: Due on 1 Matt Redmond Math 283 - HW 3 Due 10/19 Problem 1 Validate the following equation b × (c × d) = (b · d) c − (b · c) d My grandpa has always said to attack that hard part first. In this problem I will use his approach and attack the left hand side first. î ĵ k̂ ~b × c1 c2 0 = ~b × 0î + 0ĵ − d1 c2 k̂ d 0 0 1 î ĵ k̂ = b1 b2 b3 = −b2 d1 c2 î + b1 d1 c2 ĵ + 0k̂ 0 0 −d c 1 2 Now shifting gears and following my Grandmothers advice and ”doing the easier work second” we compute: c1 î d1 î = (b1 d1 + b2 0 + b3 0) c2 ĵ − (b1 c1 + b2 c2 + b3 0) 0ĵ 0k̂ 0k̂ (b1 d1 c1 + b2 d2 c1 + b3 c1 0)î b1 c1 d1 + b2 c2 d1 + b3 d1 0î = +(b1 d1 c2 + b2 c2 0 + b3 c2 0)ĵ − b1 c1 d2 + b2 c2 0 + b3 00ĵ +(b1 d1 0 + b2 00 + b3 00)k̂ b1 c1 0 + b2 c2 0 + b3 00k̂ After cancelations, we get that; (−b2 c2 d1 )î (b1 d1 c2 )ĵ (0)k̂ And we see that we obtain the same vector on both sides of the equation, thus it is verified! Problem 2 A point on a rim of a wheel of radius R=1 that rolls (ω = 1) without slipping along the x-aris. The trajectory in a x-y coordinate system is called a Cycloid: ~r(t) = (R sin ωt + ωRt) î + (R cos ωt + R) ĵ 1 Find ~v and ~a. d~r(t) = (Rω cos ωt + ωR) î + (−Rω sin ωt) ĵ dt d~v (t) ~a = = −Rω 2 sin ωt î − Rω 2 cos ωt ĵ dt ~v = 2 Find ~at and ~an . We know that: at = ~a · ~v |v| ~v |v| Page 2 of 5 Matt Redmond Math 283 - HW 3 Due 10/19 So, we will first compute |v| |v| = = p R2 ω 2 cos2 ωt + 2ω 2 R2 cos ωt + ω 2 R2 + R2 ω 2 sin2 ωt q R2 ω 2 cos2 ωt + sin2 ωt + 2ω 2 R2 cos ωt + R2 ω 2 p = R2 ω 2 + ω 2 R2 (2 cos ωt + 1) √ = Rω 2 cos ωt + 2 We then compute ~a · ~v . ~a · ~v = −Rω 2 sin ωt (Rω cos ωt + ωR) + Rω 2 cos ωt (Rω sin ωt) Then we can combine these two and obtain ~a · ~v |v| 2 ! ~ a·~ v |v|2 . −Rω 2 sin ωt (Rω cos ωt + ωR) + Rω 2 cos ωt (Rω sin ωt) = 2R2 ω 2 (cos ωt + 1) −R2 ω 3 sin ωt (cos ωt + 1) + Rω 2 cos ωt (Rω sin ωt) = 2R2 ω 2 (cos ωt + 1) − sin ωt ω cos ωt sin ωt = + 2 2 (cosωt + 1) We now multiply this by vector ~v to get: i − sin ωt ω cos ωt sin ωt h (Rω (cos ωt + 1)) î − (Rω sin ωt) ĵ + at = 2 2 (cosωt + 1) = − sin ωt Rω 2 cos ωt sin ωt(cos ωt + 1) (Rω (cos ωt + 1)) + 2 2 (cos ωt + 1) 2 Rω sin ωt −Rω 2 cos ωt sin2 ωt ĵ + 2 2 (cos ωt + 1) î We are able to re-write sin2 (ωt) = (1 − cos (ωt)) (1 + cos (ωt)). This helps us canclle the denominator for the ĵ component. We now simplify at to: 2 Rω ω R at = (− sin ωt cos ωt − sin ωt) + cos ωt sin ωt î 2 2 + Rω −Rω 2 2 sin (ωt) + cos ωt − cos ωt ĵ 2 2 We are now able to see some simple calculations that can greatly simplify our value