Class Copy
Cell Structure and Function
1.
Energy conversion within an animal cell would be severely limited by removal of the cell’s a.
b.
mitochondria chloroplasts
STAAR Review 2014
2.
Which of these is a function of the cell membrane in all cells? c.
plastids d.
lysosomes a.
Producing cellular nutrients b.
Preserving cellular wastes c.
d.
Neutralizing chemicals
Maintaining homeostasis
3.
The swordfish has a heat-generating organ that warms its brain and eyes up to 14°C above the surrounding water temperature. What structures are likely to be found in relatively high concentrations in the cells of this organ? a.
Chromosomes c.
Nuclei b.
Mitochondria d.
Ribosomes
4.
Which organelle occurs in plant cells and not in animal cells? a.
cell wall b.
cell membrane
5.
Enzymes speed up a chemical reaction by c.
d.
nucleus mitochondrion a.
lowering the amount of energy it needs to get started. b.
producing complex carbohydrates. c.
changing the shape of the substrate. d.
producing heat.
6.
Which cellular component is found in eukaryotic, but not prokaryotic, cells? a.
genetic material c.
cell membrane b.
ribosomes
7.
Which of the following would you find in a plant cell but not an animal cell? d.
nucleus a.
b.
cell membrane endoplasmic reticulum
8.
Which statement is not part of the cell theory? a.
All living organisms are composed of one or more cells. b.
Cells come only from existing cells. c.
All cells have a nucleus. d.
Cells are the basic units of structure and function in an organism. c.
nucleus d.
chloroplast
9.
Which of the following illustrates the correct sequence of biological organization? a.
organism --> organ system --> organ --> tissue --> cell b.
cell --> tissue --> organ system --> organ --> organism c.
cell --> tissue --> organ --> organ system --> organism d.
tissue --> cell --> organ --> organ system --> organism
10.
The bluebonnet is the state flower of Texas. Which statement about the levels of biological organization in a bluebonnet plant is correct? a.
The bluebonnet is composed of cells and tissues but not organs. b.
The bluebonnet is an organism that shows all levels of biological organization. c.
The bluebonnet has cells that are organized into organs rather than tissues. d.
The bluebonnet is an organism that has the same level of organization as a single-celled organism.
Photosynthesis and Cellular Respiration
11.
Why are photosynthesis and cellular respiration often considered opposites? a.
Photosynthesis produces twice as many ATP molecules as cellular respiration does. b.
Water is released during photosynthesis and consumed during cellular respiration.

Class Copy c.
Photosynthesis occurs during the day, and cellular respiration occurs at night. d.
Oxygen is produced during photosynthesis and used during cellular respiration.
12.
During photosynthesis, the light reactions take place in the a.
stroma. b.
thylakoid. c.
stomata. d.
grana.
13.
The Calvin cycle takes place in the a.
stroma. b.
thylakoid.
14.
Which of the following is a product of glycolysis? a.
glucose b.
lactic acid c.
d.
stomata. grana. c.
pyruvic acid d.
hydrogen
15.
What do both glycolysis and fermentation have in common? a.
They can occur in the absence of oxygen. b.
They produce either lactic acid or ethyl alcohol. c.
They involve a series of reactions that progress in a circular fashion. d.
They combine hydrogen with oxygen to produce water.
16.
Which of the terms below includes all of the others? a.
cellular respiration b.
aerobic respiration c.
d.
glycolysis fermentation
17.
The picture shows the results of a demonstration using the simple water plant Elodea.
When the setup was placed in strong light, a space gradually appeared above the water in the graduated cylinder containing the plant. The gas in the space above the water was mostly a.
oxygen c.
hydrogen b.
carbon dioxide d.
nitrogen
18.
Cacti grow slowly compared to most other plants. The fact that cacti keep their stomata closed for much of the day can help explain this growth characteristic. Which of these best explains the advantage of keeping stomata closed during the day? a.
It limits water loss through transpiration. b.
It conserves oxygen produced in photosynthesis. c.
It recycles carbon dioxide within plant systems. d.
It protects plant tissues from predators.
19.
Which of these characteristics might help a plant species survive in an area with limited sunlight? a.
Bright flowers c.
Short stems b.
Large leaves d.
Thick cuticles
20.
The table shows the number of bubbles released by an elodea plant per minute at different light intensities. The rate of bubble release is representative of the photosynthetic rate. Which statement is supported by these data? a.
The rate of photosynthesis is slowest when elodea produces 7 to 12 bubbles.

