SLR-O – 8
*SLRO8*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Biotechnology) (Semester – I) Examination, 2014
ECOLOGY AND MICROBIOLOGY (Paper – II)(old)
Microbiology
Day and Date : Wednesday, 5-11-2014
Max Marks : 50
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the sentences using correct alternative given below :
10
1) Alexander Fleming discovered __________ antibiotic.
a) Kanamycin
b) Streptomycin
c) Penicillin
d) Tetracyclin
2) ___________ is structural component of cell membrane.
a) Amino sugar
b) N acetyl glucosamine
c) Phospholipids
d) Techoic acid
3) Bacteriophage is common example of __________ symmetry.
a) Icosahedral
b) Helical
c) Simple
d) Complex
4) Pilus is made up of _________ protein subunits.
a) Flagellin
b) Pilin
c) Perforin
d) Globulin
5) Pasteurisation is achieved at temp. _________ for ________ min.
a) 62 . 8° c for 30 min
b) 30 ° c for 60 min
c) 45 ° c for 40 min
d) 40° c for 10 min
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6) Unit used in bacteriology for size measurement is
a) Micrometer
b) Centimeter
c) Meter
d) Milimeter
7) Tobacco Mosaic Virus shows presence of __________ symmetry.
a) Helical
b) Ecosahedral
c) Polyhedral
d) Complex
8) S.J. Singer and G.N. Nicholson proposed __________ model for structure of
cell memb.
a) Ping-pong
b) Fluid Mosaic
c) Zig-zag
d) Daniel and Davson
9) Penicillin act on ___________ of bacterial cell.
a) Cell wall
b) Cell membrane
c) Bacterial DNA
d) Ribosome
10) ___________ is example of algae.
a) Pseudomonas
b) Nostoc
c) Fusarium
d) Penicillium
2. Answer any five of the following :
10
1) Write any four contributions of Louis Pasteur in Microbiology.
2) Give four examples of bacteria.
3) Difference between capsule and slime layer.
4) Define Industrial Microbiology. Give its any two applications.
5) Give general characters of algae.
6) Define flagella and give its function.
3. A) Answer any two of the following :
6
i) Explain general characters of Archaebacteria.
ii) Explain applications of agricultural Microbiology.
iii) Give brief account of capsule.
B) Explain the structure and function of bacterial cell membrane.
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4. Answer any two of the following.
10
1) Give brief account of Antony Van Leeuwenhoek’s contribution in Microbiology.
2) Explain the difference between Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes.
3) Explain in detail characters of types of Microorganisms.
5. Answer any two of the following.
i) Discuss in detail general characteristics of actinomycetes and mycoplasma.
ii) Explain useful and harmful activities of Micro-organisms.
iii) Explain in detail account of milk microbiology.
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*SLRO13*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester – I) Examination, 2014
BIOTECHNOLOGY – Cell Biology and Biostatistics (Old)
(Paper – I) Cell Biology
Day and Date : Wednesday, 12-11-2014
Max. Marks : 50
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat labelled diagram whenever necessary.
1. Rewrite the sentences using correct alternatives.
10
1) RNA is synthesized by DNA, that process is known as
a) transcription
b) translation
c) replication
d) duplication
2) ___________ is an example of passive transport.
a) Na+ – K+/ATPase pump
b) Ca2+ pump
c) Protein pump
d) Facilitated diffusion
3) Ingestion of large sized solid substances by the cell is known as
a) Exocytosis
b) Endosmosis
c) Phagocytosis
d) Pinocytosis
4) The haploid set of chromosome is known as
a) Gene
b) Genome
c) DNA
d) Nucleus
5) ____________ proteins are involved in the nuclear pore active transport.
a) Nucleoporins
b) Nucleohistones
c) Nuclease
d) Nucleoplasmins
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6) _____________ is the correct sequence of cell cycle.
a) G1 → S → G2 → M
b) M → G1 → G2 → S
c) G0 → G2 → G1 → M
d) S → M → G2 → G1
7) The Na+ – K+ – ATPase pump functions as
a) Symport
b) Antiport
c) Both a and b
d) Uniport
8) ___________ is the largest family of cell surface receptors.
a) G-protein linked receptor
b) Ion-channel linked receptors
c) Enzyme-linked receptors
d) Steroid hormone receptors
9) In eukaryotes, ribosomes have a sedimentation coefficient of about 80S and
composed of two subunits namely ____________ and _____________
a) 40 S and 40 S
b) 30 S and 30 S
c) 40 S and 60 S
d) 50 S and 30 S
10) In protein trafficking, the signal protein is recognised by
a) Signal reform particle
b) Signal recognition particle
c) Single recognition particle
d) Signal receiving particle
2. Answer the following (any 5).
1) What is cell synchrony ?
2) Enlist any four properties of cancer cell.
3) Give the significance of meiosis.
4) Draw a neat labelled diagram of mitochondria.
5) What is Apoptosis ?
6) Write on Osmosis.
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3. A) Answer the following (any 2).
