OCET-2012 Question Booklet Series : A Sr. No. : Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet. Roll No. Answer Sheet Serial No. Signature of the Candidate : Subject : M.E. (Computer Science and Engineering/Information Technology) Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75 DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO INSTRUCTIONS 1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and nowhere else. 2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel pen. 3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet. 4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so. 5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test. 6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen. 7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases. 8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the Question Booklet. 9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble. 10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed. 11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be used. 12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. 13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty. 14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from the examination. 15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent / Observer whose decision shall be final. 16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed. M.E.(Comp. Sc. and Engg./Inf. Tech.)FRH-41350-A 2 M.E.(Comp. Sc. and Engg./Inf. Tech.)FRH-41350-A 3 [Turn over M.E.(Computer Science and Engineering / Information Technology)/A 1. To implement Dijkastra's shortest path algorithm on unweighted graphs so that it runs in linear time, the data structure to be used is : (A) Queue (B) Stack (C) Heap (D) B-Tree 2. The following numbers are inserted into an empty binary search tree in the given order : 10, 1, 3, 5, 15, 12, 16. What is the height of the binary search tree (the height is the maximum distance of a leaf node from the root) ? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6 3. How many distinct binary search trees can be created out of 4 distinct keys ? (A) 5 (B) 14 (C) 24 (D) 42 4. A Priority-Queue is implemented as a Max-Heap. Initially, it has 5 elements. The levelorder traversal of the heap is given below : 10, 8, 5, 3, 2. Two new elements 1 and 7 are inserted in the heap in that order. The level-order traversal of the heap after the insertion of the elements is : (A) 10,8,7,5,3,2,1, (B) 10,8,7,2,3,1,5 (C) 10,8,7,1,2,3,5 (D) 10,8,7,3,2,1,5 5. Give a 16 bit value 1001101011001101. What operation must be applied in order to complement middle 8 bits ? (A) XOR 0000111111110000 (B) AND 1111000000001111 (C) OR 1111101010101111 (D) None of these 6. Number of swaps required to sort n elements using selection sort in the worst case : (A) (n2) (B) (n log n) (C) (n) (D) (n2 log n) 7. Suppose an unpipelined processor with 25ns cycle time is divided into 5 pipeline stages with latencies of 5,7,3,6 and 4 ns. If pipeline latch latency is 1 ns, what is cycle time of resulting processor ? (A) 8 ns (B) 9 ns (C) 10 ns (D) 12 ns M.E.(Comp. Sc. and Engg./Inf. Tech.)FRH-41350-A 4 8. Consider the following C function : int f(int n) { static int i = 1; if (n > = 5) return n; n = n + i; i ++; return f(n); } The value returned by f(1) is (A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8 9. If the following program is executed and user entered number 4 as input, then output is : #include <stdio.h> void main( ) { int a, b = 8 ; scanf("%d", & a); if (a = 0) b*=2; else b/=2; printf("%d",b++); } (A) 16 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) 5 10. If in a program it is required that a local variable must retain its value during various function calls to it, its storage must be : (A) Static (B) Register (C) Auto (D) Extern 11. The output of the following program will be : #include<stdio.h> void main ( ) { char *ptr;ptr="OCET";putchar(*ptr);} (A) T (B) O (C) OCET (D) Syntax error M.E.(Comp. Sc. and Engg./Inf. Tech.)FRH-41350-A 5 [Turn over 12. Consider the following C program : main ( ) { int x, y, m, n ; scanf ("%d %d", &x, &y); / * Assume x > 0 and y > 0* / m = x; n = y ; while (m ! = n) { if (m >n) m = m — n; else n = n - m ; } printf("%d",n); } The program computes (A) x + y, using repeated subtraction (B) x mod y using repeated subtraction (C) the greatest common divisor of x and y (D) the least common multiple of x and y 13. A computer has 32 bit instructions and 12 bit address. If there are 250 two address instructions how many maximum one address instructions can be formulated ? (A) 26576 (B) 27456 (C) 24576 (D) 25476 14. Booth's coding in 8 bits for (-57)10 is : (A) 0-100+1000 (B) 0-100+100-1 (C) 0-1+100-10+1 (D) 00-10+100-1 15. If (73)x (in base-x number system) is equal to (54)y (in base-y number system), the possible values of x and y are : (A) 8,16 (B) 10,12 (C) 9,13 (D) 8,11 16. A machine stores floating point numbers in 7-bit word. The first bit is stored for sign of the number, the next three for the biased exponent and the next three for the magnitude of the mantissa. In order to represent 35.35 in the above representation, the error would be : (A) underflow (B) overflow (C) NaN (D) No error will be registered M.E.