OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A
Sr. No. :
Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on
the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet.
Roll No.
Answer Sheet Serial No.
Signature of the Candidate :
Subject : M. Sc. (Hons. School)- Microbiology
Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space
provided and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the
corresponding bubble with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform
the Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each
question, darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on
the Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank
in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given
in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be
deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other
material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked “Rough Work” at the end of the Question Booklet be
used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the
instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to
the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant
Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/ noted from
this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so would be expelled
from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession
of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other
unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.
M. Sc. (Hons. School)-Microbiology-A/FRH-41375 2
M. Sc. (Hons. School)-Microbiology-A/FRH-41375 3 [Turn over
M. Sc. (Hons. School)-Microbiology/A
1. The main feature of prokaryotic organism is :
(A) Absence of locomotion (B) Absence of nuclear envelope
(C) Absence of nuclear material (D) Absence of protein synthesis
2. Meosomes are also known as :
(A) Mitochondria (B) Endoplasmic reticulum
(C) Plasmids (D) Chondroids
3. Which one of the following does not affect immunogenicity of a substance ?
(A) Making a molecule more foreign
(B) Making a molecule larger
(C) Altering dose of the molecule
(D) Increasing chemical complexity by adding amino acids
4. Electron microscope gives magnification upto :
(A) 100 × (B) 2000 ×
(C) 50,000 × (D) 2,00,000 ×
5. Mountax reaction is used for detection of :
(A) Tuberculosis (B) Diphtheria
(C) Cholera (D) Gas gangrene
6. N. gonorrhoeae cannot produce :
(A) Conjunctivitis (B) Pelvic inflammatory disease
(C) Primary sterility (D) Non specific urethritis
7. Which of the following is not applicable to Streptococcus pneumoniae ?
(A) Can grow in presence of bile
(B) They are sensitive to Optochin
(C) Grow best in presence of 5-10% carbon dioxide
(D) Are one of the common causative agents of meningitis
8. Toxic shock syndrome is usually caused by :
(A) C. diphtheria (B) Cl. botulinum
(C) Ps. aeruginosa (D) Staph. aureus
M. Sc. (Hons. School)-Microbiology-A/FRH-41375 4
9. Import of Vitamin B12 into gram negative bacterial cells is facilitated by special class of
proteins in the outermembrane known as :
(A) Integrins (B) Adhesins
(C) Tubulins (D) Porins
10. Which of the following is incorrect ?
(A) Y. pestis mainly owes its virulence to the capsular antigen
(B) Y. pestis is motile at 18-22OC
(C) Y. pestis can grow on ManConkey's agar
(D) Y. pestis form chains in broth culture
11. Which of the following is an example of live vaccine ?
(A) TAB vaccine (B) Pertussis vaccine
(C) Meningococcal vaccine (D) BCG vaccine
12. Which of the following is not true of Bacteroides fragilis ?
(A) Is the most commonly encountered anaerobe in human clinical infections
(B) Produces brick red fluorescence when exposed to ultra violet light
(C) Produce -Lactamase enzyme
(D) Is non haemolytic on sheep blood agar
13. All of the following toxins and enzymes are produced by Streptococcus pyogenes except:
(A) Streptolysin–O (B) Erythrogenic toxin
(C) Enterotoxin (D) Deoxyribonuclease-B
14. The first physician to make practical application of the germ theory of disease to
surgery
was :
(A) Louis Pasteur (B) Robert Koch
(C) Joseph Lister (D) Edward Jenner
15. All of the following statements are true about pneumococci except :
(A) Pneumococci cause lobar pneumonia (B) They produce haemolysis on blood agar
(C) They are bile soluble (D) They are motile
16. Which part of the adult female genital tract is usually not involved in gonorrhea ?
(A) Cervix uteri (B) Fallopian tubes
(C) Endometrium (D) Vaginal mucosa
17. Which of the following statement is true with regard to the nature of viriods and prions
?
(A) Viriods are DNA and prions are RNA (B) Viriods are proteins and prions are RNA