6
1) Describe generalised structure of prokaryotic cell.
2) Describe metaphase of mitosis.
3) Describe the structure of Nucleus.
B) What are microtubules ? Describe structure and functions of microtubules.
4. Answer the following (any 2).
4
10
1) Write on the signal transduction of G-protein associated receptors.
2) Write a note on functions of plasma membrane.
3) What are the types of protein trafficking in cell ?
5. Answer the following (any 2).
10
1) Define giant chromosome. Describe in detail lampbrush chromosome.
2) Give generalised structure of an eukaryotic cell.
3) Describe the stages of prophase – I of Meiosis I.
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*SLRO14*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Biotechnology) (Semester – I) Examination, 2014
CELL BIOLOGY AND BIOSTATISTICS (Old)
Paper – II : Biostatistics
Day and Date: Thursday, 13-11-2014
Time: 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Use of calculators is allowed.
1. Multiple Choice Question :
10
1) Statistical method is treated as a branch of science which deals with
a) Collection and presentation of data
b) Analysis of data
c) Interpretation of data
d) All of these
2) Statistical results are
a) Absolutely correct
c) True on average
b) Not true
d) Universally true
3) Data taken from the publication, “Agricultural Situation in India” will be
considered as
a) Primary data
b) Secondary data
c) Primary and secondary data
d) Neither primary nor secondary data
4) If the lower and upper limits of a class are 10 and 40 respectively the midpoint
of the class is
a) 25.0
b) 12.5
c) 15.0
d) 30.0
5) Frequency of a variable is always
a) In percentage
b) A fraction
c) An integer
d) None of these
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6) Ogives for more than type and less than type distributions intersect at
a) Mean
b) Median
c) Mode
d) Origin
7) Which of the following represents median ?
a) First quartile
b) Fiftieth percentile
c) Sixth decile
d) None of these
8) A frequency distribution having two modes is said to be
a) Unimodal
b) Bimodal
c) Trimodal
d) Without mode
9) Out of all measures of dispersion the easiest one to calculate is
a) Standard deviation
b) Range
c) Variance
d) Quartile deviation
10) Probability can take values
a) – ∞ to ∞
c) –1 to 1
b) – ∞ to 1
d) 0 to 1
2. Answer any five of the following :
10
1) Write a short note on “cumulative frequency distribution”.
2) With proper diagram state the parts of a good table.
3) Write a note on Pie Diagram.
4) The mean age of 5 persons is 40 years. If the ages of four of them are 38, 40,
42 and 48 years. Calculate the age of remaining person.
5) In a certain data if the largest value is 40 and the smallest value is 10, then
compute the coefficient of range.
6) If Q1 = 16 and Q3 = 46, then calculate the quartile deviation and coefficient of
quartile deviation.
3. A) Answer any two of the following :
1) Explain the merits of mean.
2) Explain Scatter diagram method.
3) Obtain lower quartile (Q1) from the data
35, 40, 21, 45, 25, 29, 38, 32.
6
B) Write the note on “Uses of Biostatistics”.
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4. Answer any two of the following :
10
1) Calculate the arithmetic mean for the following data
Class Interval
Frequency
10 − 20 20 − 30 30 − 40 40 − 50 50 − 60
2
7
17
29
29
60 − 70
70 − 80
80 − 90
90 − 100
10
3
2
1
2) Calculate Standard Deviation (S.D.) of the marks obtained by 10 students in
a test of maximum marks 25.
8, 9, 15, 23, 5, 11, 19, 8, 10, 12
3) Write a note on “Correlation”.
5. Answer any two of the following :
10
1) Find the regression line of Y on X, for the following data :
X
18
26
28
31
25
19
35
Y
11
16
19
17
14
11
24
2) A bag contains 20 tickets marked with numbers 1 to 20. One ticket is drawn
at random. Find the probability that it will be a multiple of 2 or 5.
3) Write a note on “Chi-Square Test”.
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*SLRO18*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester – II) (Biotechnology) Examination, 2014
BIOCHEMISTRY AND CELL PHYSIOLOGY (Paper – I) (New)
Biochemistry
Day and Date : Tuesday, 2-12-2014 Thursday, 8-11-2012
Max. Marks : 50
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. 10.30 p.m. to 12.30 p.m.
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by selecting correct alternative given below.
