1845 B. By observing the AC power line waveform with an oscilloscope
1677 B. By observing the AC power line waveform with an oscilloscope
1846 C. By turning off the AC power line main circuit breaker and listeni1678 C. By turning off the AC power line main circuit breaker and listen
1847 D. By observing the AC power line voltage with a spectrum analyzer 1679 D. By observing the AC power line voltage with a spectrum analyzer
1848 ~~
1680 ~~
1849 E4E08 (A)
1681 E4E08 (A)
1850 What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio a1682 What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio
1851 A. A common-mode signal at the frequency of the radio transmitter 1683 A. A common-mode signal at the frequency of the radio transmitter
1852 B. An electrical-sparking signal
1684 B. An electrical-sparking signal
1853 C. A differential-mode signal at the AC power line frequency
1685 C. A differential-mode signal at the AC power line frequency
1854 D. Harmonics of the AC power line frequency
1686 D. Harmonics of the AC power line frequency
1855 ~~
1687 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
1856 E4E09 (C)
1688 E4E09 (C)
1857 What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker? 1689 What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?
1858 A. Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
1690 A. Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
1859 B. The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be com1691 B. The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be co
1860 C. Nearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they mee1692 C. Nearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they me
1861 D. FM signals can no longer be demodulated
1693 D. FM signals can no longer be demodulated
1862 ~~
1694 ~~
1863 E4E10 (D)
1695 E4E10 (D)
1864 What is a common characteristic of interference caused by a touch co1696 What is a common characteristic of interference caused by a touch c
1865 A. The interfering signal sounds like AC hum on an AM receiver or a 1697 A. The interfering signal sounds like AC hum on an AM receiver or a
1866 B. The interfering signal may drift slowly across the HF spectrum 1698 B. The interfering signal may drift slowly across the HF spectrum
1867 C. The interfering signal can be several kHz in width and usually re1699 C. The interfering signal can be several kHz in width and usually r
1868 D. All of these choices are correct
1700 D. All of these choices are correct
1869 ~~
1701 ~~
1870 E4E11 (B)
1702 E4E11 (B)
1871 Which is the most likely cause if you are hearing combinations of lo1703 Which of the following is the most likely cause if you are hearing
1872 A. The broadcast station is transmitting an over-modulated signal 1704 A. The broadcast station is transmitting an over-modulated signal
1873 B. Nearby corroded metal joints are mixing and re-radiating the broa1705 B. Nearby corroded metal joints are mixing and re-radiating the bro
1874 C. You are receiving sky wave signals from a distant station
1706 C. You are receiving sky wave signals from a distant station
1875 D. Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is defective
1707 D. Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is defective
1876 ~~
1708 ~~
1877 E4E12 (A)
1709 E4E12 (A)
1878 What is one disadvantage of using some types of automatic DSP notch-1710 What is one disadvantage of using some types of automatic DSP notch
1879 A. A DSP filter can remove the desired signal at the same time as it1711 A. The DSP filter can remove the desired signal at the same time as
1880 B. Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm t1712 B. Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm
1881 C. Received CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock 1713 C. Received CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock
1882 D. Ringing in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces betwe1714 D. Ringing in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces betw
1883 ~~
1715 ~~
1884 E4E13 (D)
1716 E4E13 (D)
1885 What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interfe1717 What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interf
1886 A. Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
1718 A. Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
1887 B. A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby resi1719 B. A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby res
1888 C. A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
1720 C. A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
1889 D. All of these choices are correct
1721 D. All of these choices are correct
1890 ~~
1722 ~~
1891 E4E14 (C)
1723 E4E14 (C)
1892 What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by 1724 What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by
1893 A. A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver
1725 A. A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver
1894 B. A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds
1726 B. A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds
1895 C. The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at sp1727 C. The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at s
1896 D. A whining type noise that continually pulses off and on
1728 D. A whining type noise that continually pulses off and on
1897 ~~
1729 ~~
1898 E4E15 (B)
1899 Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or recei
1900 A. Low inductance ground connections at both ends of the shield
1901 B. Common mode currents on the shield and conductors
1902 C. Use of braided shielding material
1903 D. Tying all ground connections to a common point resulting in diffe
1904 ~~
1905 E4E16 (B)
1906 What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multi1907 A. Differential-mode current
1908 B. Common-mode current
1909 C. Reactive current only
1910 D. Return current
1911 ~~
1912 E5A01 (A)
1730 E5A01 (A)
1913 What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger 1731 What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger
1914 A. Resonance
1732 A. Resonance
1915 B. Capacitance
1733 B. Capacitance
1916 C. Conductance
1734 C. Conductance
1917 D. Resistance
1735 D. Resistance
1918 ~~
1736 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
1919 E5A02 (C)
1737 E5A02 (C)
1920 What is resonance in an electrical circuit?
1738 What is resonance in an electrical circuit?
1921 A. The highest frequency that will pass current
1739 A. The highest frequency that will pass current
1922 B. The lowest frequency that will pass current
1740 B. The lowest frequency that will pass current
1923 C. The frequency at which the capacitive reactance equals the induct1741 C. The frequency at which the capacitive reactance equals the induc
1924 D. The frequency at which the reactive impedance equals the resistiv1742 D. The frequency at which the reactive impedance equals the resisti
1925 ~~
1743 ~~
1926 E5A03 (D)
1744 E5A03 (D)
1927 What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at re1745 What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at r
1928 A. High, as compared to the circuit resistance
1746 A. High, as compared to the circuit resistance
1929 B. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
1747 B. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
1930 C. Approximately equal to inductive reactance
1748 C. Approximately equal to inductive reactance
1931 D. Approximately equal to circuit resistance
1749 D. Approximately equal to circuit resistance
1932 ~~
1750 ~~
1933 E5A04 (A)
1751 E5A04 (A)
1934 What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor,1752 What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor
1935 A. Approximately equal to circuit resistance
1753 A. Approximately equal to circuit resistance
1936 B. Approximately equal to inductive reactance
1754 B. Approximately equal to inductive reactance
1937 C. Low, as compared to the circuit resistance
1755 C. Low, as compared to the circuit resistance
1938 D. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
1756 D. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
1939 ~~
1757 ~~
1940 E5A05 (B)
1758 E5A05 (B)
1941 What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series RLC ci1759 What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series RLC c
1942 A. Minimum
1760 A. Minimum
1943 B. Maximum
1761 B. Maximum
1944 C. R/L
1762 C. R/L
1945 D. L/R
1763 D. L/R
1946 ~~
1764 ~~
1947 E5A06 (B)
1765 E5A06 (B)
1948 What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the componen1766 What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the compone
1949 A. It is at a minimum
1767 A. It is at a minimum
1950 B. It is at a maximum
1768 B. It is at a maximum
1951 C. It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times Pi, multiplied by the1769 C. It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times Pi, multiplied by th
1952 D. It equals 2 multiplied by Pi, multiplied by frequency, multiplied1770 D. It equals 2 multiplied by Pi, multiplied by frequency "F", multi
1953 ~~
1771 ~~
1954 E5A07 (A)
1772 E5A07 (A)
1955 What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC 1773 What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC
1956 A. Minimum
1774 A. Minimum
1957 B. Maximum
1775 B. Maximum
1958 C. R/L
1776 C. R/L
1959 D. L/R
1777 D. L/R
1960 ~~
1778 ~~
1961 E5A08 (C)
1779 E5A08 (C)
1962 What is the phase relationship between the current through and the v1780 What is the phase relationship between the current through and the
1963 A. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
1781 A. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
1964 B. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
1782 B. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
1965 C. The voltage and current are in phase
1783 C. The voltage and current are in phase
1966 D. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
1784 D. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
1967 ~~
1785 ~~
1968 E5A09 (C)
1786 E5A09 (C)
1969 How is the Q of an RLC parallel resonant circuit calculated?
1787 What is the phase relationship between the current through and the
1970 A. Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance divided by the 1788 A. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
1971 B. Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance multiplied by 1789 B. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
1972 C. Resistance divided by the reactance of either the inductance or c1790 C. The voltage and current are in phase
1973 D. Reactance of the inductance multiplied by the reactance of the ca1791 D. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
1974 ~~
1792 ~~
1975 E5A10 (A)
1793 E5A10 (A)
1976 How is the Q of an RLC series resonant circuit calculated?
1794 What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit tha
1977 A. Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance divided by the 1795 A. 18.9 kHz
1978 B. Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance times the resis1796 B. 1.89 kHz
1979 C. Resistance divided by the reactance of either the inductance or c1797 C. 94.5 kHz
1980 D. Reactance of the inductance times the reactance of the capacitanc1798 D. 9.45 kHz
1981 ~~
1799 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
1982 E5A11 (C)
1800 E5A11 (C)
1983 What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that1801 What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit tha
1984 A. 157.8 Hz
1802 A. 157.8 Hz
1985 B. 315.6 Hz
1803 B. 315.6 Hz
1986 C. 47.3 kHz
1804 C. 47.3 kHz
1987 D. 23.67 kHz
1805 D. 23.67 kHz
1988 ~~
1806 ~~
1989 E5A12 (C)
1807 E5A12 (C)
1990 What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that1808 What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit tha
1991 A. 436.6 kHz
1809 A. 436.6 kHz
1992 B. 218.3 kHz
1810 B. 218.3 kHz
1993 C. 31.4 kHz
1811 C. 31.4 kHz
1994 D. 15.7 kHz
1812 D. 15.7 kHz
1995 ~~
1813 ~~
1996 E5A13 (C)
1814 E5A13 (B)
1997 What is an effect of increasing Q in a resonant circuit?
1815 What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit tha
1998 A. Fewer components are needed for the same performance
1816 A. 38.1 kHz
1999 B. Parasitic effects are minimized
1817 B. 76.2 kHz
2000 C. Internal voltages and circulating currents increase
1818 C. 1.332 kHz
2001 D. Phase shift can become uncontrolled
1819 D. 2.665 kHz
2002 ~~
1820 ~~
2003 E5A14 (C)
1821 E5A14 (C)
2004 What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 22 oh1822 What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 22 o
2005 A. 44.72 MHz
1823 A. 44.72 MHz
2006 B. 22.36 MHz
1824 B. 22.36 MHz
2007 C. 3.56 MHz
1825 C. 3.56 MHz
2008 D. 1.78 MHz
1826 D. 1.78 MHz
2009 ~~
1827 ~~
2010 E5A15 (A)
1828 E5A15 (B)
2011 Which of the following can increase Q for inductors and capacitors? 1829 What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 56 o
2012 A. Lower losses
1830 A. 3.76 MHz
2013 B. Lower reactance
1831 B. 1.78 MHz
2014 C. Lower self-resonant frequency
1832 C. 11.18 MHz
2015 D. Higher self-resonant frequency
1833 D. 22.36 MHz
2016 ~~
1834 ~~
2017 E5A16 (D)
1835 E5A16 (D)
2018 What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 1836 What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33
2019 A. 23.5 MHz
1837 A. 23.5 MHz
2020 B. 23.5 kHz
1838 B. 23.5 kHz
2021 C. 7.12 kHz
1839 C. 7.12 kHz
2022 D. 7.12 MHz
1840 D. 7.12 MHz
2023 ~~
1841 ~~
2024 E5A17 (A)
1842 E5A17 (A)
2025 What is the result of increasing the Q of an impedance-matching circ1843 What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 47
2026 A. Matching bandwidth is decreased
1844 A. 10.1 MHz
2027 B. Matching bandwidth is increased
1845 B. 63.2 MHz
2028 C. Matching range is increased
1846 C. 10.1 kHz
2029 D. It has no effect on impedance matching
1847 D. 63.2 kHz
2030 ~~
1848 ~~
2031 E5B01 (B)
1849 E5B01 (B)
2032 What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC ci1850 What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC c
2033 A. An exponential rate of one
1851 A. An exponential rate of one
2034 B. One time constant
1852 B. One time constant
2035 C. One exponential period
1853 C. One exponential period
2036 D. A time factor of one
1854 D. A time factor of one
2037 ~~
1855 ~~
2038 E5B02 (D)
1856 E5B02 (D)
2039 What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an1857 What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in a
2040 A. One discharge period
1858 A. One discharge period
2041 B. An exponential discharge rate of one
1859 B. An exponential discharge rate of one
2042 C. A discharge factor of one
1860 C. A discharge factor of one
2043 D. One time constant
1861 D. One time constant
2044 ~~
1862 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
2045 E5B03 (B)
1863 E5B03 (D)
2046 What happens to the phase angle of a reactance when it is converted 1864 The capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of
2047 A. It is unchanged
1865 A. 86.5%
2048 B. The sign is reversed
1866 B. 63.2%
2049 C. It is shifted by 90 degrees
1867 C. 36.8%
2050 D. The susceptance phase angle is the inverse of the reactance phase1868 D. 13.5%
2051 ~~
1869 ~~
2052 E5B04 (D)
1870 E5B04 (D)
2053 What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220 microfarad cap1871 What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad ca
2054 A. 55 seconds
1872 A. 55 seconds
2055 B. 110 seconds
1873 B. 110 seconds
2056 C. 440 seconds
1874 C. 440 seconds
2057 D. 220 seconds
1875 D. 220 seconds
2058 ~~
1876 ~~
2059 E5B05 (D)
1877 E5B05 (A)
2060 What happens to the magnitude of a reactance when it is converted to1878 How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease
2061 A. It is unchanged
1879 A. 0.02 seconds
2062 B. The sign is reversed
1880 B. 0.04 seconds
2063 C. It is shifted by 90 degrees
1881 C. 20 seconds
2064 D. The magnitude of the susceptance is the reciprocal of the magnitu1882 D. 40 seconds
2065 ~~
1883 ~~
2066 E5B06 (C)
1884 E5B06 (C)
2067 What is susceptance?
1885 How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease
2068 A. The magnetic impedance of a circuit
1886 A. 4.50 seconds
2069 B. The ratio of magnetic field to electric field
1887 B. 9 seconds
2070 C. The inverse of reactance
1888 C. 450 seconds
2071 D. A measure of the efficiency of a transformer
1889 D. 900 seconds
2072 ~~
1890 ~~
2073 E5B07 (C)
1891 E5B07 (C)
2074 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current t1892 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
2075 A. 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
1893 A. 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
2076 B. 14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current
1894 B. 14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current
2077 C. 14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
1895 C. 14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
2078 D. 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
1896 D. 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
2079 ~~
1897 ~~
2080 E5B08 (A)
1898 E5B08 (A)
2081 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current t1899 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
2082 A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
1900 A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
2083 B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
1901 B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
2084 C. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
1902 C. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
2085 D. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
1903 D. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
2086 ~~
1904 ~~
2087 E5B09 (D)
1905 E5B09 (D)
2088 What is the relationship between the current through a capacitor and1906 What is the relationship between the current through a capacitor an
2089 A. Voltage and current are in phase
1907 A. Voltage and current are in phase
2090 B. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
1908 B. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
2091 C. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
1909 C. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
2092 D. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
1910 D. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
2093 ~~
1911 ~~
2094 E5B10 (A)
1912 E5B10 (A)
2095 What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and1913 What is the relationship between the current through an inductor an
2096 A. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
1914 A. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
2097 B. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
1915 B. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
2098 C. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
1916 C. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
2099 D. Voltage and current are in phase
1917 D. Voltage and current are in phase
2100 ~~
1918 ~~
2101 E5B11 (B)
1919 E5B11 (B)
2102 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current t1920 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
2103 A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
1921 A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
2104 B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
1922 B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
2105 C. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
1923 C. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
2106 D. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
1924 D. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
2107 ~~
1925 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
2108 E5B12 (A)
1926 E5B12 (C)
2109 What is admittance?
1927 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
2110 A. The inverse of impedance
1928 A. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
2111 B. The term for the gain of a field effect transistor
1929 B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
2112 C. The turns ratio of a transformer
1930 C. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
2113 D. The unit used for Q factor
1931 D. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
2114 ~~
1932 ~~
2115 E5B13 (D)
1933 E5B13 (D)
2116 What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?
1934 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
2117 A. G
1935 A. 81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
2118 B. X
1936 B. 81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current
2119 C. Y
1937 C. 14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
2120 D. B
1938 D. 14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current
2121 ~~
1939 ~~
2122 E5C01 (A)
1940 E5C01 (B)
2123 Which of the following represents a capacitive reactance in rectangu1941 In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting
2124 A. –jX
1942 A. 121 ohms at an angle of 35 degrees
2125 B. +jX
1943 B. 141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
2126 C. X
1944 C. 161 ohms at an angle of 55 degrees
2127 D. Omega
1945 D. 181 ohms at an angle of 65 degrees
2128 ~~
1946 ~~
2129 E5C02 (C)
1947 E5C02 (D)
2130 How are impedances described in polar coordinates?
1948 In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting
2131 A. By X and R values
1949 A. 100 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees
2132 B. By real and imaginary parts
1950 B. 10 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees
2133 C. By phase angle and amplitude
1951 C. 10 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees
2134 D. By Y and G values
1952 D. 100 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees
2135 ~~
1953 ~~
2136 E5C03 (C)
1954 E5C03 (A)
2137 Which of the following represents an inductive reactance in polar co1955 In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting
2138 A. A positive real part
1956 A. 500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
2139 B. A negative real part
1957 B. 900 ohms at an angle of 53 degrees
2140 C. A positive phase angle
1958 C. 400 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees
2141 D. A negative phase angle
1959 D. 1300 ohms at an angle of 180 degrees
2142 ~~
1960 ~~
2143 E5C04 (D)
1961 E5C04 (D)
2144 Which of the following represents a capacitive reactance in polar co1962 In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting
2145 A. A positive real part
1963 A. 240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees
2146 B. A negative real part
1964 B. 240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees
2147 C. A positive phase angle
1965 C. 500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees
2148 D. A negative phase angle
1966 D. 500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees
2149 ~~
1967 ~~
2150 E5C05 (C)
1968 E5C05 (A)
2151 What is the name of the diagram used to show the phase relationship 1969 In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting
2152 A. Venn diagram
1970 A. 240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees
2153 B. Near field diagram
1971 B. 240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees
2154 C. Phasor diagram
1972 C. 500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees
2155 D. Far field diagram
1973 D. 500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees
2156 ~~
1974 ~~
2157 E5C06 (B)
1975 E5C06 (D)
2158 What does the impedance 50–j25 represent?
1976 In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting
2159 A. 50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms inductive reactance
1977 A. 121 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees
2160 B. 50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms capacitive reactance 1978 B. 191 ohms at an angle of -85 degrees
2161 C. 25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms inductive reactance
1979 C. 161 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees
2162 D. 25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms capacitive reactance 1980 D. 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
2163 ~~
1981 ~~
2164 E5C07 (B)
1982 E5C07 (C)
2165 What is a vector?
1983 In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised
2166 A. The value of a quantity that changes over time
1984 A. 31 ohms at an angle of -15 degrees
2167 B. A quantity with both magnitude and an angular component
1985 B. 51 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees
2168 C. The inverse of the tangent function
1986 C. 71 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
2169 D. The inverse of the sine function
1987 D. 91 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees
2170 ~~
1988 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
2171 E5C08 (D)
1989 E5C08 (B)
2172 What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a1990 In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised
2173 A. Maidenhead grid
1991 A. 400 ohms at an angle of 27 degrees
2174 B. Faraday grid
1992 B. 500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
2175 C. Elliptical coordinates
1993 C. 500 ohms at an angle of 47 degrees
2176 D. Polar coordinates
1994 D. 700 ohms at an angle of 57 degrees
2177 ~~
1995 ~~
2178 E5C09 (A)
1996 E5C09 (A)
2179 When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circu1997 When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circ
2180 A. Resistive component
1998 A. Resistive component
2181 B. Reactive component
1999 B. Reactive component
2182 C. The sum of the reactive and resistive components
2000 C. The sum of the reactive and resistive components
2183 D. The difference between the resistive and reactive components
2001 D. The difference between the resistive and reactive components
2184 ~~
2002 ~~
2185 E5C10 (B)
2003 E5C10 (B)
2186 When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circu2004 When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circ
2187 A. Resistive component
2005 A. Resistive component
2188 B. Reactive component
2006 B. Reactive component
2189 C. The sum of the reactive and resistive components
2007 C. The sum of the reactive and resistive components
2190 D. The difference between the resistive and reactive components
2008 D. The difference between the resistive and reactive components
2191 ~~
2009 ~~
2192 E5C11 (C)
2010 E5C11 (C)
2193 What do the two numbers that are used to define a point on a graph u2011 What do the two numbers represent that are used to define a point o
2194 A. The magnitude and phase of the point
2012 A. The magnitude and phase of the point
2195 B. The sine and cosine values
2013 B. The sine and cosine values
2196 C. The coordinate values along the horizontal and vertical axes
2014 C. The coordinate values along the horizontal and vertical axes
2197 D. The tangent and cotangent values
2015 D. The tangent and cotangent values
2198 ~~
2016 ~~
2199 E5C12 (D)
2017 E5C12 (D)
2200 If you plot the impedance of a circuit using the rectangular coordin2018 If you plot the impedance of a circuit using the rectangular coordi
2201 A. It has to be a direct current circuit
2019 A. It has to be a direct current circuit
2202 B. It contains resistance and capacitive reactance
2020 B. It contains resistance and capacitive reactance
2203 C. It contains resistance and inductive reactance
2021 C. It contains resistance and inductive reactance
2204 D. It is equivalent to a pure resistance
2022 D. It is equivalent to a pure resistance
2205 ~~
2023 ~~
2206 E5C13 (D)
2024 E5C13 (D)
2207 What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, induc2025 What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, indu
2208 A. Maidenhead grid
2026 A. Maidenhead grid
2209 B. Faraday grid
2027 B. Faraday grid
2210 C. Elliptical coordinates
2028 C. Elliptical coordinates
2211 D. Rectangular coordinates
2029 D. Rectangular coordinates
2212 ~~
2030 ~~
2031 E5C14 (D)
2032 What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of
2033 A. Maidenhead grid
2034 B. Faraday grid
2035 C. Elliptical coordinates
2036 D. Polar coordinates
2037 ~~
2038 E5C15 (A)
2039 In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit of 100 -j1
2040 A. 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
2041 B. 100 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
2042 C. 100 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
2043 D. 141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
2044 ~~
2045 E5C16 (B)
2046 In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has a
2047 A. 5.03 E–06 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
2048 B. 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
2049 C. 19,900 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
2050 D. 141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
2051 ~~
2/9/2016 2:53:06 PM
Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
2213
2214
2215
2216
2217
2218
2219
2220
2221
2222
2223
2224
2225
2226
2227
2228
2229
2230
2231
2232
2233
2234
2235
2236
2237
2238
2239
2240
2241
2242
2243
2244
2245
2246
2247
2248
2249
2250
2251
2252
2253
2254
NC4FB Amateur Extra Question Pool Comparison
Page 37 of 84
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
2052 E5C17 (C)
2053 In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that
2054 A. 173 -j100 ohms
2055 B. 200 +j100 ohms
2056 C. 173 +j100 ohms
2057 D. 200 -j100 ohms
2058 ~~
2059 E5C18 (B)
2060 In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a series circuit con
2061 A. 6.4 ohms at an angle of 53 degrees
2062 B. 5 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
2063 C. 5 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
2064 D. 10 ohms at an angle of -51 degrees
2065 ~~
E5C14 (B)
2066 E5C19 (B)
Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series2067 Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents that impedance of a seri
A. Point 2
2068 A. Point 2
B. Point 4
2069 B. Point 4
C. Point 5
2070 C. Point 5
D. Point 6
2071 D. Point 6
~~
2072 ~~
E5C15 (B)
2073 E5C20 (B)
Which point in Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series2074 Which point in Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a serie
A. Point 1
2075 A. Point 1
B. Point 3
2076 B. Point 3
C. Point 7
2077 C. Point 7
D. Point 8
2078 D. Point 8
~~
2079 ~~
E5C16 (A)
2080 E5C21 (A)
Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series2081 Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a serie
A. Point 1
2082 A. Point 1
B. Point 3
2083 B. Point 3
C. Point 7
2084 C. Point 7
D. Point 8
2085 D. Point 8
~~
2086 ~~
2087 E5C22 (A)
2088 In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network cons
2089 A. 40 + j31,400
2090 B. 40 - j31,400
2091 C. 31,400 + j40
2092 D. 31,400 - j40
2093 ~~
E5C17 (D)
2094 E5C23 (D)
Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series2095 Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a serie
A. Point 1
2096 A. Point 1
B. Point 3
2097 B. Point 3
C. Point 5
2098 C. Point 5
D. Point 8
2099 D. Point 8
~~
2100 ~~
E5D01 (A)
2101 E5D01 (A)
What is the result of skin effect?