Class Copy b.
Lower light intensity causes a higher photosynthetic rate. c.
The greatest difference in photosynthetic rate is between the 75 W and 100 W lightbulbs. d.
Light intensity has little effect on the rate of photosynthesis of elodea.
21.
Which molecule provides most of the energy used to drive chemical reactions in cells? a.
DNA c.
ATP b.
RNA d.
ADP
22.
The diagram below represents a cell organelle involved in the transfer of energy from organic compounds. Arrows in the diagram could represent the release of a.
ATP from a chloroplast carrying out photosynthesis. b.
Oxygen from a mitochondrion carrying out photosynthesis. c.
Glucose from a chloroplast carrying out respiration. d.
Carbon dioxide from a mitochondrion carrying out respiration.
23.
Which hypothesis would most likely be tested using this setup to the right? a.
Light is needed for the process of photosynthesis. b.
Glucose is not synthesized by plants in the dark. c.
Protein synthesis takes place in leaves. d.
Plants need fertilizers for proper growth.
24.
Which of the following is an example of solar energy being converted into chemical energy? a.
Water evaporating and condensing in the water cycle. b.
The sun unevenly heating Earth’s surface. c.
Plants producing sugar during the day. d.
Lava erupting from the volcanoes for many days.
Osmosis/Diffusion
25.
When a sea urchin egg is removed from the ocean and placed in freshwater, the egg swells and bursts. Which of these causes water to enter the egg? a.
Coagulation b.
Sodium pump c.
Active transport d.
Osmosis
26.
The picture below shows a cell model and the solutions associated with it. In this situation the cell model will a.
gain mass b.
shrink c.
increase in solute content d.
start to vibrate
27.
Which of these best explains why a freshwater aquarium would be a dangerous habitat for saltwater fish?

Class Copy a.
The tissues of the saltwater fish would absorb too much acid. b.
The organs of the saltwater fish would produce too much protein. c.
The organ systems of the saltwater fish would consume too much energy. d.
The cells of the saltwater fish would gain too much water.
28.
What is one reason that dehydrated patients are given intravenous (IV) solutions of pure water with a small amount of dissolved salt rather than just pure water? a.
To help prevent cells from shriveling because of the pressure caused by osmosis. b.
So that the pressure caused by osmosis will cause a net movement of salt into cells. c.
So that dissolved substances will be transported across cell membranes and out of cells. d.
To help keep the concentrations of dissolved substances inside and outside the cells equal.
29.
On a hot summer day, a road-crew worker perspires and then feels thirsty as her body temperature increases. This response is an example of a.
Releasing enzymes b.
Decreasing respiration
30.
Which would most likely cause the liquid in Tube A to rise? a.
Starch concentrations being equal on each side of the membrane c.
Assimilating proteins d.
Maintaining homeostasis b.
Water passing from a region of lower starch concentration to one of higher starch concentration c.
Water and starch volumes being the same d.
Solute in the tubes changing from a higher temperature to a lower temperature
31.
The illustration below shows a cell model with starch solutions both inside and outside the cell.
In which of the following situations will the solution rise highest in the tube?
32.
The diagram below shows how a paramecium maintains homeostasis. A paramecium normally lives in a hypotonic environment in which water continually diffuses into the cell. To maintain homeostasis, the paramecium must pump out large amounts of water using its contractile vacuole. If the paramecium is then placed in a hypertonic environment, which of the following will occur? a.
Water will diffuse into the paramecium. b.
Water will diffuse out of the paramecium. c.
Salt will be pumped out of the paramecium by the vacuole. d.
Salt will be pumped into the paramecium by the vacuole.
33.
Facilitated diffusion is a.
the same as endocytosis. b.
a special kind of osmosis. c.
a process that requires the cell’s energy. d.
a type of passive transport.
34.
Which is not an example of active transport? a.
endocytosis