10
i) The number of isomers of glucose, including glucose are
a) 4
b) 8
c) 12
d) 16
ii) ___________ is called as a milk sugar.
a) Galactose
b) Lactose
c) Glucose
d) Fructose
iii) ___________ give a positive ninhydrin test.
a) Reducing sugars
b) Triglycerides
c) Amino acids
d) Phospholipids
iv) Proteins contains ___________ amino acids.
a) Only L- α
b) Only D
c) DL
d) β
v) The calorific value of lipids is _____________ kcal/g.
a) 6
b) 9
c) 4
d) 12
vi) The fatty acid, esterified with high molecular weight alcohol forms
a) lipositol
b) plasmogen
c) wax
d) cephalin
vii) The approximate number of nucleotides in tRNA molecules is
a) 25 – 30
b) 50 – 55
c) 75 – 80
d) 100 – 110
viii) Sterilized milk lacks in ____________ Vitamin.
a) A
b) E
c) D
d) C
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*SLRO18*
ix) Anticodon is present on
a) coding DNA strand
b) rRNA
c) mRNA
d) tRNA
x) Vitamins are
a) accessory food factors
b) generally synthesized in the body
c) produced in endocrine glands
d) proteins in nature
2. Answer any five of the following.
10
i) Draw cyclic structures of α -D-glucose and β -D-glucose.
ii) Write 3 to 4 sentences on branched chain fatty acids.
iii) Define-PI and Zwitter ion.
iv) What are the components of nucleic acids ?
v) What are fat soluble vitamins ? Give examples.
vi) State any four physical properties of proteins.
3. A) Answer any two of the following.
6
i) Write a note on prostaglandins.
ii) Illustrate the term epimers with a suitable example.
iii) Describe β -sheet structure of protein.
B) What are sterols ? Explain the structure of cholesterol.
4. Answer any two of the following.
4
10
i) Discuss the derivatives of monosaccharides.
ii) Explain in brief the bonds stabilizing the protein structure.
iii) With labelled diagram explain Watson-Crick model of DNA.
5. Answer any two of the following.
i) Discuss the structure, physiological role and deficiency disorders of Vitamin C.
ii) Illustrate the classification of proteins based on their composition.
iii) Describe the structure and importance of starch.
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SLR-O – 19
*SLRO19*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Semester – II) (New) Examination, 2014
BIOTECHNOLOGY
Biochemistry and Cell Physiology
Cell Physiology : Paper – II
Day and Date : Wednesday, 3-12-2014
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
3) Draw a neat labelled diagram wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternatives :
10
1) The first phase of photosynthesis is
a) Light reaction
b) Secondary reaction
c) Dark reaction
d) Blackman- reaction
2) Water in plants rises through
a) Cortex
b) Phloem
c) Pith
d) Xylem
3) Guard cells are associated with
a) Lenticels
b) Stomata
c) Epiblema
d) Hydathodes
4) ________ is known as stress hormone in plants.
a) Auxin
b) Gibberellin
c) Abscisic acid
d) Cytokinin
5) In human digestive system, hepatic juice is secreted by
a) Pancreas
b) Liver
c) Salivary gland
d) Stomach
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6) In human being the chief respiratory organs are
a) Lungs
b) Gills
c) Nostrils
d) Skin
7) ________ is main function of malpighian body in human excretory system.
a) Absorption
b) Ultrafiltration
c) Secretion
d) None of these
8) The structural and functional unit of reflex action is
a) Reflex arc
b) Adjustor neuron
c) Motor neuron
d) Connector neuron
9) The largest endocrine gland in human body is
a) Pituitary gland
b) Adrenal gland
c) Thyroid gland
d) Parathyroid gland
10) The main metabolic hormone of body is
a) GH
b) Estrogen
c) ACTH
d) Thyroxine
2. Answer the following questions (any 5) :
10
1) What is apoplast pathway ?
2) Enlist photosynthetic pigments in plants.
3) Write a note on dedifferentiation and redifferentiation.
4) Draw a neat labelled diagram of Nephron.
5) Explain Reflex action.
6) What are accessory digestive glands ?
3. A) Answer the following (any 2) :
6
1) Explain mechanism of hormone action.
2) Describe regulation of cardiac activity.
3) Explain vernalisation and add a note on its applications.
B) Define transpiration and different types of transpiration.
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4. Answer the following (any 2) :
10
1) Write a note on photosynthesis.
2) Describe human respiratory system.
3) Explain excretory system in humans.
5. Answer the following (any 2) :
1) Describe structure and function of pituitary gland.
2) Explain human digestive system.
3) Explain role of essential mineral elements in the plant growth and their
deficiency symptoms.
_______________
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Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Biotechnology) (Semester – II) Examination, 2014
TAXONOMY
Taxonomy and Computer Science (Paper – I) (New)
Day and Date: Saturday, 6-12-2014
Time: 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to right indicate full marks.
1. Rewrite the complete sentence by selecting appropriate alternative given :
1) ________ father of Taxonomy.
a) Theoprist
b) Linnaus
c) Darwin
10
d) Benthum
2) Actinomycetes shows characters of both
a) Algae and Fungi
b) Fungi and Bacteria
c) Bacteria and Viruses
d) Bryophytes and Fungi
3) _________ system of classification generally preferred for angiosperms.
a) Smith
b) Hatchisons
c) Benthem and Hooker’s
d) Hooker’s
4) __________ bacteria tolerate high temperature, high pressure and low pH.
a) Extremophiles
b) Thermostable
c) Halophiles
d) None of these
5) _____________ full form of BSI.
a) Botanical Survey of India
b) Bureau of Scientific Investigation
c) Basic Science Institution
d) Both a and c
6) General planterum is written by
a) de Candolle
b) A. L. de Jussiea
c) Engler and Prantle
d) Darwin
7) Botanical name of soyabean is
a) Azadiricta indica
c) Glycin Max
b) Pongamia pinnata
d) Argimone Maxicana
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8) Original herbarium prepared by the anther called as
a) Holotype
b) Isotype
c) Paratype
d) Neotype
9) The animals which do not contain notochord are called
a) Invertebrates
b) Nonchordates
c) Both a and b
d) Chordates
10) ___________ system is used for nomenclature of plants.
a) Binomial
b) Uninomial
c) Vernacular
d) Scientific
2. Write short answers (any five) :
10
1) Define Taxonomy.
