Physics 742 – Graduate Quantum Mechanics 2 Solutions to Final Exam, Spring 2014 Due Monday, May 5 by 5 PM You may use (1) class notes, (2) former homeworks and solutions (available online), or (3) any math references, such as integral tables, Maple, etc, including any routines I provided for you. If you cannot do an integral or sum, or if you cannot solve an equation, try to go on, as if you knew the answer. Some useful integral appear on the last page. The approximate points (out of 200) are marked for each problem and part. Feel free to contact me with questions. Work: 758-4994 Home: 724-2008 Cell: 407-6528 1. [15] A particle of mass m and initial momentum k moving in the +z direction scatters from a weak potential V r z exp 12 x 2 y 2 . Calculate the differential cross-section d d and total cross-section in the first Born approximation. Note that the potential is not spherically symmetric, and hence you cannot choose the momentum change K to be along the z-axis. I recommend working in Cartesian coordinates. For , you may leave one integral undone. The first step is we need the Fourier transform of V, which is given by 3 iK r d rV r e iK x x 2 iK z z e dz e e dx e 2 x z iK y y y 2 2 e dy iK iK x K Ky y 2 exp x exp exp 4 2 2 2 4 2 2 2 2 2 2 We now plug this into the formula for the first Born approximation, namely d m2 d 4 2 4 d re 3 V r iK r 2 2 K x2 K y2 m 2 2 2 4 exp 4 We have K k F k I , but kI has no component in the x- or y-direction, so only kF contributes, for which k F k sin cos xˆ sin sin yˆ cos zˆ , so we have k2 m2 2 k 2 sin 2 d m 2 2 4 2 exp sin 2 cos 2 sin 2 sin 2 4 2 exp . d We now integrate this over all angles to yield d m2 2 d 4 2 d 2 k 2 sin 2 2 m 2 2 d exp d cos 0 1 4 2 1 k2 2 exp 1 1 w dw 1 The final integral is some sort of error function, but this doesn’t really help much. 2. [20] A particle of mass m lies in the spherical infinite square well, with potential 0 if r R , V r if r R . The radius R of the confining sphere will actually be a function of time, so that it changes. (a) [10] The ground state is given in the allowed region r < R by r N r sin r R Show that this is, in fact, an eigenstate of the Hamiltonian, and determine the energy and the correct normalization factor N. We simply substitute it into Schrodinger’s equation. It is obvious that the wave function is continuous at the boundary r = R, and within this boundary there is no potential, so we have 1 2 2 2 2 r sin 2 2 2 2 2 2 1 2 r N r N r sin cos sin , N 2 2 2m r r 2 R 2mr R r R 2mr R R 2mR 22 . E 2mR 2 E r 2 2 2 1 2 1 r 2 sin 2 2m 2m r r r sin To get the normalization, we merely demand that the normalization integral yield 1, so we have 1 r 2 1 r d r N r dr d 2 sin 2 4 N r R 0 R 3 2 1 , 2 R 1 r sin . r r 2 R R N 2 R 2 sin 0 2 2 r dr 2 N R , R (b) [10] The radius R of the allowed region is slowly decreased from R to 12 R . What is the probability that it will remain in the ground state? The radius is then suddenly increased from 12 R to R. What is the probability now that it remains in the ground state? Because the change is occurring slowly, we use the adiabatic approximation. This implies that the ground state will continuously evolve into the ground state. Hence for this process, we have P g g 1 . The wave function at the end will be the same expression as before, except R 12 R , so it is now r 2 r sin . r R R 1 This is only in the allowed region r 12 R . The radius now suddenly increases, which means that we can use the sudden approximation, P g g g g . So we need to find 2 g g * r r d 3 r 1R 2 r dr d r 2 0 1 r 1 2 r sin sin 2 R R r R R 1R 2 4 4 2R 4 2 r 2 r sin sin , dr 3 R 2 3 R 2 0 R R 32 P g g 2 36.03%. 