2102 What is the result of skin effect?
A. As frequency increases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of th2103 A. As frequency increases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of t
B. As frequency decreases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of th2104 B. As frequency decreases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of t
C. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impe2105 C. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the imp
D. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impe2106 D. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the imp
~~
2107 ~~
E5D02 (B)
2108 E5D02 (C)
Why is it important to keep lead lengths short for components used i2109 Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF currents than
A. To increase the thermal time constant
2110 A. Because the insulation conducts current at high frequencies
B. To avoid unwanted inductive reactance
2111 B. Because of the Heisenburg Effect
C. To maintain component lifetime
2112 C. Because of skin effect
D. All of these choices are correct
2113 D. Because conductors are non-linear devices
~~
2114 ~~
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NC4FB Amateur Extra Question Pool Comparison
Page 38 of 84
Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
2255 E5D03 (D)
2115 E5D03 (C)
2256 What is microstrip?
2116 What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic
2257 A. Lightweight transmission line made of common zip cord
2117 A. A battery
2258 B. Miniature coax used for low power applications
2118 B. A transformer
2259 C. Short lengths of coax mounted on printed circuit boards to minimi2119 C. A capacitor
2260 D. Precision printed circuit conductors above a ground plane that pr2120 D. An inductor
2261 ~~
2121 ~~
2262 E5D04 (B)
2122 E5D04 (B)
2263 Why are short connections necessary at microwave frequencies?
2123 What unit measures electrical energy stored in an electrostatic fie
2264 A. To increase neutralizing resistance
2124 A. Coulomb
2265 B. To reduce phase shift along the connection
2125 B. Joule
2266 C. Because of ground reflections
2126 C. Watt
2267 D. To reduce noise figure
2127 D. Volt
2268 ~~
2128 ~~
2269 E5D05 (A)
2129 E5D05 (B)
2270 Which parasitic characteristic increases with conductor length?
2130 Which of the following creates a magnetic field?
2271 A. Inductance
2131 A. Potential differences between two points in space
2272 B. Permeability
2132 B. Electric current
2273 C. Permittivity
2133 C. A charged capacitor
2274 D. Malleability
2134 D. A battery
2275 ~~
2135 ~~
2276 E5D06 (D)
2136 E5D06 (D)
2277 In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor i2137 In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor
2278 A. In the same direction as the current
2138 A. In the same direction as the current
2279 B. In a direction opposite to the current
2139 B. In a direction opposite to the current
2280 C. In all directions; omni-directional
2140 C. In all directions; omnidirectional
2281 D. In a direction determined by the left-hand rule
2141 D. In a direction determined by the left-hand rule
2282 ~~
2142 ~~
2283 E5D07 (D)
2143 E5D07 (D)
2284 What determines the strength of the magnetic field around a conducto2144 What determines the strength of a magnetic field around a conductor
2285 A. The resistance divided by the current
2145 A. The resistance divided by the current
2286 B. The ratio of the current to the resistance
2146 B. The ratio of the current to the resistance
2287 C. The diameter of the conductor
2147 C. The diameter of the conductor
2288 D. The amount of current flowing through the conductor
2148 D. The amount of current
2289 ~~
2149 ~~
2290 E5D08 (B)
2150 E5D08 (B)
2291 What type of energy is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic2151 What type of energy is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostati
2292 A. Electromechanical energy
2152 A. Electromechanical energy
2293 B. Potential energy
2153 B. Potential energy
2294 C. Thermodynamic energy
2154 C. Thermodynamic energy
2295 D. Kinetic energy
2155 D. Kinetic energy
2296 ~~
2156 ~~
2297 E5D09 (B)
2157 E5D09 (B)
2298 What happens to reactive power in an AC circuit that has both ideal 2158 What happens to reactive power in an AC circuit that has both ideal
2299 A. It is dissipated as heat in the circuit
2159 A. It is dissipated as heat in the circuit
2300 B. It is repeatedly exchanged between the associated magnetic and el2160 B. It is repeatedly exchanged between the associated magnetic and e
2301 C. It is dissipated as kinetic energy in the circuit
2161 C. It is dissipated as kinetic energy in the circuit
2302 D. It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fie2162 D. It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fi
2303 ~~
2163 ~~
2304 E5D10 (A)
2164 E5D10 (A)
2305 How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the volt2165 How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the vol
2306 A. By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor
2166 A. By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor
2307 B. By dividing the reactive power by the power factor
2167 B. By dividing the reactive power by the power factor
2308 C. By dividing the apparent power by the power factor
2168 C. By dividing the apparent power by the power factor
2309 D. By multiplying the reactive power times the power factor
2169 D. By multiplying the reactive power times the power factor
2310 ~~
2170 ~~
2311 E5D11 (C)
2171 E5D11 (C)
2312 What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase 2172 What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase
2313 A. 1.414
2173 A. 1.414
2314 B. 0.866
2174 B. 0.866
2315 C. 0.5
2175 C. 0.5
2316 D. 1.73
2176 D. 1.73
2317 ~~
2177 ~~
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NC4FB Amateur Extra Question Pool Comparison
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
2318 E5D12 (B)
2178 E5D12 (B)
2319 How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2179 How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0
2320 A. 400 watts
2180 A. 400 watts
2321 B. 80 watts
2181 B. 80 watts
2322 C. 2000 watts
2182 C. 2000 watts
2323 D. 50 watts
2183 D. 50 watts
2324 ~~
2184 ~~
2325 E5D13 (B)
2185 E5D13 (B)
2326 How much power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 ohm resi2186 How much power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 ohm res
2327 A. 70.7 Watts
2187 A. 70.7 Watts
2328 B. 100 Watts
2188 B. 100 Watts
2329 C. 141.4 Watts
2189 C. 141.4 Watts
2330 D. 200 Watts
2190 D. 200 Watts
2331 ~~
2191 ~~
2332 E5D14 (A)
2192 E5D14 (A)
2333 What is reactive power?
2193 What is reactive power?
2334 A. Wattless, nonproductive power
2194 A. Wattless, nonproductive power
2335 B. Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor
2195 B. Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor
2336 C. Power lost because of capacitor leakage
2196 C. Power lost because of capacitor leakage
2337 D. Power consumed in circuit Q
2197 D. Power consumed in circuit Q
2338 ~~
2198 ~~
2339 E5D15 (D)
2199 E5D15 (D)
2340 What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 45 degree phase 2200 What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 45 degree phase
2341 A. 0.866
2201 A. 0.866
2342 B. 1.0
2202 B. 1.0
2343 C. 0.5
2203 C. 0.5
2344 D. 0.707
2204 D. 0.707
2345 ~~
2205 ~~
2346 E5D16 (C)
2206 E5D16 (C)
2347 What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 30 degree phase 2207 What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30 degree phase
2348 A. 1.73
2208 A. 1.73
2349 B. 0.5
2209 B. 0.5
2350 C. 0.866
2210 C. 0.866
2351 D. 0.577
2211 D. 0.577
2352 ~~
2212 ~~
2353 E5D17 (D)
2213 E5D17 (D)
2354 How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2214 How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0
2355 A. 200 watts
2215 A. 200 watts
2356 B. 1000 watts
2216 B. 1000 watts
2357 C. 1600 watts
2217 C. 1600 watts
2358 D. 600 watts
2218 D. 600 watts
2359 ~~
2219 ~~
2360 E5D18 (B)
2220 E5D18 (B)
2361 How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2221 How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0
2362 A. 704 W
2222 A. 704 W
2363 B. 355 W
2223 B. 355 W
2364 C. 252 W
2224 C. 252 W
2365 D. 1.42 mW
2225 D. 1.42 mW
2366 ~~
2226 ~~
2367 E6A01 (C)
2227 E6A01 (C)
2368 In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor mate2228 In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor mat
2369 A. In high-current rectifier circuits
2229 A. In high-current rectifier circuits
2370 B. In high-power audio circuits
2230 B. In high-power audio circuits
2371 C. In microwave circuits
2231 C. At microwave frequencies
2372 D. In very low frequency RF circuits
2232 D. At very low frequency RF circuits
2373 ~~
2233 ~~
2374 E6A02 (A)
2234 E6A02 (A)
2375 Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free 2235 Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free
2376 A. N-type
2236 A. N-type
2377 B. P-type
2237 B. P-type
2378 C. Bipolar
2238 C. Bipolar
2379 D. Insulated gate
2239 D. Insulated gate
2380 ~~
2240 ~~
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NC4FB Amateur Extra Question Pool Comparison
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
2381 E6A03 (C)
2241 E6A03 (C)
2382 Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased2242 What are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor mater
2383 A. Only P-type semiconductor material can conduct current
2243 A. Free neutrons
2384 B. Only N-type semiconductor material can conduct current
2244 B. Free protons
2385 C. Holes in P-type material and electrons in the N-type material are2245 C. Holes
2386 D. Excess holes in P-type material combine with the electrons in N-t2246 D. Free electrons
2387 ~~
2247 ~~
2388 E6A04 (C)
2248 E6A04 (C)
2389 What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semi2249 What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a sem
2390 A. Insulator impurity
2250 A. Insulator impurity
2391 B. N-type impurity
2251 B. N-type impurity
2392 C. Acceptor impurity
2252 C. Acceptor impurity
2393 D. Donor impurity
2253 D. Donor impurity
2394 ~~
2254 ~~
2395 E6A05 (C)
2255 E6A05 (C)
2396 What is the alpha of a bipolar junction transistor?
2256 What is the alpha of a bipolar junction transistor?
2397 A. The change of collector current with respect to base current
2257 A. The change of collector current with respect to base current
2398 B. The change of base current with respect to collector current
2258 B. The change of base current with respect to collector current
2399 C. The change of collector current with respect to emitter current 2259 C. The change of collector current with respect to emitter current
2400 D. The change of collector current with respect to gate current
2260 D. The change of collector current with respect to gate current
2401 ~~
2261 ~~
2402 E6A06 (B)
2262 E6A06 (B)
2403 What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?
2263 What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?
2404 A. The frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 1
2264 A. The frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 1
2405 B. The change in collector current with respect to base current
2265 B. The change in collector current with respect to base current
2406 C. The breakdown voltage of the base to collector junction
2266 C. The breakdown voltage of the base to collector junction
2407 D. The switching speed of the transistor
2267 D. The switching speed of the transistor
2408 ~~
2268 ~~
2409 E6A07 (D)
2269 E6A07 (A)
2410 Which of the following indicates that a silicon NPN junction transis2270 In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a PNP transistor?
2411 A. Base-to-emitter resistance of approximately 6 to 7 ohms
2271 A. 1
2412 B. Base-to-emitter resistance of approximately 0.6 to 0.7 ohms
2272 B. 2
2413 C. Base-to-emitter voltage of approximately 6 to 7 volts
2273 C. 4
2414 D. Base-to-emitter voltage of approximately 0.6 to 0.7 volts
2274 D. 5
2415 ~~
2275 ~~
2416 E6A08 (D)
2276 E6A08 (D)
2417 What term indicates the frequency at which the grounded-base current2277 What term indicates the frequency at which the grounded-base curren
2418 A. Corner frequency
2278 A. Corner frequency
2419 B. Alpha rejection frequency
2279 B. Alpha rejection frequency
2420 C. Beta cutoff frequency
2280 C. Beta cutoff frequency
2421 D. Alpha cutoff frequency
2281 D. Alpha cutoff frequency
2422 ~~
2282 ~~
2423 E6A09 (A)
2283 E6A09 (A)
2424 What is a depletion-mode FET?
2284 What is a depletion-mode FET?
2425 A. An FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain when2285 A. An FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain whe
2426 B. An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no 2286 B. An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no
2427 C. Any FET without a channel
2287 C. Any FET without a channel
2428 D. Any FET for which holes are the majority carriers
2288 D. Any FET for which holes are the majority carriers
2429 ~~
2289 ~~
2430 E6A10 (B)
2290 E6A10 (B)
2431 In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-g2291 In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual2432 A. 2
2292 A. 2
2433 B. 4
2293 B. 4
2434 C. 5
2294 C. 5
2435 D. 6
2295 D. 6
2436 ~~
2296 ~~
2437 E6A11 (A)
2297 E6A11 (A)
2438 In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junctio2298 In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel juncti
2439 A. 1
2299 A. 1
2440 B. 2
2300 B. 2
2441 C. 3
2301 C. 3
2442 D. 6
2302 D. 6
2443 ~~
2303 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
2444 E6A12 (D)
2304 E6A12 (D)
2445 Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on2305 Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes o
2446 A. To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-2306 A. To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse
2447 B. To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
2307 B. To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
2448 C. To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the de2308 C. To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the d
2449 D. To reduce the chance of the gate insulation being punctured by st2309 D. To reduce the chance of the gate insulation being punctured by s
2450 ~~
2310 ~~
2451 E6A13 (C)
2311 E6A13 (C)
2452 What do the initials CMOS stand for?
2312 What do the initials CMOS stand for?
2453 A. Common Mode Oscillating System
2313 A. Common Mode Oscillating System
2454 B. Complementary Mica-Oxide Silicon
2314 B. Complementary Mica-Oxide Silicon
2455 C. Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor
2315 C. Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor
2456 D. Common Mode Organic Silicon
2316 D. Common Mode Organic Silicon
2457 ~~
2317 ~~
2458 E6A14 (C)
2318 E6A14 (C)
2459 How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor2319 How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transisto
2460 A. They are both low impedance
2320 A. They are both low impedance
2461 B. An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high inp2321 B. An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high in
2462 C. An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low inp2322 C. An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low in
2463 D. They are both high impedance
2323 D. They are both high impedance
2464 ~~
2324 ~~
2465 E6A15 (B)
2325 E6A15 (B)
2466 Which semiconductor material contains excess holes in the outer shel2326 Which of the following semiconductor materials contains an excess o
2467 A. N-type
2327 A. N-type
2468 B. P-type
2328 B. P-type
2469 C. Superconductor-type
2329 C. Superconductor-type
2470 D. Bipolar-type
2330 D. Bipolar-type
2471 ~~
2331 ~~
2472 E6A16 (B)
2332 E6A16 (B)
2473 What are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductor materi2333 What are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductor mater
2474 A. Holes
2334 A. Holes
2475 B. Free electrons
2335 B. Free electrons
2476 C. Free protons
2336 C. Free protons
2477 D. Free neutrons
2337 D. Free neutrons
2478 ~~
2338 ~~
2479 E6A17 (D)
2339 E6A17 (D)
2480 What are the names of the three terminals of a field-effect transist2340 What are the names of the three terminals of a field-effect transis
2481 A. Gate 1, gate 2, drain
2341 A. Gate 1, gate 2, drain
2482 B. Emitter, base, collector
2342 B. Emitter, base, collector
2483 C. Emitter, base 1, base 2
2343 C. Emitter, base 1, base 2
2484 D. Gate, drain, source
2344 D. Gate, drain, source
2485 ~~
2345 ~~
2486 E6B01 (B)
2346 E6B01 (B)
2487 What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?
2347 What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?
2488 A. A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage
2348 A. A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage
2489 B. A constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current
2349 B. A constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current
2490 C. A negative resistance region
2350 C. A negative resistance region
2491 D. An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage
2351 D. An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage
2492 ~~
2352 ~~
2493 E6B02 (D)
2353 E6B02 (D)
2494 What is an important characteristic of a Schottky diode as compared 2354 What is an important characteristic of a Schottky diode as compared
2495 A. Much higher reverse voltage breakdown
2355 A. Much higher reverse voltage breakdown
2496 B. Controlled reverse avalanche voltage
2356 B. Controlled reverse avalanche voltage
2497 C. Enhanced carrier retention time
2357 C. Enhanced carrier retention time
2498 D. Less forward voltage drop
2358 D. Less forward voltage drop
2499 ~~
2359 ~~
2500 E6B03 (C)
2360 E6B03 (C)
2501 What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and osci2361 What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and osc
2502 A. Point contact
2362 A. Point contact
2503 B. Zener
2363 B. Zener
2504 C. Tunnel
2364 C. Tunnel
2505 D. Junction
2365 D. Junction
2506 ~~
2366 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
2507 E6B04 (A)
2367 E6B04 (A)
2508 What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-c2368 What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage2509 A. Varactor diode
2369 A. Varactor diode
2510 B. Tunnel diode
2370 B. Tunnel diode
2511 C. Silicon-controlled rectifier
2371 C. Silicon-controlled rectifier
2512 D. Zener diode
2372 D. Zener diode
2513 ~~
2373 ~~
2514 E6B05 (D)
2374 E6B05 (D)
2515 What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch o2375 What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch
2516 A. Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage
2376 A. Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage
2517 B. Ability to dissipate large amounts of power
2377 B. Ability to dissipate large amounts of power
2518 C. Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
2378 C. Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
2519 D. A large region of intrinsic material
2379 D. A large region of intrinsic material
2520 ~~
2380 ~~
2521 E6B06 (D)
2381 E6B06 (D)
2522 Which of the following is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?
2382 Which of the following is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?
2523 A. As balanced mixers in FM generation
2383 A. As balanced mixers in FM generation
2524 B. As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circu2384 B. As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circ
2525 C. As a constant voltage reference in a power supply
2385 C. As a constant voltage reference in a power supply
2526 D. As a VHF/UHF mixer or detector
2386 D. As a VHF / UHF mixer or detector
2527 ~~
2387 ~~
2528 E6B07 (B)
2388 E6B07 (B)
2529 What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to exc2389 What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to ex
2530 A. Excessive inverse voltage
2390 A. Excessive inverse voltage
2531 B. Excessive junction temperature
2391 B. Excessive junction temperature
2532 C. Insufficient forward voltage
2392 C. Insufficient forward voltage
2533 D. Charge carrier depletion
2393 D. Charge carrier depletion
2534 ~~
2394 ~~
2535 E6B08 (A)
2395 E6B08 (A)
2536 Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?
2396 Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?
2537 A. Metal-semiconductor junction
2397 A. Metal-semiconductor junction
2538 B. Electrolytic rectifier
2398 B. Electrolytic rectifier
2539 C. CMOS-field effect
2399 C. CMOS-field effect
2540 D. Thermionic emission diode
2400 D. Thermionic emission diode
2541 ~~
2401 ~~
2542 E6B09 (C)
2402 E6B09 (C)
2543 What is a common use for point contact diodes?
2403 What is a common use for point contact diodes?
2544 A. As a constant current source
2404 A. As a constant current source
2545 B. As a constant voltage source
2405 B. As a constant voltage source
2546 C. As an RF detector
2406 C. As an RF detector
2547 D. As a high voltage rectifier
2407 D. As a high voltage rectifier
2548 ~~
2408 ~~
2549 E6B10 (B)
2409 E6B10 (B)
2550 In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting di2410 In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting d
2551 A. 1
2411 A. 1
2552 B. 5
2412 B. 5
2553 C. 6
2413 C. 6
2554 D. 7
2414 D. 7
2555 ~~
2415 ~~
2556 E6B11 (A)
2416 E6B11 (A)
2557 What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode2417 What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diod
2558 A. Forward DC bias current
2418 A. Forward DC bias current
2559 B. A sub-harmonic pump signal
2419 B. A sub-harmonic pump signal
2560 C. Reverse voltage larger than the RF signal
2420 C. Reverse voltage larger than the RF signal
2561 D. Capacitance of an RF coupling capacitor
2421 D. Capacitance of an RF coupling capacitor
2562 ~~
2422 ~~
2563 E6B12 (C)
2423 E6B12 (C)
2564 What is one common use for PIN diodes?
2424 What is one common use for PIN diodes?
2565 A. As a constant current source
2425 A. As a constant current source
2566 B. As a constant voltage source
2426 B. As a constant voltage source
2567 C. As an RF switch
2427 C. As an RF switch
2568 D. As a high voltage rectifier
2428 D. As a high voltage rectifier
2569 ~~
2429 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
2570 E6B13 (B)
2430 E6B13 (B)
2571 What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light?
2431 What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light?
2572 A. Reverse bias
2432 A. Reverse bias
2573 B. Forward bias
2433 B. Forward bias
2574 C. Zero bias
2434 C. Zero bias
2575 D. Inductive bias
2435 D. Inductive bias
2576 ~~
2436 ~~
2577 E6C01 (A)
2437 E6C01 (C)
2578 What is the function of hysteresis in a comparator?
2438 What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series integra
2579 A. To prevent input noise from causing unstable output signals
2439 A. 12 volts
2580 B. To allow the comparator to be used with AC input signal
2440 B. 1.5 volts
2581 C. To cause the output to change states continually
2441 C. 5 volts
2582 D. To increase the sensitivity
2442 D. 13.6 volts
2583 ~~
2443 ~~
2584 E6C02 (B)
2444 E6C02 (A)
2585 What happens when the level of a comparator’s input signal crosses t2445 What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are l
2586 A. The IC input can be damaged
2446 A. A logic-high state
2587 B. The comparator changes its output state
2447 B. A logic-low state
2588 C. The comparator enters latch-up
2448 C. The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent hi
2589 D. The feedback loop becomes unstable
2449 D. Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored
2590 ~~
2450 ~~
2591 E6C03 (A)
2451 E6C03 (A)
2592 What is tri-state logic?
2452 Which of the following describes tri-state logic?
2593 A. Logic devices with 0, 1, and high impedance output states
2453 A. Logic devices with 0, 1, and high impedance output states
2594 B. Logic devices that utilize ternary math
2454 B. Logic devices that utilize ternary math
2595 C. Low power logic devices designed to operate at 3 volts
2455 C. Low power logic devices designed to operate at 3 volts
2596 D. Proprietary logic devices manufactured by Tri-State Devices
2456 D. Proprietary logic devices manufactured by Tri-State Devices
2597 ~~
2457 ~~
2598 E6C04 (B)
2458 E6C04 (B)
2599 What is the primary advantage of tri-state logic?
2459 Which of the following is the primary advantage of tri-state logic?
2600 A. Low power consumption
2460 A. Low power consumption
2601 B. Ability to connect many device outputs to a common bus
2461 B. Ability to connect many device outputs to a common bus
2602 C. High speed operation
2462 C. High speed operation
2603 D. More efficient arithmetic operations
2463 D. More efficient arithmetic operations
2604 ~~
2464 ~~
2605 E6C05 (D)
2465 E6C05 (D)
2606 What is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?
2466 Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over T
2607 A. Differential output capability
2467 A. Differential output capability
2608 B. Lower distortion
2468 B. Lower distortion
2609 C. Immune to damage from static discharge
2469 C. Immune to damage from static discharge
2610 D. Lower power consumption
2470 D. Lower power consumption
2611 ~~
2471 ~~
2612 E6C06 (C)
2472 E6C06 (C)
2613 Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise 2473 Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise
2614 A. Larger bypass capacitors are used in CMOS circuit design
2474 A. Larger bypass capacitors are used in CMOS circuit design
2615 B. The input switching threshold is about two times the power supply2475 B. The input switching threshold is about two times the power suppl
2616 C. The input switching threshold is about one-half the power supply 2476 C. The input switching threshold is about one-half the power supply
2617 D. Input signals are stronger
2477 D. Input signals are stronger
2618 ~~
2478 ~~
2619 E6C07 (B)
2479 E6C07 (A)
2620 What best describes a pull-up or pull-down resistor?
2480 In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an AND gate?
2621 A. A resistor in a keying circuit used to reduce key clicks
2481 A. 1
2622 B. A resistor connected to the positive or negative supply line used2482 B. 2
2623 C. A resistor that insures that an oscillator frequency does not dri2483 C. 3
2624 D. A resistor connected to an op-amp output that only functions when2484 D. 4
2625 ~~
2485 ~~
2626 E6C08 (B)
2486 E6C08 (B)
2627 In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?
2487 In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?
2628 A. 1
2488 A. 1
2629 B. 2
2489 B. 2
2630 C. 3
2490 C. 3
2631 D. 4
2491 D. 4
2632 ~~
2492 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
2633 E6C09 (B)
2493 E6C09 (B)
2634 What is a Programmable Logic Device (PLD)?
2494 In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an OR gate?
2635 A. A device to control industrial equipment
2495 A. 2
2636 B. A programmable collection of logic gates and circuits in a single2496 B. 3
2637 C. Programmable equipment used for testing digital logic integrated 2497 C. 4
2638 D. An algorithm for simulating logic functions during circuit design2498 D. 6
2639 ~~
2499 ~~
2640 E6C10 (D)
2500 E6C10 (D)
2641 In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?
2501 In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?
2642 A. 1
2502 A. 1
2643 B. 2
2503 B. 2
2644 C. 3
2504 C. 3
2645 D. 4
2505 D. 4
2646 ~~
2506 ~~
2647 E6C11 (C)
2507 E6C11 (C)
2648 In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (2508 In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation
2649 A. 2
2509 A. 2
2650 B. 4
2510 B. 4
2651 C. 5
2511 C. 5
2652 D. 6
2512 D. 6
2653 ~~
2513 ~~
2654 E6C12 (D)
2514 E6C12 (D)
2655 What is BiCMOS logic?
2515 What is BiCMOS logic?
2656 A. A logic device with two CMOS circuits per package
2516 A. A logic device with two CMOS circuits per package
2657 B. A FET logic family based on bimetallic semiconductors
2517 B. An FET logic family based on bimetallic semiconductors
2658 C. A logic family based on bismuth CMOS devices
2518 C. A logic family based on bismuth CMOS devices
2659 D. An integrated circuit logic family using both bipolar and CMOS tr2519 D. An integrated circuit logic family using both bipolar and CMOS t
2660 ~~
2520 ~~
2661 E6C13 (C)
2521 E6C13 (C)
2662 Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?
2522 Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?
2663 A. Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standa2523 A. Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than stand
2664 B. It is totally immune to electrostatic damage
2524 B. It is totally immune to electrostatic damage
2665 C. It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impeda2525 C. It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output imped
2666 D. All of these choices are correct
2526 D. All of these choices are correct
2667 ~~
2527 ~~
2668 E6C14 (B)
2528 E6D01 (D)
2669 What is the primary advantage of using a Programmable Gate Array (PG2529 What is cathode ray tube (CRT) persistence?