2) Write any 4 general characters of Bryophytes.
3) Principles of ICBN.
4) Write any 4 economic importance of algae.
5) Domains.
6) Two and three kingdom system.
3. A) Write short note on (any two) :
1) Outline classification of algae.
2) Numerical taxonomy.
3) Any 2 methods of typification.
B) Write distinguishing features of angiosperms with gymnosperms.
4. Write a brief note on (any two) :
6
4
10
1) Describe in detail merits and demerits of Benthum and Hookers system of
classification.
2) Write in brief rules of ICBN.
3) What is binomial nomenclature and rules for binomial nomenclature ?
5. Write a brief note on (any two) :
1) Write general character and economic importance of Pteridophytes.
2) Outline classification upto the class of Protozoa.
3) Write general characters of Archebacteria.
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*SLRO23*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester – II) (Biotechnology) Examination, 2014
(Paper – II) (New)
TAXONOMY AND COMPUTER SCIENCE
Computer Science
Day and Date : Monday, 8-12-2014
Max. Marks : 50
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Choose the correct alternatives from the following and rewrite the sentence.
10
1) The radix of the octal system is
a) 2
b) 16
c) 8
d) 10
c) Database1
d) Query1
2) In access, the default table name is
a) Table 1
b) TB1
3) The screen of the computer can act as
a) Input device
b) Output device
c) Storage device
d) Secondary storage device
4) ALU stands for
a) Algebraic and Logical Unit
b) Arithmetic and Logical Unit
c) Alternative and Lengthy Unit
d) None
5) ___________ section of email indicates that the receivers of the mail are
unable to see the list of other address to whom the mail has been sent.
a) cc
b) bcc
c) To
d) Attachment
6) The ALU and CU jointly are known as
a) RAM
b) ROM
c) CPU
d) None of these
7) ISP stands for
a) Internet System Provider
b) Internet Service Preparation
c) Internet Service Provider
d) None
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8) _____________ is not an operating system.
a) Unix
b) Windows
c) DOS
d) MS Office
c) Ctrl + X
d) Ctrl + V
9) To cut, the shortcut key is
a) Ctrl + P
b) Ctrl + C
10) The ______________ toolbar is used to format the text in the document.
a) Standard
b) Formating
c) Drawing
d) None
2. Answer any five of the following.
10
i) What is Database ?
ii) How will you calculate total in Excel ? (state any two methods).
iii) Explain the use of format painter.
iv) Explain Intranet and Extranet.
v) Enlist any five input and output devices.
vi) Explain system software.
3. A) Answer any two of the following.
6
i) Draw flow chart to find a square of a given no. and state the advantages of
flow chart.
ii) Explain LAN and MAN.
iii) Explain the properties of Algorithms.
B) What is Network topology ? Explain its’ types.
4. Answer any two of the following.
4
10
i) Explain “History of Computers”.
ii) Write a note on “E-mail”.
iii) How will you prepare chart in Excel ?
5. Answer any two of the following.
i) Explain the types of operating system. (eg. DOS/Windows/Linux)
ii) Explain uses of Internet with communication protocol.
iii) Explain Page Formatting in word document. (Aligning, changing font size,
changing font face, font style and changing font color)
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*SLRO52*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – III (Semester – V) Examination, 2014
BIOTECHNOLOGY
Genetic Engineering : Tools and Techniques
Day and Date: Monday, 3-11-2014
Max. Marks : 50
Time: 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by using correct answer from given alternatives :
10
1) Maxam Gilbert method is used for sequencing of
a) RNA
b) DNA
c) Protein
2) C-DNA library is prepared from
a) r-RNA
b) t-RNA
d) Other biomolecules
c) m-RNA
d) Sn-RNA
3) The technique of using electric field to allow entry of DNA into a cell is called
a) Electrophoresis
b) Electroporation
c) Microinjection
d) Macroinjection
4) The thermostable polymerases are derived from __________ in PCR.
a) Thermus Flavus
b) Asp. Flavus
c) Thermophilus aquaticus
d) B. Subtilis
5) The vector with highest capacity of DNA incorporation is
a) Yeast integrative vector
b) Cosmid
c) Yeast artificial chromosome d) Bacteriophage
6) π plasmid in genetic engineering is obtained from
a) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
c) Baombyx toxin
b) E. coli
d) Agrobacterium rhizogenes
P.T.O.
