Chapter 1:
Question 1:
In OSI network architecture, the dialogue control and token management are
responsibility of
a. session layer
b. network layer
c. transport layer
d. data link layer
e. none of above
Question 2:
In OSI network architecture, the routing is performed by
a. network layer
b. data link layer
c. transport layer
d. session layer
e. none of above
Question 3:
Which of the following performs modulation and demodulation?
a. fiber optics
b. satellite
c. coaxial cable
d. modem
e. none of the above
Question 4:
The process of converting analog signals into digital signals so they can be processed by
a receiving computer is referred to as:
a. modulation
b. demodulation
c. synchronizing
d. digitizing
Question 5:
How many OSI layers are covered in the X.25 standard?
a. Two
b. Three
c. Seven
d. Six
e. None of above
Question 6:
Layer one of the OSI model is
a. physical layer
b. link layer
c. transport layer
d. network layer
e. none of above
Question 7:
The x.25 standard specifies a
a. technique for start-stop data
b. technique for dial access
c. DTE/DCE interface
d. data bit rate
e. none of above
Question 8:
Which of the following communication modes support two-way traffic but in only one
direction at a time?
a. simplex
b. half duplex
c. three-quarters duplex
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
Question 9:
Which of the following might be used by a company to satisfy its growing
communications needs?
a. front end processor
b. multiplexer
c. controller
d. concentrator
e. all of the above
Question 10:
What is the number of separate protocol layers at the serial interface gateway specified by
the X.25 standard?
a. 4
b. 2
c. 6
d. 3
3. none of the above
Correct Answers:
1. a
2. a
3. d
4. d
5. b
6. a
7. c
8. b
9. e
10. d
Chapter 2:
Question 1:
The interactive transmission of data within a time sharing system may be best suited to
a. simplex lines
b. half-duplex lines
c. full duplex lines
d. biflex-lines
Question 2:
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
a. The difference between synchronous and asynchronous transmission is the clocking
derived from the data in synchronous transmission.
b. Half duplex line is a communication line in which data can move in two directions, but
not at the same time.
c. Teleprocessing combines telecommunications and DP techniques in online activities
d. Batch processing is the prefered processing mode for telecommunication operation.
Question 3:
Which of hte following is considered a broad band communication channel?
a. coaxial cable
b. fiber optics cable
c. microwave circuits
d. all of above
Question 4:
Which of the following is not a transmission medium?
a. telephone lines
b. coaxial cables
c. modem
d. microwave systems
Question 5:
Which of the following does not allow multiple uses or devices to share one
communication line?
a. doubleplexer
b. multiplexer
c. concentrator
d. controller
Question 6:
Which of the following signal is not standard RS-232-C signal?
a. VDR
b. RTS
c. CTS
d. DSR
Question 7:
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
a. Multiplexers are designed to accept data from several I/O devices and transmit a
unified stream of data on one communication line
b. HDLC is a standard synchronous communication protocol.
c. RTS/CTS is the way the DTE indicates that it is ready to transmit data and the way the
DCW indicates that it is ready to accept data
d. RTS/CTS is the way the terminal indicates ringing
Question 8:
Which of the following is an advantage to using fiber optics data transmission?
a. resistance to data theft
b. fast data transmission rate
c. low noise level
d. all of above
Question 9:
Which of the following is required to communicate between two computers?
a. communications software
b. protocol
c. communication hardware
d. all of above including access to transmission medium
Question 10:
The transmission signal coding method of TI carrier is called
a. Bipolar
b. NRZ
c. Manchester
d. Binary
Answers:
1. b
2. d
3. d
4. c
5. a
6. a
7. d
8. d
9. d
10. a
Chapter3:
Question 1:
Which data communication method is used to transmit the data over a serial
communication link?
a. simplex
b. half-duplex
c. full-duplex
d. b and c
e. None of above
Question 2:
What is the minimum number of wires needed to send data over a serial communication
link layer?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 6
e. none of above
Question 3:
Which of the following types of channels moves data relatively slowly?
a. wide band channel
b. voice band challen
c. narrow band channel
Question 4:
Most data communications involving telegraph lines use:
a. simplex lines
b. wideband channel
c. narrowband channel
d. dialed service
Question 5:
A communications device that combines transmissions from several I/O devices into one
line is a
a. concentrator
b. modifier
c. multiplexer
d. full-duplex line
Question 6:
How much power (roughly) a light emitting diode can couple into an optical fiber?
a. 100 microwatts
b. 440 microwatts
c. 100 picowatts
d. 10 miliwatts
Question 7:
The synchronous modems are more costly than the asynchronous modems because
a. they produce large volume of data
b. they contain clock recovery circuits
c. they transmit the data with stop and start bits
d. they operate with a larger bandwidth
e. none of above
Question 8:
Which of the following statement is correct?
