A
TEST BOOKLET CODE
(A)
TEST BOOKLET NUMBER _________________
POSTGRADUATE INSTITUTE OF MEDICAL EDUCATION & RESEARCH, CHANDIGARH
DURATION: 2 HOURS
Max Marks : 125
ROLL NO. __________________
ENTRANCE EXAMINATION FOR ICMR-JRF EXAMINATION – 20XX
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES
NB:
No candidate will leave the Examination Hall before the expiry of the period of at least 60
minutes of the start of the paper.
1. Write your Roll Number clearly in the designated space on the answer sheet and on the question
paper.
2. The enclosed paper contains 2 Sections. Section I (A) has 50 questions and is
compulsory
for
all
candidates
with
each
question
carrying
1
mark.
Sections II and III pertain to Life Sciences (B) and Social Sciences (C). The candidate may
attempt questions in one of the two sections (II (B) or III (C)). Each division of Section II (B)
or Section III (C) has 100 questions and the candidate is to attempt any 75 questions in the
pre-designated area of Section B or C. Candidates are required to indicate the option for
section B or C.
3. In case a candidate attempts more than 75 questions in Section II (B) or Section III (C), only the
first 75 attempted answers will be considered for evaluation.
4. The answer to the questions in the enclosed question paper shall be written on a separate
answer sheet. Chosen alternative is to be indicated by darkening the appropriate numeral on the
answer sheet e.g.
Q No. 1
2
●
3
5. Negative marking for wrong answers (responses) will be done to the tune of -0.25 mark for
every incorrect answer.
6. Use of Calculators/Log Tables/ Mobile Phone is not permitted.
7. Use only black or blue ball point pen.
8. The question paper is confidential and on no account be removed from the examination hall. It
must be handed over to the invigilator at the end of the examination together with the answer
sheet before leaving the examination hall.
9. Candidates must not deface the question paper or the answer sheet.
10. Please dispossess yourself of any paper or material from which you may be able to derive help in
the examination. If any material is recovered from your possession, you will render yourself liable
to action for resorting to unfair means.
11 Smuggling by writing of questions on a piece of paper or any part of your body is liable to
disciplinary action and may lead to cancellation of your examination.
((((((()))))))))
1
A
Section I (A)
Aptitude (compulsory for all candidates)
1. Molality is defined as:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Number of moles of solute/L of solvent
Grams of solute/L of solvent
Number of moles of solute/Kg of solvent
Number of Grams equivalent of solute/L of solvent
2. An ‘inbred’ strain of an animal refers to:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Genetically undefined animal
Animals bred in a laboratory
Isogenic animals
Immunodeficient animals
3. The limits of Pearson’s Correlation coefficient are:
1.
2.
3.
4.
0≤Y≤1
-1 ≤ Y ≤ 0
-1 ≤ Y ≤ +1
0<Y<1
4. Which of the following tests will be used for testing
of mean between two groups?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Students unpaired ‘t’ test
Students paired ‘t’ test
ANOVA
Chi square test
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5. When p < 0.05, which of the following is true?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Probability of type I error is less than 0.05
Probability of type II error is less than 0.05
Probability of type I error is more than 0.05
Probability of type II error is more than 0.05
6. Aspirin was first obtained from the bark of:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Cinchona tree
Neem tree
Willow tree
Eucalyptus tree
1.
2.
3.
4.
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7. An isotope of an element has:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Same number of neutrons
Same number of electrons and neutrons
Same number of protons and neutrons
Same number of protons
8. The branch of science that deals with cancer is
known as:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Serology
Oncology
Pathology
Radiology
9. Which of the following waves cannot be transmitted
through vacuum:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Light waves
Heat waves
Sound waves
Electromagnetic waves
10. Luc Montagnier and Robert Gallo are the codiscoverers of the following virus:
1.
2.
3.
4.
2
Ebola
Hepatitis-B
Small Pox
HIV
1.
2.
3.
4.
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Section II (B)
Life Sciences
51. Which of the followings is rich in triglycerides?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Chylomicrons
LDL
VLDL
HDL
52. Which enzyme has impaired activity in Vitamin B1
deficiency?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Succinate dehydrogenase
Pyruvate dehydrogenase
Transketolase
Citrate synthase
53. Which of the following is useful for identifying
amino terminal residue of proteins?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Cyanogen bromide
Fluorodinitrobenzene
Performic acid
Dansyl chloride
54. Which is the most abundant RNA in a cell?
1.
2.
3.
4.
tRNA
mRNA
rRNA
SnRNA
55. Which of the following statements concerning
characteristics of histones is FALSE?
1. They are highly basic proteins found in the nucleus
2. They form non-covalent bonds with eukaryotic
DNA called nucleosomes
3. They are very highly conserved proteins
4. They are associated with both prokaryotic and
eukaryotic DNA
56. Which of the following is an inhibitor of protein
synthesis?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Pencillin
Chloramphenicol
Actinomycin D
Bacitracin
57. The Ames test is used to:
1.
2.
3.
4.
To detect bacteria
To detect viruses
To detect enzymes
To detect mutagens
58. In which of the following tissues insulin enhances
transport of glucose?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Brain
Lens
Red blood cell
Adipose tissue
59. Which class of RNA characteristically contains
methylated purines and pyrimidines?