att . First by setting R = ω = 1 we can combine terms that we couldent have otherwise. First, in the î component we can add the + and - sin ωt cos ωt to cancell them out. In the ĵ component we can use the pythagoriean identity sin2 t + cos2 t = 1 to leave us with just a cos(t) term. Our final tangent vector becomes: at = − sin (t) cos(t) î + ĵ 2 2 Page 3 of 5 Matt Redmond Math 283 - HW 3 Due 10/19 We can now use; ~an = ~at − ~a to obatin the normal vector,an . − sin t sint cos t ~an = ~at − ~a = î + + + cos t ĵ 2 2 2 ~an = sin t 3 cos t î + ĵ 2 2 3 Find the arc length from (x, y) : (0, 2) to (π, 0). Using: Arc Length = R t2 √ ~r0 · ~r0 dt We calculate ~r0 · ~r0 first. t1 ~r0 · ~r0 = R2 ω 2 cos2 ωt + 2ω 2 R2 cos ωt + ω 2 R2 + R2 ω 2 sin ωt = R2 ω 2 + 2ω 2 R2 cos ωt + ω 2 R2 = 2ω 2 R2 (1 + cos ωt) Next, we will use the given information to solve for our bounds, t1 and t2 of our integral. Initially: ~r(t) = 0 = R sin ωt1 + ωRt1 ~r(t) = 2 = R cos ωt1 + R Where R = ω = 1, thus: 0 = sin(t) + t1 → t1 = 0 Solving for t2 we solve: 0 = cos t + 1 cos t = −1 → t2 = π So we know, t1 = 0 and t2 = 1. Plugging all this into our Arc Length equation we obtain: Z πp 2ω 2 R2 (1 + cos ωt) dt 0 √ π Z 2ωR √ 1 + cos t dt 0 We now do a simple u-subsitution to replace t, with 2u, so we can use a trigometric identity. We let 1 u = 2t → 2u = t. Differentiating we get du = dt 2 . However, we do not have a 2 to take out of our current 1 integral, So we put in a 2 and a 2 at the same time, to have the equivelent form of 1. We also must change our bounds on the integral because of our u-subsitution. Thus our upper limit becomes π2 and our lower limit becomes 0. Now our integral is: Z √ = 2 2ωR π 2 √ 1 + cos2u du 0 After this u-sub, not only would my parents be proud, be we can also use a trigometric identity to solve the rest of the integral. We use Page 4 of 5 Matt Redmond Math 283 - HW 3 Due 10/19 2 cos2 (u) = 1 + cos (2u) Our integral now becomes: Z √ 2 2ωR π 2 √ 2 cos2 u du 0 √ √ Z 2 2 2 π 2 cos u du 0 π 4 [sin u]02 = 4 (1 − 0) = 4 Problem 3 Prove for any vector field ~v , ∇ · (∇ × ~v ) = 0 First taking the Curl, we obtain: î ĵ k̂ ∂ ∂ ∂ ∂ ∂ ∂ ∂ = (v ) − (v ) î − (v ) − (v ) ĵ ∇ × ~v = ∂x 3 2 3 1 ∂y ∂z ∂y ∂z ∂x ∂z v1 v2 v3 ∂ ∂ (v2 ) − (v1 ) k̂ ∂x ∂y ∂ ∂v3 ∂v2 ∂v3 ∂v1 ∂ ∂v1 ∂ ∂v2 ∇ · (∇ × ~v ) = − − − î + ĵ + k̂ ∂x ∂y ∂z ∂y ∂z ∂x ∂z ∂x ∂y 2 2 2 ∂ v3 ∂ 2 v3 ∂ 2 v1 ∂ 2 v2 ∂ v1 ∂ v2 = − − − + + ∂x∂y ∂x∂y ∂y∂z ∂z∂y ∂z∂x ∂x∂z + All of which these terms cancell, giving us: 0+0+0=0 Thus validating this statement! Page 5 of 5