Class Copy b.
plants taking in nutrients from the soil c.
osmosis d.
exocytosis
DNA
35.
A mutation is least likely to affect a cell when the mutation a.
reverses the order of bases in a DNA strand b.
allows the total number of bases in a DNA sequence to remain the same c.
replaces a base with its complementary base d.
produces a triplet that codes for the same amino acid as the original triplet
36.
If the template of a strand of DNA is AGATGCATC , the complementary strand will be a.
TCTACGTAG c.
AGATGCATC b.
CTACGTAGA d.
AGACGTCTA
37.
Mutations in DNA molecules can occur when a.
replication of DNA is exact b.
a DNA enzyme attaches to an RNA codon c.
RNA codons are replaced by DNA nucleotides d.
a change occurs in DNA nucleotide bases
38.
Which of these represents the DNA segment from which this section of mRNA (above) was transcribed? a.
ACTAAG c.
GAAUCU b.
TCUTTG d.
UCCTGA
39.
The assembly of a messenger RNA strand that normally begins with UAC has been changed so that the newly assembled messenger RNA strand begins with UAG. Which of the following will most likely occur? See table above. a.
The protein will be missing the first amino acid. b.
The amino acids that make up the protein will all be different. c.
The mRNA will become attached to a ribosome. d.
The production of the protein will be stopped.
40.
In DNA, which of the following determines the traits of an organism? a.
Amount of adenine b.
Number of sugars c.
Sequence of nitrogen bases d.
Strength of hydrogen bonds
41.
All of the following are found in a DNA molecule except a.
deoxyribose b.
nitrogen
42.
DNA and RNA are composed of units that are made up of a.
two long chains of nucleotides. b.
chains of simple sugars. c.
twisted chains of amino acids. c.
phosphate d.
carbon dioxide

Class Copy d.
three very long carbon-hydrogen chains attached to a glycerol molecule.
43.
What must happen first when DNA replicates? a.
G must pair with C. b.
G must pair with T. c.
G must separate from C. d.
G must separate from T.
44.
Which statement about translation is correct? a.
Amino acids are assembled into a protein on the ribosome. b.
Messenger RNA is made from DNA. c.
Ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA form base pairs. d.
Transfer RNA contains the genetic code copied from DNA.
45.
Assume that the three nucleotides in messenger RNA are UGA. What are the three nucleotides in the transfer RNA that pairs with this messenger RNA? a.
UGA b.
ACT c.
d.
AGU
ACU
46.
Which statement is correct about tRNA? a.
Like DNA, tRNA is a double helix. b.
Base pairs are part of the structure of tRNA. c.
Like mRNA, tRNA is a single strand of nucleotides. d.
The amino acid attaches at the anticodon site.
47.
The DNA sequence TTT codes for the amino acid lysine. The DNA sequence TTC also codes for lysine. What can you conclude from this information? a.
A deletion in the genetic instructions may not be significant. b.
Adding a nucleotide to a genetic sequence of nucleotides has no effect. c.
Any substitution that changes the genetic code affects a trait. d.
This kind of substitution in the genetic code may go unnoticed.
Genetics
48.
Which genotype represents an individual that is heterozygous for two traits? a.
Aa b.
BB c.
AaBB d.
AaBb
49.
According to Mendel’s law of independent assortment, what is one possible combination that can be found in the gamete formed by an individual with the genotpye AaBB? a.
AB c.
Aa b.
Ab d.
BB
50.
Which of the following represents a genetic cross between two individuals that are each heterozygous for only one trait? a.
AaBb x AAbb b.
aabb x AaBB c.
d.
AABb x Aabb aaBb x AaBb
51.
What percentage of the offspring are expected to show the dominant phenotype from the cross Ss x ss? a.
0% c.
50% b.
25% d.
100%
52.
If a child gets a dominant gene from one parent, and a recessive gene from another parent, which gene will express itself? a.
Neither, the genes will blend. b.
The dominant gene. c.
d.
The recessive gene.
Both genes will show.