2670 A. Many similar gates are less expensive than a mixture of gate type2530 A. The time it takes for an image to appear after the electron beam
2671 B. Complex logic functions can be created in a single integrated cir2531 B. The relative brightness of the display under varying conditions
2672 C. A PGA contains its own internal power supply
2532 C. The ability of the display to remain in focus under varying cond
2673 D. All of these choices are correct
2533 D. The length of time the image remains on the screen after the bea
2674 ~~
2675 E6D01 (A)
2676 How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor u
2677 A. 35 turns
2678 B. 13 turns
2679 C. 79 turns
2680 D. 141 turns
2681 ~~
2534 ~~
2682 E6D02 (A)
2535 E6D02 (B)
2683 What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?
2536 Exceeding what design rating can cause a cathode ray tube (CRT) to
2684 A. Motional capacitance, motional inductance, and loss resistance in2537 A. The heater voltage
2685 B. Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a2538 B. The anode voltage
2686 C. Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a2539 C. The operating temperature
2687 D. Motional inductance and loss resistance in series, paralleled wit2540 D. The operating frequency
2688 ~~
2541 ~~
2689 E6D03 (A)
2542 E6D03 (C)
2690 Which of the following is an aspect of the piezoelectric effect?
2543 Which of the following is true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?
2691 A. Mechanical deformation of material by the application of a voltag2544 A. Its phase shift changes rapidly with frequency
2692 B. Mechanical deformation of material by the application of a magnet2545 B. It is a CMOS analog-to-digital converter
2693 C. Generation of electrical energy in the presence light
2546 C. It samples an analog signal and passes it in stages from the inp
2694 D. Increased conductivity in the presence of applying light
2547 D. It is used in a battery charger circuit
2695 ~~
2548 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
2696 E6D04 (B)
2549 E6D04 (A)
2697 Which materials are commonly used as a slug core in a variable induc2550 What function does a charge-coupled device (CCD) serve in a modern
2698 A. Polystyrene and polyethylene
2551 A. It stores photogenerated charges as signals corresponding to pix
2699 B. Ferrite and brass
2552 B. It generates the horizontal pulses needed for electron beam scan
2700 C. Teflon and Delrin
2553 C. It focuses the light used to produce a pattern of electrical cha
2701 D. Cobalt and aluminum
2554 D. It combines audio and video information to produce a composite R
2702 ~~
2555 ~~
2703 E6D05 (C)
2556 E6D05 (B)
2704 What is one reason for using ferrite cores rather than powdered-iron2557 What is a liquid-crystal display (LCD)?
2705 A. Ferrite toroids generally have lower initial permeability
2558 A. A modern replacement for a quartz crystal oscillator which displ
2706 B. Ferrite toroids generally have better temperature stability
2559 B. A display using a crystalline liquid which, in conjunction with
2707 C. Ferrite toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given 2560 C. A frequency-determining unit for a transmitter or receiver
2708 D. Ferrite toroids are easier to use with surface mount technology 2561 D. A display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in d
2709 ~~
2562 ~~
2710 E6D06 (D)
2563 E6D06 (D)
2711 What core material property determines the inductance of a toroidal 2564 What core material property determines the inductance of a toroidal
2712 A. Thermal impedance
2565 A. Thermal impedance
2713 B. Resistance
2566 B. Resistance
2714 C. Reactivity
2567 C. Reactivity
2715 D. Permeability
2568 D. Permeability
2716 ~~
2569 ~~
2717 E6D07 (B)
2570 E6D07 (B)
2718 What is the usable frequency range of inductors that use toroidal co2571 What is the usable frequency range of inductors that use toroidal c
2719 A. From a few kHz to no more than 30 MHz
2572 A. From a few kHz to no more than 30 MHz
2720 B. From less than 20 Hz to approximately 300 MHz
2573 B. From less than 20 Hz to approximately 300 MHz
2721 C. From approximately 10 Hz to no more than 3000 kHz
2574 C. From approximately 10 Hz to no more than 3000 kHz
2722 D. From about 100 kHz to at least 1000 GHz
2575 D. From about 100 kHz to at least 1000 GHz
2723 ~~
2576 ~~
2724 E6D08 (B)
2577 E6D08 (B)
2725 What is one reason for using powdered-iron cores rather than ferrite2578 What is one important reason for using powdered-iron toroids rather
2726 A. Powdered-iron cores generally have greater initial permeability 2579 A. Powdered-iron toroids generally have greater initial permeabilit
2727 B. Powdered-iron cores generally maintain their characteristics at h2580 B. Powdered-iron toroids generally maintain their characteristics a
2728 C. Powdered-iron cores generally require fewer turns to produce a gi2581 C. Powdered-iron toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a
2729 D. Powdered-iron cores use smaller diameter wire for the same induct2582 D. Powdered-iron toroids have higher power handling capacity
2730 ~~
2583 ~~
2731 E6D09 (C)
2584 E6D09 (C)
2732 What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors 2585 What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors
2733 A. Electrolytic capacitors
2586 A. Electrolytic capacitors
2734 B. Butterworth filters
2587 B. Butterworth filters
2735 C. Ferrite beads
2588 C. Ferrite beads
2736 D. Steel-core toroids
2589 D. Steel-core toroids
2737 ~~
2590 ~~
2738 E6D10 (A)
2591 E6D10 (A)
2739 What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a so2592 What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a s
2740 A. Toroidal cores confine most of the magnetic field within the core2593 A. Toroidal cores confine most of the magnetic field within the cor
2741 B. Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into 2594 B. Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into
2742 C. Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
2595 C. Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
2743 D. Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics
2596 D. Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics
2744 ~~
2597 ~~
2745 E6D11 (C)
2598 E6D11 (C)
2746 How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a c2599 How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a
2747 A. 2 turns
2600 A. 2 turns
2748 B. 4 turns
2601 B. 4 turns
2749 C. 43 turns
2602 C. 43 turns
2750 D. 229 turns
2603 D. 229 turns
2751 ~~
2604 ~~
2752 E6D12 (C)
2605 E6D12 (A)
2753 What is the definition of saturation in a ferrite core inductor?
2606 How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor
2754 A. The inductor windings are over coupled
2607 A. 35 turns
2755 B. The inductor’s voltage rating is exceeded causing a flashover
2608 B. 13 turns
2756 C. The ability of the inductor’s core to store magnetic energy has b2609 C. 79 turns
2757 D. Adjacent inductors become over-coupled
2610 D. 141 turns
2758 ~~
2611 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
2759 E6D13 (A)
2612 E6D13 (D)
2760 What is the primary cause of inductor self-resonance?
2613 What type of CRT deflection is better when high-frequency waveforms
2761 A. Inter-turn capacitance
2614 A. Electromagnetic
2762 B. The skin effect
2615 B. Tubular
2763 C. Inductive kickback
2616 C. Radar
2764 D. Non-linear core hysteresis
2617 D. Electrostatic
2765 ~~
2618 ~~
2766 E6D14 (B)
2619 E6D14 (C)
2767 Which type of slug material decreases inductance when inserted into 2620 Which is NOT true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?
2768 A. Ceramic
2621 A. It uses a combination of analog and digital circuitry
2769 B. Brass
2622 B. It can be used to make an audio delay line
2770 C. Ferrite
2623 C. It is commonly used as an analog-to-digital converter
2771 D. Powdered-iron
2624 D. It samples and stores analog signals
2772 ~~
2625 ~~
2773 E6D15 (A)
2626 E6D15 (A)
2774 What is current in the primary winding of a transformer called if no2627 What is the principle advantage of liquid-crystal display (LCD) dev
2775 A. Magnetizing current
2628 A. They consume less power
2776 B. Direct current
2629 B. They can display changes instantly
2777 C. Excitation current
2630 C. They are visible in all light conditions
2778 D. Stabilizing current
2631 D. They can be easily interchanged with other display devices
2779 ~~
2780 E6D16 (D)
2781 What is the common name for a capacitor connected across a transform
2782 A. Clipper capacitor
2783 B. Trimmer capacitor
2784 C. Feedback capacitor
2785 D. Snubber capacitor
2786 ~~
2632 ~~
2787 E6D17 (A)
2633 E6D16 (C)
2788 Why should core saturation of a conventional impedance matching tran2634 What is one reason for using ferrite toroids rather than powdered-i
2789 A. Harmonics and distortion could result
2635 A. Ferrite toroids generally have lower initial permeabilities
2790 B. Magnetic flux would increase with frequency
2636 B. Ferrite toroids generally have better temperature stability
2791 C. RF susceptance would increase
2637 C. Ferrite toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given
2792 D. Temporary changes of the core permeability could result
2638 D. Ferrite toroids are easier to use with surface mount technology
2793 ~~
2639 ~~
2794 E6E01 (C)
2640 E6E01 (D)
2795 Which of the following is true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?
2641 What is a crystal lattice filter?
2796 A. Its phase shift changes rapidly with frequency
2642 A. A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals
2797 B. It is a CMOS analog-to-digital converter
2643 B. An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at
2798 C. It samples an analog signal and passes it in stages from the inpu2644 C. A filter with wide bandwidth and shallow skirts made using quart
2799 D. It is used in a battery charger circuit
2645 D. A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quart
2800 ~~
2646 ~~
2801 E6E02 (A)
2647 E6E02 (A)
2802 What is the following device packages is a through-hole type?
2648 Which of the following factors has the greatest effect in helping d
2803 A. DIP
2649 A. The relative frequencies of the individual crystals
2804 B. PLCC
2650 B. The DC voltage applied to the quartz crystal
2805 C. Ball grid array
2651 C. The gain of the RF stage preceding the filter
2806 D. SOT
2652 D. The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter
2807 ~~
2653 ~~
2808 E6E03 (D)
2654 E6E03 (A)
2809 Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest fr2655 What is one aspect of the piezoelectric effect?
2810 A. Silicon
2656 A. Physical deformation of a crystal by the application of a voltag
2811 B. Silicon nitride
2657 B. Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magn
2812 C. Silicon dioxide
2658 C. The generation of electrical energy by the application of light
2813 D. Gallium nitride
2659 D. Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to lig
2814 ~~
2660 ~~
2815 E6E04 (A)
2661 E6E04 (A)
2816 Which is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that2662 What is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that
2817 A. 50 ohms
2663 A. 50 ohms
2818 B. 300 ohms
2664 B. 300 ohms
2819 C. 450 ohms
2665 C. 450 ohms
2820 D. 10 ohms
2666 D. 10 ohms
2821 ~~
2667 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
2822 E6E05 (A)
2668 E6E05 (A)
2823 Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise2669 Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-nois
2824 A. 2 dB
2670 A. 2 dB
2825 B. -10 dB
2671 B. -10 dB
2826 C. 44 dBm
2672 C. 44 dBm
2827 D. -20 dBm
2673 D. -20 dBm
2828 ~~
2674 ~~
2829 E6E06 (D)
2675 E6E06 (D)
2830 What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF th2676 What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF t
2831 A. The ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in 2677 A. The ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in
2832 B. Plate current that is controlled by a control grid
2678 B. Plate current that is controlled by a control grid
2833 C. Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low out2679 C. Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low ou
2834 D. Controlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output 2680 D. Controlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output
2835 ~~
2681 ~~
2836 E6E07 (B)
2682 E6E07 (B)
2837 Which of the following is typically used to construct a MMIC-based m2683 Which of the following is typically used to construct a MMIC-based
2838 A. Ground-plane construction
2684 A. Ground-plane construction
2839 B. Microstrip construction
2685 B. Microstrip construction
2840 C. Point-to-point construction
2686 C. Point-to-point construction
2841 D. Wave-soldering construction
2687 D. Wave-soldering construction
2842 ~~
2688 ~~
2843 E6E08 (A)
2689 E6E08 (A)
2844 How is voltage from a power supply normally furnished to the most co2690 How is power-supply voltage normally furnished to the most common t
2845 A. Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier out2691 A. Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier ou
2846 B. MMICs require no operating bias
2692 B. MMICs require no operating bias
2847 C. Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input2693 C. Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier inpu
2848 D. Directly to the bias voltage (VCC IN) lead
2694 D. Directly to the bias-voltage (VCC IN) lead
2849 ~~
2695 ~~
2850 E6E09 (D)
2696 E6E09 (B)
2851 Which of the following component package types would be most suitabl2697 Which of the following must be done to insure that a crystal oscill
2852 A. TO-220
2698 A. Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance
2853 B. Axial lead
2699 B. Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance
2854 C. Radial lead
2700 C. Bias the crystal at a specified voltage
2855 D. Surface mount
2701 D. Bias the crystal at a specified current
2856 ~~
2702 ~~
2857 E6E10 (D)
2703 E6E10 (A)
2858 What is the packaging technique in which leadless components are sol2704 What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?
2859 A. Direct soldering
2705 A. Motional capacitance, motional inductance and loss resistance in
2860 B. Virtual lead mounting
2706 B. Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and
2861 C. Stripped lead
2707 C. Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and
2862 D. Surface mount
2708 D. Motional inductance and loss resistance in series, paralleled wi
2863 ~~
2709 ~~
2864 E6E11 (D)
2710 E6E11 (D)
2865 What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circui2711 Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest f
2866 A. Package mounts in a direct inverted position
2712 A. Silicon
2867 B. Low leakage doubly insulated package
2713 B. Silicon nitride
2868 C. Two chips in each package (Dual In Package)
2714 C. Silicon dioxide
2869 D. A total of two rows of connecting pins placed on opposite sides o2715 D. Gallium nitride
2870 ~~
2716 ~~
2871 E6E12 (B)
2717 E6E12 (B)
2872 Why are high-power RF amplifier ICs and transistors sometimes mounte2718 What is a "Jones filter" as used as part of a HF receiver IF stage?
2873 A. High-voltage insulating ability
2719 A. An automatic notch filter
2874 B. Better dissipation of heat
2720 B. A variable bandwidth crystal lattice filter
2875 C. Enhanced sensitivity to light
2721 C. A special filter that emphasizes image responses
2876 D. To provide a low-pass frequency response
2722 D. A filter that removes impulse noise
2877 ~~
2723 ~~
2878 E6F01 (B)
2724 E6F01 (B)
2879 What is photoconductivity?
2725 What is photoconductivity?
2880 A. The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy
2726 A. The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy
2881 B. The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
2727 B. The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
2882 C. The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy
2728 C. The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy
2883 D. The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
2729 D. The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
2884 ~~
2730 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
2885 E6F02 (A)
2731 E6F02 (A)
2886 What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when 2732 What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when
2887 A. It increases
2733 A. It increases
2888 B. It decreases
2734 B. It decreases
2889 C. It stays the same
2735 C. It stays the same
2890 D. It becomes unstable
2736 D. It becomes unstable
2891 ~~
2737 ~~
2892 E6F03 (D)
2738 E6F03 (D)
2893 What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoup2739 What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocou
2894 A. A lens and a photomultiplier
2740 A. A lens and a photomultiplier
2895 B. A frequency modulated helium-neon laser
2741 B. A frequency modulated helium-neon laser
2896 C. An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser
2742 C. An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser
2897 D. An LED and a phototransistor
2743 D. An LED and a phototransistor
2898 ~~
2744 ~~
2899 E6F04 (B)
2745 E6F04 (B)
2900 What is the photovoltaic effect?
2746 What is the photovoltaic effect?
2901 A. The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
2747 A. The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
2902 B. The conversion of light to electrical energy
2748 B. The conversion of light to electrical energy
2903 C. The conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
2749 C. The conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
2904 D. The tendency of a battery to discharge when used outside
2750 D. The tendency of a battery to discharge when used outside
2905 ~~
2751 ~~
2906 E6F05 (A)
2752 E6F05 (A)
2907 Which describes an optical shaft encoder?
2753 Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder?
2908 A. A device which detects rotation of a control by interrupting a li2754 A. A device which detects rotation of a control by interrupting a l
2909 B. A device which measures the strength of a beam of light using ana2755 B. A device which measures the strength a beam of light using analo
2910 C. A digital encryption device often used to encrypt spacecraft cont2756 C. A digital encryption device often used to encrypt spacecraft con
2911 D. A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light2757 D. A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating ligh
2912 ~~
2758 ~~
2913 E6F06 (A)
2759 E6F06 (A)
2914 Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity? 2760 Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?
2915 A. A crystalline semiconductor
2761 A. A crystalline semiconductor
2916 B. An ordinary metal
2762 B. An ordinary metal
2917 C. A heavy metal
2763 C. A heavy metal
2918 D. A liquid semiconductor
2764 D. A liquid semiconductor
2919 ~~
2765 ~~
2920 E6F07 (B)
2766 E6F07 (B)
2921 What is a solid state relay?
2767 What is a solid state relay?
2922 A. A relay using transistors to drive the relay coil
2768 A. A relay using transistors to drive the relay coil
2923 B. A device that uses semiconductors to implement the functions of a2769 B. A device that uses semiconductor devices to implement the functi
2924 C. A mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time 2770 C. A mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time
2925 D. A passive delay line
2771 D. A passive delay line
2926 ~~
2772 ~~
2927 E6F08 (C)
2773 E6F08 (C)
2928 Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid state cir2774 Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid state ci
2929 A. Optoisolators provide a low impedance link between a control circ2775 A. Optoisolators provide a low impedance link between a control cir
2930 B. Optoisolators provide impedance matching between the control circ2776 B. Optoisolators provide impedance matching between the control cir
2931 C. Optoisolators provide a very high degree of electrical isolation 2777 C. Optoisolators provide a very high degree of electrical isolation
2932 D. Optoisolators eliminate the effects of reflected light in the con2778 D. Optoisolators eliminate the effects of reflected light in the co
2933 ~~
2779 ~~
2934 E6F09 (D)
2780 E6F09 (D)
2935 What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?
2781 What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?
2936 A. The output RF power divided by the input DC power
2782 A. The output RF power divided by the input dc power
2937 B. The effective payback period
2783 B. The effective payback period
2938 C. The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current und2784 C. The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current un
2939 D. The relative fraction of light that is converted to current
2785 D. The relative fraction of light that is converted to current
2940 ~~
2786 ~~
2941 E6F10 (B)
2787 E6F10 (B)
2942 What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrica2788 What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electric
2943 A. Selenium
2789 A. Selenium
2944 B. Silicon
2790 B. Silicon
2945 C. Cadmium Sulfide
2791 C. Cadmium Sulfide
2946 D. Copper oxide
2792 D. Copper oxide
2947 ~~
2793 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
2948 E6F11 (B)
2794 E6F11 (B)
2949 What is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully-ill2795 Which of the following is the approximate open-circuit voltage prod
2950 A. 0.1 V
2796 A. 0.1 V
2951 B. 0.5 V
2797 B. 0.5 V
2952 C. 1.5 V
2798 C. 1.5 V
2953 D. 12 V
2799 D. 12 V
2954 ~~
2800 ~~
2955 E6F12 (C)
2801 E6F12 (C)
2956 What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell? 2802 What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?
2957 A. Protons
2803 A. Protons
2958 B. Photons
2804 B. Photons
2959 C. Electrons
2805 C. Electrons
2960 D. Holes
2806 D. Holes
2961 ~~
2807 ~~
2962 E6F13 (B)
2963 What is a liquid crystal display (LCD)?
2964 A. A modern replacement for a quartz crystal oscillator which displa
2965 B. A display utilizing a crystalline liquid and polarizing filters w
2966 C. A frequency-determining unit for a transmitter or receiver
2967 D. A display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in di
2968 ~~
2969 E6F14 (B)
2970 Which of the following is true of LCD displays?
2971 A. They are hard to view in high ambient light conditions
2972 B. They may be hard view through polarized lenses
2973 C. They only display alphanumeric symbols
2974 D. All of these choices are correct
2975 ~~
2976 E7A01 (C)
2808 E7A01 (C)
2977 Which is a bi-stable circuit?
2809 Which of the following is a bistable circuit?
2978 A. An "AND" gate
2810 A. An "AND" gate
2979 B. An "OR" gate
2811 B. An "OR" gate
2980 C. A flip-flop
2812 C. A flip-flop
2981 D. A clock
2813 D. A clock
2982 ~~
2814 ~~
2983 E7A02 (A)
2815 E7A02 (C)
2984 What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?
2816 How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pu
2985 A. It produces one output pulse for every ten input pulses
2817 A. None
2986 B. It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven segment LED di2818 B. One
2987 C. It produces ten output pulses for every input pulse
2819 C. Two
2988 D. It adds two decimal numbers together
2820 D. Four
2989 ~~
2821 ~~
2990 E7A03 (B)
2822 E7A03 (B)
2991 Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2823 Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by
2992 A. An XOR gate
2824 A. An XOR gate
2993 B. A flip-flop
2825 B. A flip-flop
2994 C. An OR gate
2826 C. An OR gate
2995 D. A multiplexer
2827 D. A multiplexer
2996 ~~
2828 ~~
2997 E7A04 (B)
2829 E7A04 (B)
2998 How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4? 2830 How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?
2999 A. 1
2831 A. 1
3000 B. 2
2832 B. 2
3001 C. 4
2833 C. 4
3002 D. 8
2834 D. 8
3003 ~~
2835 ~~
3004 E7A05 (D)
2836 E7A05 (D)
3005 Which of the following is a circuit that continuously alternates bet2837 Which of the following is a circuit that continuously alternates be
3006 A. Monostable multivibrator
2838 A. Monostable multivibrator
3007 B. J-K flip-flop
2839 B. J-K flip-flop
3008 C. T flip-flop
2840 C. T flip-flop
3009 D. Astable multivibrator
2841 D. Astable multivibrator
3010 ~~
2842 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
3011 E7A06 (A)
2843 E7A06 (A)
3012 What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?
2844 What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?
3013 A. It switches momentarily to the opposite binary state and then ret2845 A. It switches momentarily to the opposite binary state and then re
3014 B. It produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0 2846 B. It is a clock that produces a continuous square wave oscillating
3015 C. It stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state
2847 C. It stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state
3016 D. It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations 2848 D. It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations
3017 ~~
2849 ~~
3018 E7A07 (D)
2850 E7A07 (D)
3019 What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?
2851 What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?
3020 A. It produces logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logi2852 A. It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are l
3021 B. It produces logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logi2853 B. It produces a logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are l
3022 C. It produces logic "0" at its output if some but not all inputs ar2854 C. It produces a logic "0" at its output if some but not all of its
3023 D. It produces logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logi2855 D. It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are l
3024 ~~
2856 ~~
3025 E7A08 (A)
2857 E7A08 (A)
3026 What logical operation does an OR gate perform?
2858 What logical operation does an OR gate perform?
3027 A. It produces logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are logi2859 A. It produces a logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are l
3028 B. It produces logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1" 2860 B. It produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1
3029 C. It only produces logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logi2861 C. It only produces a logic "0" at its output when all inputs are l
3030 D. It produces logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0" 2862 D. It produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0
3031 ~~
2863 ~~
3032 E7A09 (C)
2864 E7A09 (C)
3033 What logical operation is performed by an exclusive NOR gate?
2865 What logical operation is performed by a two-input exclusive NOR ga
3034 A. It produces logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic 2866 A. It produces a logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are log
3035 B. It produces logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic 2867 B. It produces a logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are log
3036 C. It produces logic "0" at its output if any single input is logic 2868 C. It produces a logic "0" at its output if any single input is a l
3037 D. It produces logic "1" at its output if any single input is logic 2869 D. It produces a logic "1" at its output if any single input is a l
3038 ~~
2870 ~~
3039 E7A10 (C)
2871 E7A10 (C)
3040 What is a truth table?
2872 What is a truth table?
3041 A. A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of a2873 A. A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of
3042 B. A diagram showing logic states when the digital device output is 2874 B. A diagram showing logic states when the digital device's output
3043 C. A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device 2875 C. A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device
3044 D. A table of logic symbols that indicate the logic states of an op-2876 D. A table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic states of
3045 ~~
2877 ~~
3046 E7A11 (D)
2878 E7A11 (D)
3047 What type of logic defines "1" as a high voltage?
2879 What is the name for logic which represents a logic "1" as a high v
3048 A. Reverse Logic
2880 A. Reverse Logic
3049 B. Assertive Logic
2881 B. Assertive Logic
3050 C. Negative logic
2882 C. Negative logic
3051 D. Positive Logic
2883 D. Positive Logic
3052 ~~
2884 ~~
3053 E7A12 (C)
2885 E7A12 (C)
3054 What type of logic defines "0" as a high voltage?
2886 What is the name for logic which represents a logic "0" as a high v
3055 A. Reverse Logic
2887 A. Reverse Logic
3056 B. Assertive Logic
2888 B. Assertive Logic
3057 C. Negative logic
2889 C. Negative logic
3058 D. Positive Logic
2890 D. Positive Logic
3059 ~~
2891 ~~
2892 E7A13 (B)
2893 What is an SR or RS flip-flop?
2894 A. A speed-reduced logic device with high power capability
2895 B. A set/reset flip-flop whose output is low when R is high and S i
2896 C. A speed-reduced logic device with very low voltage operation cap
2897 D. A set/reset flip-flop that toggles whenever the T input is pulse
2898 ~~
2899 E7A14 (A)
2900 What is a JK flip-flop?
2901 A. A flip-flop similar to an RS except that it toggles when both J
2902 B. A flip-flop utilizing low power, low temperature Joule-Kelvin de
2903 C. A flip-flop similar to a D flip-flop except that it triggers on
2904 D. A flip-flop originally developed in Japan and Korea which has ve
2905 ~~
2/9/2016 2:53:06 PM
Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
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3061
3062
3063
3064
3065
3066
3067
3068
3069
3070
3071
3072
3073
3074
3075
3076
3077
3078
3079
3080
3081
3082
3083
3084
3085
3086
3087
3088
3089
3090
3091
3092
3093
3094
3095
3096
3097
3098
3099
3100
3101
3102
3103
3104
3105
3106
3107
3108
3109
3110
3111
3112
3113
3114
3115
NC4FB Amateur Extra Question Pool Comparison
Page 51 of 84
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
2906 E7A15 (A)
2907 What is a D flip-flop?
2908 A. A flip-flop whose output takes on the state of the D input when
2909 B. A differential class D amplifier used as a flip-flop circuit
2910 C. A dynamic memory storage element
2911 D. A flip-flop whose output is capable of both positive and negativ
2912 ~~
E7B01 (A)
2913 E7B01 (A)
For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class AB amplifier operate2914 For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class AB amplifier operat
A. More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees
2915 A. More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees
B. Exactly 180 degrees
2916 B. Exactly 180 degrees
C. The entire cycle
2917 C. The entire cycle
D. Less than 180 degrees
2918 D. Less than 180 degrees
~~
2919 ~~
E7B02 (A)
2920 E7B02 (A)
What is a Class D amplifier?