9 Maple was happy to do that last integral for us. > integrate(sin(Pi*r/R)*sin(2*Pi*r/R),r=0..R/2); 3. [15] A particle is in a one-dimensional infinite square well, with allowed region 0 x a . It is initially in the ground, or n 1 state. At t = 0, a perturbation of the form W APe t , where A is a small positive number and P is the momentum operator, is turned on. Calculate to leading order (that’s order A2), the probability that the particle ends up in the state n at t for all n > 1. The eigenstates and energies of the one-dimensional infinite square well can be found in equations (2.38), so we know that in the allowed region n x 2 22n2 nx sin , E . n a 2ma 2 a The matrix element Wn1 t is then given by d 2 t nx x Wn1 t n W t 1 x 1 x dx Ae sin cos dx , i dx a ia a a 0 a * n 4 n A t e 2 Wn1 t i n 1 a 0 if n even, if n odd. We now simply use equation (15.14) to get the amplitude, keeping only the first non-trivial term. Keeping only the even cases, we have S n1 1 in1t 1 A 4n t in1t 4 An 1 e Wn1 t dt e e dt 2 . 2 i 0 i i a n 1 0 n 1 a in1 We then have P 1 n even Sn1 16 A2 n 2 2 a 2 n 2 1 2 n21 2 , P 1 n odd 0 . The frequency difference is given by 2 2 En E1 n 1 n1 . 2ma 2 This allows us, if we wish, to rewrite our final answer as P 1 n even 64m 2 a 2 A2 n 2 2 2 n2 1 4 2 m2 a 4 2 2 n2 1 , P 1 n odd 0 . 4. [15] A particle of mass m in one dimension is in the bound state of the Dirac delta function. This state has wave function and energy given by g x e x , Eg , The values of and depend on the mass and the strength of the delta function. It is then affected by a time-dependent perturbation of the form W t P cos t , where P is the momentum operator and is very small. The frequency is high enough such that . (a) [2] Write W t in the form W t We it W †eit . What is W? Using cos 12 ei 12 e i , it is clear that W 12 P . (b)[5] For sufficiently high energies, the potential is negligible, and the eigesntates are approximately momentum eigenstates k . Work out the matrix element k W g for these high energy final states. Hint – let any momentum operators act to the left. Momentum eigenstates, properly normalized, have wave function given by eq. (3.14) in three dimensions, or k x eikx 2 in one. The matrix elements will be k W g 12 k P g 12 k k g 12 k 2 2 k 2 2 k e 0 x ikx e 2 0 dx e x e ikx dx e ikx x dx k 2 2 0 e x e ikx eikx dx k 3/2 1 1 . 2 2 k 2 ik ik (c) [8] Calculate the rate g k for a given final state wave number k. Integrate it over k to get the rate for the transition. The rate is just given by equation (15.21): g k 2 2k 2 2 2 2 k 3/2 Wkg Ek Eg 2 2 2 k 2m 2 3k 2 2 k 2 . 2 2 2 k 2 m We then integrate this over k to get the total rate: 2 3 k 2 2k 2 2 3k 2 2 k dk 2 2 2 2 2 2 m k k 2m k 1 2m 2 3 k 2 k 2 2 . The expression in absolute values comes from the general rule about integrating delta functions. The factor of 2 comes because there are two values of k where the delta function vanishes. The value of k in this expression is the place where the delta function argument vanishes, explicitly k 1 2m . 5. [20] A system consists of a superposition of a zero photon state and two one photon states, so that t 0 N 2 0 q,1 i q, 2 where N is a normalization constant, q qzˆ , and the two polarizations are ε q,1 xˆ and ε q, 2 yˆ . (a) [3] What is the normalization constant N? We simply demand that the inner product of this state with itself be one, so 1 N 2 2 0 q,1 i q, 2 2 0 q,1 i q, 2 N 2 2 1 1 4 N , 2 N 12 . (b) [5] What is the state vector t at an arbitrary time? Work in the convention where the energy of the vacuum is 0. Each of these states is an eigenstate of the Hamiltonian, and hence they simply pick up a phase given by e iEt . The energy of the vacuum is zero, and the energy of the one-photon states is E qc . Hence the last two terms each pick up a factor of e iqct . Including our normalization, the state vector at arbitrary time is t 1 2 2 0 q,1 e iqct i q, 2 e iqct (c) [12] what is the expectation value of the electric field E r at arbitrary time and arbitrary position for the state you found in part (b)? We simply sandwich the operator between the initial and