a. terminal section of a synchronous modem contains the scrambler
b. receiver section of a synchronous modem contains the scrambler
c. transmission section of a synchronous modem contains the scrambler
d. control section of a synchronous modem contains the scrambler
e. none of the above
Question 9:
In a synchronous modem, the digital-to-analog converter transmits signal to the
a. equilizer
b. modulator
c. demodulator
d. terminal
e. none of aobve
Question 10:
Which of the following communications lines is best suited to interactive processing
applications?
a. narrow band channel
b. simplex lines
c. full duplex lines
d. mixed band channels
Answers
1. c
2. b
3. c
4. c
5. c
6. a
7. b
8. c
9. a
10. c
CHAPTER 4:
Q2.
Rank the following transmission media (optical fibre, coaxial cable and twisted
pair) according to their channel capacity from the highest to the lowest.
a)
Optical Fibre, Coaxial Cable, Twisted Pair.
b)
c)
d)
e)
Q3
Optical Fibre, Twisted Pair, Coaxial cable.
Twisted Pair, Coaxial Cable, Optical Fibre.
Coaxial cable, Optic fibre, Twisted Pair.
None of the above
As a user’s message moves from the lowest layer to the top layer of the OSI Model,
protocol headers are:
a)
Q4.
Q5.
Added
b)
Removed
c)
Rearranged
d)
Modified
e)
None of the above
Which of the following transmission impairments adds unwanted signals to a
transmitted signal?
a)
Attenuation
b)
Delay Distortion
c)
Crosstalk
d)
Attenuation Distortion
e)
None of the above
What is the bandwidth of a signal that ranges from 35 kHz to 95 kHz?
a)
130 kHz
b)
60 kHz
c)
35 kHz
Q6.
d)
95 kHz
e)
None of the above
A television (TV) transmission is an example of which type of transmission?
a)
Simplex
b)
Half duplex
c)
Full duplex
d)
Automatic
e)
None of the above
chapter 7 part1
1.
In a Go-Back-N ARQ, if the window size is 63, what is the range of sequence
numbers?
A)
0 to 63
B)
0 to 64
C)
1 to 63
D)
1 to 64
2.
In Go-Back-N ARQ, if frames 4, 5, and 6 are received successfully, the receiver
may send an ACK _______ to the sender.
A)
5
B)
6
C)
7
D)
any of the above
3.
ARQ stands for _______.
A)
Automatic repeat quantization
B)
Automatic repeat request
C)
Automatic retransmission request
D)
Acknowledge repeat request
4.
For Stop-and-Wait ARQ, for 10 data packets sent, _______ acknowledgments
are needed.
A)
exactly 10
B)
less than 10
C)
more than 10
D)
none of the above
5.
HDLC is an acronym for _______.
A)
High-duplex line communication
B)
High-level data link control
C)
Half-duplex digital link combination
D)
Host double-level circuit
6.
Data link control deals with the design and procedures for ______
communication.
A)
node-to-node
B)
host-to-host
C)
process-to-process
D)
none of the above
7.
_______ in the data link layer separates a message from one source to a
destination, or from other messages going from other sources to other destinations.
A)
Digitizing
B)
Controlling
C)
Framing
D)
none of the above
8.
In _______ framing, there is no need for defining the boundaries of frames.
A)
fixed-size
B)
variable-size
C)
standard
D)
none of the above
9.
In ________ framing, we need a delimiter (flag) to define the boundary of two
frames.
A)
fixed-size
B)
variable-size
C)
standard
D)
none of the above
10.
_________framing uses two categories of protocols: character-oriented and bitoriented.
A)
Fixed-size
B)
Variable-size
C)
Standard
D)
None of the above
11.
In a ________ protocol, the data section of a frame is a sequence of characters.
A)
bit-oriented
B)
character-oriented
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
none of the above
12.
In a _________ protocol, the data section of a frame is a sequence of bits.
A)
byte-oriented
B)
bit-oriented
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
none of the above
13.
In _________ protocols, we use ________.
A)
character-oriented; byte stuffing
B)
character-oriented; bit stuffing
C)
bit-oriented; character stuffing
D)
none of the above
14.
Byte stuffing means adding a special byte to the data section of the frame when
there is a character with the same pattern as the ______.
A)
header
B)
trailer
C)
flag
D)
none of the above
15.
In ________ protocols, we use ________.
A)
byte-oriented; bit stuffing
B)
character-oriented; bit stuffing
C)
bit-oriented; bit stuffing
D)
none of the above
16.
Bit stuffing means adding an extra 0 to the data section of the frame when there
is a sequence of bits with the same pattern as the ________.
A)
header
B)
trailer
C)
flag
D)
none of the above
17.