2921 What is a Class D amplifier?
A. A type of amplifier that uses switching technology to achieve hig2922 A. A type of amplifier that uses switching technology to achieve hi
B. A low power amplifier that uses a differential amplifier for impr2923 B. A low power amplifier using a differential amplifier for improve
C. An amplifier that uses drift-mode FETs for high efficiency
2924 C. An amplifier using drift-mode FETs for high efficiency
D. A frequency doubling amplifier
2925 D. A frequency doubling amplifier
~~
2926 ~~
E7B03 (A)
2927 E7B03 (A)
Which of the following components form the output of a class D ampli2928 Which of the following forms the output of a class D amplifier circ
A. A low-pass filter to remove switching signal components
2929 A. A low-pass filter to remove switching signal components
B. A high-pass filter to compensate for low gain at low frequencies 2930 B. A high-pass filter to compensate for low gain at low frequencies
C. A matched load resistor to prevent damage by switching transients2931 C. A matched load resistor to prevent damage by switching transient
D. A temperature compensating load resistor to improve linearity
2932 D. A temperature-compensated load resistor to improve linearity
~~
2933 ~~
E7B04 (A)
2934 E7B04 (A)
Where on the load line of a Class A common emitter amplifier would b2935 Where on the load line of a Class A common emitter amplifier would
A. Approximately half-way between saturation and cutoff
2936 A. Approximately half-way between saturation and cutoff
B. Where the load line intersects the voltage axis
2937 B. Where the load line intersects the voltage axis
C. At a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor
2938 C. At a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor
D. At a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current c2939 D. At a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current
~~
2940 ~~
E7B05 (C)
2941 E7B05 (C)
What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amp2942 What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power am
A. Tune the stage for maximum SWR
2943 A. Tune the stage for maximum SWR
B. Tune both the input and output for maximum power
2944 B. Tune both the input and output for maximum power
C. Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage
2945 C. Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage
D. Use a phase inverter in the output filter
2946 D. Use a phase inverter in the output filter
~~
2947 ~~
E7B06 (B)
2948 E7B06 (B)
Which of the following amplifier types reduces or eliminates even or2949 Which of the following amplifier types reduces or eliminates even-o
A. Push-push
2950 A. Push-push
B. Push-pull
2951 B. Push-pull
C. Class C
2952 C. Class C
D. Class AB
2953 D. Class AB
~~
2954 ~~
E7B07 (D)
2955 E7B07 (D)
Which of the following is a likely result when a Class C amplifier i2956 Which of the following is a likely result when a Class C amplifier
A. Reduced intermodulation products
2957 A. Reduced intermodulation products
B. Increased overall intelligibility
2958 B. Increased overall intelligibility
C. Signal inversion
2959 C. Signal inversion
D. Signal distortion and excessive bandwidth
2960 D. Signal distortion and excessive bandwidth
~~
2961 ~~
E7B08 (C)
2962 E7B08 (C)
How can an RF power amplifier be neutralized?
2963 How can an RF power amplifier be neutralized?
A. By increasing the driving power
2964 A. By increasing the driving power
B. By reducing the driving power
2965 B. By reducing the driving power
C. By feeding a 180-degree out-of-phase portion of the output back t2966 C. By feeding a 180-degree out-of-phase portion of the output back
D. By feeding an in-phase component of the output back to the input 2967 D. By feeding an in-phase component of the output back to the input
~~
2968 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
3116 E7B09 (D)
2969 E7B09 (D)
3117 Which of the following describes how the loading and tuning capacito2970 Which of the following describes how the loading and tuning capacit
3118 A. The loading capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the tunin2971 A. The loading capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the tuni
3119 B. The tuning capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the loadin2972 B. The tuning capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the loadi
3120 C. The loading capacitor is adjusted to minimum plate current while 2973 C. The loading capacitor is adjusted to minimum plate current while
3121 D. The tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate current, and t2974 D. The tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate current, whil
3122 ~~
2975 ~~
3123 E7B10 (B)
2976 E7B10 (B)
3124 In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?
2977 In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?
3125 A. Load resistors
2978 A. Load resistors
3126 B. Fixed bias
2979 B. Fixed bias
3127 C. Self bias
2980 C. Self bias
3128 D. Feedback
2981 D. Feedback
3129 ~~
2982 ~~
3130 E7B11 (D)
2983 E7B11 (D)
3131 In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?
2984 In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?
3132 A. Fixed bias
2985 A. Fixed bias
3133 B. Emitter bypass
2986 B. Emitter bypass
3134 C. Output load resistor
2987 C. Output load resistor
3135 D. Self bias
2988 D. Self bias
3136 ~~
2989 ~~
3137 E7B12 (C)
2990 E7B12 (C)
3138 What type of amplifier circuit is shown in Figure E7-1?
2991 What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-1?
3139 A. Common base
2992 A. Switching voltage regulator
3140 B. Common collector
2993 B. Linear voltage regulator
3141 C. Common emitter
2994 C. Common emitter amplifier
3142 D. Emitter follower
2995 D. Emitter follower amplifier
3143 ~~
2996 ~~
3144 E7B13 (A)
2997 E7B13 (A)
3145 In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of R?
2998 In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of R?
3146 A. Emitter load
2999 A. Emitter load
3147 B. Fixed bias
3000 B. Fixed bias
3148 C. Collector load
3001 C. Collector load
3149 D. Voltage regulation
3002 D. Voltage regulation
3150 ~~
3003 ~~
3151 E7B14 (B)
3004 E7B14 (A)
3152 Why are switching amplifiers more efficient than linear amplifiers? 3005 In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of C2?
3153 A. Switching amplifiers operate at higher voltages
3006 A. Output coupling
3154 B. The power transistor is at saturation or cut off most of the time3007 B. Emitter bypass
3155 C. Linear amplifiers have high gain resulting in higher harmonic con3008 C. Input coupling
3156 D. Switching amplifiers use push-pull circuits
3009 D. Hum filtering
3157 ~~
3010 ~~
3158 E7B15 (C)
3011 E7B15 (C)
3159 What is one way to prevent thermal runaway in a bipolar transistor a3012 What is one way to prevent thermal runaway in a bipolar transistor
3160 A. Neutralization
3013 A. Neutralization
3161 B. Select transistors with high beta
3014 B. Select transistors with high beta
3162 C. Use a resistor in series with the emitter
3015 C. Use a resistor in series with the emitter
3163 D. All of these choices are correct
3016 D. All of these choices are correct
3164 ~~
3017 ~~
3165 E7B16 (A)
3018 E7B16 (A)
3166 What is the effect of intermodulation products in a linear power amp3019 What is the effect of intermodulation products in a linear power am
3167 A. Transmission of spurious signals
3020 A. Transmission of spurious signals
3168 B. Creation of parasitic oscillations
3021 B. Creation of parasitic oscillations
3169 C. Low efficiency
3022 C. Low efficiency
3170 D. All of these choices are correct
3023 D. All of these choices are correct
3171 ~~
3024 ~~
3172 E7B17 (A)
3025 E7B17 (A)
3173 Why are odd-order rather than even-order intermodulation distortion 3026 Why are third-order intermodulation distortion products of particul
3174 A. Because they are relatively close in frequency to the desired sig3027 A. Because they are relatively close in frequency to the desired si
3175 B. Because they are relatively far in frequency from the desired sig3028 B. Because they are relatively far in frequency from the desired si
3176 C. Because they invert the sidebands causing distortion
3029 C. Because they invert the sidebands causing distortion
3177 D. Because they maintain the sidebands, thus causing multiple duplic3030 D. Because they maintain the sidebands, thus causing multiple dupli
3178 ~~
3031 ~~
2/9/2016 2:53:06 PM
NC4FB Amateur Extra Question Pool Comparison
Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
3179 E7B18 (C)
3180 What is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier?
3181 A. High power gain
3182 B. High filament voltage
3183 C. Low input impedance
3184 D. Low bandwidth
3185 ~~
3186
3187
3188
3189
3190
3191
3192
3193
3194
3195
3196
3197
3198
3199
3200
3201
3202
3203
3204
3205
3206
3207
3208
3209
3210
3211
3212
3213
3214
3215
3216
3217
3218
3219
3220
Page 53 of 84
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
3032 E7B18 (C)
3033 Which of the following is a characteristic of a grounded-grid ampli
3034 A. High power gain
3035 B. High filament voltage
3036 C. Low input impedance
3037 D. Low bandwidth
3038 ~~
3039 E7B19 (D)
3040 What is a klystron?
3041 A. A high speed multivibrator
3042 B. An electron-coupled oscillator utilizing a pentode vacuum tube
3043 C. An oscillator utilizing ceramic elements to achieve stability
3044 D. A VHF, UHF, or microwave vacuum tube that uses velocity modulati
3045 ~~
3046 E7B20 (B)
3047 What is a parametric amplifier?
3048 A. A type of bipolar operational amplifier with excellent linearity
3049 B. A low-noise VHF or UHF amplifier relying on varying reactance fo
3050 C. A high power amplifier for HF application utilizing the Miller e
3051 D. An audio push-pull amplifier using silicon carbide transistors f
3052 ~~
3053 E7B21 (A)
3054 Which of the following devices is generally best suited for UHF or
3055 A. Field effect transistor
3056 B. Nuvistor
3057 C. Silicon controlled rectifier
3058 D. Triac
3059 ~~
E7C01 (D)
3060 E7C01 (D)
How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter Pi-network3061 How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter Pi-networ
A. Two inductors are in series between the input and output, and a c3062 A. Two inductors are in series between the input and output, and a
B. Two capacitors are in series between the input and output, and an3063 B. Two capacitors are in series between the input and output and an
C. An inductor is connected between the input and ground, another in3064 C. An inductor is connected between the input and ground, another i
D. A capacitor is connected between the input and ground, another ca3065 D. A capacitor is connected between the input and ground, another c
~~
3066 ~~
E7C02 (C)
3067 E7C02 (C)
Which of the following is a property of a T-network with series capa3068 A T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor ha
A. It is a low-pass filter
3069 A. It is a low-pass filter
B. It is a band-pass filter
3070 B. It is a band-pass filter
C. It is a high-pass filter
3071 C. It is a high-pass filter
D. It is a notch filter
3072 D. It is a notch filter
~~
3073 ~~
E7C03 (A)
3074 E7C03 (A)
What advantage does a Pi-L-network have over a regular Pi-network fo3075 What advantage does a Pi-L-network have over a Pi-network for imped
A. Greater harmonic suppression
3076 A. Greater harmonic suppression
B. Higher efficiency
3077 B. Higher efficiency
C. Lower losses
3078 C. Lower losses
D. Greater transformation range
3079 D. Greater transformation range
~~
3080 ~~
E7C04 (C)
3081 E7C04 (C)
How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance3082 How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedanc
A. It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of3083 A. It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part o
B. It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of imp3084 B. It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of im
C. It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the res3085 C. It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the re
D. Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reac3086 D. Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and rea
~~
3087 ~~
E7C05 (D)
3088 E7C05 (D)
Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and 3089 Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and
A. A Butterworth filter
3090 A. A Butterworth filter
B. An active LC filter
3091 B. An active LC filter
C. A passive op-amp filter
3092 C. A passive op-amp filter
D. A Chebyshev filter
3093 D. A Chebyshev filter
~~
3094 ~~
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Page 54 of 84
Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
3221 E7C06 (C)
3095 E7C06 (C)
3222 What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?
3096 What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?
3223 A. Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop band ripple
3097 A. Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop band ripple
3224 B. Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded3098 B. Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounde
3225 C. Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band 3099 C. Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band
3226 D. Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop band ripple
3100 D. Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop band ripple
3227 ~~
3101 ~~
3228 E7C07 (B)
3102 E7C07 (B)
3229 What kind of filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carrie3103 What kind of filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carri
3230 A. A band-pass filter
3104 A. A band-pass filter
3231 B. A notch filter
3105 B. A notch filter
3232 C. A Pi-network filter
3106 C. A Pi-network filter
3233 D. An all-pass filter
3107 D. An all-pass filter
3234 ~~
3108 ~~
3235 E7C08 (A)
3109 E7C08 (A)
3236 Which of the following factors has the greatest effect in helping de3110 What kind of digital signal processing audio filter might be used t
3237 A. The relative frequencies of the individual crystals
3111 A. An adaptive filter
3238 B. The DC voltage applied to the quartz crystal
3112 B. A crystal-lattice filter
3239 C. The gain of the RF stage preceding the filter
3113 C. A Hilbert-transform filter
3240 D. The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter
3114 D. A phase-inverting filter
3241 ~~
3115 ~~
3242 E7C09 (B)
3116 E7C09 (C)
3243 What is a Jones filter as used as part of an HF receiver IF stage? 3117 What type of digital signal processing filter might be used to gene
3244 A. An automatic notch filter
3118 A. An adaptive filter
3245 B. A variable bandwidth crystal lattice filter
3119 B. A notch filter
3246 C. A special filter that emphasizes image responses
3120 C. A Hilbert-transform filter
3247 D. A filter that removes impulse noise
3121 D. An elliptical filter
3248 ~~
3122 ~~
3249 E7C10 (B)
3123 E7C10 (B)
3250 Which of the following filters would be the best choice for use in a3124 Which of the following filters would be the best choice for use in
3251 A. A crystal filter
3125 A. A crystal filter
3252 B. A cavity filter
3126 B. A cavity filter
3253 C. A DSP filter
3127 C. A DSP filter
3254 D. An L-C filter
3128 D. An L-C filter
3255 ~~
3129 ~~
3256 E7C11 (D)
3130 E7C11 (D)
3257 Which of the following is the common name for a filter network which3131 Which of the following is the common name for a filter network whic
3258 A. Pi-L
3132 A. Pi-L
3259 B. Cascode
3133 B. Cascode
3260 C. Omega
3134 C. Omega
3261 D. Pi
3135 D. Pi
3262 ~~
3136 ~~
3263 E7C12 (B)
3137 E7C12 (B)
3264 Which describes a Pi-L-network used for matching a vacuum tube final3138 Which of the following describes a Pi-L network used for matching a
3265 A. A Phase Inverter Load network
3139 A. A Phase Inverter Load network
3266 B. A Pi-network with an additional series inductor on the output
3140 B. A Pi network with an additional series inductor on the output
3267 C. A network with only three discrete parts
3141 C. A network with only three discrete parts
3268 D. A matching network in which all components are isolated from grou3142 D. A matching network in which all components are isolated from gro
3269 ~~
3143 ~~
3270 E7C13 (A)
3144 E7C13 (A)
3271 What is one advantage of a Pi-matching network over an L-matching ne3145 What is one advantage of a Pi matching network over an L matching n
3272 A. The Q of Pi-networks can be varied depending on the component val3146 A. The Q of Pi networks can be varied depending on the component va
3273 B. L-networks cannot perform impedance transformation
3147 B. L networks can not perform impedance transformation
3274 C. Pi-networks have fewer components
3148 C. Pi networks have fewer components
3275 D. Pi-networks are designed for balanced input and output
3149 D. Pi networks are designed for balanced input and output
3276 ~~
3150 ~~
3277 E7C14 (C)
3151 E7C14 (C)
3278 Which mode is most affected by non-linear phase response in a receiv3152 Which of these modes is most affected by non-linear phase response
3279 A. Meteor scatter
3153 A. Meteor Scatter
3280 B. Single-Sideband voice
3154 B. Single-Sideband voice
3281 C. Digital
3155 C. Digital
3282 D. Video
3156 D. Video
3283 ~~
3157 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
3284 E7C15 (D)
3285 What is a crystal lattice filter?
3286 A. A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals
3287 B. An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1
3288 C. A filter with wide bandwidth and shallow skirts made using quartz
3289 D. A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz
3290 ~~
3291 E7D01 (D)
3158 E7D01 (D)
3292 What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator?3159 What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator
3293 A. It has a ramp voltage as its output
3160 A. It has a ramp voltage as its output
3294 B. It eliminates the need for a pass transistor
3161 B. It eliminates the need for a pass transistor
3295 C. The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or loa3162 C. The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or lo
3296 D. The conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a const3163 D. The conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a cons
3297 ~~
3164 ~~
3298 E7D02 (C)
3165 E7D02 (C)
3299 What is one characteristic of a switching electronic voltage regulat3166 What is one characteristic of a switching electronic voltage regula
3300 A. The resistance of a control element is varied in direct proportio3167 A. The resistance of a control element is varied in direct proporti
3301 B. It is generally less efficient than a linear regulator
3168 B. It is generally less efficient than a linear regulator
3302 C. The controlled device’s duty cycle is changed to produce a consta3169 C. The control device’s duty cycle is controlled to produce a const
3303 D. It gives a ramp voltage at its output
3170 D. It gives a ramp voltage at its output
3304 ~~
3171 ~~
3305 E7D03 (A)
3172 E7D03 (A)
3306 What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a lin3173 What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a li
3307 A. A Zener diode
3174 A. A Zener diode
3308 B. A tunnel diode
3175 B. A tunnel diode
3309 C. An SCR
3176 C. An SCR
3310 D. A varactor diode
3177 D. A varactor diode
3311 ~~
3178 ~~
3312 E7D04 (B)
3179 E7D04 (B)
3313 Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator usually mak3180 Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator usually ma
3314 A. A series current source
3181 A. A series current source
3315 B. A series regulator
3182 B. A series regulator
3316 C. A shunt regulator
3183 C. A shunt regulator
3317 D. A shunt current source
3184 D. A shunt current source
3318 ~~
3185 ~~
3319 E7D05 (D)
3186 E7D05 (D)
3320 Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator places a co3187 Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator places a c
3321 A. A constant current source
3188 A. A constant current source
3322 B. A series regulator
3189 B. A series regulator
3323 C. A shunt current source
3190 C. A shunt current source
3324 D. A shunt regulator
3191 D. A shunt regulator
3325 ~~
3192 ~~
3326 E7D06 (C)
3193 E7D06 (C)
3327 What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
3194 What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
3328 A. It provides negative feedback to improve regulation
3195 A. It provides negative feedback to improve regulation
3329 B. It provides a constant load for the voltage source
3196 B. It provides a constant load for the voltage source
3330 C. It increases the current-handling capability of the regulator
3197 C. It increases the current-handling capability of the regulator
3331 D. It provides D1 with current
3198 D. It provides D1 with current
3332 ~~
3199 ~~
3333 E7D07 (A)
3200 E7D07 (A)
3334 What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
3201 What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
3335 A. It bypasses hum around D1
3202 A. It bypasses hum around D1
3336 B. It is a brute force filter for the output
3203 B. It is a brute force filter for the output
3337 C. To self-resonate at the hum frequency
3204 C. To self-resonate at the hum frequency
3338 D. To provide fixed DC bias for Q1
3205 D. To provide fixed DC bias for Q1
3339 ~~
3206 ~~
3340 E7D08 (C)
3207 E7D08 (C)
3341 What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-3?
3208 What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-3?
3342 A. Switching voltage regulator
3209 A. Switching voltage regulator
3343 B. Grounded emitter amplifier
3210 B. Grounded emitter amplifier
3344 C. Linear voltage regulator
3211 C. Linear voltage regulator
3345 D. Emitter follower
3212 D. Emitter follower
3346 ~~
3213 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
3347 E7D09 (C)
3214 E7D09 (D)
3348 What is the main reason to use a charge controller with a solar powe3215 What is the purpose of C1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
3349 A. Prevention of battery undercharge
3216 A. It resonates at the ripple frequency
3350 B. Control of electrolyte levels during battery discharge
3217 B. It provides fixed bias for Q1
3351 C. Prevention of battery damage due to overcharge
3218 C. It decouples the output
3352 D. Matching of day and night charge rates
3219 D. It filters the supply voltage
3353 ~~
3220 ~~
3354 E7D10 (C)
3221 E7D10 (A)
3355 What is the primary reason that a high-frequency switching type high3222 What is the purpose of C3 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
3356 A. The inverter design does not require any output filtering
3223 A. It prevents self-oscillation
3357 B. It uses a diode bridge rectifier for increased output
3224 B. It provides brute force filtering of the output
3358 C. The high frequency inverter design uses much smaller transformers3225 C. It provides fixed bias for Q1
3359 D. It uses a large power factor compensation capacitor to create fre3226 D. It clips the peaks of the ripple
3360 ~~
3227 ~~
3361 E7D11 (D)
3228 E7D11 (C)
3362 What circuit element is controlled by a series analog voltage regula3229 What is the purpose of R1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
3363 A. Reference voltage
3230 A. It provides a constant load to the voltage source
3364 B. Switching inductance
3231 B. It couples hum to D1
3365 C. Error amplifier
3232 C. It supplies current to D1
3366 D. Pass transistor
3233 D. It bypasses hum around D1
3367 ~~
3234 ~~
3368 E7D12 (C)
3235 E7D12 (D)
3369 What is the drop-out voltage of an analog voltage regulator?
3236 What is the purpose of R2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
3370 A. Minimum input voltage for rated power dissipation
3237 A. It provides fixed bias for Q1
3371 B. Maximum amount that the output voltage drops when the input volta3238 B. It provides fixed bias for D1
3372 C. Minimum input-to-output voltage required to maintain regulation 3239 C. It decouples hum from D1
3373 D. Maximum amount that the output voltage may decrease at rated load3240 D. It provides a constant minimum load for Q1
3374 ~~
3241 ~~
3375 E7D13 (C)
3242 E7D13 (B)
3376 What is the equation for calculating power dissipation by a series c3243 What is the purpose of D1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
3377 A. Input voltage multiplied by input current
3244 A. To provide line voltage stabilization
3378 B. Input voltage divided by output current
3245 B. To provide a voltage reference
3379 C. Voltage difference from input to output multiplied by output curr3246 C. Peak clipping
3380 D. Output voltage multiplied by output current
3247 D. Hum filtering
3381 ~~
3248 ~~
3382 E7D14 (C)
3249 E7D14 (C)
3383 What is one purpose of a "bleeder" resistor in a conventional unregu3250 What is one purpose of a "bleeder" resistor in a conventional (unre
3384 A. To cut down on waste heat generated by the power supply
3251 A. To cut down on waste heat generated by the power supply
3385 B. To balance the low-voltage filament windings
3252 B. To balance the low-voltage filament windings
3386 C. To improve output voltage regulation
3253 C. To improve output voltage regulation
3387 D. To boost the amount of output current
3254 D. To boost the amount of output current
3388 ~~
3255 ~~
3389 E7D15 (D)
3256 E7D15 (D)
3390 What is the purpose of a "step-start" circuit in a high voltage powe3257 What is the purpose of a "step-start" circuit in a high-voltage pow
3391 A. To provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications 3258 A. To provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications
3392 B. To compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage
3259 B. To compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage
3393 C. To allow for remote control of the power supply
3260 C. To allow for remote control of the power supply
3394 D. To allow the filter capacitors to charge gradually
3261 D. To allow the filter capacitors to charge gradually
3395 ~~
3262 ~~
3396 E7D16 (D)
3263 E7D16 (D)
3397 When several electrolytic filter capacitors are connected in series 3264 When several electrolytic filter capacitors are connected in series
3398 A. To equalize, as much as possible, the voltage drop across each ca3265 A. To equalize, as much as possible, the voltage drop across each c
3399 B. To provide a safety bleeder to discharge the capacitors when the 3266 B. To provide a safety bleeder to discharge the capacitors when the
3400 C. To provide a minimum load current to reduce voltage excursions at3267 C. To provide a minimum load current to reduce voltage excursions a
3401 D. All of these choices are correct
3268 D. All of these choices are correct
3402 ~~
3269 ~~
3270 E7D17 (C)
3271 What is the primary reason that a high-frequency inverter type high
3272 A. The inverter design does not require any output filtering
3273 B. It uses a diode bridge rectifier for increased output
3274 C. The high frequency inverter design uses much smaller transformer
3275 D. It uses a large power-factor compensation capacitor to create "f
3276 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
3403 E7E01 (B)
3277 E7E01 (B)
3404 Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone emissions? 3278 Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone emissions?
3405 A. A balanced modulator on the audio amplifier
3279 A. A balanced modulator on the audio amplifier
3406 B. A reactance modulator on the oscillator
3280 B. A reactance modulator on the oscillator
3407 C. A reactance modulator on the final amplifier
3281 C. A reactance modulator on the final amplifier
3408 D. A balanced modulator on the oscillator
3282 D. A balanced modulator on the oscillator
3409 ~~
3283 ~~
3410 E7E02 (D)
3284 E7E02 (D)
3411 What is the function of a reactance modulator?
3285 What is the function of a reactance modulator?
3412 A. To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistanc3286 A. To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistan
3413 B. To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductanc3287 B. To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductan
3414 C. To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistanc3288 C. To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistan
3415 D. To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable inductanc3289 D. To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable inductan
3416 ~~
3290 ~~
3417 E7E03 (C)
3291 E7E03 (C)
3418 How does an analog phase modulator function?
3292 How does an analog phase modulator function?
3419 A. By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce PM 3293 A. By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce PM
3420 B. By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM 3294 B. By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM
3421 C. By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce PM 3295 C. By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce PM
3422 D. By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM 3296 D. By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM
3423 ~~
3297 ~~
3424 E7E04 (A)
3298 E7E04 (A)
3425 What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated?
3299 What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated?
3426 A. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
3300 A. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
3427 B. By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer
3301 B. By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer
3428 C. By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer
3302 C. By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer
3429 D. By driving a product detector with a DSB signal
3303 D. By driving a product detector with a DSB signal
3430 ~~
3304 ~~
3431 E7E05 (D)
3305 E7E05 (D)
3432 What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audio3306 What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audi
3433 A. A de-emphasis network
3307 A. A de-emphasis network
3434 B. A heterodyne suppressor
3308 B. A heterodyne suppressor
3435 C. An audio prescaler
3309 C. An audio prescaler
3436 D. A pre-emphasis network
3310 D. A pre-emphasis network
3437 ~~
3311 ~~
3438 E7E06 (A)
3312 E7E06 (A)
3439 Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?
3313 Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?
