APS MIDTERM REVIEW QUESTIONS Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ 1. The main branches of natural science are a. physics and chemistry. c. medicine and agriculture. b. biology, zoology, and ecology. d. life, physical, and earth science. 2. A series of logical steps that is followed in order to solve a problem is called the a. experimental process. c. scientific method. b. scientific theory. d. model method. 3. The first step in the scientific method is usually a. making an observation. c. collecting data. b. forming a hypothesis. d. testing a hypothesis. 4. Scientists test a hypothesis by a. formulating questions. c. doing experiments. b. designing models. d. drawing conclusions. 5. What does it mean to say that “no experiment is a failure”? a. All experiments are observations of real events. b. All experiments yield the desired results. c. All experiments give scientists work to do. d. All experiments involve manipulating variables. 6. Which question cannot be answered by an experiment? a. Does penicillin kill Salmonella bacteria? b. Is rabies caused by a virus? c. Did a comet impact kill the dinosaurs? d. Can radiation cause cancer? 7. The SI unit for measuring temperature is the a. degree. c. mole. b. kelvin. d. ampere. 8. Which SI prefix means one million? a. kiloc. gigab. megad. milli9. Which SI prefix means one one-hundredth ( )? a. nanoc. millib. microd. centi10. Maria is 123 centimeters tall. Her height in meters is a. 0123 m. c. 1.23 m. b. 0.123 m. d. 12.3 m. 11. A loaf of bread weighs 1362 g. The weight in kilograms is a. 1.362 kg. c. 01362 kg. b. 1362 kg. d. 001362 kg. ____ 12. At which time of day was the temperature approximately 5°C? a. 9:00 A.M. c. 11:00 A.M. b. 10:00 A.M. d. 12:00 P.M. ____ 13. At which two times of day was the temperature the same? a. 7:00 A.M. and 7:00 P.M. c. 10:00 A.M. and 7:00 P.M. b. 7:00 A.M. and 10:00 P.M. d. 10:00 A.M. and 10:00 P.M. ____ 14. The sample contained the same number of pennies for which two years? a. 1988 and 1992 c. 1994 and 1997 b. 1988 and 1991 d. 1994 and 1998 ____ 15. For which year was the smallest number of pennies found? a. 1988 c. 1990 b. 1989 d. 1991 ____ 16. The decimal equivalent of 102 is a. 100. c. 0.1. b. 10. d. 0.01. ____ 17. What is 78,900,000,000 expressed in scientific notation? a. 789 109 c. 7.89 1010 9 b. 7.89 10 d. 7.89 1011 ____ 18. The speed of light is approximately 3 108 m/s. How would this be written in conventional notation? a. 300,000 c. 30,000,000 b. 3,000,000 d. 300,000,000 ____ 19. You are asked to find the area of a room that is 4.56 m long and 5.668 m wide. How many significant figures should you show in your answer? a. 3 c. 6 b. 5 d. 7 ____ 20. You are asked to find the volume of a cube that is 2.5 cm high, 2.65 cm wide, and 3.456 cm long. How many significant figures should you show in your answer? a. 1 c. 3 b. 2 d. 4 2 ____ 21. What is the area of a room that is 4 10 cm long and 2 103 cm wide? a. 6 103 cm2 c. 8 105 cm2 b. 8 103 cm2 d. 8 107 cm2 ____ 22. A precise measurement is one that a. contains the correct number of significant figures. b. contains at least three significant figures. c. is close to the true value. d. is as exact as possible. ____ 23. A measurement that is accurate is one that a. is as exact as possible. c. contains at least four significant figures. b. is close to the true value. d. contains five decimal places. ____ 24. Matter is defined as anything that a. can be seen and touched. c. can be weighed. b. has mass and takes up space. d. contains kinetic or potential energy. ____ 25. The science of what matter is made of and how it changes is called a. chemistry. c. kinetics. b. physics. d. engineering. ____ 26. A substance that cannot be broken down into simpler substances is a. a compound. c. an element. b. a mixture. d. an atom. ____ 27. The smallest unit of a substance that behaves like the substance is a. an element. c. a molecule. b. an atom. d. a compound. ____ 28. A molecule of water (H2O) is made from _____ combining two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom. a. physically