Class Copy
53.
In the diagram of the cell above, the DNA or genetic material of a cell is found in the a.
Cell membrane. c.
Nuclear membrane. b.
Cytoplasm. d.
Nucleus.
54.
What trait will most likely be observed in all offspring of the below set of parents? a.
Green feathers b.
Yellow feathers c.
Long beak d.
Short beak
55.
The diagram represents the chromosomes of a person with a genetic disorder caused by nondisjunction, in which the chromosomes fail to separate properly. Which chromosome set displays nondisjunction? a.
2 b.
8 c.
21 d.
23
56.
Ultraviolet radiation can cause mutations in the DNA of skin cells that have been overexposed to the sun. This mutated DNA has no effect on future offspring because a.
changes in skin cell DNA are homozygous recessive b.
mutations must occur within the RNA codons c.
offspring reject parental skin cells d.
only changes to gamete DNA can be inherited
57.
A pea plant with the genotype TtWW is crossed with a pea plant with the genotype ttWw. How many different genotypes can be expressed in the offspring? a.
1 b.
2 c.
d.
3
4
58.
Mutations in DNA molecules can occur when a.
replication of DNA is exact b.
a DNA enzyme attaches to an RNA codon c.
RNA codons are replaced by DNA nucleotides d.
a change occurs in DNA nucleotide bases

Class Copy
59.
When a black mouse that is homozygous for coat color (BB) is crossed with a white mouse that is homozygous for coat color
(bb), all of the F1 generation offspring have black coats. What are the expected genotypes and phenotypes of coat color in the F2 generation? a.
All F2 mice have BB genotypes and black phenotypes. b.
All F2 mice have bb genotypes and white phenotypes. c.
The genotypes of the F2 mice are 25% BB, 50% Bb, and 25% bb. The phenotypes are 75% black and 25% white. d.
The genotypes of the F2 mice are 50% BB and 50% bb. The phenotypes are 50% black and 50% white.
60.
An agricultural scientist wants to develop a variety of corn that will mature rapidly and will produce high yields. Which genotypes should the scientist cross to produce the most plants with the desired characteristics? a.
hhmmTtyy × hhMMttyy b.
HHmmttyy × hhMMttyy c.
hhMmttyy × HhmmttYY d.
HHmmttyy × hhMmttYy
61.
If an organism has the genotype RrSsTtUu, what proportion of its gametes will be RSTU? a.
1/2 b.
1/4 c.
1/8 d.
1/16
62.
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder. It results from a mutation in the gene that codes for a protein necessary for muscle strength. A geneticist prepared a pedigree for a family in which the disorder is present in some members.
According to this information, what type of allele is responsible for Duchenne muscular dystrophy? a.
Autosomal recessive b.
Autosomal dominant c.
Sex-linked recessive d.
Sex-lined dominant
Meiosis
63.
Which of the following best describes meiosis? a.
It is carried out in all tissues that require cell replacement. b.
It occurs only in cells in the reproductive structures of the organism. c.
It happens in all tissues except the brain and spinal cord. d.
It is the first stage of mitosis.
64.
The diagram shows homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis. Which of the following correctly describes the process being illustrated? a.
Mutation in which the DNA content of the gene is altered b.
Segregation of sister chromatids c.
Condensation and segregation of alleles d.
Crossing-over in which alleles are exchanged

Class Copy
65.
The diagram below shows a cellular process that occurs in organisms. This process is known as a.
Meiosis. b.
Mitosis. c.
Endocytosis. d.
Phagocytosis.
66.
Mendel hypothesized that reproductive cells have only one factor for each inherited trait. This hypothesis is supported by the observation that a.
haploid cells are produced by mitosis. c.
haploid cells are produced by meiosis. b.
diploid cells are produced by mitosis. d.
diploid cells are produced by meiosis.
67.
Genetic engineering has produced goats whose milk contains proteins that can be used as medicines. This effect was produced by a.
mixing foreign genes into the milk. b.
injecting foreign genes into the goats’ udders. c.
inserting foreign genes into fertilized goat eggs. d.
genetically modifying the nutritional needs of the goats’ offspring.
68.
The cell cycle includes mitosis. What happens during mitosis? a.
Each chromosome makes a copy of itself. b.
The cell cytoplasm divides to produce two cells. c.
The cell prepares to divide. d.
The nucleus divides so that each cell will receive a complete set of genetic information.
69.
During which phase does the nucleus of a cell divide? a.
G
1 b.
S
Evolution
70.
Which of the following helps an organism survive i its environment? a.
competition b.
differential reproduction c.
adaptations d.
overproduction c.
d.
G
2
M
71.
Assume that the environment on one of the Galapagos Islands changes. How might this environmental change affect the finches living there? a.
These finches may start to overproduce. b.
These finches may no longer exhibit inherited variations. c.
These finches may lose their adaptations. d.
These finches may lack the adaptations needed to survive.
72.
Islands are well suited for speciation. Which physical characteristic of islands is the reason for their increased rate of speciation? a.
geographic isolation b.
small size c.
closeness to water d.
closeness to a mainland body
73.
A gene can disappear from a population so that individuals no longer have the trait. Which process is responsible for this? a.
gene flow b.
recombination c.
genetic drift d.
speciation