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7) _________ is used in all the blotting techniques.
a) Cellulose
b) Cellulose acetate
c) Carboxymethyl cellulose
d) Nitrocellulose
8) In genetic engineering a probe is used for
a) Cloning
b) Screening
c) Cleaving
d) Recombinant DNA
9) SV 40 DNA viruses belong to the ________ family.
a) Salmonella
b) Sendai virus
c) Simian virus
d) None of the above
10) _________ enzymes cleave the DNA at regions that are specific for each
enzyme.
a) DNA modifying
b) Restriction
c) Ligase
d) Reverse transcriptase
2. Answer any five of the following :
10
1) Explain the Dot Blot Technique.
2) Give the principle of autoradiography.
3) Explain primer walking.
4) Define transformation and transfection.
5) What are cosmids ? Mention their applications.
6) Discuss the role of APS and TEMED.
3. A) Answer any two of the following :
6
1) Write about pulse-field gel electrophoresis with its applications.
2) Explain the properties of best vector.
3) Discuss the technique of indirect transformation.
B) Discuss in detail the significance of Blotting techniques.
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4. Answer any two of the following :
10
1) Differentiate between the technique of particle bombardment and
electroporation.
2) What are genomic libraries ? How are they prepared ?
3) Write a note on the scope of genetic engineering.
5. Answer any two of the following :
i) Discuss the role of nucleic acid modifying enzymes.
ii) Give the principle and applications of DNA Finger Printing.
iii) What is cloning ? What are the different strategies of cloning ?
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*SLRO53*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester – V) Examination, 2014
BIOTECHNOLOGY
Fermentation Technology
Day and Date : Wednesday, 5-11-2014
Max. Marks : 50
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to right indicate full marks.
1. Rewrite the sentences by selecting correct answer from the given alternatives.
10
1) ________________ are present in the fermentor to avoid vortex formation.
a) Baffles
b) Sparger
c) Impellor
d) Antifoam agents
2) Stock culture is maintained by
a) tyndallization
b) sterilization
c) lyophilization
d) pasteurization
3) Phenyl acetic acid is used as precursor in the production of
a) Penicillin G
b) Penicillin V
c) Griseofulvin
d) L-isoleucine
4) Economic fermentation of an industrial product is done by using
a) Synthetic media
b) Living media
c) Semisynthetic media
d) Waste as raw material
5) Penicillin technique is used for selection of
a) Oligotrophs
b) Auxotrophs
c) Prototrophs
d) Autotrophs
6) Microbial inhibition spectrum of antibiotic is determined by
a) SPC
b) Crowded plate
c) Giant colony
d) Indicator
7) Diffusion assay is carried out by ________________ method.
a) Cylinder plate
b) Pour plate
c) Streak plate
d) None of these
P.T.O.
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8) In ethanol production the concentration of molasses is adjusted between
a) 10 – 18%
b) 50 – 55%
c) 30 – 40%
d) 1 – 10%
9) Solvent extraction is used for recovery of
a) alcohol
b) amylase
c) penicillin
d) citric acid
10) Industrial amylase production by submerged culture requires _______________
organism.
a) Aspergillus niger
b) E. coli
c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
d) B. subtilis
2. Answer any five of the following.
10
1) What is strain improvement ?
2) Define-scale up.
3) Enlist the applications of citric acid.
4) Enlist the examples of antifoam agents.
5) Define – assay.
6) Enlist the examples of Vitamin B12 producing microorganisms.
3. A) Answer any two of the following.
6
1) Write down the characteristics of an ideal fermentation medium.
2) Give an account of recovery of amylase.
3) Describe in detail the inoculum preparation.
B) Write an essay on Vitamin B12 fermentation.
4. Write short notes on any two of the following.
4
10
1) Microbial growth kinetics.
2) Crystallization and precipitation.
3) Primary screening.
5. Write short notes on any two of the following.
1) Turbidimetric assays and end-point determination assays.
2) Citric acid fermentation.
3) Applications of computer in fermentation technology.
–––––––––––––––––
10
SLR-O – 54
*SLRO54*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester – V) Examination, 2014
BIOTECHNOLOGY
Plant Development
Day and Date : Friday, 7-11-2014
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
1. Rewrite the following sentences choosing the correct alternative :
10
1) _________ substance added to culture medium to induce callus induction.
a) Auxin
b) Ethylene
c) GA
d) Cytokinin
2) _________ is used as an model of plant development.
a) Allium
b) Gerbera
c) Arabidopsis
d) Coconut
3) ________ hormone enhances polyembryony.
a) Cytokinin
b) GA
c) IAA
d) BAP
4) Formation of embryo without fertilization is called
a) vernalization
b) apomixis
c) hybridization
d) pollination
5) The protoplast viability test is carried out with’
a) mg++
b) MnSO4
c) K+
d) Ca++
6) Protoplast can be made to fuse through the application of
a) Electrofusion
b) Polyethylene glycol
c) Sodium nitrate
d) All of the above
7) The term biodiversity was coined by
a) R. Reiter
b) E.P. Odum
c) Robertson
d) Plowe
P.T.O.