(C) Viriods are RNA and prions are proteins (D) Both are made up of proteins
M. Sc. (Hons. School)-Microbiology-A/FRH-41375 5 [Turn over
18. Reverse isolation would be appropriate for :
(A) A patient with tuberculosis (B) A patient who has had minor surgery
(C) A patient with glaucoma (D) A patient with leukemia
19. On soyabean which of the following forms symbiotism ?
(A) Azatobactor paspali (B) Rhizobium
(C) Nostoc (D) Bradyrhizobium
20. Salt and sugar preserve food because they:
(A) Make them acid (B) Produce a hypotonic environment
(C) Deplete nutrients (D) Produce a hypertonic environment
21. Which is the incorrect statement about bacterial capsule ?
(A) Capsular material is antigenic in nature
(B) It protects bacteria by inhibiting phagocytosis
(C) It can not be stained by Gram's stain
(D) It is acid fast in nature
22. All of the following statements are true about exotoxins except :
(A) Exotoxins are protein in nature
(B) Are heat labile
(C) Produced only by Gram positive bacteria
(D) Are highly antigenic and can be used to produce antibodies
23. Which of the following organisms does not cause food poisoning ?
(A) Clostridium welchii (B) Shigella dysenteriae
(C) Staphylococcus aureus (D) Clostridium botulinum
24. Both factors X any Y are necessary for the growth of :
(A) Haemophilus influenzae (B) Haemophilus para-influenzae
(C) Bordetella pertussis (D) Haemophilus ducreyi
25. Hepatic amoebiasis is caused by :
(A) Trophozoites of E. histolytica (B) Cysts of E. histolytica
(C) Toxins of the parasites (D) Trophozoites of Giardia
M. Sc. (Hons. School)-Microbiology-A/FRH-41375 6
26. Which of the following enzymes acts as a spreading factor ?
(A) Hyaluronidase (B) Coagulase
(C) Catalase (D) DNase
27. Which one of the following mutagens act only on replicating DNA ?
(A) Ethidium bromide (B) Nitrosogeranidine
(C) Acridine orange (D) Both (A) and (B)
28. Which of the following is an example of RNA virus ?
(A) SV 40 (B) T4 Phage
(C) Tobacco mosaic virus (D) Adeno virus
29. Plasmids are ideal vectors for gene cloning as :
(A) They can be multiplied by culturing
(B) They can be multiplied in the laboratory using enzymes
(C) They cannot replicate freely
(D) They are self replicating within the bacterial cell
30. In delayed type hypersensitivity, 80% of the cells are :
(A) CD4 positive (B) CD8 positive
(C) Neutrophils (D) Eosinophils
31. DNA-replication is by the mechanism of :
(A) Conservative (B) Semiconservative
(C) Dispersive (D) None of the above
32. The most important function of a gene is to synthesize :
(A) Enzymes (B) Hormones
(C) RNA (D) DNA
33. Vinegar fermentation involves :
(A) Yeasts only (B) Yeasts with lactic bacteria
(C) Yeasts with acetic acid bacteria (D) Yeasts with butyric acid bacteria
34. First genetically engineered and biotechnologically produced vaccine was against :
(A) AIDS (B) Small pox
(C) Herpes simplex (D) Hepatitis B
M. Sc. (Hons. School)-Microbiology-A/FRH-41375 7 [Turn over
35. Tobacco and tea leaves are fermented to give flavour and taste. This type of
fermentation is known as :
(A) Alcohol fermentation (B) Curing
(C) Degradation (D) Lactic acid fermentation
36. Mycoplasma are not inhibited by penicillin because they :
(A) Produce penicillinase (B) Are Gram positive
(C) Are Gram negative (D) Do not have a cell wall
37. Streptokinase is also termed as :
(A) Fibrionolysin (B) Catalase
(C) Coagulase (D) Hyaluronidase
38. In fermentor, the top portion left without broth is called :
(A) Shaft (B) Headspace
(C) Impeller (D) Sparger
39. Aspergillus niger is used generally for the production of :
(A) Ethanol (B) Penicillin
(C) Citric acid (D) Lactic acid
40. The required temperature for the production of citric acid is :
(A) 10oC–80oC (B) 30oC–50oC
(C) 20oC–50oC (D) 25oC–30oC
41. The strain of fungi used for the larger scale production of penicillin is :
(A) Penicillium chrysogenum (B) P. notatum
(C) Streptomyces aurecus (D) Saccharomyces sps
42. Which one of these is a -lactam antibiotic ?
(A) Amoxycillin (B) Ciprofloxacin
(C) Nalidixic acid (D) Gatifloxacin
43. The descendants of a pure culture are known as :
(A) Genus (B) Species
(C) Strain (D) Family
44. Which of the following bacteria are unlikely to be examined in food sample ?
(A) Salmonella (B) Clostridium
(C) Fecal streptococci (D) Nitrobacter sp.
M. Sc. (Hons. School)-Microbiology-A/FRH-41375 8
45. Which of the following is not a constituent of lactophenol cotton blue ?
(A) Phenol (B) Glycerine
(C) Acetic acid (D) Aniline blue
46. RNA polymerase binds to a region of DNA having length of :
(A) 30-40bp (B) 40-60bp
(C) 35-55bp (D) 40-45bp
47. Bacteria are more sensitive to the action of antibiotics at which phase of the growth
curve ?
(A) Decline phase (B) Stationary phase
(C) Log phase (D) Lag phase
48. Which of these grow on MRS medium ?
(A) E.coli (B) Lactobacilli
(C) Bacilli (D) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
49. The third generation biofuels can be derived from :
(A) Microalgae (B) Corn
(C) Lignocellulosic materials (D) Molasses
50. Isolation of which of the following bacteria from the blood of a patient with signs of
sepsis
is highly suggestive of an underlying malignancy ?