Class Copy
74.
The table shows an amino acid comparison of cytochrome c, a protein involved in cellular respiration in aerobic organisms.
The two organisms in the table that are least genetically related are the — a.
silkworm moth and the fruit fly b.
silkworm moth and the screwworm fly. c.
fruit fly and the screwworm fly d.
fruit fly and the hornworm moth
75.
The diagram illustrates how some characteristics of the horse have changed over time. Along with the difference in size, what is another anatomical difference between the modern horse and its ancestors? a.
The structure of the tooth has been adapted for eating meat. b.
The size of the molars has decreased. c.
The length of the forefoot has decreased. d.
The number of toes has decreased.
76.
Birds and reptiles are similar in that they are vertebrates and lay eggs. They differ in that reptiles have teeth and birds have beaks. Some birds do possess teeth. However, these teeth are present only in the embryonic stage. Which conclusion is best supported by the presence of teeth in bird embryos? a.
Birds and reptiles share a common ancestor. b.
Modern reptiles are the ancestors of modern birds. c.
Birds and reptiles eat similar types of food. d.
Ancestors of reptiles had beaks similar to those of birds.
77.
Genetic variation can aid in the survival of species when the environment changes. Which of the following is the best example of an organism with a genetic variation that could improve survival chances over time? a.
An ant that is resistant to pesticide b.
A wasp that is infected with parasites c.
A cactus that has no spines

Class Copy d.
A mouse that has learned to avoid mousetraps
78.
The guppy is a species of small freshwater fish. Scientists observed that the average size of guppies in a pond decreased over a few years after a guppy predator was introduced into the pond. Which of the following best explains the change in guppy size? a.
Speciation b.
Convergent evolution c.
Inbreeding d.
Natural selection
79.
Which of these conclusions can be made based on the graphs shown above? a.
Larger mosquitoes have migrated into the area. b.
Smaller mosquitoes are being eaten by larger mosquitoes. c.
A mosquito length of 2 cm has become a disadvantage in this environment. d.
Mosquitoes with a body length of 3 cm have the longest life span.
80.
Which of the following explains this phenomenon to the right? a.
Competition b.
Extinction c.
Predation d.
Speciation

A gray whale develops in its mother’s uterus for about a year.

The whale calf has hair on its face when it is born.
 As the calf grows, the hair is lost, and barnacles attach themselves to its skin.
81.
Which statement is best supported by the information above? a.
Barnacles develop within the whale uterus. b.
Whales descended from ancestors with hair. c.
Fluid inside the uterus is colder than seawater. d.
Adult whales will possess more hair in the future.
82.
A plant has a change in its DNA that makes it more resistant to a species of harmful bacteria. What will most likely happen as a result of this mutation? a.
The plant will not survive long enough to reproduce. b.
The species of harmful bacteria will become extinct. c.
Over time the number of resistant plants will increase. d.
Over time the number of harmful bacteria will increase.