_______ control refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the amount of data
that the sender can send before waiting for acknowledgment.
A)
Flow
B)
Error
C)
Transmission
D)
none of the above
18.
______ control refers to methods of error detection and correction.
A)
Flow
B)
Error
C)
Transmission
D)
none of the above
19.
A)
The Simplest Protocol and the Stop-and-Wait Protocol are for ______ channels.
noisy
B)
noiseless
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
20.
The Stop-And-Wait ARQ, Go-Back-N ARQ, and the Selective Repeat ARQ are
for ______ channels.
A)
noisy
B)
noiseless
C)
either (a) or (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
21.
The ____ Protocol has neither flow nor error control.
A)
Stop-and-Wait
B)
Simplest
C)
Go-Back-N ARQ
D)
Selective-Repeat ARQ
22.
The _______Protocol has flow control, but not error control.
A)
Stop-and-Wait
B)
Simplest
C)
Go-Back-N ARQ
D)
Selective-Repeat ARQ
23.
The _______Protocol has both flow control and error control.
A)
Stop-and-Wait
B)
Go-Back-N ARQ
C)
Selective-Repeat ARQ
D)
both (b) and (c)
Answers:
1
A
2
C
3
B
4
A
5
B
6
A
7
C
8
A
9
B
10 11
B B
12 13
B A
14
C
15 16
C C
17 18 19
A B B
20 21
A B
22 23
A D
Chapter 7 part2
1.
In the _____ Protocol, the sender sends its frames one after another with no
regard to the receiver.
A)
Stop-and-Wait
B)
Simplest
C)
Go-Back-N ARQ
D)
Selective-Repeat ARQ
2.
In the _____ Protocol, the sender sends one frame, stops until it receives
confirmation from the receiver, and then sends the next frame.
A)
Stop-and-Wait
B)
Simplest
C)
Go-Back-N ARQ
D)
Selective-Repeat ARQ
3.
The _________Protocol, adds a simple error control mechanism to the
_______Protocol.
A)
Stop-and-Wait ARQ; Stop-and-Wait
B)
Go-Back-N ARQ; Stop-and-Wait
C)
Selective Repeat ARQ; Go-Back-N ARQ
D)
none of the above
4.
In the _________Protocol, if no acknowledgment for a frame has arrived, we
resend all outstanding frames.
A)
Stop-and-Wait ARQ
B)
Go-Back-N ARQ
C)
Selective-Repeat ARQ
D)
none of the above
5.
In the _________ protocol we avoid unnecessary transmission by sending only
frames that are corrupted.
A)
Stop-and-Wait ARQ
B)
Go-Back-N ARQ
C)
Selective-Repeat ARQ
D)
none of the above
6.
Both Go-Back-N and Selective-Repeat Protocols use a _________.
A)
sliding frame
B)
sliding window
C)
sliding packet
D)
none of the above
7.
In Go-Back-N ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then the
maximum size of the send window must be _____
A)
15
B)
16
C)
31
D)
1
8.
In Go-Back-N ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then the
maximum size of the receive window must be _____
A)
15
B)
16
C)
31
D)
1
9.
In Selective Repeat ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number,
then the maximum size of the send window must be _____
A)
15
B)
16
C)
31
D)
1
10.
In Selective Repeat ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number,
then the maximum size of the receive window must be _____
A)
15
B)
16
C)
31
D)
1
11.
High-level Data Link Control (HDLC) is a _______ protocol for
communication over point-to-point and multipoint links.
A)
bit-oriented
B)
byte-oriented
C)
character-oriented
D)
none of the above
12.
The most common protocol for point-to-point access is the Point-to-Point
Protocol (PPP), which is a _________protocol.
A)
bit-oriented
B)
byte-oriented
C)
character-oriented
D)
none of the above
13.
_______ control refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the amount of data
that the sender can send before waiting for acknowledgment.
A)
Flow
B)
Error
C)
Transmission
D)
none of the above
14.
_________control in the data link layer is based on automatic repeat request,
which is the retransmission of data.
A)
Flow
B)
Error
C)
Transmission
D)
none of the above
15.
In Stop-and-Wait ARQ, we use sequence numbers to number the frames. The
sequence numbers are based on __________arithmetic.
A)
modulo-2
B)
modulo-4
C)
modulo-m
D)
none of the above
16.
In Stop-and-Wait ARQ, the acknowledgment number always announces in
______ arithmetic the sequence number of the next frame expected.
A)
modulo-2
B)
modulo-4
C)
modulo-m
D)
none of the above
17.
In the Go-Back-N Protocol, if the size of the sequence number field is 8, the
sequence numbers are in ________ arithmetic,
A)
modulo-2
B)
modulo- 8
C)
modulo-256
D)
none of the above
18.