c. thermally b. ionically d. chemically ____ 29. You put 1 gram of salt into 1 liter of water and stir. The resulting liquid is an example of a. a pure substance. c. a homogeneous mixture. b. a heterogeneous mixture. d. an immiscible mixture. ____ 30. The chemical symbol for sulfuric acid is H2SO4. How many atoms are contained in each molecule of sulfuric acid? ____ 31. ____ 32. ____ 33. ____ 34. ____ 35. ____ 36. ____ 37. ____ 38. ____ 39. ____ 40. ____ 41. ____ 42. ____ 43. ____ 44. ____ 45. a. 3 c. 6 b. 5 d. 7 How many oxygen atoms are in one molecule of table sugar (C12H22O11)? a. 2 c. 12 b. 11 d. 22 A material that can be represented by a chemical formula is a. an element. c. a homogeneous solution. b. a mixture. d. a pure substance. The chemical formula for water, H2O, means that each water molecule contains a. two hydrogen atoms and two oxygen atoms. b. two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom. c. two hydrogen atoms and zero oxygen atoms. d. one hydrogen atom and two oxygen atoms. Which of the following is an example of a gas-liquid mixture? a. the air we breathe c. a helium balloon b. a carbonated drink d. ice cubes Knowing the chemical properties of a substance will tell you how the substance a. looks. c. can be broken down into atoms. b. smells. d. reacts with other substances. Which state of matter will hold its shape without a container? a. solid c. gas b. liquid d. plasma A liquid changes rapidly into a gas at the liquid’s a. boiling point. c. melting point. b. freezing point. d. condensation point. A physical property of gold is its a. density. c. non-flammability. b. reactivity with powerful acids. d. None of the above Which of the following is not an example of a physical property? a. freezing point c. reactivity b. boiling point d. density 3 Lead has a density of 11.3 g/cm and a mass of 282.5 g. What is its volume? a. 2.5 cm3 c. 250 cm3 3 b. 25 cm d. 2500 cm3 A substance has a mass of 360 g and a volume of 7.5 cm3. What is its density? a. 2700 g/cm3 c. 480 g/cm3 3 b. 270 g/cm d. 48 g/cm3 Which of the following is an example of a physical change? a. dissolving salt in water c. cooking an egg b. burning wood into charcoal d. rusting iron Grinding quartz crystals down to produce sand is an example of a a. change of state. c. chemical reaction. b. chemical change. d. physical change. Digesting food is an example of a. physical change. c. chemical change. b. change of state. d. buoyancy. Which of the following is an example of a chemical change? a. ice melting c. pounding gold into a coin ____ 46. ____ 47. ____ 48. ____ 49. ____ 50. ____ 51. ____ 52. ____ 53. ____ 54. ____ 55. ____ 56. ____ 57. ____ 58. ____ 59. ____ 60. ____ 61. b. paint fading d. a puddle of water evaporating Which of the following is not a potential sign of chemical change? a. release of gas c. change of color b. evaporation of water d. production of gas Temperature is a measure of the average _____ energy of the particles in the object. a. thermal c. potential b. kinetic d. chemical The process of a liquid becoming a gas is called a. sublimation. c. evaporation. b. condensation. d. freezing. The process of a liquid becoming a solid is called a. condensation. c. evaporation. b. freezing. d. melting. Which state of matter has a definite volume, but not shape? a. plasma c. liquid b. gas d. solid The heavier a particle, the _____ it moves. a. slower c. less b. faster d. more What determines the speed of the atoms and molecules of a particular substance? a. size of the atoms and molecules c. Both (a) and (b) b. temperature of the substance d. None of the above Archimedes’ principle states that the buoyant force on a(n) _____ is equal to the weight of the displaced volume of fluid. a. object in the fluid c. fluid mixing with another liquid b. object floating on the fluid d. substance dissolving into the fluid When ice melts to form water, energy a. is created. c. is released. b. is destroyed. d. is absorbed. The resistance of a fluid to flow is referred to as a. pressure. c. viscosity. b. energy. d. shape. Which state of matter