final state. The electric field operator has creation and annihilation operators for all photons, but since the state has only photons with momentum q, any term that creates or annihilates the wrong type of photon will automatically vanish. We are also dealing with real polarizations. It follows that k E r t i ε k eik r ak ε*k e ik r ak† t 2 0V k , i cq 2 0V t ε e q i cq 4 2 0V iqr aq e iqr aq† t 2 0 q,1 eiqct i q, 2 eiqct eiqz xˆ aq1 eiqz yˆ aq 2 e iqz xˆ aq†1 e iqz yˆ aq†2 2 0 q,1 e iqct i q, 2 e iqct . As messy as this expression is, the creation and annihilation operators are non-vanishing only if they are creating or annihilating the exact right photon. Hence if you multiply it out, the only non-vanishing terms are 0 aq1 q,1 0 aq 2 q, 2 q,1 aq†1 0 q, 2 aq† 2 0 1. Hence when you multiply everything out, you get E r i cq 2xˆ eiqz iqct 2iyˆ eiqz iqct 2xˆ eiqct iqz 2iyˆ eiqct iqz 4 2 0V 1 cq xˆ ieiqz iqct ieiqct iqz yˆ eiqz iqct eiqct iqz 4 0V 1 cq xˆ sin qz qct yˆ cos qz qct . 2 0V The expectation value turned out to be real, as it had to be. 6. [20] An electron is trapped in a 3D infinite square well, with allowed region 0 x a , 0 y a , 0 z a . It is in the quantum state nx , ny , nz 1,1, 4 . (a) [12] Calculate every non-vanishing matrix element of the form nx , ny , nz R 1,1, 4 where the final state is lower in energy than the initial state (there will be very few of these). The eigenstates of this Hamiltonian take the form n ,n x y , nz 8 nx x n y y nz z sin sin . sin a3 a a a The energy is given by Enx ,ny , nz 2 2 2ma 2 n 2 x n y2 nz2 . To lower the energy, we must therefore lower some of the three labels nx, ny¸and nz. However, we can’t lower the first two, so we must lower the last one. We then need to calculate the messy integrals nx , ny , nz R 1,1, 4 . To understand what is going on, consider a specific one, such as the X operator, for which we would have nx , n y , nz X 1,1, 4 8 a3 a ny y y nx x x sin sin sin x dx 0 a a 0 a sin a dy a a n z 4 z sin z sin dz . 0 a a But the last integral vanishes unless nz 4 , so this term clearly vanishes. Similarly, we will get zero if we used Y instead. So we must use Z, and furthermore, to get the other terms to not vanish, we must choose nx n y 1 . Hence we need only calculate a a x y n z 4 z sin 2 dx sin 2 dy sin z sin zdz 0 0 0 a a a a 8a 2 n 16an 8 a a n 1 1n 1 1 . 3 2 2 2 n 2 16 a 2 2 2 n 2 16 1,1, n Z 1,1, 4 8 a3 a The last factor is 2 for odd n and zero for even n. Since we are only interested in values smaller than n = 4, this narrows it down to 1,1,1 R 1,1, 4 32a zˆ , 225 2 1,1,3 R 1,1, 4 96a zˆ . 49 2 (b) [8] Calculate the decay rate 1,1, 4 nx , n y , nz for this decay in the dipole approximation for every possible final state. What is the ratio of the two rates? In the dipole approximation, these rates are 4IF3 rFI 3c 2 2 The frequencies are given by IF EI EF 2 16 n 2 2 2ma Assuming the final state is odd, then we have 2 3 32an 4 2 512 2 3 n2 2 3 1,1, 4 1,1, n 2 16 n 2 2 2 3c 2m3a 4 16 n2 . 3c 2ma 2 n 16 This formula is correct only for n = 1 and n = 3, for which this becomes 512 2 3 1 512 2 3 9 1,1, 4 1,1,1 , 1,1, 4 1,1,3 , 3c 2 m3 a 4 15 3c 2 m3 a 4 7 1,1, 4 1,1,3 135 19.29 . 7 1,1, 4 1,1,1 7. [30] A hydrogen atom is at rest in a strong magnetic field oriented in the zdirection. This field adds an additional perturbation to the hydrogen atom as given in Eq. (9.23): W eB S z 12 Lz m The field is sufficiently strong that we can neglect any hyperfine effects. The atom is initially in the state n, l , m, ms 1, 0, 0, 12 , but it will transition to 1, 0, 0, 12 . (a) [2] Explain why this transition cannot occur in the electric dipole approximation. In the electric dipole approximation, the rate for such a transition is governed by the electric dipole matrix element, F R I , but R only connects states whose l values differ by one, so clearly this is not going to work. Also, R