3440 A. For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
3314 A. For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
3441 B. To reduce impulse noise reception
3315 B. To reduce impulse noise reception
3442 C. For higher efficiency
3316 C. For higher efficiency
3443 D. To remove third-order distortion products
3317 D. To remove third-order distortion products
3444 ~~
3318 ~~
3445 E7E07 (B)
3319 E7E07 (B)
3446 What is meant by the term baseband in radio communications?
3320 What is meant by the term baseband in radio communications?
3447 A. The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers3321 A. The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver cover
3448 B. The frequency components present in the modulating signal
3322 B. The frequency components present in the modulating signal
3449 C. The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal
3323 C. The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal
3450 D. The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multi3324 D. The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is mult
3451 ~~
3325 ~~
3452 E7E08 (C)
3326 E7E08 (C)
3453 What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mi3327 What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a m
3454 A. Two and four times the original frequency
3328 A. Two and four times the original frequency
3455 B. The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies
3329 B. The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies
3456 C. The two input frequencies along with their sum and difference fre3330 C. The two input frequencies along with their sum and difference fr
3457 D. 1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency
3331 D. 1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency
3458 ~~
3332 ~~
3459 E7E09 (A)
3333 E7E09 (A)
3460 What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches a mixe3334 What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches a mix
3461 A. Spurious mixer products are generated
3335 A. Spurious mixer products are generated
3462 B. Mixer blanking occurs
3336 B. Mixer blanking occurs
3463 C. Automatic limiting occurs
3337 C. Automatic limiting occurs
3464 D. A beat frequency is generated
3338 D. A beat frequency is generated
3465 ~~
3339 ~~
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3466 E7E10 (A)
3340 E7E10 (A)
3467 How does a diode detector function?
3341 How does a diode detector function?
3468 A. By rectification and filtering of RF signals
3342 A. By rectification and filtering of RF signals
3469 B. By breakdown of the Zener voltage
3343 B. By breakdown of the Zener voltage
3470 C. By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diod3344 C. By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the dio
3471 D. By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to f3345 D. By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to
3472 ~~
3346 ~~
3473 E7E11 (C)
3347 E7E11 (C)
3474 Which type of detector is used for demodulating SSB signals?
3348 Which of the following types of detector is well suited for demodul
3475 A. Discriminator
3349 A. Discriminator
3476 B. Phase detector
3350 B. Phase detector
3477 C. Product detector
3351 C. Product detector
3478 D. Phase comparator
3352 D. Phase comparator
3479 ~~
3353 ~~
3480 E7E12 (D)
3354 E7E12 (D)
3481 What is a frequency discriminator stage in a FM receiver?
3355 What is a frequency discriminator stage in a FM receiver?
3482 A. An FM generator circuit
3356 A. An FM generator circuit
3483 B. A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals
3357 B. A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals
3484 C. An automatic band-switching circuit
3358 C. An automatic band-switching circuit
3485 D. A circuit for detecting FM signals
3359 D. A circuit for detecting FM signals
3486 ~~
3360 ~~
3487 E7F01 (C)
3361 E7E13 (D)
3488 What is meant by direct digital conversion as applied to software de
3489 A. Software is converted from source code to object code during oper
3490 B. Incoming RF is converted to a control voltage for a voltage contr
3491 C. Incoming RF is digitized by an analog-to-digital converter withou
3492 D. A switching mixer is used to generate I and Q signals directly fr
3493 ~~
3494 E7F02 (A)
3495 What kind of digital signal processing audio filter is used to remov
3496 A. An adaptive filter
3497 B. A crystal-lattice filter
3498 C. A Hilbert-transform filter
3499 D. A phase-inverting filter
3500 ~~
3501 E7F03 (C)
3502 What type of digital signal processing filter is used to generate an
3503 A. An adaptive filter
3504 B. A notch filter
3505 C. A Hilbert-transform filter
3506 D. An elliptical filter
3507 ~~
3508 E7F04 (D)
3509 What is a common method of generating an SSB signal using digital si3362 Which of the following describes a common means of generating an SS
3510 A. Mixing products are converted to voltages and subtracted by adder3363 A. Mixing products are converted to voltages and subtracted by adde
3511 B. A frequency synthesizer removes the unwanted sidebands
3364 B. A frequency synthesizer removes the unwanted sidebands
3512 C. Emulation of quartz crystal filter characteristics
3365 C. Emulation of quartz crystal filter characteristics
3513 D. Combine signals with a quadrature phase relationship
3366 D. The quadrature method
3514 ~~
3367 ~~
3515 E7F05 (B)
3368 E7E14 (C)
3516 How frequently must an analog signal be sampled by an analog-to-digi3369 What is meant by direct conversion when referring to a software def
3517 A. At half the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal3370 A. Software is converted from source code to object code during ope
3518 B. At twice the rate of the highest frequency component of the signa3371 B. Incoming RF is converted to the IF frequency by rectification to
3519 C. At the same rate as the highest frequency component of the signal3372 C. Incoming RF is mixed to “baseband” for analog-to-digital convers
3520 D. At four times the rate of the highest frequency component of the 3373 D. Software is generated in machine language, avoiding the need for
3521 ~~
3374 ~~
3522 E7F06 (D)
3375 E7F01 (D)
3523 What is the minimum number of bits required for an analog-to-digital3376 What is the purpose of a prescaler circuit?
3524 A. 4 bits
3377 A. It converts the output of a JK flip flop to that of an RS flip-f
3525 B. 6 bits
3378 B. It multiplies a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency count
3526 C. 8 bits
3379 C. It prevents oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
3527 D. 10 bits
3380 D. It divides a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter
3528 ~~
3381 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
3529 E7F07 (C)
3382 E7F02 (B)
3530 What function can a Fast Fourier Transform perform?
3383 Which of the following would be used to reduce a signal’s frequency
3531 A. Converting analog signals to digital form
3384 A. A preamp
3532 B. Converting digital signals to analog form
3385 B. A prescaler
3533 C. Converting digital signals from the time domain to the frequency 3386 C. A marker generator
3534 D. Converting 8-bit data to 16 bit data
3387 D. A flip-flop
3535 ~~
3388 ~~
3536 E7F08 (B)
3389 E7F03 (A)
3537 What is the function of decimation with regard to digital filters? 3390 What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?
3538 A. Converting data to binary code decimal form
3391 A. It produces one output pulse for every ten input pulses
3539 B. Reducing the effective sample rate by removing samples
3392 B. It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED d
3540 C. Attenuating the signal
3393 C. It produces ten output pulses for every input pulse
3541 D. Removing unnecessary significant digits
3394 D. It adds two decimal numbers together
3542 ~~
3395 ~~
3543 E7F09 (A)
3396 E7F04 (C)
3544 Why is an anti-aliasing digital filter required in a digital decimat3397 What additional circuitry must be added to a 100-kHz crystal-contro
3545 A. It removes high-frequency signal components which would otherwise3398 A. An emitter-follower
3546 B. It peaks the response of the decimator, improving bandwidth
3399 B. Two frequency multipliers
3547 C. It removes low frequency signal components to eliminate the need 3400 C. Two flip-flops
3548 D. It notches out the sampling frequency to avoid sampling errors 3401 D. A voltage divider
3549 ~~
3402 ~~
3550 E7F10 (A)
3403 E7F05 (D)
3551 What aspect of receiver analog-to-digital conversion determines the 3404 Which of the following is a technique for providing high stability
3552 A. Sample rate
3405 A. Use a GPS signal reference
3553 B. Sample width in bits
3406 B. Use a rubidium stabilized reference oscillator
3554 C. Sample clock phase noise
3407 C. Use a temperature-controlled high Q dielectric resonator
3555 D. Processor latency
3408 D. All of these choices are correct
3556 ~~
3409 ~~
3557 E7F11 (B)
3410 E7F06 (C)
3558 What sets the minimum detectable signal level for an SDR in the abse3411 What is one purpose of a marker generator?
3559 A. Sample clock phase noise
3412 A. To add audio markers to an oscilloscope
3560 B. Reference voltage level and sample width in bits
3413 B. To provide a frequency reference for a phase locked loop
3561 C. Data storage transfer rate
3414 C. To provide a means of calibrating a receiver's frequency setting
3562 D. Missing codes and jitter
3415 D. To add time signals to a transmitted signal
3563 ~~
3416 ~~
3564 E7F12 (A)
3417 E7F07 (A)
3565 What digital process is applied to I and Q signals in order to recov3418 What determines the accuracy of a frequency counter?
3566 A. Fast Fourier Transform
3419 A. The accuracy of the time base
3567 B. Decimation
3420 B. The speed of the logic devices used
3568 C. Signal conditioning
3421 C. Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply
3569 D. Quadrature mixing
3422 D. Proper balancing of the mixer diodes
3570 ~~
3423 ~~
3571 E7F13 (D)
3424 E7F08 (C)
3572 What is the function of taps in a digital signal processing filter? 3425 Which of the following is performed by a frequency counter?
3573 A. To reduce excess signal pressure levels
3426 A. Determining the frequency deviation with an FM discriminator
3574 B. Provide access for debugging software
3427 B. Mixing the incoming signal with a WWV reference
3575 C. Select the point at which baseband signals are generated
3428 C. Counting the number of input pulses occurring within a specific
3576 D. Provide incremental signal delays for filter algorithms
3429 D. Converting the phase of the measured signal to a voltage which i
3577 ~~
3430 ~~
3578 E7F14 (B)
3431 E7F09 (A)
3579 Which of the following would allow a digital signal processing filte3432 What is the purpose of a frequency counter?
3580 A. Higher data rate
3433 A. To provide a digital representation of the frequency of a signal
3581 B. More taps
3434 B. To generate a series of reference signals at known frequency int
3582 C. Complex phasor representations
3435 C. To display all frequency components of a transmitted signal
3583 D. Double-precision math routines
3436 D. To provide a signal source at a very accurate frequency
3584 ~~
3437 ~~
3585 E7F15 (A)
3438 E7F10 (B)
3586 Which of the following is an advantage of a Finite Impulse Response 3439 What alternate method of determining frequency, other than by direc
3587 A. FIR filters delay all frequency components of the signal by the s3440 A. GPS averaging
3588 B. FIR filters are easier to implement for a given set of passband r3441 B. Period measurement plus mathematical computation
3589 C. FIR filters can respond faster to impulses
3442 C. Prescaling
3590 D. All of these choices are correct
3443 D. D/A conversion
3591 ~~
3444 ~~
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3592 E7F16 (D)
3445 E7F11 (C)
3593 How might the sampling rate of an existing digital signal be adjuste3446 What is an advantage of a period-measuring frequency counter over a
3594 A. Change the gain by a factor of 3/4
3447 A. It can run on battery power for remote measurements
3595 B. Multiply each sample value by a factor of 3/4
3448 B. It does not require an expensive high-precision time base
3596 C. Add 3 to each input value and subtract 4 from each output value 3449 C. It provides improved resolution of low-frequency signals within
3597 D. Interpolate by a factor of three, then decimate by a factor of fo3450 D. It can directly measure the modulation index of an FM transmitte
3598 ~~
3451 ~~
3599 E7F17 (D)
3452 E7G01 (B)
3600 What do the letters I and Q in I/Q Modulation represent?
3453 What primarily determines the gain and frequency characteristics of
3601 A. Inactive and Quiescent
3454 A. The values of capacitors and resistors built into the op-amp
3602 B. Instantaneous and Quasi-stable
3455 B. The values of capacitors and resistors external to the op-amp
3603 C. Instantaneous and Quenched
3456 C. The input voltage and frequency of the op-amp's DC power supply
3604 D. In-phase and Quadrature
3457 D. The output voltage and smoothness of the op-amp's DC power suppl
3605 ~~
3458 ~~
3606 E7G01 (A)
3607 What is the typical output impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp
3608 A. Very low
3609 B. Very high
3610 C. 100 ohms
3611 D. 1000 ohms
3612 ~~
3613 E7G02 (D)
3459 E7G02 (D)
3614 What is the effect of ringing in a filter?
3460 What is the effect of ringing in a filter?
3615 A. An echo caused by a long time delay
3461 A. An echo caused by a long time delay
3616 B. A reduction in high frequency response
3462 B. A reduction in high frequency response
3617 C. Partial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies 3463 C. Partial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies
3618 D. Undesired oscillations added to the desired signal
3464 D. Undesired oscillations added to the desired signal
3619 ~~
3465 ~~
3620 E7G03 (D)
3466 E7G03 (D)
3621 What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?3467 Which of the following is an advantage of using an op-amp instead o
3622 A. 100 ohms
3468 A. Op-amps are more rugged
3623 B. 1000 ohms
3469 B. Op-amps are fixed at one frequency
3624 C. Very low
3470 C. Op-amps are available in more varieties than are LC elements
3625 D. Very high
3471 D. Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss
3626 ~~
3472 ~~
3627 E7G04 (C)
3473 E7G04 (C)
3628 What is meant by the term op-amp input offset voltage?
3474 Which of the following is a type of capacitor best suited for use i
3629 A. The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage
3475 A. Electrolytic
3630 B. The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the i3476 B. Disc ceramic
3631 C. The differential input voltage needed to bring the open loop outp3477 C. Polystyrene
3632 D. The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp3478 D. Paper
3633 ~~
3479 ~~
3634 E7G05 (A)
3480 E7G05 (A)
3635 How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in a mul3481 How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in a mu
3636 A. Restrict both gain and Q
3482 A. Restrict both gain and Q
3637 B. Restrict gain but increase Q
3483 B. Restrict gain, but increase Q
3638 C. Restrict Q but increase gain
3484 C. Restrict Q, but increase gain
3639 D. Increase both gain and Q
3485 D. Increase both gain and Q
3640 ~~
3486 ~~
3641 E7G06 (D)
3487 E7G06 (D)
3642 Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp acti3488 Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp act
3643 A. As a high-pass filter used to block RFI at the input to receivers3489 A. As a high-pass filter used to block RFI at the input to receiver
3644 B. As a low-pass filter used between a transmitter and a transmissio3490 B. As a low-pass filter used between a transmitter and a transmissi
3645 C. For smoothing power supply output
3491 C. For smoothing power-supply output
3646 D. As an audio filter in a receiver
3492 D. As an audio filter in a receiver
3647 ~~
3493 ~~
3648 E7G07 (C)
3494 E7G07 (C)
3649 What magnitude of voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in F3495 What magnitude of voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in
3650 A. 0.21
3496 A. 0.21
3651 B. 94
3497 B. 94
3652 C. 47
3498 C. 47
3653 D. 24
3499 D. 24
3654 ~~
3500 ~~
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3655 E7G08 (D)
3501 E7G08 (D)
3656 How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with freque3502 How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequ
3657 A. It increases linearly with increasing frequency
3503 A. It increases linearly with increasing frequency
3658 B. It decreases linearly with increasing frequency
3504 B. It decreases linearly with increasing frequency
3659 C. It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency
3505 C. It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency
3660 D. It does not vary with frequency
3506 D. It does not vary with frequency
3661 ~~
3507 ~~
3662 E7G09 (D)
3508 E7G09 (D)
3663 What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-4 3509 What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-4
3664 A. 0.23 volts
3510 A. 0.23 volts
3665 B. 2.3 volts
3511 B. 2.3 volts
3666 C. -0.23 volts
3512 C. -0.23 volts
3667 D. -2.3 volts
3513 D. -2.3 volts
3668 ~~
3514 ~~
3669 E7G10 (C)
3515 E7G10 (C)
3670 What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figur3516 What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figu
3671 A. 1
3517 A. 1
3672 B. 0.03
3518 B. 0.03
3673 C. 38
3519 C. 38
3674 D. 76
3520 D. 76
3675 ~~
3521 ~~
3676 E7G11 (B)
3522 E7G11 (B)
3677 What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figur3523 What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figu
3678 A. 28
3524 A. 28
3679 B. 14
3525 B. 14
3680 C. 7
3526 C. 7
3681 D. 0.07
3527 D. 0.07
3682 ~~
3528 ~~
3683 E7G12 (A)
3529 E7G12 (A)
3684 What is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?
3530 What is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?
3685 A. A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier with very high3531 A. A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier with very hig
3686 B. A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by3532 B. A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined b
3687 C. An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency mod3533 C. An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency mo
3688 D. A RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions
3534 D. An RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions
3535 ~~
3536 E7G13 (C)
3537 What is meant by the term op-amp input-offset voltage?
3538 A. The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage
3539 B. The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the
3540 C. The differential input voltage needed to bring the open-loop out
3541 D. The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-am
3542 ~~
3543 E7G14 (D)
3544 What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp
3545 A. 100 ohms
3546 B. 1000 ohms
3547 C. Very low
3548 D. Very high
3689 ~~
3549 ~~
3550 E7G15 (A)
3551 What is the typical output impedance of an integrated circuit op-am
3552 A. Very low
3553 B. Very high
3554 C. 100 ohms
3555 D. 1000 ohms
3556 ~~
3690 E7H01 (D)
3557 E7H01 (D)
3691 What are three oscillator circuits used in Amateur Radio equipment? 3558 What are three oscillator circuits used in Amateur Radio equipment?
3692 A. Taft, Pierce and negative feedback
3559 A. Taft, Pierce and negative feedback
3693 B. Pierce, Fenner and Beane
3560 B. Pierce, Fenner and Beane
3694 C. Taft, Hartley and Pierce
3561 C. Taft, Hartley and Pierce
3695 D. Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce
3562 D. Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce
3696 ~~
3563 ~~
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3697 E7H02 (C)
3564 E7H02 (C)
3698 Which describes a microphonic?
3565 What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate?
3699 A. An IC used for amplifying microphone signals
3566 A. It must have at least two stages
3700 B. Distortion caused by RF pickup on the microphone cable
3567 B. It must be neutralized
3701 C. Changes in oscillator frequency due to mechanical vibration
3568 C. It must have positive feedback with a gain greater than 1
3702 D. Excess loading of the microphone by an oscillator
3569 D. It must have negative feedback sufficient to cancel the input si
3703 ~~
3570 ~~
3704 E7H03 (A)
3571 E7H03 (A)
3705 How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator?
3572 How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator?
3706 A. Through a tapped coil
3573 A. Through a tapped coil
3707 B. Through a capacitive divider
3574 B. Through a capacitive divider
3708 C. Through link coupling
3575 C. Through link coupling
3709 D. Through a neutralizing capacitor
3576 D. Through a neutralizing capacitor
3710 ~~
3577 ~~
3711 E7H04 (C)
3578 E7H04 (C)
3712 How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator?
3579 How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator?
3713 A. Through a tapped coil
3580 A. Through a tapped coil
3714 B. Through link coupling
3581 B. Through link coupling
3715 C. Through a capacitive divider
3582 C. Through a capacitive divider
3716 D. Through a neutralizing capacitor
3583 D. Through a neutralizing capacitor
3717 ~~
3584 ~~
3718 E7H05 (D)
3585 E7H05 (D)
3719 How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator?
3586 How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator?
3720 A. Through a tapped coil
3587 A. Through a tapped coil
3721 B. Through link coupling
3588 B. Through link coupling
3722 C. Through a neutralizing capacitor
3589 C. Through a neutralizing capacitor
3723 D. Through a quartz crystal
3590 D. Through a quartz crystal
3724 ~~
3591 ~~
3725 E7H06 (B)
3592 E7H06 (B)
3726 Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs3593 Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFO
3727 A. Pierce and Zener
3594 A. Pierce and Zener
3728 B. Colpitts and Hartley
3595 B. Colpitts and Hartley
3729 C. Armstrong and deForest
3596 C. Armstrong and deForest
3730 D. Negative feedback and balanced feedback
3597 D. Negative feedback and balanced feedback
3731 ~~
3598 ~~
3732 E7H07 (D)
3599 E7H07 (C)
3733 How can an oscillator’s microphonic responses be reduced?
3600 What is a magnetron oscillator?
3734 A. Use of NP0 capacitors
3601 A. An oscillator in which the output is fed back to the input by th
3735 B. Eliminating noise on the oscillator’s power supply
3602 B. A crystal oscillator in which variable frequency is obtained by
3736 C. Using the oscillator only for CW and digital signals
3603 C. A UHF or microwave oscillator consisting of a diode vacuum tube
3737 D. Mechanically isolating the oscillator circuitry from its enclosur3604 D. A reference standard oscillator in which the oscillations are sy
3738 ~~
3605 ~~
3739 E7H08 (A)
3606 E7H08 (A)
3740 Which of the following components can be used to reduce thermal drif3607 What is a Gunn diode oscillator?
3741 A. NP0 capacitors
3608 A. An oscillator based on the negative resistance properties of pro
3742 B. Toroidal inductors
3609 B. An oscillator based on the argon gas diode
3743 C. Wirewound resistors
3610 C. A highly stable reference oscillator based on the tee-notch prin
3744 D. Non-inductive resistors
3611 D. A highly stable reference oscillator based on the hot-carrier ef
3745 ~~
3612 ~~
3746 E7H09 (A)
3613 E7H09 (A)
3747 What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator,3614 What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator
3748 A. A direct digital synthesizer
3615 A. A direct digital synthesizer
3749 B. A hybrid synthesizer
3616 B. A hybrid synthesizer
3750 C. A phase locked loop synthesizer
3617 C. A phase locked loop synthesizer
3751 D. A diode-switching matrix synthesizer
3618 D. A diode-switching matrix synthesizer
3752 ~~
3619 ~~
3753 E7H10 (B)
3620 E7H10 (B)
3754 What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digita3621 What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digit
3755 A. The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the out3622 A. The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the ou
3756 B. The amplitude values that represent a sine-wave output
3623 B. The amplitude values that represent a sine-wave output
3757 C. The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator an3624 C. The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator a
3758 D. The synthesizer frequency limits and frequency values stored in t3625 D. The synthesizer frequency limits and frequency values stored in
3759 ~~
3626 ~~
2/9/2016 2:53:06 PM
NC4FB Amateur Extra Question Pool Comparison
Page 63 of 84
Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
3760 E7H11 (C)
3627 E7H11 (C)
3761 What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital sy3628 What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital s
3762 A. Broadband noise
3629 A. Broadband noise
3763 B. Digital conversion noise
3630 B. Digital conversion noise
3764 C. Spurious signals at discrete frequencies
3631 C. Spurious signals at discrete frequencies
3765 D. Nyquist limit noise
3632 D. Nyquist limit noise
3766 ~~
3633 ~~
3767 E7H12 (B)
3634 E7H12 (D)
3768 Which of the following must be done to insure that a crystal oscilla3635 Which of the following is a principal component of a direct digital
3769 A. Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance
3636 A. Phase splitter
3770 B. Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance
3637 B. Hex inverter
3771 C. Bias the crystal at a specified voltage
3638 C. Chroma demodulator
3772 D. Bias the crystal at a specified current
3639 D. Phase accumulator
3773 ~~
3640 ~~
3774 E7H13 (D)
3641 E7H13 (A)
3775 Which of the following is a technique for providing highly accurate 3642 What is the capture range of a phase-locked loop circuit?
3776 A. Use a GPS signal reference
3643 A. The frequency range over which the circuit can lock
3777 B. Use a rubidium stabilized reference oscillator
3644 B. The voltage range over which the circuit can lock
3778 C. Use a temperature-controlled high Q dielectric resonator
3645 C. The input impedance range over which the circuit can lock
3779 D. All of these choices are correct
3646 D. The range of time it takes the circuit to lock
3780 ~~
3647 ~~
3781 E7H14 (C)
3648 E7H14 (C)
3782 What is a phase-locked loop circuit?
3649 What is a phase-locked loop circuit?
3783 A. An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactanc3650 A. An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactan
3784 B. An electronic circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator 3651 B. An electronic circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator
3785 C. An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pa3652 C. An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-p
3786 D. An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifi3653 D. An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplif
3787 ~~
3654 ~~
3788 E7H15 (D)
3655 E7H15 (D)
3789 Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop? 3656 Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop?
3790 A. Wide-band AF and RF power amplification
3657 A. Wide-band AF and RF power amplification
3791 B. Comparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter 3658 B. Comparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter
3792 C. Photovoltaic conversion, optical coupling
3659 C. Photovoltaic conversion, optical coupling
3793 D. Frequency synthesis, FM demodulation
3660 D. Frequency synthesis, FM demodulation
3794 ~~
3661 ~~
3662 E7H16 (B)
3663 Why is the short-term stability of the reference oscillator importa
3664 A. Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will
3665 B. Any phase variations in the reference oscillator signal will pro
3666 C. Any phase variations in the reference oscillator signal will pro
3667 D. Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will
3668 ~~
3669 E7H17 (C)
3670 Why is a phase-locked loop often used as part of a variable frequen
3671 A. It generates FM sidebands
3672 B. It eliminates the need for a voltage controlled oscillator
3673 C. It makes it possible for a VFO to have the same degree of freque
3674 D. It can be used to generate or demodulate SSB signals by quadratu
3675 ~~
3676 E7H18 (A)
3677 What are the major spectral impurity components of phase-locked loo
3678 A. Phase noise
3679 B. Digital conversion noise
3680 C. Spurious signals at discrete frequencies
3681 D. Nyquist limit noise
3682 ~~
3795 E8A01 (A)
3683 E8A01 (A)
3796 What is the name of the process that shows that a square wave is mad3684 What type of wave is made up of a sine wave plus all of its odd har
3797 A. Fourier analysis
3685 A. A square wave
3798 B. Vector analysis
3686 B. A sine wave
3799 C. Numerical analysis
3687 C. A cosine wave
3800 D. Differential analysis
3688 D. A tangent wave
3801 ~~
3689 ~~
2/9/2016 2:53:06 PM
NC4FB Amateur Extra Question Pool Comparison
Page 64 of 84
Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
3802 E8A02 (C)
3690 E8A02 (C)
3803 What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than its fall3691 What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than its fal
3804 A. A cosine wave
3692 A. A cosine wave
3805 B. A square wave
3693 B. A square wave
3806 C. A sawtooth wave
3694 C. A sawtooth wave
3807 D. A sine wave
3695 D. A sine wave
3808 ~~
3696 ~~
3809 E8A03 (A)
3697 E8A03 (A)
3810 What type of wave does a Fourier analysis show to be made up of sine3698 What type of wave is made up of sine waves of a given fundamental f
3811 A. A sawtooth wave
3699 A. A sawtooth wave
3812 B. A square wave
3700 B. A square wave
3813 C. A sine wave
3701 C. A sine wave
3814 D. A cosine wave
3702 D. A cosine wave
3815 ~~
3703 ~~
3816 E8A04 (B)
3704 E8A04 (C)
3817 What is "dither" with respect to analog to digital converters?
3705 What is equivalent to the root-mean-square value of an AC voltage?
3818 A. An abnormal condition where the converter cannot settle on a valu3706 A. The AC voltage found by taking the square of the average value o
3819 B. A small amount of noise added to the input signal to allow more p3707 B. The DC voltage causing the same amount of heating in a given res
3820 C. An error caused by irregular quantization step size
3708 C. The DC voltage causing the same amount of heating in a resistor
3821 D. A method of decimation by randomly skipping samples
3709 D. The AC voltage found by taking the square root of the average AC
3822 ~~
3710 ~~
3823 E8A05 (D)
3711 E8A05 (D)
3824 What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of 3712 What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of
3825 A. By using a grid dip meter
3713 A. By using a grid dip meter
3826 B. By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter
3714 B. By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter
3827 C. By using an absorption wave meter
3715 C. By using an absorption wavemeter
3828 D. By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor
3716 D. By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor
3829 ~~
3717 ~~
3830 E8A06 (A)
3718 E8A06 (A)
3831 What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical s3719 What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical
3832 A. 2.5 to 1
3720 A. 2.5 to 1
3833 B. 25 to 1
3721 B. 25 to 1
3834 C. 1 to 1
3722 C. 1 to 1
3835 D. 100 to 1
3723 D. 100 to 1
3836 ~~
3724 ~~
3837 E8A07 (B)
3725 E8A07 (B)
3838 What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband 3726 What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband
3839 A. The frequency of the modulating signal
3727 A. The frequency of the modulating signal
3840 B. The characteristics of the modulating signal
3728 B. The characteristics of the modulating signal
3841 C. The degree of carrier suppression
3729 C. The degree of carrier suppression
3842 D. The amplifier gain
3730 D. The amplifier gain
3843 ~~
3731 ~~
3844 E8A08 (C)
3732 E8A08 (A)
3845 Why would a direct or flash conversion analog-to-digital converter b3733 What is the period of a wave?
3846 A. Very low power consumption decreases frequency drift
3734 A. The time required to complete one cycle
3847 B. Immunity to out of sequence coding reduces spurious responses
3735 B. The number of degrees in one cycle
3848 C. Very high speed allows digitizing high frequencies
3736 C. The number of zero crossings in one cycle
3849 D. All of these choices are correct
3737 D. The amplitude of the wave
3850 ~~
3738 ~~
3851 E8A09 (D)
3739 E8A09 (C)
3852 How many levels can an analog-to-digital converter with 8 bit resolu3740 What type of waveform is produced by human speech?