Stop-and-Wait ARQ is a special case of Go-Back-N ARQ in which the size of
the send window is 1.
A)
2
B)
1
C)
8
D)
none of the above
19.
In _________, the station configuration is unbalanced. We have one primary
station and multiple secondary stations.
A)
ABM
B)
NRM
C)
ARM
D)
NBM
20.
In _________, the configuration is balanced. The link is point-to-point, and
each station can function as a primary and a secondary.
A)
ABM
B)
NRM
C)
ARM
D)
NBM
21.
In PPP, the ________ is responsible for establishing, maintaining, configuring,
and terminating links.
A)
NCP
B)
LCP
C)
CHAP
D)
PAP
22.
In PPP, ________ is a simple authentication procedure with a two-step process:
A)
NCP
B)
LCP
C)
CHAP
D)
PAP
23.
In PPP, _______ is a three-way hand-shaking authentication protocol in which
the password is kept secret; it is never sent online.
A)
NCP
B)
LCP
C)
CHAP
D)
PAP
ANSWERS:
1
B
2
A
3
A
4
B
5
C
6
B
7
C
8
D
9
B
10 11 12 13 14 15
B A B A B A
16 17 18 19 20
A C B B A
Chapter 7 part3
Multiple-Choice Questions
1. Transmission media are usually categorized as
a. Fixed or unfixed
b, Guided or unguided
c. Determinate or indeterminate
d. Metallic or nonmetallic
2. Transmission media are closest to the ________ layer.
a. Physical
b. Network
c. Transport
d. Application
3. Category 1 UTP cable is most often used in _______ networks.
a. Fast Ethernet
b. Traditional Ethernet
c. Infrared
d. Telephone
4. BNC connectors are used by ________ cables.
a. UTP
b. STP
21 22 23
B D C
c. Coaxial
d. Fiber-optic
5. _______ cable consists of an inner copper core and a second conducting outer
sheath.
a. Twisted-pair
b Coaxial
c. Fiber-optic
d. Shielded twisted-pair
Dr. Gihan NAGUIB 2
6. In fiber optics, the signal source is ______waves.
a. Light
b. Radio
c. Infrared
d. Very low-frequency
7. Smoke signals are an example of communication through_____
a. A guided medium
b. An unguided medium
c. A refractive medium
d. A small or large medium
8. Which of the following primarily uses guided media?
a. Cellular telephone system
b. Local telephone system
c. Satellite communications
d. Radio broadcasting
9. Which of the following is not a guided medium?
a. Twisted-pair cable
b. Coaxial cable
c. Fiber-optic cable
d. Atmosphere
10. In an environment with many high-voltage devices, the best transmission medium
would be _________
a. Twisted-pair cable
b. Coaxial cable
c. Optical fiber
d. The atmosphere
11. What is the major factor that makes coaxial cable less susceptible to noise than
twisted-pair cable?
a. Inner conductor
b. Diameter of cable
c. Outer conductor
d. Insulating material
Dr. Gihan NAGUIB 3
12. The RG number gives us information about
a. Twisted pairs
b. Coaxial cables
c. Optical fibers
d. All the above
13. In an optical fiber, the inner core is ___________ the cladding.
a. Denser than
b. Less dense than
c. The same density as
d. Another name for
14. The inner core of an optical fiber is in composition.
a. Glass or plastic
b. Copper
c. Bimetallic
d. Liquid
15. Optical fibers, unlike wire media, are highly resistant to
a. High-frequency transmission
b. Low-frequency transmission
c. Electromagnetic interference
d. Refraction
16. When a beam of light travels through media of two different densities, if the angle
of incidence is greater than the critical angle, _____occurs.
a. Reflection
b. Refraction
c. Incidence
d. Criticism
17. When the angle of incidence is __________ the critical angle, the light beam
bends along the interface.
a. More than
b. Less than
c. Equal to
d. None of the above
Dr. Gihan NAGUIB 4
18. When we talk about unguided media, usually we are referring to _______
a. Metallic wires
b. Nonmetallic wires
c. The air
d, None of the above
19. Radio wave and microwave frequencies range from _________
a. 3 to 300KHz
b. 300 KHz to 3 GHz
c. 3 KHz to 300 GHz
d. 3KHz to 3000 GHz
20 In ________ propagation, low-frequency radio waves hug the earth.
a. Ground
b. Sky
c. Line of sight
d. Space
Exercises
21. A beam of light moves from one medium to another, less dense medium. The
critical angle is 60°. Draw the path of the light through both media when the angle of
incidence is
a. 40°
b. 50°
c. 60°
d.70°
e. 80°
Q1.