Class Copy
83.
Which statement about the evolutionary history of jawed fishes is supported by the diagram below? a.
Jawless fishes became extinct after jawed fishes evolved. b.
The first amphibians were direct descendants of lungfish. c.
Ray-finned and lobe-finned fishes have a common ancestor. d.
Sturgeons are more closely related to sharks than to coelacanths.
84.
In comparisons of the evolutionary relationships between four species of birds, which of the following would be most useful? a.
color of feathers b.
gene sequences c.
nesting behaviors d.
patterns of migration
Classification/Taxonomy
85.
An organism is unicellular, contains organelles, and can produce its own nutrients to use as an energy source. Into which kingdom should you place this organism? a.
Plantae b.
Animalia c.
Protista d.
Fungi
86.
An organism is unicellular. Which statement about this organism is correct? a.
This organism may be found in any of the three domains. b.
This organism must be classified in either the Archaea or Bacteria domain. c.
This organism can belong to any of the kingdoms in the domain Eukarya. d.
This organism must be classified as a prokaryote.
87.
The Texas longhorn cattle have the scientific name Bos bos. What can you conclude from this fact? a.
The term longhorn cattle can also be considered its scientific name. b.
The seven-level classification system does not apply to these cattle. c.
The genus and species names are the same. d.
Organisms with this scientific name are found only in Texas.
88.
A laboratory investigation included examining prepared slides of pond water. Single-celled organisms with a nucleus and either cilia or flagella were visible. These organisms probably belong to the kingdom a.
Animalia c.
Plantae b.
Fungi d.
Protista
89.
Multicellular eukaryotes that are usually mobile and obtain food from other organisms probably belong to the kingdom a.
Plantae c.
Animalia b.
Fungi d.
Protista
90.
Which of these classifications is most specific? a.
Family b.
Genus c.
d.
Phylum
Order
91.
The kingdom Animalia includes all of these except a.
jellyfish b.
sponges c.
d.
amoebas roundworms

Class Copy
92.
Which kingdom does this organism belong to? a.
Fungi b.
Archaebacteria c.
Plantae d.
Animalia
93.
This organism to the right most likely is a member of which kingdom? a.
Eubacteria b.
Protista c.
Animalia d.
Plantae
94.
The cell below most likely belongs to an organism of the kingdom a.
Animalia b.
Plantae c.
Fungi d.
Eubacteria
95.
The bullfrog, Rana catesbeiana, is most closely related to the a.
spotted chorus frog, Pseudacris clarki b.
Asian flying frog, Polypedates leucomystax c.
northern leopard frog, Rana pipiens d.
African bullfrog, Pyxicephalus adspersus
96.
Which two kingdoms have members that are photosynthetic? a.
Eubacteria and Fungi b.
Protista and Animalia c.
Plantae and Protista d.
Animalia and Fungi
97.
Dogs (Canis familiaris) are most closely related genetically to which of the following organisms? a.
African hunting dog (Lycaon pictus) c.
Grizzly bear (Ursus arctos) b.
Gray wolf (Canis lupus) d.
Domestic cat (Felis catus)
98.
Which is a characteristic of members of the plant kingdom that distinguishes them from members of the animal kingdom? a.
Storage of energy in chemical bonds d.
Use of chlorophyll for solar-energy b.
Exchange of H2O with the environment c.
Use of mRNA during protein production transformation
Viruses and Bacteria
99.
Most viruses infect a specific kind of cell. Which of the following are infected by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? a.
Helper T cells c.
GABA-receptor cells b.
Liver cells d.
Red blood cells
100.
Viruses differ from bacteria in that all viruses

Class Copy a.
cause insect-borne diseases b.
can be destroyed by antibiotics c.
have rigid cell walls d.
must be reproduced in living cells
101.
One characteristic shared by a virus and a living cell is that both a.
store genetic information in nucleic acids b.
have a crystalline structure c.
gain energy directly from the sun d.
use glucose for respiration
102.
Which of the following explains why antibiotics can treat flu-like symptoms caused by bacteria but are ineffective against flu? a.
Flu is a response to an antigen. c.
Antibiotics strengthen antibodies. b.
Antibiotics require time to work. d.
Flu is caused by a virus.
103.
What is the most common threat to a host organism posed by an invading virus? a.
Production of viral fluids in the bloodstream b.
Fermentation of acids in the digestive system c.
Destruction of cells by viral reproduction d.
Stimulation of muscle tone in the heart
104.
Viruses can be transmitted in a variety of ways. The virus that causes SARS (severe acute respiratory syndrome) can be transmitted when an infected person coughs or sneezes. This virus is transmitted in a manner most similar to the transmission of a.
smallpox b.
AIDS c.
West Nile Virus d.
Influenza
105.
Some bacteria benefit mammals by helping with a.
growth b.
defense c.
digestion d.
respiration
106.
Some antibiotics cause patients to exhibit digestive side effects. These side effects are most often the result of a.
bacteria being killed in the digestive tract b.
the antibiotics being converted into stomach acids c.
too much water being drawn into the digestive tract d.
the stomach wall being torn
107.
All of the following symptoms are likely associated with bacterial infection except a.
b.
108.
Which of these conditions is caused by bacteria? a.
AIDS b.
skin rashes or lesions elevated body temperature
Seasonal allergies c.
swollen glands or tissues d.
increased red blood cell count c.
Dental cavities d.
Colds
109.
Many species of bacteria can be found in the human mouth. Which of these explains the great variety of bacteria in the mouth? a.
Large volumes of air cause bacteria to change form. b.
Salivary glands cause mutations in bacterial populations. c.
The presence of nutrients makes the mouth a favorable habitat. d.
Calcium in the teeth provides a suitable pH environment.
110.
Which of the following happens as part of both the lytic cycle and the lysogenic cycle? a.
New viruses are made. b.
The host cell dies. c.
The entire virus infects the cell.