3853 A. 8
3741 A. Sinusoidal
3854 B. 8 multiplied by the gain of the input amplifier
3742 B. Logarithmic
3855 C. 256 divided by the gain of the input amplifier
3743 C. Irregular
3856 D. 256
3744 D. Trapezoidal
3857 ~~
3745 ~~
3858 E8A10 (C)
3746 E8A10 (B)
3859 What is the purpose of a low pass filter used in conjunction with a 3747 Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of a puls
3860 A. Lower the input bandwidth to increase the effective resolution 3748 A. Regular sinusoidal oscillations
3861 B. Improve accuracy by removing out of sequence codes from the input3749 B. Narrow bursts of energy separated by periods of no signal
3862 C. Remove harmonics from the output caused by the discrete analog le3750 C. A series of tones that vary between two frequencies
3863 D. All of these choices are correct
3751 D. A signal that contains three or more discrete tones
3864 ~~
3752 ~~
2/9/2016 2:53:06 PM
Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
3865 E8A11 (D)
3866
3867
3868
3869
3870
3871
3872
3873
3874
3875
3876
3877
3878
3879
3880
3881
3882
3883
3884
3885
3886
3887
3888
3889
3890
3891
3892
3893
3894
3895
3896
3897
3898
3899
3900
3901
3902
3903
3904
3905
3906
3907
3908
3909
3910
3911
3912
3913
NC4FB Amateur Extra Question Pool Comparison
Page 65 of 84
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
3753 E8A11 (D)
3754 What is one use for a pulse modulated signal?
3755 A. Linear amplification
3756 B. PSK31 data transmission
3757 C. Multiphase power transmission
3758 D. Digital data transmission
3759 ~~
3760 E8A12 (D)
What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms? 3761 What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms?
A. Human speech
3762 A. Human speech
B. Video signals
3763 B. Video signals
C. Data
3764 C. Data
D. All of these choices are correct
3765 D. All of these choices are correct
~~
3766 ~~
E8A12 (C)
3767 E8A13 (C)
What is an advantage of using digital signals instead of analog sign3768 What is an advantage of using digital signals instead of analog sig
A. Less complex circuitry is required for digital signal generation 3769 A. Less complex circuitry is required for digital signal generation
B. Digital signals always occupy a narrower bandwidth
3770 B. Digital signals always occupy a narrower bandwidth
C. Digital signals can be regenerated multiple times without error 3771 C. Digital signals can be regenerated multiple times without error
D. All of these choices are correct
3772 D. All of these choices are correct
~~
3773 ~~
E8A13 (A)
3774 E8A14 (A)
Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to3775 Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals t
A. Sequential sampling
3776 A. Sequential sampling
B. Harmonic regeneration
3777 B. Harmonic regeneration
C. Level shifting
3778 C. Level shifting
D. Phase reversal
3779 D. Phase reversal
~~
3780 ~~
3781 E8A15 (B)
3782 What would the waveform of a stream of digital data bits look like
3783 A. A series of sine waves with evenly spaced gaps
3784 B. A series of pulses with varying patterns
3785 C. A running display of alpha-numeric characters
3786 D. None of the above; this type of signal cannot be seen on a conve
3787 ~~
E8B01 (D)
3788 E8B01 (D)
What is the term for the ratio between the frequency deviation of an3789 What is the term for the ratio between the frequency deviation of a
A. FM compressibility
3790 A. FM compressibility
B. Quieting index
3791 B. Quieting index
C. Percentage of modulation
3792 C. Percentage of modulation
D. Modulation index
3793 D. Modulation index
~~
3794 ~~
E8B02 (D)
3795 E8B02 (D)
How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary wit3796 How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary wi
A. It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
3797 A. It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
B. It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
3798 B. It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
C. It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
3799 C. It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
D. It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency
3800 D. It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency
~~
3801 ~~
E8B03 (A)
3802 E8B03 (A)
What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum 3803 What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum
A. 3
3804 A. 3
B. 0.3
3805 B. 0.3
C. 3000
3806 C. 3000
D. 1000
3807 D. 1000
~~
3808 ~~
E8B04 (B)
3809 E8B04 (B)
What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum 3810 What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum
A. 6000
3811 A. 6000
B. 3
3812 B. 3
C. 2000
3813 C. 2000
D. 1/3
3814 D. 1/3
~~
3815 ~~
2/9/2016 2:53:06 PM
NC4FB Amateur Extra Question Pool Comparison
Page 66 of 84
Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
3914 E8B05 (D)
3816 E8B05 (D)
3915 What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum f3817 What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum
3916 A. 60
3818 A. 60
3917 B. 0.167
3819 B. 0.167
3918 C. 0.6
3820 C. 0.6
3919 D. 1.67
3821 D. 1.67
3920 ~~
3822 ~~
3921 E8B06 (A)
3823 E8B06 (A)
3922 What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum f3824 What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum
3923 A. 2.14
3825 A. 2.14
3924 B. 0.214
3826 B. 0.214
3925 C. 0.47
3827 C. 0.47
3926 D. 47
3828 D. 47
3927 ~~
3829 ~~
3928 E8B07 (A)
3830 E8B07 (A)
3929 Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing is a technique used for w3831 When using a pulse-width modulation system, why is the transmitter'
3930 A. High speed digital modes
3832 A. The signal duty cycle is less than 100%
3931 B. Extremely low-power contacts
3833 B. The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated
3932 C. EME
3834 C. The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are g
3933 D. OFDM signals are not allowed on amateur bands
3835 D. The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also
3934 ~~
3836 ~~
3935 E8B08 (D)
3837 E8B08 (D)
3936 What describes Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing?
3838 What parameter does the modulating signal vary in a pulse-position
3937 A. A frequency modulation technique which uses non-harmonically rela3839 A. The number of pulses per second
3938 B. A bandwidth compression technique using Fourier transforms
3840 B. The amplitude of the pulses
3939 C. A digital mode for narrow band, slow speed transmissions
3841 C. The duration of the pulses
3940 D. A digital modulation technique using subcarriers at frequencies c3842 D. The time at which each pulse occurs
3941 ~~
3843 ~~
3942 E8B09 (B)
3844 E8B09 (B)
3943 What is meant by deviation ratio?
3845 What is meant by deviation ratio?
3944 A. The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier3846 A. The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrie
3945 B. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highe3847 B. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the high
3946 C. The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating3848 C. The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulatin
3947 D. The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the averag3849 D. The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the avera
3948 ~~
3850 ~~
3851 E8B10 (C)
3852 Which of these methods can be used to combine several separate anal
3853 A. Frequency shift keying
3854 B. A diversity combiner
3855 C. Frequency division multiplexing
3856 D. Pulse compression
3857 ~~
3949 E8B10 (B)
3858 E8B11 (B)
3950 What describes frequency division multiplexing?
3859 Which of the following describes frequency division multiplexing?
3951 A. The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined3860 A. The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermine
3952 B. Two or more information streams are merged into a baseband, which3861 B. Two or more information streams are merged into a "baseband", wh
3953 C. The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information
3862 C. The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information
3954 D. Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combine3863 D. Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combin
3955 ~~
3864 ~~
3956 E8B11 (B)
3865 E8B12 (B)
3957 What is digital time division multiplexing?
3866 What is digital time division multiplexing?
3958 A. Two or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on3867 A. Two or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers o
3959 B. Two or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of 3868 B. Two or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of
3960 C. Two or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting t3869 C. Two or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting
3961 D. Two or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidt3870 D. Two or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwid
3962 ~~
3871 ~~
3963 E8C01 (C)
3872 E8C01 (D)
3964 How is Forward Error Correction implemented?
3873 Which one of the following digital codes consists of elements havin
3965 A. By the receiving station repeating each block of three data chara3874 A. ASCII
3966 B. By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station alon3875 B. AX.25
3967 C. By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct3876 C. Baudot
3968 D. By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal accordin3877 D. Morse code
3969 ~~
3878 ~~
2/9/2016 2:53:06 PM
NC4FB Amateur Extra Question Pool Comparison
Page 67 of 84
Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
3970 E8C02 (C)
3879 E8C02 (B)
3971 What is the definition of symbol rate in a digital transmission?
3880 What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code an
3972 A. The number of control characters in a message packet
3881 A. Baudot uses four data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or ei
3973 B. The duration of each bit in a message sent over the air
3882 B. Baudot uses five data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or ei
3974 C. The rate at which the waveform of a transmitted signal changes to3883 C. Baudot uses six data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eig
3975 D. The number of characters carried per second by the station-to-sta3884 D. Baudot uses seven data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Bau
3976 ~~
3885 ~~
3977 E8C03 (A)
3886 E8C03 (C)
3978 When performing phase shift keying, why is it advantageous to shift 3887 What is one advantage of using the ASCII code for data communicatio
3979 A. This results in the least possible transmitted bandwidth for the 3888 A. It includes built-in error-correction features
3980 B. It is easier to demodulate with a conventional, non-synchronous d3889 B. It contains fewer information bits per character than any other
3981 C. It improves carrier suppression
3890 C. It is possible to transmit both upper and lower case text
3982 D. All of these choices are correct
3891 D. It uses one character as a shift code to send numeric and specia
3983 ~~
3892 ~~
3984 E8C04 (C)
3893 E8C04 (C)
3985 What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a P3894 What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a
3986 A. Zero-sum character encoding
3895 A. Zero-sum character encoding
3987 B. Reed-Solomon character encoding
3896 B. Reed-Solomon character encoding
3988 C. Use of sinusoidal data pulses
3897 C. Use of sinusoidal data pulses
3989 D. Use of trapezoidal data pulses
3898 D. Use of trapezoidal data pulses
3990 ~~
3899 ~~
3991 E8C05 (C)
3900 E8C05 (C)
3992 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code3901 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse cod
3993 A. Approximately 13 Hz
3902 A. Approximately 13 Hz
3994 B. Approximately 26 Hz
3903 B. Approximately 26 Hz
3995 C. Approximately 52 Hz
3904 C. Approximately 52 Hz
3996 D. Approximately 104 Hz
3905 D. Approximately 104 Hz
3997 ~~
3906 ~~
3998 E8C06 (C)
3907 E8C06 (C)
3999 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII3908 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCI
4000 A. 0.1 Hz
3909 A. 0.1 Hz
4001 B. 0.3 kHz
3910 B. 0.3 kHz
4002 C. 0.5 kHz
3911 C. 0.5 kHz
4003 D. 1.0 kHz
3912 D. 1.0 kHz
4004 ~~
3913 ~~
4005 E8C07 (A)
3914 E8C07 (A)
4006 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-b3915 What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 96004007 A. 15.36 kHz
3916 A. 15.36 kHz
4008 B. 9.6 kHz
3917 B. 9.6 kHz
4009 C. 4.8 kHz
3918 C. 4.8 kHz
4010 D. 5.76 kHz
3919 D. 5.76 kHz
4011 ~~
3920 ~~
4012 E8C08 (D)
3921 E8C08 (D)
4013 How does ARQ accomplish error correction?
3922 What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which
4014 A. Special binary codes provide automatic correction
3923 A. Amplitude compandored single sideband
4015 B. Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
3924 B. AMTOR
4016 C. If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
3925 C. Time-domain frequency modulation
4017 D. If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested
3926 D. Spread-spectrum communication
4018 ~~
3927 ~~
4019 E8C09 (D)
3928 E8C09 (A)
4020 Which is the name of a digital code where each preceding or followin3929 Which of these techniques causes a digital signal to appear as wide
4021 A. Binary Coded Decimal Code
3930 A. Spread-spectrum
4022 B. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
3931 B. Independent sideband
4023 C. Excess 3 code
3932 C. Regenerative detection
4024 D. Gray code
3933 D. Exponential addition
4025 ~~
3934 ~~
4026 E8C10 (D)
3935 E8C10 (A)
4027 What is an advantage of Gray code in digital communications where sy3936 What spread-spectrum communications technique alters the center fre
4028 A. It increases security
3937 A. Frequency hopping
4029 B. It has more possible states than simple binary
3938 B. Direct sequence
4030 C. It has more resolution than simple binary
3939 C. Time-domain frequency modulation
4031 D. It facilitates error detection
3940 D. Frequency compandored spread-spectrum
3941 ~~
2/9/2016 2:53:06 PM
Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
4032
4033
4034
4035
4036
4037
4038
4039
4040
4041
4042
4043
4044
4045
4046
4047
4048
4049
4050
4051
4052
4053
4054
4055
4056
4057
4058
4059
4060
4061
4062
4063
4064
4065
4066
4067
4068
4069
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4071
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4073
4074
4075
4076
4077
4078
4079
4080
4081
NC4FB Amateur Extra Question Pool Comparison
Page 68 of 84
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
3942 E8C11 (B)
3943 What spread-spectrum communications technique uses a high speed bin
3944 A. Frequency hopping
3945 B. Direct sequence
3946 C. Binary phase-shift keying
3947 D. Phase compandored spread-spectrum
3948 ~~
3949 E8C12 (D)
3950 What is the advantage of including a parity bit with an ASCII chara
3951 A. Faster transmission rate
3952 B. The signal can overpower interfering signals
3953 C. Foreign language characters can be sent
3954 D. Some types of errors can be detected
~~
3955 ~~
E8C11 (A)
3956 E8C13 (B)
What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud?
3957 What is one advantage of using JT-65 coding?
A. They are the same
3958 A. Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth
B. Baud is twice the symbol rate
3959 B. The ability to decode signals which have a very low signal to no
C. Symbol rate is only used for packet-based modes
3960 C. Easily copied by ear if necessary
D. Baud is only used for RTTY
3961 D. Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth
~~
3962 ~~
E8D01 (A)
3963 E8D01 (A)
Why are received spread spectrum signals resistant to interference? 3964 Which of the following is the easiest voltage amplitude parameter t
A. Signals not using the spread spectrum algorithm are suppressed in3965 A. Peak-to-peak voltage
B. The high power used by a spread spectrum transmitter keeps its si3966 B. RMS voltage
C. The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker
3967 C. Average voltage
D. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the tr3968 D. DC voltage
~~
3969 ~~
E8D02 (B)
3970 E8D02 (B)
What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high speed bina3971 What is the relationship between the peak-to-peak voltage and the p
A. Frequency hopping
3972 A. 0.707:1
B. Direct sequence
3973 B. 2:1
C. Binary phase-shift keying
3974 C. 1.414:1
D. Phase compandored spread spectrum
3975 D. 4:1
~~
3976 ~~
E8D03 (D)
3977 E8D03 (A)
How does the spread spectrum technique of frequency hopping work? 3978 What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the signal
A. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the tr3979 A. Peak voltage
B. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the tr3980 B. RMS voltage
C. A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of a3981 C. Average power
D. The frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly a3982 D. Resting voltage
~~
3983 ~~
E8D04 (C)
3984 E8D04 (B)
What is the primary effect of extremely short rise or fall time on a3985 What is the PEP output of a transmitter that develops a peak voltag
A. More difficult to copy
3986 A. 4.5 watts
B. The generation of RF harmonics
3987 B. 9 watts
C. The generation of key clicks
3988 C. 16 watts
D. Limits data speed
3989 D. 18 watts
~~
3990 ~~
E8D05 (A)
3991 E8D05 (D)
What is the most common method of reducing key clicks?
3992 If an RMS-reading AC voltmeter reads 65 volts on a sinusoidal wavef
A. Increase keying waveform rise and fall times
3993 A. 46 volts
B. Low-pass filters at the transmitter output
3994 B. 92 volts
C. Reduce keying waveform rise and fall times
3995 C. 130 volts
D. High-pass filters at the transmitter output
3996 D. 184 volts
~~
3997 ~~
E8D06 (B)
3998 E8D06 (B)
Which of the following indicates likely overmodulation of an AFSK si3999 What is the advantage of using a peak-reading wattmeter to monitor
A. High reflected power
4000 A. It is easier to determine the correct tuning of the output circu
B. Strong ALC action
4001 B. It gives a more accurate display of the PEP output when modulati
C. Harmonics on higher bands
4002 C. It makes it easier to detect high SWR on the feed line
D. Rapid signal fading
4003 D. It can determine if any flat-topping is present during modulatio
~~
4004 ~~
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NC4FB Amateur Extra Question Pool Comparison
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
4082 E8D07 (D)
4005 E8D07 (C)
4083 What is a common cause of overmodulation of AFSK signals?
4006 What is an electromagnetic wave?
4084 A. Excessive numbers of retries
4007 A. Alternating currents in the core of an electromagnet
4085 B. Ground loops
4008 B. A wave consisting of two electric fields at right angles to each
4086 C. Bit errors in the modem
4009 C. A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field osci
4087 D. Excessive transmit audio levels
4010 D. A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each
4088 ~~
4011 ~~
4089 E8D08 (D)
4012 E8D08 (D)
4090 What parameter might indicate that excessively high input levels are4013 Which of the following best describes electromagnetic waves traveli
4091 A. Signal to noise ratio
4014 A. Electric and magnetic fields become aligned as they travel
4092 B. Baud rate
4015 B. The energy propagates through a medium with a high refractive in
4093 C. Repeat Request Rate (RRR)
4016 C. The waves are reflected by the ionosphere and return to their so
4094 D. Intermodulation Distortion (IMD)
4017 D. Changing electric and magnetic fields propagate the energy
4095 ~~
4018 ~~
4096 E8D09 (D)
4019 E8D09 (B)
4097 What is considered a good minimum IMD level for an idling PSK signal4020 What is meant by circularly polarized electromagnetic waves?
4098 A. +10 dB
4021 A. Waves with an electric field bent into a circular shape
4099 B. +15 dB
4022 B. Waves with a rotating electric field
4100 C. -20 dB
4023 C. Waves that circle the Earth
4101 D. -30 dB
4024 D. Waves produced by a loop antenna
4102 ~~
4025 ~~
4103 E8D10 (B)
4026 E8D10 (D)
4104 What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and4027 What type of meter should be used to monitor the output signal of a
4105 A. Baudot uses 4 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot 4028 A. An SWR meter reading in the forward direction
4106 B. Baudot uses 5 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot 4029 B. A modulation meter
4107 C. Baudot uses 6 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot 4030 C. An average reading wattmeter
4108 D. Baudot uses 7 data bits per character, ASCII uses 8; Baudot has n4031 D. A peak-reading wattmeter
4109 ~~
4032 ~~
4110 E8D11 (C)
4033 E8D11 (A)
4111 What is one advantage of using ASCII code for data communications? 4034 What is the average power dissipated by a 50-ohm resistive load dur
4112 A. It includes built in error correction features
4035 A. 12.2 watts
4113 B. It contains fewer information bits per character than any other c4036 B. 9.9 watts
4114 C. It is possible to transmit both upper and lower case text
4037 C. 24.5 watts
4115 D. It uses one character as a shift code to send numeric and special4038 D. 16 watts
4116 ~~
4039 ~~
4117 E8D12 (D)
4040 E8D12 (D)
4118 What is the advantage of including a parity bit with an ASCII charac4041 What is the peak voltage of a sinusoidal waveform if an RMS-reading
4119 A. Faster transmission rate
4042 A. 123 volts
4120 B. The signal can overpower interfering signals
4043 B. 96 volts
4121 C. Foreign language characters can be sent
4044 C. 55 volts
4122 D. Some types of errors can be detected
4045 D. 48 volts
4046 ~~
4047 E8D13 (B)
4048 Which of the following is a typical value for the peak voltage at a
4049 A. 240 volts
4050 B. 170 volts
4051 C. 120 volts
4052 D. 340 volts
4053 ~~
4054 E8D14 (C)
4055 Which of the following is a typical value for the peak-to-peak volt
4056 A. 240 volts
4057 B. 120 volts
4058 C. 340 volts
4059 D. 170 volts
4060 ~~
4061 E8D15 (A)
4062 Which of the following is a typical value for the RMS voltage at a
4063 A. 120V AC
4064 B. 340V AC
4065 C. 85V AC
4066 D. 170V AC
4123 ~~
4067 ~~
2/9/2016 2:53:06 PM
Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
4124
4125
4126
4127
4128
4129
4130
4131
4132
4133
4134
4135
4136
4137
4138
4139
4140
4141
4142
4143
4144
4145
4146
4147
4148
4149
4150
4151
4152
4153
4154
4155
4156
4157
4158
4159
4160
4161
4162
4163
4164
4165
4166
4167
4168
4169
4170
4171
4172
NC4FB Amateur Extra Question Pool Comparison
Page 70 of 84
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
4068 E8D16 (A)
4069 What is the RMS value of a 340-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave?
4070 A. 120V AC
4071 B. 170V AC
4072 C. 240V AC
4073 D. 300V AC
4074 ~~
E9A01 (C)
4075 E9A01 (C)
What describes an isotropic antenna?
4076 Which of the following describes an isotropic antenna?
A. A grounded antenna used to measure earth conductivity
4077 A. A grounded antenna used to measure earth conductivity
B. A horizontally polarized antenna used to compare Yagi antennas 4078 B. A horizontally polarized antenna used to compare Yagi antennas
C. A theoretical antenna used as a reference for antenna gain
4079 C. A theoretical antenna used as a reference for antenna gain
D. A spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward the earth
4080 D. A spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward the earth
~~
4081 ~~
4082 E9A02 (B)
4083 How much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole in free space have compa
4084 A. 1.55 dB
4085 B. 2.15 dB
4086 C. 3.05 dB
4087 D. 4.30 dB
4088 ~~
E9A02 (D)
4089 E9A03 (D)
What antenna has no gain in any direction?
4090 Which of the following antennas has no gain in any direction?
A. Quarter-wave vertical
4091 A. Quarter-wave vertical
B. Yagi
4092 B. Yagi
C. Half-wave dipole
4093 C. Half-wave dipole
D. Isotropic antenna
4094 D. Isotropic antenna
~~
4095 ~~
E9A03 (A)
4096 E9A04 (A)
Why would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna? 4097 Why would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna?
A. To match impedances in order to minimize standing wave ratio on t4098 A. To match impedances in order to minimize standing wave ratio on
B. To measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting a4099 B. To measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting
C. To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna
4100 C. To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna
D. To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna
4101 D. To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna
~~
4102 ~~
E9A04 (B)
4103 E9A05 (B)
Which of the following factors may affect the feed point impedance o4104 Which of the following factors may affect the feed point impedance
A. Transmission-line length
4105 A. Transmission-line length
B. Antenna height, conductor length/diameter ratio and location of n4106 B. Antenna height, conductor length/diameter ratio and location of
C. The settings of an antenna tuner at the transmitter
4107 C. Constant feed point impedance
D. Sunspot activity and time of day
4108 D. Sunspot activity and time of day
~~
4109 ~~
E9A05 (D)
4110 E9A06 (D)
What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system?
4111 What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system?
A. Radiation resistance plus space impedance
4112 A. Radiation resistance plus space impedance
B. Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance
4113 B. Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance
C. Transmission-line resistance plus radiation resistance
4114 C. Transmission-line resistance plus radiation resistance
D. Radiation resistance plus ohmic resistance
4115 D. Radiation resistance plus ohmic resistance
~~
4116 ~~
E9A06 (D)
4117 E9A07 (C)
How does the beamwidth of an antenna vary as the gain is increased? 4118 What is a folded dipole antenna?
A. It increases geometrically
4119 A. A dipole one-quarter wavelength long
B. It increases arithmetically
4120 B. A type of ground-plane antenna
C. It is essentially unaffected
4121 C. A dipole constructed from one wavelength of wire forming a very
D. It decreases
4122 D. A dipole configured to provide forward gain
~~
4123 ~~
E9A07 (A)
4124 E9A08 (A)
What is meant by antenna gain?