Which OSI Model layer is the fourth layer above the physical layer?
a)
Session
b)
Transport
c)
Application
d)
Physical
e)
None of the above
chapter 10 part1:
1. A best-effort delivery service such as IPv4 includes _______.
A)
error checking
B)
error correction
C)
datagram acknowledgment
D)
none of the above
2. In IPv4 header, an HLEN value of decimal 10 means _______.
A)
there are 10 bytes of options
B)
there are 40 bytes of options
C)
there are 10 bytes in the header
D)
there are 40 bytes in the header
3. In IPv4, what is the value of the total length field in bytes if the header is 28 bytes and
the data field is 400 bytes?
A)
428
B)
407
C)
107
D)
427
4. In IPv4, what is the length of the data field given an HLEN value of 12 and total length
value of 40,000?
A)
39,988
B)
40,012
C)
40,048
D)
39,952
5. An IPv4 datagram is fragmented into three smaller datagrams. Which of the following
is true?
A)
The do not fragment bit is set to 1 for all three datagrams.
B)
The more fragment bit is set to 0 for all three datagrams.
C)
The identification field is the same for all three datagrams.
D)
The offset field is the same for all three datagrams.
6. In IPv4, if the fragment offset has a value of 100, it means that _______.
A)
the datagram has not been fragmented
B)
the datagram is 100 bytes in size
C)
the first byte of the datagram is byte 100
D)
the first byte of the datagram is byte 800
7. In IPv4, what is needed to determine the number of the last byte of a fragment?
A)
Identification number
B)
Offset number
C)
Total length
D)
(b) and (c)
8. The IPv4 header size _______.
A)
is 20 to 60 bytes long
B)
is always 20 bytes long
C)
is always 60 bytes long
D)
depends on the MTU
9. Which of the following is a necessary part of the IPv6 datagram?
A)
Base header
B)
Extension header
C)
Data packet from the upper layer
D)
(a) and (c)
10. In IPv6, the _______ field in the base header restricts the lifetime of a datagram.
A)
version
B)
next-header
C)
hop limit
D)
neighbor-advertisement
11. The ________ protocol is the transmission mechanism used by the TCP/IP suite.
A)
ARP
B)
IP
C)
RARP
D)
none of the above
12. IP is _________ datagram protocol.
A)
an unreliable
B)
a connectionless
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
13. The term ________ means that IP provides no error checking or tracking. IP assumes
the unreliability of the underlying layers and does its best to get a transmission through to
its destination, but with no guarantees.
A)
reliable delivery
B)
connection-oriented delivery
C)
best-effort delivery
D)
none of the above
14. In IPv4, an HLEN value of decimal 10 means _______.
A)
there are 10 bytes of options
B)
there are 40 bytes of options
C)
there are 40 bytes in the header
D)
none of the above
15. In IPv4, which field or bit value unambiguously identifies the datagram as a
fragment?
A)
Do not fragment bit ? 0
B)
More Fragment bit ? 0
C)
Fragment offset = 1000
D)
none of the above
16. The IPv4 header size _______.
A)
is 20 to 60 bytes long
B)
is 20 bytes long
C)
is 60 bytes long
D)
none of the above
17. In IPv4, when a datagram is encapsulated in a frame, the total size of the datagram
must be less than the _______.
A)
MUT
B)
MAT
C)
MTU
D)
none of the above
18. The IPv4 header field formerly known as the service type field is now called the
_______ field.
A)
IETF
B)
checksum
C)
differentiated services
D)
none of the above
19. In IPv6, options are inserted between the _________ and the ___________ data.
A)
base header; extension header
B)
base header; upper-layer data
C)
base header; frame header
D)
none of the above
20. IPv6 allows _________ security provisions than IPv4.
A)
more
B)
less
C)
the same level
D)
none of the above
21. In IPv6, when a datagram needs to be discarded in a congested network, the decision
is based on the _______ field in the base header.
A)
hop limit
B)
priority
C)
next header
D)
none of the above
22. In IPv6, the _______ field in the base header and the sender IP address combine to
indicate a unique path identifier for a specific flow of data.
A)
flow label
B)
next header
C)
hop limit
D)
destination IP address
ANSWERS:
1
D
2
D
3
A
4
D
5
C
6
D
7
D
8
A
9
A
10 11 12 13 14
C B C C C
15 16 17 18 19
C A C C B
20 21 22
A B A
Chapter 10 part2 (addressing)
1. An IPv4 address consists of _______ bits.
A)
4
B)
8
C)
32
D)
64
2. In IPv4, class _______ has the greatest number of addresses in each block.
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
D
3. Identify the class of the following IPv4 address: 4.5.6.7.
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
none of the above
4. Identify the class of the following IPv4 address: 229.1.2.3.
A)
A
B)
B
C)
D
D)