will hold its shape without a container? a. solid c. gas b. liquid d. plasma The change of a substance from a solid directly to a gas is called a. condensation. c. melting. b. evaporation. d. sublimation. Evaporation refers to the change of state from a a. liquid to a gas. c. solid to a liquid. b. gas to a liquid. d. liquid to a solid. Ice floats in water because it is a. more dense than water. c. colder than water. b. less dense than water. d. warmer than water. Boyle’s law relates the pressure of a gas to its a. container. c. molecular composition. b. volume. d. temperature. When a fixed sample of gas increases in volume, it must also ____ 62. ____ 63. ____ 64. ____ 65. ____ 66. ____ 67. ____ 68. ____ 69. ____ 70. ____ 71. ____ 72. ____ 73. a. decrease in pressure. c. Either (a) or (b) b. increase in temperature. d. Both (a) and (b) Charles’s law relates the volume of a gas to its a. container. c. molecular composition. b. pressure. d. temperature. Buoyant force is the _____ force exerted on an object immersed or floating on a liquid. a. lateral c. downward b. upward d. tensile As the temperature of a fixed amount of gas at constant volume decreases, its pressure a. decreases. c. increases. b. stays the same. d. None of the above As the volume of a fixed amount of gas at constant temperature decreases, its pressure a. decreases. c. increases. b. stays the same. d. Insufficent data to answer question Dalton’s atomic theory stated that every element was made of atoms that could not be subdivided, atoms of the same element are alike, and a. atoms are made of protons, neutrons, and electrons. b. the nucleus is the center of the atom. c. atoms can join to form molecules. d. atoms are constantly in motion. Dalton’s atomic theory was accepted because a. there was evidence to support it. b. Democritus said that it was correct. c. Dalton invented the electron microscope. d. Dalton showed how molecules are formed. Which statement is true according to Dalton’s theory? a. Atoms of different elements can join to form larger atoms. b. Atoms can be subdivided into smaller particles. c. Atoms of the same element differ in electric charge. d. Atoms of the same element are exactly alike. Which statement about the atomic nucleus is correct? a. The nucleus is made of protons and neutrons and has a negative charge. b. The nucleus is made of protons and neutrons and has a positive charge. c. The nucleus is made of electrons and has a positive charge. d. The nucleus is made of electrons and has a negative charge. The charge of an electron is a. 2. c. 0. b. 1. d. +1. Atoms have no electric charge because they a. have an equal number of charged and noncharged particles. b. have neutrons in their nuclei. c. have an equal number of electrons and protons. d. have an equal number of neutrons and protons. According to Bohr’s model of the atom, electrons behave like a. planets orbiting the sun. c. light energy in a vacuum. b. waves on a vibrating string. d. planets rotating on their axes. According to Bohr’s theory, an electron’s path around the nucleus defines its a. electric charge. c. energy level. ____ 74. ____ 75. ____ 76. ____ 77. ____ 78. ____ 79. ____ 80. ____ 81. ____ 82. ____ 83. ____ 84. ____ 85. b. atomic mass. d. speed. The order of elements in the periodic table is based on a. the number of protons in the nucleus. c. the number of neutrons in the nucleus. b. the electric charge of the nucleus. d. atomic mass. Atoms of elements that are in the same group have the same number of a. protons. c. valence electrons. b. neutrons. d. protons and neutrons. Valence electrons determine an atom’s a. mass. c. electric charge. b. chemical properties. d. period. Ionization refers to the process of a. changing from one period to another. c. turning lithium into fluorine. b. losing or gaining protons. d. losing or gaining electrons. A lithium ion is much less reactive than a lithium atom because it a. is much more massive. b. has a full outermost energy level. c. has a negative electric charge. d. is in a different group in the periodic table. Oxygen’s