(Comp. Sc. and Engg./Inf. Tech.)FRH-41350-A 6 17. The probability that two friends share the same birth month is : (A) 1/6 (B) 1/12 (C) 1/144 (D) 1/24 18. Suppose A is a finite set with n elements. The number of elements in the largest equivalence relation of A is : (A) 1 (B) n (C) n + 1 (D) n2 19. The number of distinct relations on a set of 3 elements is : (A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 18 (D) 512 20. In a population of N families, 50% of the families have three children, 30% of the families have two children and the remaining families have one child. What is the probability that a randomly picked child belongs to a family with two children ? (A) 3/23 (B) 6/23 (C) 3/10 (D) 3/5 21. Two 16:1 and one 2:1 multiplexers can be connected to form a : (A) 8:1 multiplexer (B) 16:1 multiplexer (C) 32:1 multiplexer (D) 64:1 multiplexer 22. If P1 is NP complete and there is polynomial time reduction of P1 to P2, then P2 is : (A) NP complete (B) Not necessarily NP complete (C) Can not be NP complete (D) None of these 23. A PDM behaves like a TM when the number of auxiliary memory it has, is : (A) 0 (B) 1 or more (C) 2 or more (D) None of the above 24. A grammar that is both left and right recursive for a non-terminal, is : (A) Ambiguous (B) Unambiguous (C) Information is not sufficient to decide whether it is ambiguous or not (D) None of the above 25. Which one of the following regular expressions is NOT equivalent to the regular expression (a + b + c)* ? (A) (a* + b* + c*)* (B) (a* b* c*)* (C) ((ab)* + c*)* (D) (a*b* + c*)* M.E.(Comp. Sc. and Engg./Inf. Tech.)FRH-41350-A 7 [Turn over 26. A subnet has been assigned a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. What is the maximum number of hosts that can belong to this subnet ? (A) 14 (B) 30 (C) 62 (D) 126 27. The address resolution protocol (ARP) is used for : (A) Finding the IP address from the DNS (B) Finding the IP address of the default gateway (C) Finding the IP address that corresponds to a MAC address (D) Finding the MAC address that corresponds to an IP address 28. One of the header fields in an IP datagram is the time to live(TTL) field. Which of the following best explains the need for the field ? (A) It can be used to prioritize the packets (B) It can be used to reduce delays (C) It can be used to optimize throughput (D) It can be used to prevent packet looping 29. Suppose the round trip propagation delay for a 10 Mbps Ethernet having 48-bit jamming signal is 46.4 ms. The minimum frame size is : (A) 94 (B) 416 (C) 464 (D) 512 30. In a network of LANs connected by bridges, packets are sent from one LAN to another through intermediate bridges. Since more than one path may exist between two LANs, packets may have to be routed through multiple bridges. Why is the spanning tree algorithm used for bridge-routing ? (A) For shortest path routing between LANs (B) For avoiding loops in the routing paths (C) For fault tolerance (D) For minimizing collisions 31. Which one of the following statements is FALSE ? (A) Any relation with two attributes is in BCNF (B) A relation in which every key has only one attribute is in 2NF (C) A prime attribute can be transitively dependent on a key in a 3NF relation (D) A prime attribute can be transitively dependent on a key in a BCNF relation 32. Assume transaction A holds a shared lock R. If transaction B also requests for a shared lock on R, it will : (A) result in a deadlock situation (B) immediately be granted (C) immediately be rejected (D) be granted as soon as it is released M.E.(Comp. Sc. and Engg./Inf. Tech.)FRH-41350-A 8 33. The fourth normal form (4NF) is concerned with dependencies between the elements of compound keys composed of : (A) one attribute (B) two attributes (C) three or more attributes (D) any number of attributes 34. If a table has Functional dependency from A to B and A is not the candidate key, then which of the following is true ? (A) Table is not in 2NF (B) Table involves some redundancy (C) Data is not correct (D) None of the above 35. Let E1 and E2 be the two entities in an ER diagram with simple single valued attributes. R1 and R2 are the relationships between E1 and E2, where R1 is one-to-many and R2 is many-to-many. R1 and R2 do not have any attributes of their own. What is the maximum number of tables required to represent this situation in the relational model ? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 36. Consider the following where clause WHERE A.no=B.no(+) The above outer join lists : (A) All matching & non-matching rows of table B (B) All matching & non-matching rows of table A (C) All non-matching rows of table B (D) All non-matching rows of table A 37. After executing an UPDATE statement, the developer codes a PL/SQL block to perform an operation based on SQL%ROWCOUNT. What data is returned by the SQL%ROWCOUNT operation ? (A) A numeric value representing the number of rows updated (B) A Boolean value representing the success or failure of the update (C) A VARCHAR2 value identifying the name of the table updated (D) A LONG value containing all data from the table 38. Which of the following concurrency control protocols ensure both conflict serializability and freedom from deadlock ? (i) 2-phase locking (ii) Time Stamp ordering (A) (i) only (B) (ii) only (C) both (i) and (ii) (D) neither (i) nor (ii) M.E.(Comp. Sc. and Engg./Inf. Tech.)FRH-41350-A 9 [Turn over 39. The physical location of a record is determined by a mathematical formula that transforms a file key into a record location is : (A) a B-tree file (B) an indexed file (C) a hashed file (D) A sequential file 40. Which of the following is true concerning open-source DBMS ? (A) Is not competitive against PC-oriented packages and is fully SQL compliant (B) Is competitive against PC-oriented packages and is not fully SQL compliant (C) Is free or nearly free database software whose source code is not publicly available (D) Is free or nearly free database software whose source code is publicly available 41. Which of the following types of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of total maintenance effort in typical commercial application ? (A) Adaptive maintenance (B) Corrective maintenance (C) Preventive maintenance (D) Perfective maintenance 42. What is the output of the following program : #include<stdio.h> main( ) { enum status {low, medium, high}; enum status rain; rain = 1 ; if(rain = = low) printf("Rain =%d", rain); } (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) No output (D) Error 43. What is the availability of a software with the following reliability figures ? Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF) = 25 days, Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) = 6 hours : (A) 1% (B) 24% (C) 99% (D) 99.009% 44. Which of the following statements are valid in C, if p is a pointer ? (A) p = &x (B) &x++ (C) &x=&y (D) &x-45. An abstract data type is : (A) Same as abstract class (B) A data type which can not be instantiated (C) A data type for which only the operations defined on it can be used but none else (D) All of the above M.E.(Comp. Sc. and Engg./Inf. Tech.)FRH-41350-A 10 46. C++ encourages structuring a software as a collection of components that are : (A) Highly cohesive and loosely coupled (B) Not highly cohesive but loosely coupled (C) Highly cohesive and tightly coupled (D) Not highly cohesive but tightly coupled 47. Disk scheduling is used to decide : (A) Which disk should be accessed next (B) The order in which disk access requests must be serviced (C) The physical location where files should be accessed in the disk (D) None of these 48. A system has 6 tape drives, with N processes competing for them. Each process may need 3 tape drives. The maximum value of N for which the system is guaranteed to be deadlock free is : (A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) None of the above 49. The size of the decoder to select all memory devices of capacity 256 × 4 each to make a memory of 4K × 8-bit memory is : (A) 3:8 (B) 4:16 (C) 5:32 (D) None of the above 50. Which of the following keyword is used to achieve run time polymorphism ? (A) const (B) explicit (C) mutable (D) virtual 51. Which one of these will be handled at the HIGHEST priority ? (A) Interrupt from Hard Disk (B) Interrupt from Mouse (C) Interrupt from Keyboard (D) Interrupt from CPU temperature sensor 52. Which languages need heap allocation in the run-time environment ? (A) Those that support recursion (B) Those that use dynamic scoping (C) Those that allow dynamic data structures (D) Those that use global variables 53. HTML has language elements which permit certain actions other than describing the structure of the web document. Which one of the following actions is NOT supported by pure HTML (without any server or client side scripting) pages ? (A) Embedding web objects from different sites into the same page (B) Refresh the page automatically after a specified interval (C) Automatically redirect to another page upon download (D) Display the client time as part of the page M.E.