none of the above
5. Identify the class of the following IPv4 address: 191.1.2.3.
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
none of the above
6. What is the result of ANDing 255 and 15?
A)
255
B)
15
C)
0
D)
none of the above
7. What is the result of ANDing 0 and 15?
A)
255
B)
15
C)
0
D)
none of the above
8. What is the result of ANDing 254 and 15?
A)
254
B)
14
C)
0
D)
none of the above
9. What is the result of ANDing 192 and 65?
A)
192
B)
65
C)
64
D)
none of the above
10. Which one is not a contiguous mask?
A)
255.255.255.254
B)
255.255.224.0
C)
255.148.0.0
D)
all are
11. The number of addresses in a class C block is _______.
A)
65,534
B)
16,777,216
C)
256
D)
none of the above
12. The number of addresses in a class B block is _______.
A)
65,536
B)
16,777,216
C)
256
D)
none of the above
13. The number of addresses in a class A block is _______.
A)
65,534
B)
16,777,216
C)
256
D)
none of the above
14. The number of addresses assigned to an organization in classless addressing _______.
A)
can be any number
B)
must be a multiple of 256
C)
must be a power of 2
D)
none of the above
15. The first address assigned to an organization in classless addressing _______.
A)
must be a power of 4
B)
must be evenly divisible by the number of addresses
C)
must belong to one of the A, B, or C classes
D)
none of the above
16. Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 32 classless addresses?
A)
2.4.6.5
B)
2.4.6.16
C)
2.4.6.64
D)
none of the above
17. Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 16 classless addresses?
A)
2.4.6.5
B)
2.4.6.15
C)
2.4.6.62
D)
none of the above
18. Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 256 classless addresses?
A)
2.4.6.5
B)
2.4.6.15
C)
2.4.6.0
D)
none of the above
19. What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is
12.2.2.76/27?
A)
12.2.2.0
B)
12.2.2.32
C)
12.2.2.64
D)
none of the above
20. What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is
12.2.2.76/10?
A)
12.0.0.0
B)
12.2.0.0
C)
12.2.2.2
D)
none of the above
21. What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is
12.2.2.127/28?
A)
12.2.2.0
B)
12.2.2.96
C)
12.2.2.112
D)
none of the above
22. Find the number of addresses in a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses
is 12.2.2.7/24.
A)
32
B)
64
C)
256
D)
none of the above
23. Find the number of addresses in a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses
is 12.2.2.7/30.
A)
2
B)
4
C)
8
D)
none of the above
24. What is the last address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is
12.2.2.127/28?
A)
12.2.2.16
B)
12.2.2.112
C)
12.2.2.127
D)
none of the above
25. What is the last address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is
12.2.2.6/30?
A)
12.2.2.2
B)
12.2.2.6
C)
12.2.2.7
D)
none of the above
26. An organization is granted a block; one address is 2.2.2.64/20. The organization
needs 10 subnets. What is the subnet prefix length?
A)
/20
B)
/24
C)
/25
D)
none of the above
27. An organization is granted a block; one address is 2.2.2.64/25. If the subnet prefix
length is /28, what is the maximum number of subnets?
A)
2
B)
4
C)
8
D)
none of the above
28. An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with the starting address
199.34.76.64/28. How many addresses are granted?
A)
8
B)
16
C)
32
D)
none of the above
29. An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with the starting address
199.34.76.128/29. How many addresses are granted?
A)
8
B)
16
C)
32
D)
none of the above
30. An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with the starting address
199.34.32.0/27. How many addresses are granted?
A)
8
B)
16
C)
32
D)
none of the above
31. What is the default mask for class A in CIDR notation?
A)
/9
B)
/8
C)
/16
D)
none of the above
32. What is the default mask for class B in CIDR notation?
A)
/9
B)
/8
C)
/16
D)
none of the above
33. What is the default mask for class C in CIDR notation?
A)
/24
B)
/8
C)
/16
D)
none of the above
34. In classless addressing, the ______ is another name for the common part of the
address range.
A)
suffix
B)
prefix
C)
netid
D)
none of the above
35. In classless addressing, the _______ is the varying part (similar to the hostid).
A)
suffix
B)
prefix
C)
hostid
D)
none of the above
36. In classless addressing, the prefix length defines the _____________.
A)
netid
B)
hostid
C)
mask
D)
none of the above
37. In a block, the prefix length is /24; what is the mask?
A)
255.255.255.0
B)
255.255.242.0
C)
255.255.0.0
D)
none of the above
38. In a block, the prefix length is /15; what is the mask?
A)
255.254.0.0
B)
255.255.255.0
C)
255.255.255.128
D)
none of the above
39. In a block, the mask is 255.255.192.0; what is the prefix length?
A)
/20
B)
/28
C)
/18
D)
none of the above
40. An IPv6 address is _________ bits long.
A)
32
B)
64
C)
128
D)
none of the above
41. An IPv6 address consists of ________ bytes (octets);
A)
4
B)
8
C)
16
D)
none of the above
42. To make addresses more readable, IPv6 specifies ____________notation.
A)
dotted decimal
B)
hexadecimal colon
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
43. In hexadecimal colon notation, a 128-bit address is divided into _______ sections,
each _____ hexadecimal digits in length.