atomic number is 8. This means that an oxygen atom has a. eight neutrons in its nucleus. c. eight protons in its nucleus. b. a total of eight protons and neutrons. d. a total of eight neutrons and electrons. An atom’s mass number equals the number of a. protons plus the number of electrons. c. protons. b. protons plus the number of neutrons. d. neutrons. Which statement about an element’s average atomic mass is correct? a. It is determined by counting the number of isotopes in a sample of the element. b. It is equal to one-twelfth the mass of the most common isotope. c. It is a weighted average, so common isotopes have a greater effect than uncommon ones. d. It is based on an isotope’s charge, so negatively charged isotopes have a greater effect than positive ones. An atomic mass unit is equal to a. one-half the mass of a hydrogen atom. b. one-fourth the mass of a lithium atom. c. one-twelfth the mass of a carbon-12 atom. d. one-fifteenth the mass of a nitrogen-15 atom. Which statement about the alkali metals is correct? a. They are located in the left-most column of the periodic table. b. They are extremely nonreactive. c. They are usually gases. d. They form negative ions with a 1- charge. Which of the following elements is an alkali metal? a. calcium c. mercury b. magnesium d. sodium Which statement about noble gases is correct? a. They form compounds with very bright colors. b. They exist as single atoms rather than as molecules. c. They are highly reactive with both metals and nonmetals. d. They are extremely rare in nature. ____ 86. Most halogens form compounds by a. gaining an electron to form a negative ion. b. losing an electron to form a positive ion. c. losing protons. d. joining with both calcium and carbon. ____ 87. Group 18 noble gases are inert because a. they readily form positive ions. b. they can have either a positive or a negative charge. c. their outermost energy level is missing one electron. d. their outermost energy level is full. ____ 88. Carbon and other nonmetals are found in which area of the periodic table? a. on the left-most side b. on the right side c. in the middle column of the periodic table d. in the bottom rows ____ 89. Transition metals such as copper or tungsten form compounds by a. gaining electrons to form negative ions. b. losing electrons to form positive ions. c. losing neutrons. d. changing shape and color at various temperatures. ____ 90. A mole is an SI base unit that describes the a. mass of a substance. c. volume of a substance. b. amount of a substance. d. electric charge of a substance. ____ 91. If the atomic mass of carbon is 12 amu, 1 mole of pure carbon will have a mass of a. 6 g. c. 12 g. b. 6 mol. d. 12 mol. ____ 92. Avogadro’s constant is defined as the number of particles in a. one mole of a pure substance. c. one gram of a pure substance. b. one liter of a pure substance. d. one kilogram of a pure substance. ____ 93. Molar mass is defined as a. the number of particles in 1 mole of a substance. b. the SI base unit that describes the amount of a substance. c. the amount of a substance necessary to have a positive charge. d. the mass in grams of 1 mole of a substance. ____ 94. The average atomic mass of potassium is approximately 39 amu. What is the mass of 2.0 mol of potassium? a. 0.39 g c. 39 g b. 0.78 g d. 78 g ____ 95. The average atomic mass of the element cesium is approximately 133 amu. What is the mass of 3.00 mol of cesium? a. 0.133 g c. 266 g b. 133 g d. 399 g ____ 96. You have 6.50 mol of chromium, which has a molar mass of approximately 52 g/mol. What is the mass in grams of this amount of chromium? a. 3.38 g c. 338 g b. 33.8 g d. 3.38 kg ____ 97. What is the mass in grams of 0.75 mol of sulfur, which has a molar mass of approximately 32 g/mol? a. 16 g c. 32 g b. 24 g d. 240 g ____ 98. You have 85.5 g of fluorine, which has a molar mass of approximately 19 g/mol. How many moles of fluorine do you have? a. 4.5 mol c. 45 mol b. 19 mol d. 85 mol ____ 99. A mixture is different from a compound because each substance in a mixture a. retains its own properties. c. forms