Exam 3 Practice
1. (2) Name the cellular location for the processes of glycolysis and the Kreb’s cycle?
2. (4) Explain why 2ATP are used to activate glucose in the first two steps of glycolysis?
3. (3) Circle all of the following products that are produced directly by glycolysis under anaerobic (no
O2) conditions?
A. CO2
B. NADH + H+
C. H2O
D. pyruvic acid
E. ATP
F. FADH2
4. (3) Using your answer(s) from question #3, describe what happens to the products of glycolysis
under aerobic conditions?
5. What waste molecule(s) is/are produced by the transport step of aerobic respiration?
A. CO2
B. NADPH
C. H2O
D. both A and C
6. The beginning step of the Kreb’s cycle is to
A. combine a two carbon acid with oxaloacetic acid.
C. combine phosphate with glucose.
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B. produce ATP.
D. none of the above.
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7. The electron transport system generates ATP by using a ? gradient.
A. oxygen
B. sodium
C. fat
D. hydrogen
8. Under anaerobic conditions, humans remove lactic from muscle and transport it to the
A. heart for processing.
B. kidneys.
C. liver for processing.
D. lungs.
9. (3) Explain the role of oxygen in the electron transport system?
10. (3) Explain the strategy exhibited by yeast at the end of glycolysis under anaerobic conditions?
11. (3) Explain why neutral fats yield more energy release that either carbohydrates or proteins?
12. (3) Explain two reasons why neutral fats or amino acids are not the primary choice for energy
catabolism in humans?
13. (2) Fill-in the blank with the correct process to complete the following phrase: Most of the ATP
produced during aerobic respiration occurs via the
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14. The scientist that outlined the steps of mitosis was
A. C. Darwin.
C. R. Brown.
B. W. Fleming.
D. R. McDonald.
15. (3) Explain the process of binary fission in prokaryotes?
16. (3) Explain the process of fragmentation seen in sea stars as a method of asexual reproduction?
17. Plants reproduce asexually by forming
A. seeds.
C. runners.
B. fissions.
D. flowers.
18. When plants reproduce sexually they practice alternation of generation, which means that for
part of their life cycle they are called a gametophyte and the other part they are called a/an
A. spore.
B. runner.
C. sporophyte.
D. a tootsie roll.
19. In animals a monoecious pair
A. males are born first
C. both organisms look similar.
B. females are born first.
D. only has females.
20. (3) Explain what cells are doing during both the G1 and S portions of the cell cycle?
21. The primary function of histone proteins made during G2 is to
A. complete cytokinesis.
C. condense or pack the DNA.
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B. build spindle fibers.
D. make melodic sounds.
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22. Cancer cells that metastasize spend a reduced amount of time in ? of the cell cycle.
A. mitosis
B. G1
C. G2
D. S
23. The phase of mitosis in which the nuclear membrane is reformed is called
A. prophase.
B. metaphase.
C. anaphase.
D. telophase.
24. The phase of mitosis in which the chromosomal material is lined up across the cell equator is
called
A. prophase.
B. metaphase.
C. anaphase.
D. telophase.
25. The phase of meiosis in which the sister chromatids are separated is called
A. metaphase I.
B. anaphase I.
C. anaphase II.
D. metaphase II.
26. The phase of meiosis in which the homologous pairs are separated is called
A. metaphase I.
B. anaphase I.
C. anaphase II.
D. metaphase II.
27. (3) Explain the process of cytokinesis as seen in animals?
28. (2) Explain two differences between mitosis and meiosis, besides spelling?
29. If non-disjunction of chromosomes occurs during meiosis I, ? gametes are affected.
A. some
B. female
C. two
D. four
30. Most non-disjunction of chromosomes occur because of
A. mutations.
C. chemicals.
B. the age of the cells.
D. light sources.
31. The phase of meiosis when deletions, duplications, inversions, and translocations usually occur is
A. metaphase I.
B. anaphase I.
C. anaphase II.
D. metaphase II.
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32. Mendel’s experimental design was successful because
A. he could control breeding pairs.
C. he had so much time on his hands.
33. Mendel’s experimental design initially involved only ? crosses.
A. di-hybrid
C. di-species
B. pea plants were so simple.
D. he was a good gardener.
B. poly-hybrid
D. mono-hybrid
34. (4) Use a punnet square to show the phenotypic and genotypic ratio of a cross of two monohybrid heterozygote’s?
35. Assuming independent assortment, the number or types of gametes formed from an organism
with a genotype of AaBbCcdd would be
A. eight.
B. twelve.
C. sixteen.
D. twenty-four.
36. When Mendel performed a testcross, he crossed an unknown with a known
A. heterozygous recessive.
B. heterozygous dominant.
C. homozygous recessive.
D. homozygous dominant.
37. (4) Use a punnet square to show the phenotypic and genotypic ratio of a di-hybrid heterozygous
crossed with a di-hybrid homozygous recessive?
38. (3) Explain the difference between a gene and an allele?
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39. One gene causing many effects in the resulting phenotype is called
A. polygenetics.
C. co-dominance.
B. epistasis.
D. pleitrophy.
40. Sexual puberty is a condition of ? in the phenotype
A. penetrance.
C. multiple alleles.
B. epistasis.
D. pleitrophy.
41. What would the outcome be if you crossed a red snapdragon with a white snap dragon if
incomplete dominance was an influence? The F1 offspring would be
A. all white.
B. all red.
C. 1 red : 2 pink : 1 white.
D. all pink.
42. (2) Cite two reasons why the fruit fly, Drosophila melangastor, was a good choice for genetic
studies compared to Mendel’s pea plants?
43. (2) Explain why Thomas Morgan didn’t get always get the same phenotypic ratio’s doing di-hybird
crosses that Mendel calculated?
44. The incidence of hemophilia in humans is an indication of
A. sex-linkage.
C. dumb luck.
B. penetrance.
D. pleitrophy.
45. When performing a karyotyping procedure chromosomes are harvested in ? of mitosis
A. prophase.
B. metaphase.
C. anaphase.
D. pro-metaphase.
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