A)
8: 2
B)
8: 3
C)
8: 4
D)
none of the above
44. An IPv6 address can have up to __________ colons.
A)
8
B)
7
C)
4
D)
none of the above
45. An IPv6 address can have up to __________ hexadecimal digits.
A)
16
B)
32
C)
8
D)
none of the above
46. In IPv6, _______ address defines a single computer.
A)
a unicast
B)
a multicast
C)
an anycast
D)
none of the above
47. In IPv6, ____ address defines a group of computers with addresses that have the same
prefix.
A)
a unicast
B)
a multicast
C)
an anycast
D)
none of the above
48. In IPv6, _________ address defines a group of computers.
A)
a unicast
B)
a multicast
C)
an anycast
D)
none of the above
49. In IPv6, the ________ prefix defines the purpose of the address.
A)
type
B)
purpose
C)
both a and b
D)
none of the above
50. In IPv6, the___________ address is generally used by a normal host as a unicast
address.
A)
provider-based unicast
B)
link local
C)
site local
D)
none of the above
51. In IPv6, a _________address comprises 80 bits of zero, followed by 16 bits of one,
followed by the 32-bit IPv4 address.
A)
link local
B)
site local
C)
mapped
D)
none of the above
52. In IPv6, a ___________ address is an address of 96 bits of zero followed by 32 bits of
IPv4 address.
A)
link local
B)
site local
C)
mapped
D)
none of the above
53. In IPv6, a _______ address is used if a LAN uses the Internet protocols but is not
connected to the Internet for security reasons.
A)
link local
B)
site local
C)
mapped
D)
none of the above
54. In IPv6, a ______address is used if a site with several networks uses the Internet
protocols but is not connected to the Internet for security reasons.
A)
link local
B)
site local
C)
mapped
D)
none of the above
ANSWERS:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21
C A A C B B C B C C C A B C B C D C C A C
22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42
C B C C B C B A C B C A B A C A A C C C B
43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
C B B A C B A A C D A B
Chapter 13:
1. The _______ is the physical path over which a message travels.
A)
Protocol
B)
Medium
C)
Signal
D)
All the above
2. The information to be communicated in a data communications system is the _______.
A)
Medium
B)
Protocol
C)
Message
D)
Transmission
3. Frequency of failure and network recovery time after a failure are measures of the
_______of a network.
A)
Performance
B)
Reliability
C)
Security
D)
Feasibility
4. An unauthorized user is a network _______ issue.
A)
Performance
B)
Reliability
C)
Security
D)
All the above
5. Which topology requires a central controller or hub?
A)
Mesh
B)
Star
C)
Bus
D)
Ring
6. Which topology requires a multipoint connection?
A)
Mesh
B)
Star
C)
Bus
D)
Ring
7. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______________
transmission.
A)
simplex
B)
half-duplex
C)
full-duplex
D)
automatic
8. A television broadcast is an example of _______ transmission.
A)
simplex
B)
half-duplex
C)
full-duplex
D)
automatic
9. A _______ connection provides a dedicated link between two devices.
A)
point-to-point
B)
multipoint
C)
primary
D)
secondary
10. In a _______ connection, more than two devices can share a single link.
A)
point-to-point
B)
multipoint
C)
primary
D)
secondary
11. In _______ transmission, the channel capacity is shared by both communicating
devices at all times.
A)
simplex
B)
half-duplex
C)
full-duplex
D)
half-simplex
12. In the original ARPANET, _______ were directly connected together.
A)
IMPs
B)
host computers
C)
networks
D)
routers
13. This was the first network.
A)
CSNET
B)
NSFNET
C)
ANSNET
D)
ARPANET
14. Which organization has authority over interstate and international commerce in
the communications field?
A)
ITU-T
B)
IEEE
C)
FCC
D)
ISOC
15. _______ are special-interest groups that quickly test, evaluate, and standardize
new technologies.
A)
Forums
B)
Regulatory agencies
C)
Standards organizations
D)
All of the above
16. Which agency developed standards for physical connection interfaces and
electronic signaling specifications?
A)
EIA
B)
ITU-T
C)
ANSI
D)
ISO
17. _______ is the protocol suite for the current Internet.
A)
TCP/IP
B)
NCP
C)
UNIX
D)
ACM
18. _______ refers to the structure or format of the data, meaning the order in which they
are presented.
A)
Semantics
B)
Syntax
C)
Timing
D)
All of the above
19. ________ defines how a particular pattern to be interpreted, and what action is to be
taken based on that interpretation.