(Comp. Sc. and Engg./Inf. Tech.)FRH-41350-A 11 [Turn over 54. How much time would it take to transmit a 1024*1024 image with 256 gray levels using a 56K baud modem ? Transmission is accomplished in packets consisting of a start bit, a byte (8 bits) of information, and a stop bit : (A) 157.25 sec (B) 167.25 sec (C) 177.25 sec (D) 187.25 sec 55. A pure ALOHA network transmits 200 bit frames on a shared channel of 200 kbps. What is throughput of a system (all stations together) produces 250 frames per second ? (A) 80% (B) 70.4% (C) 15.2% (D) 8.4% 56. Which one of the following is NOT shared by the threads of the same process ? (A) Stack (B) Address Space (C) File Descriptor Table (D) Message Queue 57. A software organization has been assessed at SEI CMM Level 4. Which of the following does the organization need to practice beside Process Change Management and Technology Change Management in order to achieve Level 5 ? (A) Defect Detection (B) Defect Prevention (C) Defect Isolation (D) Defect Propagation 58. Suppose that two parties A and B wish to setup a common secret key (D-H key) between themselves using the Diffle-Hellman key exchange technique. They agree on 7 as the modulus and 3 as the primitive root. Party A chooses 2 and party B chooses 5 as their respective secrets. Their D-H key is : (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6 59. Consider the following message M = 1010001101. The cyclic redundancy check (CRC) for this message using the divisor polynomial x5 + x4 +x2 + 1 is : (A) 01110 (B) 01011 (C) 10101 (D) 10110 60. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding a bridge ? (A) Bridge is a layer 2 device (B) Bridge reduces collision domain (C) Bridge is used to connect two or more LAN segments (D) Bridge reduces broadcast domain M.E.(Comp. Sc. and Engg./Inf. Tech.)FRH-41350-A 12 61. A host is transmitting a video over the network. How does the transport layer allow this host to use multiple applications to transmit other data at the same time as the video transmission ? (A) It uses error control mechanisms (B) It uses a connectionless protocol only for multiple simultaneous transmissions (C) It uses multiple Layer 2 source addresses (D) It uses multiple port numbers 62. Which of the following statements is TRUE about CSMA/CD ? (A) IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN runs CSMA/CD protocol (B) Ethernet is not based on CSMA/CD protocol (C) CSMA/CD is not suitable for a high propagation delay network like satellite network (D) There is no contention in a CSMA/CD network 63. A system uses FIFO policy for page replacement. It has 4 page frames with no pages loaded to begin with. The system first accesses 100 distinct pages in some order and then accesses the same 100 pages but now in the reverse order. How many page faults will occur ? (A) 196 (B) 192 (C) 197 (D) 195 64. Which of the following is the programmable internal timer ? (A) 8250 (B) 8251 (C) 8253 (D) 8275 65. The clock interrupt handle on computer requires 2 msec per clock tick. The clock runs at 60hz. What percent of CPU time is devoted to the clock ? (A) 1.2 (B) 7.5 (C) 12 (D) 18.5 66. Memory access in RISC architecture is limited to instructions : (A) CALL and RET (B) PUSH and POP (C) STA and LDA (D) MOV and JMP 67. When a subroutine is called, the address of the instruction following the CALL instructions stored in/on the : (A) stack pointer (B) accumulator (C) program counter (D) stack 68. The main memory of a computer has 2m blocks while the cache has 2c blocks. If the cache uses set associative mapping scheme with two blocks per set, then block k of the main memory maps to the set : (A) (k mod m) of cache (B) (k mode c) of cache (C) (k mod 2c) of cache (D) (k mod 2m) of cache M.E.(Comp. Sc. and Engg./Inf. Tech.)FRH-41350-A 13 [Turn over 69. Registers which are partially visible to users and used to hold conditional codes are known as : (A) PC (B) Memory address registers (C) General purpose registers (D) Flags 70. The access time of a cache memory is 100 ns and that of main memory is 1000 ns. It is estimated that 80% of memory requests are for read and remaining 20% are for write. The hit ratio for read access only is 0.9 and write through procedure is used. What is average access time of the system considering only memory read cycles ? (A) 200 ns (B) 300 ns (C) 720 ns (D) 800 ns 71. Pixel phasing is a technique for : (A) Shading (B) Hidden line removal (C) Circle drawing (D) Anti-aliasing 72. Which of the following graphical transformations are non-commutative ? (A) Linear followed by scaling (B) Linear followed by rotation (C) Scaling followed by rotation (D) None of the above 73. What will be the output of following program ? #include <stdio.h> void main( ) { unsigned int a = 8; ~a; printf("%u", a); } (A) –8 (B) 0 (C) 8 (D) None of the above 74. Consider a machine with 64 MB physical memory and a 32-bit virtual address space. If the page size is 4KB, what is the approximate size of the page table ? (A) 16 MB (B) 8 MB (C) 2 MB (D) 24 MB 75. Increasing the RAM of a computer typically improves performance because : (A) Virtual memory increases (B) Larger RAMs are faster (C) Fewer page faults occur (D) Fewer segmentation fault occur