4125 What is meant by antenna gain?
A. The ratio of the radiated signal strength of an antenna in the di4126 A. The ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an antenna in
B. The ratio of the signal in the forward direction to that in the o4127 B. The ratio of the signal in the forward direction to that in the
C. The ratio of the amount of power radiated by an antenna compared 4128 C. The ratio of the amount of power radiated by an antenna compared
D. The final amplifier gain minus the transmission line
4129 D. The final amplifier gain minus the transmission-line losses, inc
~~
4130 ~~
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NC4FB Amateur Extra Question Pool Comparison
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
4173 E9A08 (B)
4131 E9A09 (B)
4174 What is meant by antenna bandwidth?
4132 What is meant by antenna bandwidth?
4175 A. Antenna length divided by the number of elements
4133 A. Antenna length divided by the number of elements
4176 B. The frequency range over which an antenna satisfies a performance4134 B. The frequency range over which an antenna satisfies a performanc
4177 C. The angle between the half-power radiation points
4135 C. The angle between the half-power radiation points
4178 D. The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the el4136 D. The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the e
4179 ~~
4137 ~~
4180 E9A09 (B)
4138 E9A10 (B)
4181 How is antenna efficiency calculated?
4139 How is antenna efficiency calculated?
4182 A. (radiation resistance / transmission resistance) x 100 per cent 4140 A. (radiation resistance / transmission resistance) x 100%
4183 B. (radiation resistance / total resistance) x 100 per cent
4141 B. (radiation resistance / total resistance) x 100%
4184 C. (total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100 per cent
4142 C. (total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100%
4185 D. (effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100 percent
4143 D. (effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100%
4186 ~~
4144 ~~
4187 E9A10 (A)
4145 E9A11 (A)
4188 Which of the following choices is a way to improve the efficiency of4146 Which of the following choices is a way to improve the efficiency o
4189 A. Install a good radial system
4147 A. Install a good radial system
4190 B. Isolate the coax shield from ground
4148 B. Isolate the coax shield from ground
4191 C. Shorten the radiating element
4149 C. Shorten the radiating element
4192 D. Reduce the diameter of the radiating element
4150 D. Reduce the diameter of the radiating element
4193 ~~
4151 ~~
4194 E9A11 (C)
4152 E9A12 (C)
4195 Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground4153 Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a groun
4196 A. The standing wave ratio
4154 A. The standing-wave ratio
4197 B. Distance from the transmitter
4155 B. Distance from the transmitter
4198 C. Soil conductivity
4156 C. Soil conductivity
4199 D. Take-off angle
4157 D. Take-off angle
4200 ~~
4158 ~~
4201 E9A12 (A)
4159 E9A13 (A)
4202 How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipo4160 How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dip
4203 A. 3.85 dB
4161 A. 3.85 dB
4204 B. 6.0 dB
4162 B. 6.0 dB
4205 C. 8.15 dB
4163 C. 8.15 dB
4206 D. 2.79 dB
4164 D. 2.79 dB
4207 ~~
4165 ~~
4208 E9A13 (B)
4166 E9A14 (B)
4209 How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipo4167 How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dip
4210 A. 6.17 dB
4168 A. 6.17 dB
4211 B. 9.85 dB
4169 B. 9.85 dB
4212 C. 12.5 dB
4170 C. 12.5 dB
4213 D. 14.15 dB
4171 D. 14.15 dB
4214 ~~
4172 ~~
4215 E9A14 (C)
4173 E9A15 (C)
4216 What is meant by the radiation resistance of an antenna?
4174 What is meant by the radiation resistance of an antenna?
4217 A. The combined losses of the antenna elements and feed line
4175 A. The combined losses of the antenna elements and feed line
4218 B. The specific impedance of the antenna
4176 B. The specific impedance of the antenna
4219 C. The value of a resistance that would dissipate the same amount of4177 C. The value of a resistance that would dissipate the same amount o
4220 D. The resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to4178 D. The resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome t
4221 ~~
4179 ~~
4222 E9A15 (D)
4223 What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repea
4224 A. 1977 watts
4225 B. 78.7 watts
4226 C. 420 watts
4227 D. 286 watts
4228 ~~
4229 E9A16 (A)
4230 What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repea
4231 A. 317 watts
4232 B. 2000 watts
4233 C. 126 watts
4234 D. 300 watts
4235 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
4236 E9A17 (B)
4237 What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 200
4238 A. 159 watts
4239 B. 252 watts
4240 C. 632 watts
4241 D. 63.2 watts
4242 ~~
4243 E9A18 (C)
4244 What term describes station output, taking into account all gains an
4245 A. Power factor
4246 B. Half-power bandwidth
4247 C. Effective radiated power
4248 D. Apparent power
4249 ~~
4250 E9B01 (B)
4180 E9B01 (B)
4251 In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the 34181 In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the
4252 A. 75 degrees
4182 A. 75 degrees
4253 B. 50 degrees
4183 B. 50 degrees
4254 C. 25 degrees
4184 C. 25 degrees
4255 D. 30 degrees
4185 D. 30 degrees
4256 ~~
4186 ~~
4257 E9B02 (B)
4187 E9B02 (B)
4258 In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the f4188 In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the
4259 A. 36 dB
4189 A. 36 dB
4260 B. 18 dB
4190 B. 18 dB
4261 C. 24 dB
4191 C. 24 dB
4262 D. 14 dB
4192 D. 14 dB
4263 ~~
4193 ~~
4264 E9B03 (B)
4194 E9B03 (B)
4265 In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the f4195 In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the
4266 A. 12 dB
4196 A. 12 dB
4267 B. 14 dB
4197 B. 14 dB
4268 C. 18 dB
4198 C. 18 dB
4269 D. 24 dB
4199 D. 24 dB
4270 ~~
4200 ~~
4271 E9B04 (D)
4201 E9B04 (D)
4272 What may occur when a directional antenna is operated at different f4202 What may occur when a directional antenna is operated at different
4273 A. Feed point impedance may become negative
4203 A. Feed point impedance may become negative
4274 B. The E-field and H-field patterns may reverse
4204 B. The E-field and H-field patterns may reverse
4275 C. Element spacing limits could be exceeded
4205 C. Element spacing limits could be exceeded
4276 D. The gain may change depending on frequency
4206 D. The gain may change depending on frequency
4277 ~~
4207 ~~
4278 E9B05 (A)
4208 E9B05 (B)
4279 What type of antenna pattern over real ground is shown in Figure E9-4209 What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximu
4280 A. Elevation
4210 A. The front-to-back ratio increases
4281 B. Azimuth
4211 B. The front-to-back ratio decreases
4282 C. Radiation resistance
4212 C. The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band
4283 D. Polarization
4213 D. The SWR is reduced
4284 ~~
4214 ~~
4285 E9B06 (C)
4215 E9B06 (A)
4286 What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiatio4216 If the boom of a Yagi antenna is lengthened and the elements are pr
4287 A. 45 degrees
4217 A. The gain increases
4288 B. 75 degrees
4218 B. The SWR decreases
4289 C. 7.5 degrees
4219 C. The front-to-back ratio increases
4290 D. 25 degrees
4220 D. The gain bandwidth decreases rapidly
4291 ~~
4221 ~~
4292 E9B07 (C)
4222 E9B07 (C)
4293 How does the total amount of radiation emitted by a directional gain4223 How does the total amount of radiation emitted by a directional gai
4294 A. The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is inc4224 A. The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is in
4295 B. The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is str4225 B. The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is st
4296 C. They are the same
4226 C. They are the same
4297 D. The radiation from the isotropic antenna is 2.15 dB stronger than4227 D. The radiation from the isotropic antenna is 2.15 dB stronger tha
4298 ~~
4228 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
4299 E9B08 (A)
4229 E9B08 (A)
4300 How can the approximate beam-width in a given plane of a directional4230 How can the approximate beamwidth in a given plane of a directional
4301 A. Note the two points where the signal strength of the antenna is 34231 A. Note the two points where the signal strength of the antenna is
4302 B. Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power l4232 B. Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power
4303 C. Draw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements and mea4233 C. Draw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements and me
4304 D. Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power l4234 D. Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power
4305 ~~
4235 ~~
4306 E9B09 (B)
4236 E9B09 (B)
4307 What type of computer program technique is commonly used for modelin4237 What type of computer program technique is commonly used for modeli
4308 A. Graphical analysis
4238 A. Graphical analysis
4309 B. Method of Moments
4239 B. Method of Moments
4310 C. Mutual impedance analysis
4240 C. Mutual impedance analysis
4311 D. Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties
4241 D. Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties
4312 ~~
4242 ~~
4313 E9B10 (A)
4243 E9B10 (A)
4314 What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis?
4244 What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis?
4315 A. A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a uniform 4245 A. A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a uniform
4316 B. A wire is modeled as a single sine-wave current generator
4246 B. A wire is modeled as a single sine-wave current generator
4317 C. A wire is modeled as a series of points, each having a distinct l4247 C. A wire is modeled as a series of points, each having a distinct
4318 D. A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct4248 D. A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinc
4319 ~~
4249 ~~
4320 E9B11 (C)
4250 E9B11 (C)
4321 What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in 4251 What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in
4322 A. Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled
4252 A. Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled
4323 B. The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy
4253 B. The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy
4324 C. The computed feed point impedance may be incorrect
4254 C. The computed feed point impedance may be incorrect
4325 D. The antenna will become mechanically unstable
4255 D. The antenna will become mechanically unstable
4326 ~~
4256 ~~
4327 E9B12 (D)
4257 E9B12 (D)
4328 What is the far field of an antenna?
4258 What is the far-field of an antenna?
4329 A. The region of the ionosphere where radiated power is not refracte4259 A. The region of the ionosphere where radiated power is not refract
4330 B. The region where radiated power dissipates over a specified time 4260 B. The region where radiated power dissipates over a specified time
4331 C. The region where radiated field strengths are obstructed by objec4261 C. The region where radiated field strengths are obstructed by obje
4332 D. The region where the shape of the antenna pattern is independent 4262 D. The region where the shape of the antenna pattern is independent
4333 ~~
4263 ~~
4334 E9B13 (B)
4264 E9B13 (B)
4335 What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna mod4265 What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna mo
4336 A. Next Element Comparison
4266 A. Next Element Comparison
4337 B. Numerical Electromagnetic Code
4267 B. Numerical Electromagnetics Code
4338 C. National Electrical Code
4268 C. National Electrical Code
4339 D. Numeric Electrical Computation
4269 D. Numeric Electrical Computation
4340 ~~
4270 ~~
4341 E9B14 (D)
4271 E9B14 (D)
4342 What type of information can be obtained by submitting the details o4272 What type of information can be obtained by submitting the details
4343 A. SWR vs frequency charts
4273 A. SWR vs. frequency charts
4344 B. Polar plots of the far field elevation and azimuth patterns
4274 B. Polar plots of the far-field elevation and azimuth patterns
4345 C. Antenna gain
4275 C. Antenna gain
4346 D. All of these choices are correct
4276 D. All of these choices are correct
4347 ~~
4277 ~~
4348 E9B15 (B)
4349 What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Fi
4350 A. 15 dB
4351 B. 28 dB
4352 C. 3 dB
4353 D. 24 dB
4354 ~~
4355 E9B16 (A)
4356 How many elevation lobes appear in the forward direction of the ante
4357 A. 4
4358 B. 3
4359 C. 1
4360 D. 7
4361 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
4362 E9C01 (D)
4278 E9C01 (D)
4363 What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antenna4279 What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antenn
4364 A. Cardioid
4280 A. A cardioid
4365 B. Omni-directional
4281 B. Omnidirectional
4366 C. A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
4282 C. A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
4367 D. A figure-8 oriented along the axis of the array
4283 D. A figure-8 oriented along the axis of the array
4368 ~~
4284 ~~
4369 E9C02 (A)
4285 E9C02 (A)
4370 What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4 wavelength vertical antenna4286 What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antenn
4371 A. Cardioid
4287 A. A cardioid
4372 B. A figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
4288 B. A figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
4373 C. A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
4289 C. A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
4374 D. Omni-directional
4290 D. Omnidirectional
4375 ~~
4291 ~~
4376 E9C03 (C)
4292 E9C03 (C)
4377 What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4 wavelength vertical antenna4293 What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antenn
4378 A. Omni-directional
4294 A. Omnidirectional
4379 B. Cardioid
4295 B. A cardioid
4380 C. A Figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
4296 C. A Figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
4381 D. A Figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
4297 D. A Figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
4382 ~~
4298 ~~
4383 E9C04 (B)
4299 E9C04 (B)
4384 What happens to the radiation pattern of an unterminated long wire a4300 Which of the following describes a basic unterminated rhombic anten
4385 A. The lobes become more perpendicular to the wire
4301 A. Unidirectional; four-sides, each side one quarter-wavelength lon
4386 B. The lobes align more in the direction of the wire
4302 B. Bidirectional; four-sides, each side one or more wavelengths lon
4387 C. The vertical angle increases
4303 C. Four-sides; an LC network at each corner except for the transmis
4388 D. The front-to-back ratio decreases
4304 D. Four-sides, each of a different physical length
4389 ~~
4305 ~~
4390 E9C05 (A)
4306 E9C05 (C)
4391 What is an OCFD antenna?
4307 What are the disadvantages of a terminated rhombic antenna for the
4392 A. A dipole feed approximately 1/3 the way from one end with a 4:1 b4308 A. The antenna has a very narrow operating bandwidth
4393 B. A remotely tunable dipole antenna using orthogonally controlled f4309 B. The antenna produces a circularly polarized signal
4394 C. An eight band dipole antenna using octophase filters
4310 C. The antenna requires a large physical area and 4 separate suppor
4395 D. A multiband dipole antenna using one-way circular polarization fo4311 D. The antenna is more sensitive to man-made static than any other
4396 ~~
4312 ~~
4397 E9C06 (B)
4313 E9C06 (B)
4398 What is the effect of a terminating resistor on a rhombic antenna? 4314 What is the effect of a terminating resistor on a rhombic antenna?
4399 A. It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to th4315 A. It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to t
4400 B. It changes the radiation pattern from bidirectional to unidirecti4316 B. It changes the radiation pattern from bidirectional to unidirect
4401 C. It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical pola4317 C. It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical pol
4402 D. It decreases the ground loss
4318 D. It decreases the ground loss
4403 ~~
4319 ~~
4404 E9C07 (A)
4320 E9C07 (A)
4405 What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-4321 What type of antenna pattern over real ground is shown in Figure E9
4406 A. 300 ohms
4322 A. Elevation
4407 B. 72 ohms
4323 B. Azimuth
4408 C. 50 ohms
4324 C. Radiation resistance
4409 D. 450 ohms
4325 D. Polarization
4410 ~~
4326 ~~
4411 E9C08 (C)
4327 E9C08 (C)
4412 What is a folded dipole antenna?
4328 What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiati
4413 A. A dipole one-quarter wavelength long
4329 A. 45 degrees
4414 B. A type of ground-plane antenna
4330 B. 75 degrees
4415 C. A dipole consisting of one wavelength of wire forming a very thin4331 C. 7.5 degrees
4416 D. A dipole configured to provide forward gain
4332 D. 25 degrees
4417 ~~
4333 ~~
4418 E9C09 (A)
4334 E9C09 (B)
4419 What is a G5RV antenna?
4335 What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in F
4420 A. A multi-band dipole antenna fed with coax and a balun through a s4336 A. 15 dB
4421 B. A multi-band trap antenna
4337 B. 28 dB
4422 C. A phased array antenna consisting of multiple loops
4338 C. 3 dB
4423 D. A wide band dipole using shorted coaxial cable for the radiating 4339 D. 24 dB
4424 ~~
4340 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
4425 E9C10 (B)
4341 E9C10 (A)
4426 Which of the following describes a Zepp antenna?
4342 How many elevation lobes appear in the forward direction of the ant
4427 A. A dipole constructed from zip cord
4343 A. 4
4428 B. An end fed dipole antenna
4344 B. 3
4429 C. An omni-directional antenna commonly used for satellite communica4345 C. 1
4430 D. A vertical array capable of quickly changing the direction of max4346 D. 7
4431 ~~
4347 ~~
4432 E9C11 (D)
4348 E9C11 (D)
4433 How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized ant4349 How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized an
4434 A. The low-angle radiation decreases
4350 A. The low-angle radiation decreases
4435 B. The high-angle radiation increases
4351 B. The high-angle radiation increases
4436 C. Both the high-angle and low-angle radiation decrease
4352 C. Both the high- and low-angle radiation decrease
4437 D. The low-angle radiation increases
4353 D. The low-angle radiation increases
4438 ~~
4354 ~~
4439 E9C12 (C)
4355 E9C12 (D)
4440 Which of the following describes an extended double Zepp antenna? 4356 When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factor
4441 A. A wideband vertical antenna constructed from precisely tapered al4357 A. Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength
4442 B. A portable antenna erected using two push support poles
4358 B. It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground
4443 C. A center fed 1.25 wavelength antenna (two 5/8 wave elements in ph4359 C. It should be configured as a four-sided loop
4444 D. An end fed folded dipole antenna
4360 D. It should be one or more wavelengths long
4445 ~~
4361 ~~
4446 E9C13 (C)
4362 E9C13 (C)
4447 What is the main effect of placing a vertical antenna over an imperf4363 What is the main effect of placing a vertical antenna over an imper
4448 A. It causes increased SWR
4364 A. It causes increased SWR
4449 B. It changes the impedance angle of the matching network
4365 B. It changes the impedance angle of the matching network
4450 C. It reduces low-angle radiation
4366 C. It reduces low-angle radiation
4451 D. It reduces losses in the radiating portion of the antenna
4367 D. It reduces losses in the radiating portion of the antenna
4452 ~~
4368 ~~
4453 E9C14 (B)
4454 How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted
4455 A. The main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction
4456 B. The main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction
4457 C. The horizontal beam width decreases in the downhill direction
4458 D. The horizontal beam width increases in the uphill direction
4459 ~~
4460 E9C15 (B)
4461 How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized 3-element
4462 A. The main lobe takeoff angle increases with increasing height
4463 B. The main lobe takeoff angle decreases with increasing height
4464 C. The horizontal beam width increases with height
4465 D. The horizontal beam width decreases with height
4466 ~~
4467 E9D01 (C)
4369 E9D01 (C)
4468 How does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the4370 How does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when th
4469 A. Gain does not change
4371 A. Gain does not change
4470 B. Gain is multiplied by 0.707
4372 B. Gain is multiplied by 0.707
4471 C. Gain increases by 6 dB
4373 C. Gain increases by 6 dB
4472 D. Gain increases by 3 dB
4374 D. Gain increases by 3 dB
4473 ~~
4375 ~~
4474 E9D02 (C)
4376 E9D02 (C)
4475 How can linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular4377 How can linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circula
4476 A. Stack two Yagis fed 90 degrees out of phase to form an array with4378 A. Stack two Yagis, fed 90 degrees out of phase, to form an array w
4477 B. Stack two Yagis fed in phase to form an array with the respective4379 B. Stack two Yagis, fed in phase, to form an array with the respect
4478 C. Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other with the driven ele4380 C. Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other with the driven el
4479 D. Arrange two Yagis collinear to each other with the driven element4381 D. Arrange two Yagis collinear to each other, with the driven eleme
4480 ~~
4382 ~~
4383 E9D03 (D)
4384 How does the beamwidth of an antenna vary as the gain is increased?
4385 A. It increases geometrically
4386 B. It increases arithmetically
4387 C. It is essentially unaffected
4388 D. It decreases
4389 ~~
2/9/2016 2:53:06 PM
Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
4481
4482
4483
4484
4485
4486
4487
4488
4489
4490
4491
4492
4493
4494
4495
4496
4497
4498
4499
4500
4501
4502
4503
4504
4505
4506
4507
4508
4509
4510
4511
4512
4513
4514
4515
4516
4517
4518
4519
4520
4521
4522
4523
4524
4525
4526
4527
4528
4529
NC4FB Amateur Extra Question Pool Comparison
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Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
4390 E9D04 (A)
4391 Why is it desirable for a ground-mounted satellite communications a
4392 A. In order to track the satellite as it orbits the Earth
4393 B. So the antenna can be pointed away from interfering signals
4394 C. So the antenna can be positioned to cancel the effects of Farada
4395 D. To rotate antenna polarization to match that of the satellite
4396 ~~
E9D03 (A)
4397 E9D05 (A)
Where should a high Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a4398 Where should a high-Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in
A. Near the center of the vertical radiator
4399 A. Near the center of the vertical radiator
B. As low as possible on the vertical radiator
4400 B. As low as possible on the vertical radiator
C. As close to the transmitter as possible
4401 C. As close to the transmitter as possible
D. At a voltage node
4402 D. At a voltage node
~~
4403 ~~
E9D04 (C)
4404 E9D06 (C)
Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of re4405 Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of r
A. To swamp out harmonics
4406 A. To swamp out harmonics
B. To maximize losses
4407 B. To maximize losses
C. To minimize losses
4408 C. To minimize losses
D. To minimize the Q
4409 D. To minimize the Q
~~
4410 ~~
E9D05 (A)
4411 E9D07 (A)
What is a disadvantage of using a multiband trapped antenna?
4412 What is a disadvantage of using a multiband trapped antenna?
A. It might radiate harmonics
4413 A. It might radiate harmonics
B. It radiates the harmonics and fundamental equally well
4414 B. It radiates the harmonics and fundamental equally well
C. It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies
4415 C. It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies
D. It must be neutralized
4416 D. It must be neutralized
~~
4417 ~~
E9D06 (B)
4418 E9D08 (B)
What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened throu4419 What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened thro
A. It is increased
4420 A. It is increased
B. It is decreased
4421 B. It is decreased
C. No change occurs
4422 C. No change occurs
D. It becomes flat
4423 D. It becomes flat
~~
4424 ~~
E9D07 (D)
4425 E9D09 (D)
What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical4426 What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertica
A. Lower Q
4427 A. Lower Q
B. Greater structural strength
4428 B. Greater structural strength
C. Higher losses
4429 C. Higher losses
D. Improved radiation efficiency
4430 D. Improved radiation efficiency
~~
4431 ~~
E9D08 (B)
4432 E9D10 (A)
What happens as the Q of an antenna increases?
4433 What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two
A. SWR bandwidth increases
4434 A. 300 ohms
B. SWR bandwidth decreases
4435 B. 72 ohms
C. Gain is reduced
4436 C. 50 ohms
D. More common-mode current is present on the feed line
4437 D. 450 ohms
~~
4438 ~~
E9D09 (D)
4439 E9D11 (D)
What is the function of a loading coil used as part of an HF mobile 4440 What is the function of a loading coil as used with an HF mobile an
A. To increase the SWR bandwidth
4441 A. To increase the SWR bandwidth
B. To lower the losses
4442 B. To lower the losses
C. To lower the Q
4443 C. To lower the Q
D. To cancel capacitive reactance
4444 D. To cancel capacitive reactance
~~
4445 ~~
4446 E9D12 (D)
4447 What is one advantage of using a trapped antenna?
4448 A. It has high directivity in the higher-frequency bands
4449 B. It has high gain
4450 C. It minimizes harmonic radiation
4451 D. It may be used for multiband operation
4452 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2016 - 2020) Question Pool
Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
4530 E9D10 (B)
4453 E9D13 (B)
4531 What happens to feed point impedance at the base of a fixed length H4454 What happens to feed point impedance at the base of a fixed-length
4532 A. The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance d4455 A. The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance
4533 B. The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance i4456 B. The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance
4534 C. The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance d4457 C. The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance
4535 D. The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance i4458 D. The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance
4536 ~~
4459 ~~
4537 E9D11 (B)
4460 E9D14 (B)
4538 Which of the following types of conductors would be best for minimiz4461 Which of the following types of conductor would be best for minimiz
4539 A. A resistive wire, such as spark plug wire
4462 A. A resistive wire, such as a spark plug wire
4540 B. A wide flat copper strap
4463 B. A wide flat copper strap
4541 C. A cable with six or seven 18 gauge conductors in parallel
4464 C. A cable with 6 or 7 18-gauge conductors in parallel
4542 D. A single 12 gauge or 10 gauge stainless steel wire
4465 D. A single 12 or 10-gauge stainless steel wire
4543 ~~
4466 ~~
4544 E9D12 (C)
4467 E9D15 (C)
4545 Which of the following would provide the best RF ground for your sta4468 Which of the following would provide the best RF ground for your st
4546 A. A 50 ohm resistor connected to ground
4469 A. A 50-ohm resistor connected to ground
4547 B. An electrically short connection to a metal water pipe
4470 B. An electrically-short connection to a metal water pipe
4548 C. An electrically short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground 4471 C. An electrically-short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground
4549 D. An electrically short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground 4472 D. An electrically-short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground
4550 ~~
4473 ~~
4551 E9D13 (B)
4552 What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum
4553 A. The front-to-back ratio increases
4554 B. The front-to-back ratio decreases
4555 C. The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band
4556 D. The SWR is reduced
4557 ~~
4558 E9E01 (B)
4474 E9E01 (B)
4559 What system matches a higher impedance transmission line to a lower 4475 What system matches a high-impedance transmission line to a lower i
4560 A. The gamma matching system
4476 A. The gamma matching system
4561 B. The delta matching system
4477 B. The delta matching system
4562 C. The omega matching system
4478 C. The omega matching system
4563 D. The stub matching system
4479 D. The stub matching system
4564 ~~
4480 ~~
4565 E9E02 (A)
4481 E9E02 (A)
4566 What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbal4482 What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unba
4567 A. The gamma match
4483 A. The gamma match
4568 B. The delta match
4484 B. The delta match
4569 C. The epsilon match
4485 C. The epsilon match
4570 D. The stub match
4486 D. The stub match
4571 ~~
4487 ~~
4572 E9E03 (D)
4488 E9E03 (D)
4573 What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of trans4489 What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of tran
4574 A. The gamma match
4490 A. The gamma match
4575 B. The delta match
4491 B. The delta match
4576 C. The omega match
4492 C. The omega match
4577 D. The stub match
4493 D. The stub match
4578 ~~
4494 ~~
4579 E9E04 (B)
4495 E9E04 (B)
4580 What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma-type antenna 4496 What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma-type antenna
4581 A. To provide DC isolation between the feed line and the antenna
4497 A. To provide DC isolation between the feed line and the antenna
4582 B. To cancel the inductive reactance of the matching network
4498 B. To cancel the inductive reactance of the matching network
4583 C. To provide a rejection notch that prevents the radiation of harmo4499 C. To provide a rejection notch to prevent the radiation of harmoni
4584 D. To transform the antenna impedance to a higher value
4500 D. To transform the antenna impedance to a higher value
4585 ~~
4501 ~~
4586 E9E05 (A)
4502 E9E05 (A)
4587 How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a ha4503 How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a h
4588 A. The driven element reactance must be capacitive
4504 A. The driven element reactance must be capacitive
4589 B. The driven element reactance must be inductive
4505 B. The driven element reactance must be inductive
4590 C. The driven element resonance must be lower than the operating fre4506 C. The driven element resonance must be lower than the operating fr
4591 D. The driven element radiation resistance must be higher than the c4507 D. The driven element radiation resistance must be higher than the
4592 ~~
4508 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
4593 E9E06 (C)
4509 E9E06 (C)
4594 What is the equivalent lumped-constant network for a hairpin matchin4510 What is the equivalent lumped-constant network for a hairpin matchi
4595 A. Pi-network
4511 A. Pi network
4596 B. Pi-L-network
4512 B. Pi-L network
4597 C. A shunt inductor
4513 C. L network
4598 D. A series capacitor
4514 D. Parallel-resonant tank
4599 ~~
4515 ~~
4600 E9E07 (B)
4516 E9E07 (B)
4601 What term best describes the interactions at the load end of a misma4517 What term best describes the interactions at the load end of a mism
4602 A. Characteristic impedance
4518 A. Characteristic impedance
4603 B. Reflection coefficient
4519 B. Reflection coefficient
4604 C. Velocity factor
4520 C. Velocity factor
4605 D. Dielectric constant
4521 D. Dielectric constant
4606 ~~
4522 ~~
4607 E9E08 (D)
4523 E9E08 (D)
4608 Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatche4524 Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatch
4609 A. An SWR less than 1:1
4525 A. An SWR less than 1:1
4610 B. A reflection coefficient greater than 1
4526 B. A reflection coefficient greater than 1
4611 C. A dielectric constant greater than 1
4527 C. A dielectric constant greater than 1
4612 D. An SWR greater than 1:1
4528 D. An SWR greater than 1:1
4613 ~~
4529 ~~
4614 E9E09 (C)
4530 E9E09 (C)
4615 Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting4531 Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connectin
4616 A. Double-bazooka match
4532 A. Double-bazooka match
4617 B. Hairpin match
4533 B. Hairpin match
4618 C. Gamma match
4534 C. Gamma match
4619 D. All of these choices are correct
4535 D. All of these choices are correct
4620 ~~
4536 ~~
4621 E9E10 (C)
4537 E9E10 (C)
4622 Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with 4538 Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with
4623 A. Connect a 1/4-wavelength open stub of 300 ohm twin-lead in parall4539 A. Connect a 1/4-wavelength open stub of 300-ohm twin-lead in paral
4624 B. Insert a 1/2 wavelength piece of 300 ohm twin-lead in series betw4540 B. Insert a 1/2 wavelength piece of 300-ohm twin-lead in series bet
4625 C. Insert a 1/4-wavelength piece of 75 ohm coaxial cable transmissio4541 C. Insert a 1/4-wavelength piece of 75-ohm coaxial cable transmissi
4626 D. Connect 1/2 wavelength shorted stub of 75 ohm cable in parallel w4542 D. Connect 1/2 wavelength shorted stub of 75-ohm cable in parallel
4627 ~~
4543 ~~
4628 E9E11 (B)
4544 E9E11 (B)
4629 What is an effective way of matching a feed line to a VHF or UHF ant4545 What is an effective way of matching a feed line to a VHF or UHF an
4630 A. Use a 50 ohm 1:1 balun between the antenna and feed line
4546 A. Use a 50-ohm 1:1 balun between the antenna and feed line
4631 B. Use the universal stub matching technique
4547 B. Use the universal stub matching technique
4632 C. Connect a series-resonant LC network across the antenna feed term4548 C. Connect a series-resonant LC network across the antenna feed ter
4633 D. Connect a parallel-resonant LC network across the antenna feed te4549 D. Connect a parallel-resonant LC network across the antenna feed t
4634 ~~
4550 ~~
4635 E9E12 (A)
4551 E9E12 (A)
4636 What is the primary purpose of a phasing line when used with an ante4552 What is the primary purpose of a phasing line when used with an ant
4637 A. It ensures that each driven element operates in concert with the 4553 A. It ensures that each driven element operates in concert with the
4638 B. It prevents reflected power from traveling back down the feed lin4554 B. It prevents reflected power from traveling back down the feed li