*SLRO54*
SLR-O – 54
8) Ability of a plant cell to develop into a whole plant is called as
a) Regeneration
b) Organogenesis
c) Totipotency
d) Pluropotency
9) A typical virus particle has an outer coat capsid made up of
a) DNA
b) RNA
c) Protein
d) Lipid
c) medicine
d) disease
10) Virus is a Latin word meaning
a) minute creature
b) poison
2. Answer any five of the following :
10
i) Define apospory.
ii) What is protoplast ?
iii) State any two applications of Auxins.
iv) Define photoperiodism.
v) What is visualization ?
vi) What is alpha diversity ?
3. A) Answer any two of the following :
6
1) Write note on development of male gametophyte in angiosperm.
2) What is floral patterning ?
3) What is biodiversity ? List its types.
B) Write in brief enzymatic method for isolation of protoplast.
4. Answer any two of the following :
4
10
1) Give an account of development of dicot embryo.
2) Explain causes of polyembryo and give its applications.
3) Discuss the applications of cytokinins.
5. Answer any two of the following :
1) Write note on causes and applications of apomixis.
2) Discuss in details causes of biodiversity.
3) Write an essay on TMV.
_______________
10
*SLR-O–6*
SLR-O – 6
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Semester – I) (Biotechnology) (Old) Examination, 2014
ENGLISH (Compulsory)
‘On Track’ English Skills for Success
Day and Date : Saturday, 1-11-2014
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing the correct alternative :
10
1) The name of the policeman on the beat was
a) Jimmy Wells
b) Jimmy Porter
c) Jimmy Wel
d) Jimmy Mail
2) What did the policeman on the beat constantly do ?
a) twirl his stick
b) interrogate people on his beat
c) smoke a cigar
d) unlock doors
3) From what she tells the writer, it is clear that Miss. Krishna’s life with her
mother was
a) miserable
b) comfortable
c) very happy
d) difficult
4) The Myths of artificial intelligence is written by
a) Attia Husain
b) Attila Narin
c) Anita Nair
d) Anita Desai
5) What does ‘shining loads’ mean ?
a) an unmarried woman’s wrist
b) bunches of bangles
c) the flame of marriage fire
d) sunlit corn
6) The speaker in the poem ‘An Irish Airman Foresees his Death’ is
a) The British Airman
b) The Irish Airman
c) The American Airman
d) The Jewish Airman
P.T.O.
SLR-O – 6
*SLR-O–6*
-2-
7) ______ was a psychologist who developed the IQ test.
a) Bitnet
b) Binet
c) Becket
d) Benet
8) Anu is ______ Sania Mirza of our college.
a) the
b) a
c) an
d) no-article
9) Prashant is fond ______ reading.
a) to
b) of
c) at
d) on
10) There is a mob on the road. The underlined word is ______ noun.
a) Common
c) Proper
b) Mass
d) Collective
2. Answer any five of the following questions :
10
1) Why did the narrator consider Miss Krishna an annoying guest ?
2) Why do you think the man with a cigar in his mouth quickly speaks up when
the officer passed by him ?
3) What had happened to ‘Big Joe’ Brady’s restaurant ?
4) What are the areas in which the computer is much faster than human brain ?
5) Which are the preferred colours for the bangles of a newly married woman ?
6) How does the speaker imagine he will die in the poem ‘An Irish Airman Foresees
His Death’ ?
3. A) Write short answers of any two of the following :
1) What sort of relationship did Bob and Jimmy share ?
2) What is the shocking discovery made by Miss Krishna’s sister and the
narrator together ? How does this reveal Miss Krishna’s real character ?
3) What are the merits of artificial intelligence ?
6
B) Answer any two of the following questions briefly :
1) What is the central idea of the poem ‘Bangle Sellers’ ?
2) What do you think is the speaker’s attitude towards his ‘poor’ countrymen ?
4
3) According to the speaker, what are some of the possible reasons that
makes people participate in a war ? Was he inspired by any of them ?
Discuss.
*SLR-O–6*
-3-
SLR-O – 6
4. Answer any one of the following questions :
10
1) Write paragraphs of six to eight sentences on each of the following :
a) The importance of sports
b) My family
2) Write an essay on the topic ‘The problem of city slums and possible humane
solutions.
5. Read the following passage and make notes of it. Use an appropriate title for
your notes :
Drug-related health disorders are many and varied. Dirty needles and solutions
used for injecting drugs can easily cause abscesses in the arms and veins, liver
disease, venereal disease, disease and infection of the kidneys and brain. Sniffing
cocaine and amphetamines can damage the tissue of the nose and Marijuana
and tobacco smoking can cause lung diseases. Heavy users of alcohol, volatile
solvents, amphetamines or Marijuana may find that their livers are permanently
damaged. Babies of women addicted to opiates are likely to be born addicted and
to suffer from withdrawal symptoms. Cocaine and amphetamines can cause hair
loss. Recent research has indicated that Marijuana can damage cells. A drug
user’s way of life makes him more susceptible to pneumonia, tuberculosis,
malnutrition and weight loss. Finally, an overdose of any of the sensual drugs
can lead to respiratory or cardiac failure and death.