Class Copy d.
The virus injects its nucleic acid into the host cell.
Ecology
111.
A lichen is composed of two organisms, a fungus and a cyanobacterium. The fungus provides a growing surface, moisture, and nutrients to the cyanobacterium. The cyanobacterium provides food to the fungus. This relationship is considered to be an example of which of the following? a.
Commensalism c.
Neutralism b.
Mutualism d.
Parasitism
112.
Beechdrops (Epifagus virginiana) are leafless plants that lack chlorophyll. Beechdrops get their nourishment from the roots of beech trees, which reduces the amount of nutrients available to the trees themselves. This interaction is best described as a.
predatory b.
parasitic c.
commensalistic d.
mutualistic
113.
Which of the following is most likely to cause increases in a predator population? a.
Fewer prey c.
More parasites b.
A reduction in competition d.
A period of drought
114.
According to this food web, which of these is an omnivore? a.
Caterpillar b.
Mouse c.
Ant d.
Fly larva
115.
The difference in the size of each layer of this food pyramid is primarily the result of the difference in a.
food choices of individual niches b.
oceanic zones of habitat c.
the amount of food energy at each trophic level d.
the relative heights of the organisms
116.
About 10% of the energy at one trophic level is passed to the next level.
What usually happens to the energy that is not passed to the next trophic level or used to carry out life processes? a.
It is given off as heat. b.
c.
It is stored as vitamins.
It is used in reproduction. d.
It is used for more energy.
117.
Approximately how much of the energy available in the tissues of the producer is eventually incorporated into the tissues of a secondary consumer? a.
Less than 1% b.
Between 20% and 30% c.
Approximately 50% d.
More than 50%

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118.
In this food pyramid, which level contains the greatest amount of energy? a.
Tertiary consumers b.
Secondary consumers c.
Primary consumers d.
Producers
119.
A scientist is studying an ecosystem. Which of the following would this scientist not be investigating? a.
how temperature affects the organism b.
how traits serve as adaptations c.
how variations are inherited d.
how biotic and abiotic factors interact
120.
Some populations have not been able to survive in their ecosystems. What did these populations lack? a.
large enough ecosystem b.
habitats in the ecosystem c.
biotic factors d.
adaptations for the ecosystem
121.
Lichens are among the first organisms to appear in a primary succession. These organisms live on rocks where they produce acids. How do these acids helps the primary succession that occurs? a.
These acids cause the lichens to get larger. b.
These acids kill the lichens. c.
These acids change the environment. d.
These acids are used by the stable community.
122.
Succession can lead to the regrowth of a forest. Which statement concerning the diversity of life during succession is correct? a.
Biodiversity can only be seen in a stable community. b.
Biodiversity remains unchanged as succession proceeds. c.
Biodiversity is greatest in the pioneer community. d.
Biodiversity is greatest in a stable community.
123.
Succession involves one community replacing another. What must be true of each community that appears? a.
The populations are adapted to their environment. b.
The populations get larger as the next community is established. c.
The populations contain very simple life forms. d.
The populations move to a different area to reestablish themselves.
124.
In a coral reef, the coral organisms provide a shelter for algae. The algae carry out photosynthesis and therefore provide food for the coral organisms. This symbiotic relationship is an example of a.
predation. b.
parasitism. c.
mutualism. d.
commensalism.
125.
A female wasp may lay eggs on a caterpillar. When these eggs hatch, the young wasps will eat the caterpillar. This symbiotic relationship is an example of a.
predation. c.
mutualism. b.
parasitism. d.
commensalism.