4639 C. It allows single-band antennas to operate on other bands
4555 C. It allows single-band antennas to operate on other bands
4640 D. It makes sure the antenna has a low-angle radiation pattern
4556 D. It makes sure the antenna has a low-angle radiation pattern
4641 ~~
4557 ~~
4642 E9E13 (C)
4558 E9E13 (C)
4643 What is a use for a Wilkinson divider?
4559 What is the purpose of a Wilkinson divider?
4644 A. It divides the operating frequency of a transmitter signal so it 4560 A. It divides the operating frequency of a transmitter signal so it
4645 B. It is used to feed high-impedance antennas from a low-impedance s4561 B. It is used to feed high-impedance antennas from a low-impedance
4646 C. It is used to divide power equally between two 50 ohm loads while4562 C. It divides power equally among multiple loads while preventing c
4647 D. It is used to feed low-impedance loads from a high-impedance sour4563 D. It is used to feed low-impedance loads from a high-impedance sou
4648 ~~
4564 ~~
4649 E9F01 (D)
4565 E9F01 (D)
4650 What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?
4566 What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?
4651 A. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the term4567 A. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the ter
4652 B. The index of shielding for coaxial cable
4568 B. The index of shielding for coaxial cable
4653 C. The velocity of the wave in the transmission line multiplied by t4569 C. The velocity of the wave in the transmission line multiplied by
4654 D. The velocity of the wave in the transmission line divided by the 4570 D. The velocity of the wave in the transmission line divided by the
4655 ~~
4571 ~~
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4656 E9F02 (C)
4572 E9F02 (C)
4657 Which of the following determines the velocity factor of a transmiss4573 Which of the following determines the velocity factor of a transmis
4658 A. The termination impedance
4574 A. The termination impedance
4659 B. The line length
4575 B. The line length
4660 C. Dielectric materials used in the line
4576 C. Dielectric materials used in the line
4661 D. The center conductor resistivity
4577 D. The center conductor resistivity
4662 ~~
4578 ~~
4663 E9F03 (D)
4579 E9F03 (D)
4664 Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shor4580 Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line sho
4665 A. Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable
4581 A. Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable
4666 B. The characteristic impedance is higher in a parallel feed line 4582 B. The characteristic impedance is higher in a parallel feed line
4667 C. The surge impedance is higher in a parallel feed line
4583 C. The surge impedance is higher in a parallel feed line
4668 D. Electrical signals move more slowly in a coaxial cable than in ai4584 D. Electrical signals move more slowly in a coaxial cable than in a
4669 ~~
4585 ~~
4670 E9F04 (B)
4586 E9F04 (B)
4671 What is the typical velocity factor for a coaxial cable with solid p4587 What is the typical velocity factor for a coaxial cable with solid
4672 A. 2.70
4588 A. 2.70
4673 B. 0.66
4589 B. 0.66
4674 C. 0.30
4590 C. 0.30
4675 D. 0.10
4591 D. 0.10
4676 ~~
4592 ~~
4677 E9F05 (C)
4593 E9F05 (C)
4678 What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene diel4594 What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene die
4679 A. 20 meters
4595 A. 20 meters
4680 B. 2.3 meters
4596 B. 2.3 meters
4681 C. 3.5 meters
4597 C. 3.5 meters
4682 D. 0.2 meters
4598 D. 0.2 meters
4683 ~~
4599 ~~
4684 E9F06 (C)
4600 E9F06 (C)
4685 What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, paralle4601 What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parall
4686 A. 15 meters
4602 A. 15 meters
4687 B. 20 meters
4603 B. 20 meters
4688 C. 10 meters
4604 C. 10 meters
4689 D. 71 meters
4605 D. 71 meters
4690 ~~
4606 ~~
4691 E9F07 (A)
4607 E9F07 (A)
4692 How does ladder line compare to small-diameter coaxial cable such as4608 How does ladder line compare to small-diameter coaxial cable such a
4693 A. Lower loss
4609 A. Lower loss
4694 B. Higher SWR
4610 B. Higher SWR
4695 C. Smaller reflection coefficient
4611 C. Smaller reflection coefficient
4696 D. Lower velocity factor
4612 D. Lower velocity factor
4697 ~~
4613 ~~
4698 E9F08 (A)
4614 E9F08 (A)
4699 What is the term for the ratio of the actual speed at which a signal4615 What is the term for the ratio of the actual speed at which a signa
4700 A. Velocity factor
4616 A. Velocity factor
4701 B. Characteristic impedance
4617 B. Characteristic impedance
4702 C. Surge impedance
4618 C. Surge impedance
4703 D. Standing wave ratio
4619 D. Standing wave ratio
4704 ~~
4620 ~~
4705 E9F09 (B)
4621 E9F09 (B)
4706 What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene diel4622 What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene die
4707 A. 10 meters
4623 A. 10 meters
4708 B. 6.9 meters
4624 B. 6.9 meters
4709 C. 24 meters
4625 C. 24 meters
4710 D. 50 meters
4626 D. 50 meters
4711 ~~
4627 ~~
4712 E9F10 (C)
4628 E9F10 (C)
4713 What impedance does a 1/8 wavelength transmission line present to a 4629 What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a
4714 A. A capacitive reactance
4630 A. A capacitive reactance
4715 B. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
4631 B. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
4716 C. An inductive reactance
4632 C. An inductive reactance
4717 D. The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage
4633 D. The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage
4718 ~~
4634 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
4719 E9F11 (C)
4635 E9F11 (C)
4720 What impedance does a 1/8 wavelength transmission line present to a 4636 What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a
4721 A. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
4637 A. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
4722 B. An inductive reactance
4638 B. An inductive reactance
4723 C. A capacitive reactance
4639 C. A capacitive reactance
4724 D. The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage
4640 D. The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage
4725 ~~
4641 ~~
4726 E9F12 (D)
4642 E9F12 (D)
4727 What impedance does a 1/4 wavelength transmission line present to a 4643 What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a
4728 A. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
4644 A. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
4729 B. The same as the input impedance to the generator
4645 B. The same as the input impedance to the generator
4730 C. Very high impedance
4646 C. Very high impedance
4731 D. Very low impedance
4647 D. Very low impedance
4732 ~~
4648 ~~
4733 E9F13 (A)
4649 E9F13 (A)
4734 What impedance does a 1/4 wavelength transmission line present to a 4650 What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a
4735 A. Very high impedance
4651 A. Very high impedance
4736 B. Very low impedance
4652 B. Very low impedance
4737 C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line4653 C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission lin
4738 D. The same as the generator output impedance
4654 D. The same as the generator output impedance
4739 ~~
4655 ~~
4740 E9F14 (B)
4656 E9F14 (B)
4741 What impedance does a 1/2 wavelength transmission line present to a 4657 What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a
4742 A. Very high impedance
4658 A. Very high impedance
4743 B. Very low impedance
4659 B. Very low impedance
4744 C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
4660 C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
4745 D. The same as the output impedance of the generator
4661 D. The same as the output impedance of the generator
4746 ~~
4662 ~~
4747 E9F15 (A)
4663 E9F15 (A)
4748 What impedance does a 1/2 wavelength transmission line present to a 4664 What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a
4749 A. Very high impedance
4665 A. Very high impedance
4750 B. Very low impedance
4666 B. Very low impedance
4751 C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
4667 C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
4752 D. The same as the output impedance of the generator
4668 D. The same as the output impedance of the generator
4753 ~~
4669 ~~
4754 E9F16 (D)
4670 E9F16 (D)
4755 Which of the following is a significant difference between foam diel4671 Which of the following is a significant difference between foam-die
4756 A. Foam dielectric has lower safe operating voltage limits
4672 A. Reduced safe operating voltage limits
4757 B. Foam dielectric has lower loss per unit of length
4673 B. Reduced losses per unit of length
4758 C. Foam dielectric has higher velocity factor
4674 C. Higher velocity factor
4759 D. All of these choices are correct
4675 D. All of these choices are correct
4760 ~~
4676 ~~
4761 E9G01 (A)
4677 E9G01 (A)
4762 Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?
4678 Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?
4763 A. Impedance along transmission lines
4679 A. Impedance along transmission lines
4764 B. Radiation resistance
4680 B. Radiation resistance
4765 C. Antenna radiation pattern
4681 C. Antenna radiation pattern
4766 D. Radio propagation
4682 D. Radio propagation
4767 ~~
4683 ~~
4768 E9G02 (B)
4684 E9G02 (B)
4769 What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?
4685 What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?
4770 A. Voltage circles and current arcs
4686 A. Voltage circles and current arcs
4771 B. Resistance circles and reactance arcs
4687 B. Resistance circles and reactance arcs
4772 C. Voltage lines and current chords
4688 C. Voltage lines and current chords
4773 D. Resistance lines and reactance chords
4689 D. Resistance lines and reactance chords
4774 ~~
4690 ~~
4775 E9G03 (C)
4691 E9G03 (C)
4776 Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?
4692 Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?
4777 A. Beam headings and radiation patterns
4693 A. Beam headings and radiation patterns
4778 B. Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
4694 B. Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
4779 C. Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
4695 C. Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
4780 D. Trigonometric functions
4696 D. Trigonometric functions
4781 ~~
4697 ~~
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4782 E9G04 (C)
4698 E9G04 (C)
4783 What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith c4699 What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith
4784 A. Resistance and voltage
4700 A. Resistance and voltage
4785 B. Reactance and voltage
4701 B. Reactance and voltage
4786 C. Resistance and reactance
4702 C. Resistance and reactance
4787 D. Voltage and impedance
4703 D. Voltage and impedance
4788 ~~
4704 ~~
4789 E9G05 (A)
4705 E9G05 (A)
4790 What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?
4706 What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?
4791 A. Smith chart
4707 A. Smith chart
4792 B. Free space radiation directivity chart
4708 B. Free-space radiation directivity chart
4793 C. Elevation angle radiation pattern chart
4709 C. Elevation angle radiation pattern chart
4794 D. Azimuth angle radiation pattern chart
4710 D. Azimuth angle radiation pattern chart
4795 ~~
4711 ~~
4796 E9G06 (B)
4712 E9G06 (B)
4797 On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the la4713 On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the l
4798 A. Prime axis
4714 A. Prime axis
4799 B. Reactance axis
4715 B. Reactance axis
4800 C. Impedance axis
4716 C. Impedance axis
4801 D. Polar axis
4717 D. Polar axis
4802 ~~
4718 ~~
4803 E9G07 (D)
4719 E9G07 (D)
4804 On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight l4720 On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight
4805 A. The reactance axis
4721 A. The reactance axis
4806 B. The current axis
4722 B. The current axis
4807 C. The voltage axis
4723 C. The voltage axis
4808 D. The resistance axis
4724 D. The resistance axis
4809 ~~
4725 ~~
4810 E9G08 (C)
4726 E9G08 (C)
4811 What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart? 4727 What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?
4812 A. Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis 4728 A. Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis
4813 B. Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis 4729 B. Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis
4814 C. Reassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center
4730 C. Reassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center
4815 D. Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis
4731 D. Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis
4816 ~~
4732 ~~
4817 E9G09 (A)
4733 E9G09 (A)
4818 What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during 4734 What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during
4819 A. Standing wave ratio circles
4735 A. Standing-wave ratio circles
4820 B. Antenna-length circles
4736 B. Antenna-length circles
4821 C. Coaxial-length circles
4737 C. Coaxial-length circles
4822 D. Radiation-pattern circles
4738 D. Radiation-pattern circles
4823 ~~
4739 ~~
4824 E9G10 (D)
4740 E9G10 (D)
4825 What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?
4741 What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?
4826 A. Frequency
4742 A. Frequency
4827 B. SWR
4743 B. SWR
4828 C. Points with constant resistance
4744 C. Points with constant resistance
4829 D. Points with constant reactance
4745 D. Points with constant reactance
4830 ~~
4746 ~~
4831 E9G11 (B)
4747 E9G11 (B)
4832 How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?
4748 How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?
4833 A. In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency
4749 A. In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency
4834 B. In fractions of transmission line electrical wavelength
4750 B. In fractions of transmission line electrical wavelength
4835 C. In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength
4751 C. In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength
4836 D. In fractions of antenna electrical frequency
4752 D. In fractions of antenna electrical frequency
4837 ~~
4753 ~~
4838 E9H01 (D)
4754 E9H01 (D)
4839 When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors4755 What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repe
4840 A. Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength
4756 A. 1977 watts
4841 B. It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground
4757 B. 78.7 watts
4842 C. It should be configured as a four-sided loop
4758 C. 420 watts
4843 D. It should be one or more wavelengths long
4759 D. 286 watts
4844 ~~
4760 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
4845 E9H02 (A)
4761 E9H02 (A)
4846 Which is generally true for low band (160 meter and 80 meter) receiv4762 What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repe
4847 A. Atmospheric noise is so high that gain over a dipole is not impor4763 A. 317 watts
4848 B. They must be erected at least 1/2 wavelength above the ground to 4764 B. 2000 watts
4849 C. Low loss coax transmission line is essential for good performance4765 C. 126 watts
4850 D. All of these choices are correct
4766 D. 300 watts
4851 ~~
4767 ~~
4852 E9H04 (B)
4768 E9H03 (B)
4853 What is an advantage of using a shielded loop antenna for direction 4769 What is the effective isotropic radiated power of a repeater statio
4854 A. It automatically cancels ignition noise in mobile installations 4770 A. 159 watts
4855 B. It is electro statically balanced against ground, giving better n4771 B. 252 watts
4856 C. It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signal4772 C. 632 watts
4857 D. It allows stations to communicate without giving away their posit4773 D. 63.2 watts
4774 ~~
4775 E9H04 (C)
4776 What term describes station output, including the transmitter, ante
4777 A. Power factor
4778 B. Half-power bandwidth
4779 C. Effective radiated power
4780 D. Apparent power
4858 ~~
4781 ~~
4859 E9H05 (A)
4782 E9H05 (A)
4860 What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction findi4783 What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction find
4861 A. It has a bidirectional pattern
4784 A. It has a bidirectional pattern
4862 B. It is non-rotatable
4785 B. It is non-rotatable
4863 C. It receives equally well in all directions
4786 C. It receives equally well in all directions
4864 D. It is practical for use only on VHF bands
4787 D. It is practical for use only on VHF bands
4865 ~~
4788 ~~
4866 E9H06 (C)
4789 E9H06 (C)
4867 What is the triangulation method of direction finding?
4790 What is the triangulation method of direction finding?
4868 A. The geometric angles of sky waves from the source are used to det4791 A. The geometric angle of sky waves from the source are used to det
4869 B. A fixed receiving station plots three headings to the signal sour4792 B. A fixed receiving station plots three headings from the signal s
4870 C. Antenna headings from several different receiving locations are u4793 C. Antenna headings from several different receiving locations are
4871 D. A fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot t4794 D. A fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot
4872 ~~
4795 ~~
4873 E9H07 (D)
4796 E9H07 (D)
4874 Why is it advisable to use an RF attenuator on a receiver being used4797 Why is it advisable to use an RF attenuator on a receiver being use
4875 A. It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal to improve signal4798 A. It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal to improve signa
4876 B. It compensates for the effects of an isotropic antenna, thereby i4799 B. It compensates for the effects of an isotropic antenna, thereby
4877 C. It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nul4800 C. It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nu
4878 D. It prevents receiver overload which could make it difficult to de4801 D. It prevents receiver overload which could make it difficult to d
4879 ~~
4802 ~~
4880 E9H08 (A)
4803 E9H08 (A)
4881 What is the function of a sense antenna?
4804 What is the function of a sense antenna?
4882 A. It modifies the pattern of a DF antenna array to provide a null i4805 A. It modifies the pattern of a DF antenna array to provide a null
4883 B. It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array
4806 B. It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array
4884 C. It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical an4807 C. It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical a
4885 D. It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals 4808 D. It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals
4886 ~~
4809 ~~
4887 E9H09 (C)
4810 E9H09 (C)
4888 Which of the following describes the construction of a receiving loo4811 Which of the following describes the construction of a receiving lo
4889 A. A large circularly polarized antenna
4812 A. A large circularly-polarized antenna
4890 B. A small coil of wire tightly wound around a toroidal ferrite core4813 B. A small coil of wire tightly wound around a toroidal ferrite cor
4891 C. One or more turns of wire wound in the shape of a large open coil4814 C. One or more turns of wire wound in the shape of a large open coi
4892 D. A vertical antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive lo4815 D. A vertical antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive l
4893 ~~
4816 ~~
4894 E9H10 (D)
4817 E9H10 (D)
4895 How can the output voltage of a multiple turn receiving loop antenna4818 How can the output voltage of a multi-turn receiving loop antenna b
4896 A. By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
4819 A. By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
4897 B. By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing t4820 B. By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing
4898 C. By winding adjacent turns in opposing directions
4821 C. By winding adjacent turns in opposing directions
4899 D. By increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the 4822 D. By increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the
4900 ~~
4823 ~~
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Amateur Extra (2012 2016) Question Pool
4901 E9H11 (B)
4824 E9H11 (B)
4902 What characteristic of a cardioid pattern antenna is useful for dire4825 What characteristic of a cardioid-pattern antenna is useful for dir
4903 A. A very sharp peak
4826 A. A very sharp peak
4904 B. A very sharp single null
4827 B. A very sharp single null
4905 C. Broad band response
4828 C. Broad band response
4906 D. High-radiation angle
4829 D. High-radiation angle
4907 ~~
4830 ~~
4831 E9H12 (B)
4832 What is an advantage of using a shielded loop antenna for direction
4833 A. It automatically cancels ignition noise pickup in mobile install
4834 B. It is electro-statically balanced against ground, giving better
4835 C. It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signa
4836 D. It allows stations to communicate without giving away their posi
4837 ~~
4908 E0A01 (B)
4838 E0A01 (C)
4909 What is the primary function of an external earth connection or grou4839 What, if any, are the differences between the radiation produced by
4910 A. Reduce received noise
4840 A. There is no significant difference between the two types of radi
4911 B. Lightning protection
4841 B. Only radiation produced by radioactivity can injure human beings
4912 C. Reduce RF current flow between pieces of equipment
4842 C. Radioactive materials emit ionizing radiation, while RF signals
4913 D. Reduce RFI to telephones and home entertainment systems
4843 D. Radiation from an antenna will damage unexposed photographic fil
4914 ~~
4844 ~~
4915 E0A02 (B)
4845 E0A02 (B)
4916 When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor’s4846 When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor’
4917 A. Make sure signals from your station are less than the controlled 4847 A. Make sure signals from your station are less than the controlled
4918 B. Make sure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolle4848 B. Make sure signals from your station are less than the uncontroll
4919 C. You need only evaluate exposure levels on your own property
4849 C. You need only evaluate exposure levels on your own property
4920 D. Advise your neighbors of the results of your tests
4850 D. Advise your neighbors of the results of your tests
4921 ~~
4851 ~~
4922 E0A03 (C)
4852 E0A03 (C)
4923 Which of the following would be a practical way to estimate whether 4853 Which of the following would be a practical way to estimate whether
4924 A. Use a calibrated antenna analyzer
4854 A. Use a calibrated antenna analyzer
4925 B. Use a hand calculator plus Smith-chart equations to calculate the4855 B. Use a hand calculator plus Smith-chart equations to calculate th
4926 C. Use an antenna modeling program to calculate field strength at ac4856 C. Use an antenna modeling program to calculate field strength at a
4927 D. All of the choices are correct
4857 D. All of the choices are correct
4928 ~~
4858 ~~
4929 E0A04 (C)
4859 E0A04 (C)
4930 When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the s4860 When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the
4931 A. Only the most powerful transmitter
4861 A. Only the most powerful transmitter
4932 B. Only commercial transmitters
4862 B. Only commercial transmitters
4933 C. Each transmitter that produces 5 percent or more of its MPE limit4863 C. Each transmitter that produces 5% or more of its MPE exposure li
4934 D. Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50 perc4864 D. Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50%
4935 ~~
4865 ~~
4936 E0A05 (B)
4866 E0A05 (B)
4937 What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amat4867 What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the ama
4938 A. Microwaves are ionizing radiation
4868 A. Microwaves are ionizing radiation
4939 B. The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure 4869 B. The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure
4940 C. Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection 4870 C. Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection
4941 D. The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of ante4871 D. The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of ant
4942 ~~
4872 ~~
4943 E0A06 (D)
4873 E0A06 (D)
4944 Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limit4874 Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limi
4945 A. The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and 4875 A. The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and
4946 B. Ground reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary w4876 B. Ground reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary
4947 C. E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at differ4877 C. E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at diffe
4948 D. All of these choices are correct
4878 D. All of these choices are correct
4949 ~~
4879 ~~
4950 E0A07 (B)
4880 E0A07 (B)
4951 How may dangerous levels of carbon monoxide from an emergency genera4881 How may dangerous levels of carbon monoxide from an emergency gener
4952 A. By the odor
4882 A. By the odor
4953 B. Only with a carbon monoxide detector
4883 B. Only with a carbon monoxide detector
4954 C. Any ordinary smoke detector can be used
4884 C. Any ordinary smoke detector can be used
4955 D. By the yellowish appearance of the gas
4885 D. By the yellowish appearance of the gas
4956 ~~
4886 ~~
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4957 E0A08 (C)
4887 E0A08 (C)
4958 What does SAR measure?
4888 What does SAR measure?
4959 A. Synthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body
4889 A. Synthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body
4960 B. Signal Amplification Rating
4890 B. Signal Amplification Rating
4961 C. The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body
4891 C. The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body
4962 D. The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain
4892 D. The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain
4963 ~~
4893 ~~
4964 E0A09 (C)
4894 E0A09 (C)
4965 Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for s4895 Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for
4966 A. Mica
4896 A. Mica
4967 B. Zinc oxide
4897 B. Zinc oxide
4968 C. Beryllium Oxide
4898 C. Beryllium Oxide
4969 D. Uranium Hexafluoride
4899 D. Uranium Hexaflouride
4970 ~~
4900 ~~
4971 E0A10 (A)
4901 E0A10 (A)
4972 What toxic material may be present in some electronic components suc4902 What material found in some electronic components such as high-volt
4973 A. Polychlorinated Biphenyls
4903 A. Polychlorinated biphenyls
4974 B. Polyethylene
4904 B. Polyethylene
4975 C. Polytetrafluroethylene
4905 C. Polytetrafluroethylene
4976 D. Polymorphic silicon
4906 D. Polymorphic silicon
4977 ~~
4907 ~~
4978 E0A11 (C)
4908 E0A11 (C)
4979 Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF4909 Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UH
4980 A. Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
4910 A. Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
4981 B. Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field
4911 B. Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field
4982 C. Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the M4912 C. Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the
4983 D. Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system
4913 D. Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system
4984 ~~
4914 ~~