doesn’t change the spin state anyway. (b) [8] Find all non-vanishing matrix elements coming from the magnetic dipole transition F S 12 L I . Because our initial state (and final state) has l = 0, it has no angular dependence, so L I 0 . Hence we need to look only at S. The operator S doesn’t change the space wave function at all, so we focus exclusively on the spin part. Keeping in mind that S 12 σ , and we can figure out the effects of the Pauli matrices on the spin states with the help of eq. (7.17), so we have 0 1 1 0 Sx , 2 1 0 0 2 1 2 0 i 1 i 1 i , Sy 2 i 0 0 2 0 2 1 0 1 1 Sz . 2 0 1 0 2 0 2 It follows that F S x I 12 , F S y I 12 i , F S 12 L I 12 xˆ iyˆ . F Sz I 0 , (c) [20] Find a formula for the differential decay rate d d for this decay into a particular polarization ε . You do not need to sum it or integrate it over polarizations. We start with an equation from the middle of 316, supplemented by the last equation on page 317, keeping only the relevant spin part. We have, therefore, WFI1 e F e ik R ε* P i k ε* S I m 2 0V ie ie F k ε* S 12 L I k ε* xˆ iyˆ 2m 2 0V m 2 0V We then substitute this into (18.1), yielding I F 2 2 2 e 2 3 2 k ε* xˆ iyˆ F I . WFI EF EI 2 8m 0V We will need the energies of the initial and final states, which are easy to determine because our states are eigenstates of the perturbation, with eigenvalues I eB m 2 and F eB eB , I F . m 2 m The probability of going to a particular final state in an infinite universe is small, which is why there is a factor of V in the denominator. To get over this problem, we sum over final state momenta and/or polarizations. For now, let’s just sum over momenta. We use the usual trick for converting a sum over states into an integral, and then also use the identity e 2 4 0 c , and write at least some of the wave numbers using kc . We’ll also write k kkˆ to separate the magnitude and direction of k. I F 2 2 e 2 3 1 * ˆ ˆ k ε x y F I i 8m 2 0V k 2 e2 2 k 2 d 3k 1 ˆ * eB ˆ ˆ k ε x y i 3 2 4m 0V 2 m 2 3c k 4 dk eB ˆ ε* xˆ iyˆ k d 8 m 2 0 m 2 2 3 d kˆ ε* xˆ iyˆ 2 4 8 m c We now delay doing the angular integral and find 2 d 2 3 ˆ * ˆ ˆ i k ε x y d 8 m 2 c 4 The value of comes from the delta function, namely eB m . 8. [15] The Dirac equation in the presence of electromagnetic fields is given by i cα P eA R, t eU R, t mc 2 t where P i . Prove or disprove: The Dirac equation is invariant under gauge transformations. A gauge transformation is, according to eqs. (9.11), U r, t U r, t r, t t A r , t A r , t r , t r, t r, t exp ie r, t The question is whether, if the Dirac equation is satisfied by the unprimed functions, will they be satisfied by the primes functions? To find out, plug it in on both sides, then simplify until they are identical i r, t t cα i eA r, t eU r, t mc 2 r, t i cα i eA r, t e r, t ie r ,t ie r ,t r , t e r, t e 2 t eU t e t t mc r , r , Now, let the derivatives act on each side. The resulting equation will have a common factor of e ie r ,t , which we cancel ie r, t eA r, t e r, t r, t ie r, t cα i i r, t i r, t , t t 2 eU r, t e r, t t mc r, t r, t r, t e r, t cα i eA r, t eU r, t e mc 2 r, t , i t t t i r, t cα i eA r, t eU r, t mc 2 r, t . t This is simply the Dirac equation back again, so we have shown they are equivalent. Definite Integrals: For each of the following formulas, m and n and p are assumed to be positive integers. e Ax x n dx 0 n 1 if Re A 0, An 1 n Ax e x dx 2 0 n21 n 1 2A 2 if Re A 0, n 1 n !, 12 , 32 a 1 2 , 52 3 4 . 2a n if n is odd, nx dx 0 if n is even, a sin 0 a nx dx 0 a cos 0 nx mx nx mx 0 cos a cos a dx 0 sin a sin a dx 12 a nm a a 2na n 2 m 2 if n m is odd nx mx dx sin cos 0 a a 0 if n m is even a 4a 2 mn nx mx 0 sin a sin a x dx a 2 n 2 m 2 2 if n m is odd 1 2 if n m is even 4 a nm a 2 n 1 nx mx 0 sin a cos a x dx m2 n2 a m n 2a 2 m 2 n 2 2 n 2 m 2 2 if n m is odd nx mx x dx cos cos 0 a a 1 2 if n m is even 4 a nm a