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126.
The remora fish can attach itself to the bottom of a shark for a “free ride.” As the shark swims, the remora feeds on food particles left by the shark. The shark continues to swim unaware of its guest. This symbiotic relationship is an example of a.
predation. b.
parasitism. c.
d.
mutualism. commensalism.
127.
Energy flows through all ecosystems. Which of the following shows what happens to the amount of this energy as it flows through an ecosystem? a.
ecological pyramid c.
food web b.
food chain d.
trophic level
128.
Deer eat vegetation. Coyotes eat deer. What role does the coyote play in this food chain? a.
producer c.
carnivore b.
herbivore d.
omnivore
129.
An ecological pyramid is sometimes referred to as a pyramid of numbers. Which level in a pyramid of numbers would contain the fewest organisms? a.
producers b.
primary consumers c.
d.
secondary consumers tertiary consumers
130.
Lightning can change nitrogen gas into a form that plants can use. What other natural process also performs this same function? a.
nitrogen fixation b.
combustion c.
d.
decomposition carbon cycle
131.
Certain organisms play a role that is important in the nitrogen cycle but that is not part of the carbon cycle. Which organisms perform this role? a.
bacteria c.
animals d.
trees b.
fungi
Body Systems
132.
In which part of the digestive system are nutrients absorbed? a.
mouth b.
stomach c.
d.
small intestine large intestine
133.
Both the stomach and small intestine secrete large amounts of water to aid in digestion. What happens to this water? a.
Microorganisms in the large intestine use all this water. b.
Most of this water is eliminated from the body. c.
This water is changed into nutrients that are absorbed. d.
Most of this water is reabsorbed in the large intestine.
134.
The vascular tissue of a plant transports various substances. Which substance would be transported by the phloem but not by the xylem? a.
sugars c.
potassium b.
iron d.
water
135.
Plants respond to their environment. Such responses are known as tropisms. Which of the following is not an example of a tropism? a.
plant coiling around an object that it touches b.
plant losing its leaves when the temperature drops c.
plant closing its leaves when touched d.
plant using sunlight to produce food
136.
In the process of deamination, the liver converts amino acids to compounds that can be used in energy metabolism. The liver removes the amino groups from amino acids to produce urea. Then the urea is removed from the body as urine. During this process, the liver works in conjunction with which body system? a.
Endocrine b.
Excretory c.
Nervous d.
Respiratory

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137.
The diagram shows part of one of the many feedback loops required to maintain homeostasis in the human body.
This diagram suggests that which of the following could cause a low red-blood cell count? a.
The growth of new bone tissue b.
Chronic kidney disease c.
Decreased levels of metabolic waste d.
An increased breathing rate
138.
Which system of the body would be directly affected if a large number of T cells were attacked by a virus? a.
Cardiovascular system c.
Endocrine system b.
Immune system d.
Respiratory system
139.
Which of these statements describes one possible interaction between the endocrine and respiratory systems? a.
The heart is composed of muscle tissue. c.
The rib cage expands to move air into the b.
Hormones can trigger asthma attacks. lungs. d.
Blood cells can attack pathogens.
Nature of Science
140.
Use of a scientific method can lead to a hypothesis and even a theory. A theory is different from a hypothesis because a theory a.
is not based on natural phenomenon. b.
is not subject to change. c.
combines many observations and related facts. d.
does not attempt to explain the natural world.
141.
In the late 1700s, the French Academy of Sciences established the SI system that today is used worldwide. Which of the following measurements includes one of the SI units? a.
318 mL b.
318 cm 3 c.
318 o C d.
318 kilograms
142.
Your science teacher reminds the class to include quantitative data in their lab reports. Which of the following should you include? a.
The temperature of the water went from 20 o C to 42 o C. b.
A gas was produced when the solid was dissolved in the water. c.
The addition of the solid caused the water in the beaker to get hot. d.
Water can be broken down into hydrogen gas and oxygen gas as seen in the equation 2H
2
O --> 2H
2
+ O
2
.
143.
Temperature measurements can be made using different units. Which unit will you most likely use in the laboratory? a. Kelvin b. degree Fahrenheit c. degree Celsius d. degree absolute zero