_________________
10
SLR-O – 47
*SLRO47*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester – IV) Biotechnology Examination 2014
METHODS IN BIOTECHNOLOGY – II
Biochemical Techniques
Day and Date : Monday, 17-11-2014
Total Marks : 50
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Write the following sentences by selecting most correct answer from given
alternatives.
10
i) The rate of migration of DNA within an agarose gel, in gel electrophoresis
technique is primarily based on
a) the size of DNA fragments
b) the number of DNA fragments
c) the size of wells within the gels
d) the negative charge on DNA.
ii) The technique that utilizes a probe to detect specific DNA sequence is known
as _________ blot.
a) Northern
b) Western
c) Southern
d) Eastern.
iii) The cation exchanger used in ion exchange chromatography has _______
charge group.
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Neutral
d) Not specific.
iv) __________ is an electrophoretic method where pH gradient is used along
with the voltage gradient.
a) Native PAGE
b) Agarose electrophoresis
c) Isoelectric focusing
d) Denaturing PAGE.
P.T.O.
SLR-O – 47
*SLRO47*
-2-
v) In paper chromatography amino acids are visualized by spraying
a) cotton blue
b) ninhydrin
c) methylene blue
d) aniline phosphate.
vi) _________ is used in Bradford assay of protein. Which changes its absorption
maxima when binds to proteins.
a) Biuret reagent
b) Folin-Ciocalteau reagent
c) EDTA
d) Coomassie brilliant blue G – 250
vii) The specificity of the immunostaining depends on the
a) specificity of first antibody
b) specificity of second antibody
c) dilution of antibody used
d) all a, b and c
viii) Quantitative totality of proteins of a cell, tissue or organism is known as its
a) proteome
b) genome
c) protease
d) proteomics
ix) The MALDI stands for
a) matrix assisted laser desorption ionization
b) matrix affinity laser desorption ionization
c) matrix assisted light dissociation ionization
d) matrix assisted light depolarization ionization
x) The protein sequencing by Edman degradation method always starts from
__________ terminus
a) free carboxyl
b) free amino
c) both corboxy and amino
d) none of these
2. Answer in brief any five of the following :
i) Define electrophoresis and state its use.
ii) What is 2-D gel electrophoresis ?
iii) State the principle of BCA protein assay.
iv) Distinguish between native and denaturing PAGE.
v) Give four applications of paper chromatography.
vi) How are the plates prepared in thin layer chromatography ?
10
*SLRO47*
-3-
3. A) Answer any two of the following :
SLR-O – 47
6
i) Write a note on-staining of protein on blot.
ii) Describe the carboxy terminal sequencing of protein.
iii) Discuss the matrices and stationary phase used in HPLC.
B) Illustrate the isoelectric focusing technique.
4. Answer any two of the following :
4
10
i) Give an account of Western blotting technique.
ii) Explain the instrumentation of FPLC
iii) What is mass spectroscopy ? Describe instrumentation of MALDI mass
spectrophotometer.
5. Answer any two of the following :
10
i) Describe in detail-SDS gel electrophoresis.
ii) Write a note on preparation of sample in MALDI.
iii) Illustrate the principle, working and applications of gel permeation chromatography.
–––––––––––––––––
SLR-O – 1
*SLRO1*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Semester – I) (Biotechnology) (CGPA Pattern)
Examination, 2014
ENGLISH (Compulsory)
‘On Track’ English Skills for Success
Day and Date : Saturday, 1-11-2014
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing the correct alternative given below
each :
14
1) The story, ‘After Twenty Years’ implies that ‘Silky’ Bob is a __________
a) Police Officer
b) Gangster or Criminal
c) Restaurant owner
d) Private detector
2) The policeman on the beat moved up the avenue ________________
a) impressively
b) nervously
c) unwillingly
d) lazily
3) The narrator and Miss Krishna first met at _______________
a) a mall
b) a restaurant
c) a circus
d) an exhibition
4) The word ‘intelligence’ is derived from the Latin word ____________
a) intellectual
b) intellect
c) intellegere
d) none of the above
5) Mrs. Lall thought that one cup in her set was broken by ______________
a) the cook
b) the maid
c) herself
d) her daughter
6) Mr. Binet was the ______________ who developed IQ Test.
a) Philosopher
b) Psychologist
c) Mathematician
d) Physicist
P.T.O.