an ion. b. changes its electric charge. d. changes from a solid to a liquid. ____ 100. Each molecule of hydrochloric acid, HCl, contains one atom of hydrogen and a. one atom of chlorine. c. two atoms of chlorine. b. one atom of oxygen. d. two atoms of oxygen. ____ 101. Each molecule of table sugar, C12H22O11, contains a. 0 atoms of carbon. c. 6 atoms of carbon. b. 1 atom of carbon. d. 12 atoms of carbon. ____ 102. Often atoms join so that each atom will have a. an even number of electrons. b. an outermost energy level that is full of electrons. c. an equal number of protons and electrons. d. more electrons than either protons or neutrons. ____ 103. When two hydrogen atoms bond, the positive nucleus of one atom attracts the a. negative nucleus of the other atom. c. negative electron of the other atom. b. positive electron of the other atom. d. positive nucleus of the other atom. ____ 104. An ionic bond is a bond that forms between a. ions with opposite charges. b. atoms with neutral charges. c. one atom’s nucleus and another atom’s electrons. d. the electrons of two different atoms. ____ 105. Covalent bonds are formed between a. ions. c. nonmetal atoms. b. metal atoms. d. compounds. ____ 106. In which type of bond do atoms share electrons? a. covalent bonds c. ionic bonds b. metallic bonds d. polyatomic bonds ____ 107. The name dinitrogen tetroxide tells you that this compound contains a. two nitrogen atoms and two oxygen atoms. b. four nitrogen atoms and two oxygen atoms. c. two nitrogen atoms and four oxygen atoms. d. four nitrogen atoms and four oxygen atoms. ____ 108. Fe2O3 is named iron (III) oxide because it contains a. three oxygen atoms. c. three iron atoms. b. Fe3+ ions. d. O3+ ions. ____ 109. When copper combines with oxygen to form copper (II) oxide, the charge of the copper ion is a. Cu1+. c. Cu3+. 2+ b. Cu . d. Cu4+. ____ 110. When nickel combines with fluorine to form nickel (III) fluoride, the charge of the nickel ion is a. Ni1+. c. Ni3+. 2+ b. Ni . d. Ni4+. ____ 111. The name for the compound with the formula CuBr2 would be written as a. copper(II) bromide. c. copper bromine. ____ 112. ____ 113. ____ 114. ____ 115. ____ 116. ____ 117. ____ 118. ____ 119. ____ 120. b. copper(I) bromide. d. copper(III) bromide. The name for the compound with the formula Cr2O3 would be written as a. chromium(I) oxide. c. chromium oxygen. b. chromium(II) oxide. d. chromium(III) oxide. A change in the color of a solution is a sign that a. a chemical change is taking place. c. oxygen is present. b. a physical change has just occurred. d. organic chemicals are present. A substance that undergoes a change in a chemical reaction is a. a product. c. a reactant. b. a chemical. d. an enzyme. What happens in a chemical reaction? a. Atoms are destroyed. c. Molecules are created. b. Atoms are created. d. Atoms are rearranged. In an exothermic reaction, energy is transferred from a. the reactants to the surroundings. c. one reactant to another. b. the surroundings to the reactants. d. the container to the chemicals. A synthesis reaction is a reaction between at least two compounds in which a. one breaks down into at least two products. b. a compound is decomposed by an electric current. c. a compound burns in the presence of oxygen. d. a new, more complex compound is formed. The product of the synthesis reaction between sodium and chlorine gas is a. polyethylene. c. sodium chloride. b. carbon dioxide. d. copper (II) chloride. When methane reacts with abundant amounts of oxygen, the products are a. carbon dioxide and water. c. soot and water. b. carbon monoxide and water. d. simple sugar and oxygen. When water is broken down by electrolysis, the products are a. water and carbon dioxide. c. hydrogen gas and oxygen gas. b. hydrogen and oxygen ions. d. oxygen and methane. APS MIDTERM REVIEW QUESTIONS Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: D C A C A C B B D C A B D C D D C D A B C D B B A C C D C D B D B B D A A A C B D PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 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