1.
2.
3.
4.
tRNA
mRNA
rRNA
16sRNA
60. Km of any enzymatic reaction describes:
1. Reaction velocity expressed as mols per second
2. Dissociation constant of E-S complex
3. Amount of the enzyme required to convert half of
the substrate to E-S complex
4. Substrate concentration to achieve half of Vmax
61. A Codon consists of:
1.
2.
3.
4.
4
One molecule of amino acyl-t RNa
Two complementary base pairs
Three consecutive nucleotide units
Three individual nucleotides
A
62. One mmol of NaCI contains:
1.
2.
3.
4.
35.5 g
35.5 mg
58.5 g
58.5 mg
63. Piezoelectric crystals are used in:
1.
2.
3.
4.
NMR imaging
Crystallography
Ultrasonography
Xeroradiography
64. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance Imaging technique is
based on the gyromagnetic property of:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Neutron
Electron
Proton
Positron
65. Hydrogen-3 is a pure:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Alpha emitter
Gamma emitter
Beta emitter
Positron emitter
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66. When a positron is emitted from a radioisotopic
atom, the atomic number of the daughter product:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Increases by one
Decreases by one
Decreases by two
No change
67. The sedimentation velocity of a protein in a
centrifuge tube does NOT depend on the:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Density of the solution
Density of protein
Mass of protein
Charge of the protein
68. Which law states that: At constant temperature, the
volume of a given quantity of any gas is inversely
proportional to the pressure upon the gas?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Boyle’s law
Charle’s law
Henry’s law
Dalton’s law
69. Western blot is a technique used for:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Protein expression
DNA expression
RNA expression
Fat expression
70. When a molecule absorbs light of a particular
wavelength and continues to emit light of higher
wavelength for a considerable time after excitation,
the phenomenon is called:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Phosphorescence
Fluorescence
Chemiluminescence
Cerenkov radiations
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Section III (C)
Social Sciences
51. Which of the following is the correct Dental
Formula of the primitive Eutherian mammal?
1.
2.
3.
4.
3143/3143
2343/2343
3413/3413
4323/4323
52. Which of the following is NOT a fossil?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Stone tools
Petrified remains of the bones
Lucy
Coprolites
53. Which of the following methods is used for dating
the fossils older than 75000 years?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Carbon dating
Potassium argon method
Dendrochronology
Density
54. The name of the book Charles Darwin wrote is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Origin of species
Natural history
Origin of man
Process and product
55. During the last fifty years the adult height of
Japanese has increased. This is known as:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Secular trend
Medronic trend
Physique
Growth gradient
56. Which of the following is the crippling disorder
that results from excessive consumption of
Khesari daal?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Endemic goitre
Marasmus
Malaria
Lathyrism
57. Bushman and Hottentots are the racial groups
found in:
1.
2.
3.
4.
South India
South Africa
South America
Central Europe
58. Khasis are the tribes inhabiting:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Nilgiri hills of South India
Himachal Pradesh
Madhya Pradesh
North-East India
59. Ring tailed lemurs are found in:
1. South America
2. Sri Lanka
3. Southeast Asia
4. Madagascar islands
60. Introns are those segments of DNA which are:
1. Directly responsible for producing specific traits
2. Responsible for controlling the activities of
structural genes
3. Non functioning spacer segments within a
structural gene
4. Structural genes coding for various traits
61. Among primates the bilophodont molars are
found among:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Old world monkeys
New world monkeys
Lemurs
Marmosets
62. Which of the following genera is the earliest
human ancestor:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Sivapithecus
Dryopithecus
Australopithecus
Aplidium
63. Bitot’s spot is caused due to deficiency of which of
the following vitamins:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Vitamin B-12
Vitamin E
Vitamin A
Vitamin C
64. Micro-blades are the characteristic tool types of
the following phase of human prehistory:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Lower palaeolithic
Mesolithic
Upper palaeolithic
Middle palaeolithic
65. The diploid number of chromosomes in man is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
64
23
32
46
66. The study approach that involves application of
evolutionary principles to the behavior of animals
is known as:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Paleontology
Sociobiology
Zoogeography
Paleo-primatology
67. In India a Homo erectus fossil skull cap was found
in:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Shivalik Hills
Kaveri basin
Narmada basin
Ganga basin
9
A
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68. Haemophilia, a sex linked disease affecting only
males, is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Recessive X-linked
Dominant X-linked
Y-linked
Dominant autosomal
69. Array is:
1. Comparing a number of people affected by a
disease and who are at risk
2. Another alternative in displaying data pictorially
and allowing rapid assimilation of finding by the
reader
3. A display where the horizontal and vertical axes
of a graph are formed according to the scale
values and the frequencies of the distribution
respectively
4. A systematic arrangement of the gathered data
either in an ascending or descending order
1.
2.
3.
4.
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70. Incidence:
1. Is the number of cases that will occur within a
population during a specified period of time
2. Indicates what proportion of a given population
is affected by a condition at a given point of
time
3. The ratio of the number of people affected by a
disease compared to a number of people at risk
in a given population
4. Is a snapshot picture of the presence of a
particular disease over the year
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