A)
Semantics
B)
Syntax
C)
Timing
D)
None of the above
20. _______ refers to two characteristics: when data should be sent and how fast it can
be sent.
A)
Semantics
B)
Syntax
C)
Timing
D)
none of the above
21. Data flow between two devices can occur in a _______ way.
A)
simplex
B)
half-duplex
C)
full-duplex
D)
all of the above
22. In a ______ connection, two and only two devices are connected by a dedicated link.
A)
multipoint
B)
point-to-point
C)
(a) and (b)
D)
none of the above
23. In a ________ connection, three or more devices share a link.
A)
multipoint
B)
point-to-point
C)
(a) and (b)
D)
none of the above
24. ______ refers to the physical or logical arrangement of a network.
A)
Data flow
B)
Mode of operation
C)
Topology
D)
None of the above
25. Devices may be arranged in a _____ topology.
A)
mesh
B)
ring
C)
bus
D)
all of the above
26. A _______ is a data communication system within a building, plant, or campus, or
between nearby buildings.
A)
MAN
B)
LAN
C)
WAN
D)
none of the above
27. A ______ is a data communication system spanning states, countries, or the whole
world.
A)
MAN
B)
LAN
C)
WAN
D)
none of the above
28. ________ is a collection of many separate networks.
A)
A WAN
B)
An internet
C)
a LAN
D)
None of the above
29. There are ______________ Internet service providers.
A)
local
B)
regional
C)
national and international
D)
all of the above
30. A ________ is a set of rules that governs data communication.
A)
forum
B)
protocol
C)
standard
D)
none of the above
31. ________ is an idea or concept that is a precursor to an Internet standard.
A)
RCF
B)
RFC
C)
ID
D)
none of the above
Q7.
According to Nyquist’s theorem, the maximum transmission rate (in bps) on a noiseless
channel for a given bandwidth is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Q8.
Half the bandwidth
Equal to the highest signal frequency
Twice highest signal frequency
Twice the bandwidth
None of the above
In asynchronous transmission:
a)
a start bit is needed before the transmission of a byte
b)
no stop bit is required
c)
a character consists of 5 bits
d)
a stop bit returns the line to the non-idle state
e)
None of the above
Q9.
In the “Go-Back-N” ARQ mechanism, the maximum window size for a k-bit
sequence number field in information frames is:
a)
k
b)
k+1
c)
2k
d)
2k-1
e)
None of the above
Q10.
What topology is illustrated in the diagram below?
a)
Star
b)
Bus
c)
Tree
d)
Ring
e)
None of the above
Chapter 14:
Q11.
Which of the following Ethernet standards does not utilize the CSMA/CD access
method?
a)
1000 Mbps Ethernet
b)
500 Mbps Ethernet
c)
100 Mbps Ethernet
d)
10 Mbps Ethernet
e)
None of the above
Q12.
Which LAN standard has the highest data rate?
a)
10Base5
b)
10Base-T
c)
Twisted Pair Token Ring
d)
FDDI
e)
None of the above
Q13.
Which of the following IP Network addresses is a reserved address?
Q14.
a)
127.0.0.0
b)
130.50.0.0
c)
197.65.10.0
d)
4.0.0.0
e)
None of the above
When installing an Ethernet 10BASE-T network, what type of cable is used?
a)
b)
c)
Fiber Optic
Coaxial Cable
Twisted Pair
d)
e)
Q15.
The key requirement/s for a routing function in packet-switching networks is/are:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Q16.
Wireless
None of the above
Efficiency
Correctness, Simplicity and Fairness
Optimality, Robustness and Stability
All of the above
None of the above
In alternate routing scheme (circuit-switched networks), the responsibility to select the
appropriate route for each call rests on the:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
End station
Routing station or switch at mid-point
Originating switch
End station and the originating switch
None of the above
Q17.
Q18.
In packet switched networks that use distributed routing:
a)
The central node typically makes use of information obtained from all nodes for
the purpose of forwarding packets
b)
Each node has the responsibility of selecting an output link for routing packets
as they arrive, based on a routing table
c)
A routing decision is made by source only
d)
A routing decision is made by the central node based on best performance
criteria
e)
None of the above
Which of the following sequences best describes the establishment, communication and
termination of a communication session using a packet switched network?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Q19.
A typical digital telephone channel in TDM circuits is allocated a speed of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Q20.
Setup, Data transfer, Disconnect
Data Transfer, Disconnect
Dial, Data Transfer, Disconnect
Dial, Setup, Data Transfer
None of the above
4 kbps
8 kbps
64 kbps
1.544 Mbps
None of the above
Which of the following is not a WAN technology?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
X.25
Frame Relay
ATM
TCP/IP
None of the above