(A) Bacteroides fragilis (B) Fusobacterium necrophorum
(C) Clostridium septicum (D) Clostridium perfringens
51. All of the following are RNA viruses with helical symmetry except :
(A) Reoviridae (B) Bunyaviridae
(C) Orthomyxoviridae (D) Paramyxoviridae
52. Salmonella which can cause prolong septicaemia :
(A) Salmonella anetum (B) Salmonella cholerasuis
(C) Salmonella typhimurium (D) Salmonella enteritidis
53. Ciprofloxacin acts by inhibiting :
(A) Cell wall synthesis (B) RNA synthesis
(C) Folate synthesis (D) DNA gyrase
M. Sc. (Hons. School)-Microbiology-A/FRH-41375 9 [Turn over
54. Vaccines prepared from toxins and chemicals are :
(A) Cellular vaccines (B) Subcellular vaccines
(C) Live attenuated (D) Heterologous vaccines
55. The first dimension of separation for two-dimensional electrophoresis is based on :
(A) molecular mass (B) isoelectric point
(C) folding (D) charge
56. All of the following are used to characterize prokaryotic organisms for the First Edition
of Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology except :
(A) Gram-staining properties (B) Presence of endospores
(C) Oxygen relationship (D) Phylogenetic information
57. Bacteria protect themselves from viruses by fragmenting viral DNA upon entry with :
(A) Methylase (B) Endonuclease
(C) Ligases (D) Exonucleases
58. How many disulfide bonds are there in a typical immunoglobulin molecule ?
(A) 2–5 (B) 6–9
(C) 10–20 (D) 28
59. The lowest temperature that kills all microorganisms in a liquid suspension in 10
minutes
is known as the :
(A) decimal reduction time (B) thermal death point
(C) thermal death temperature (D) thermal death time
60. Toll like receptors play an important role in immune defense by recognizing :
(A) Microbial components
(B) Conformational changes in antigenic proteins
(C) MHC peptide complexes
(D) Anti-idiotypic immunoglobulins
61. Differential Interference Contrast microscopy :
(A) compares two identical specimens on the same microscope
(B) illuminates the specimen with light of two different colors
(C) illuminates the specimen with light of two different phases
(D) illuminates the specimen with both reflected and transmitted light
62. Which of the following is not true about bacterial flagella ?
(A) Most of their length consists of a hollow, rigid protein tube
(B) They are constructed largely of a single protein called flagellin
(C) They spin like wheels, either clockwise or counterclockwise
(D) They use cytoplasmic ATP as their primary energy source
63. Which one is a non standard amino acid ?
(A) Carnitine (B) Leucine
(C) Histidine (D) Tyrosine
64. Bacteria do not always swim aimlessly but are attracted by nutrients such as sugar and
amino acids, and are repelled by harmful substances and bacterial waste products.
Movement toward chemical attractants and away from repellents is called :
(A) Swimming motility (B) Gliding motility
(C) Tumbling (D) Chemotaxis
65. Rhesus incompatibility may develop from the marriage of :
(A) Rh+ve male and Rh–ve female (B) Rh+ve male and Rh+ve female
(C) Rh–ve male and Rh–ve female (D) Rh–ve male and Rh+ve female
66. Which of the following molecules form the part of specific immune response ?
(A) Complement components (B) Interferons
(C) Acute phase reactants (D) Cytokines
67. Phages have been successfully used for all except :
(A) To study host-parasite relations (B) To study virus multiplication
(C) For treating fungal infections (D) For epidemiological tracings
68. Cell mediated immune response can be transferred passively by transferring :
(A) Serum (B) Neutrophils
(C) Products of activated lymphocytes (D) Macrophages
69. A mutation :
(A) Is a stably inherited change in the genotype
(B) Is a stably inherited change in the phenotype
(C) Always involves a change in the amino acid sequence of the affected gene product
(D) Is a stably inherited change in the genotype and phenotype
M. Sc. (Hons. School)-Microbiology-A/FRH-41375 10
70. Which of the following parasites does not have the cystic stage ?
(A) Trichomonas vaginalis (B) Entamoeba histolytica
(C) Balantidium coli (D) Giardia lamblia
71. Which of the following obtain energy from the oxidation of electron donors in their
environments ?
(A) Chemotroph (B) Lithotroph
(C) Autotroph (D) Heterotroph
72. Virulent and nonvirulent viruses may do any of the following but NOT :
(A) Inhibit host cell DNA synthesis (B) Inhibit host cell RNA synthesis
(C) Inhibit host cell protein synthesis (D) Degrade host cell DNA
73. What kind of embryo is often used for viral assays ?
(A) Mouse (B) Cat
(C) Dog (D) Chicken
74. Which of the following has been linked to Kaposi's sarcoma ?
(A) Epstein-Barr virus (B) Human T-cell lymphotropic virus
(C) Human immunodeficiency virus (D) Human herpes virus
75. The ability of Vibrio fischeri to produce bioluminescence chemicals only when a certain
population density has been reached is an example of :
(A) Liebig's Law of the minimum (B) Shelford's law of tolerance
(C) The second law of thermodynamics (D) Quorum sensing