SLR-O – 1
*SLRO1*
-2-
7) The phrase ‘shining loads’ means _____________
a) an unmarried woman’s wrist
b) bunches of bangles
c) the flame of marriage fire
d) sunlit corn
8) In ‘Bangle Sellers’ the speaker is a _________________
a) middle aged woman
b) young unmarried woman
c) bangle customer
d) bangle seller
9) The poem ‘An Irish Airman Foresees His Death’ relates to __________
a) the plight of Irish soldiers fighting for UK
b) the glory of war
c) common man’s attitude to war
d) the importance of peace
10) I don’t believe ____________ superstitions.
a) on
b) with
c) in
d) upon
11) A man is known by ___________ company he keeps.
a) a
b) the
c) an
d) none of the above
12) The winner team was honoured by the guest.
The underlined words is a ___________ noun.
a) proper
b) common
c) collective
d) material
13) His clients are happy _________ Monty’s work.
a) for
b) after
c) on
d) with
14) Sarita cut _________ while chopping vegetables.
a) herself
b) itself
c) himself
d) myself
*SLRO1*
-3-
SLR-O – 1
2. Answer in brief any seven of the following questions :
14
1) Why does Jimmy send another policeman to arrest Bob ?
2) What was the nickname for Bob that the plain clothes Policeman used ?
3) What is the narrator’s profession in ‘The Connoisseur’ ?
4) What are the many facets of intelligence ?
5) Why did the narrator consider Miss Krishna annoying guest ?
6) What are the merits of artificial intelligence ?
7) What are the bangles ‘tokens’ of ?
8) Who is the speaker in the poem ‘An Irish Airman Foresees His Death’ ?
3. A) Write short notes on any two of the following :
8
1) The relationship between Bob and Jimmy.
2) Miss Krishna’s character.
3) Etymological background of the word ‘intelligence’.
B) Answer any three of the following questions briefly :
6
1) What image of the bangle sellers at the temple fair do you gather from the
poem ?
2) How does the bangle seller enhance the quality of life of simple people and
bring joy and colour to it ?
3) What is the Speaker’s attitude towards those that he fights against in the
poem ‘An Irish Airman Foresees His Death’.
4) How does the Irish Airman imagine he will die ?
4. Write an essay on the topic ‘The Problem of City Slums and Possible Humane
Solutions’.
OR
Write paragraphs of six to eight sentences on each of the following :
1) Human values are timeless and eternal.
2) Solar energy.
14
SLR-O – 1
-4-
*SLRO1*
5. Read the following passage and make notes of it. Use an appropriate title for your
notes :
14
One of our most difficult problems is what we call discipline, and it is really very
complex. You see, society feels that is must control or discipline the citizen,
shape his mind according to certain religious, social, moral and economic patterns.
Now, is discipline necessary at all ? Please listen carefully, don’t immediately
say ‘yes’ or ‘no’. Most of us feel, especially while we are young, that there should
be no discipline, that we should be allowed to do whatever we like, and we think
and so on, has very little meaning without understanding the whole problem of
discipline.
The keen athlete is disciplining himself all the time, is he not ? His joy in playing
games and the very necessity to keep fit makes him go to bed early, refrain from
smoking, eat the right food and generally observe the rules of good health. His
discipline is not an imposition or a conflict, but a natural outcome of his enjoyment
of athletics.
Now does discipline increase or decrease human energy ? Human beings
throughout the world, in every religion, in every school of philosophy, impose
discipline on the mind, which implies control, resistance, adjustment, suppression :
and is all this necessary ? If discipline brings about a greater output of human
energy, then it is worthwhile, then it has meaning; but if it merely suppresses
human energy ; it is very harmful, destructive. All of us have energy and the
question is whether that energy through discipline can be made vital, rich and
abundant, or whether discipline is allowed to destroy whatever energy we have. I
think this is the central issue.
_____________________
SLR-O – 10
*SLRO10*
S
N
e
o
a
t
.
B.Sc. – I Biotechnology (Semester – I) Examination, 2014
INTRODUCTION TO BIOSCIENCES (Old)
Animal Science (Paper – II)
Day and Date : Saturday, 8-11-2014
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Max Marks : 50
N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw a neat labelled diagram wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the sentences using correct alternative given below :
10
1) Euglena belongs to the phylum _____________
a) Protozoa
b) Arthropoda
c) Porifera
d) Annelida
2) ___________ is an example of Annelida.
a) Amoeba
b) Cockroach
c) Pila
d) Leech
3) Chitinous ekoskeleton and jointed appendages is an salient feature of
__________
a) Echinodermata b) Mollusca
c) Annelida
d) Arthropoda
4) Mammary glands are modified ___________ glands.
a) Sweat
b) Sebaceous
c) Slime
d) Endocrine
5) _____________ is an example Chondrichthyes.
a) Scoliodon
b) Labeo
c) Catla
d) Mrigala
6) Crocodile heart has ___________ chambers.
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
7) Plasmodium vivax is causative agent of _____________
a) HIV-AIDS
b) T.B.
c) Malaria
d) Cholera
P.T.O.
SLR-O – 10
*SLRO10*
8) Elephantasis is caused by ____________
a) W. Bancrotti
b) P. Vivax
c) Bed bug
d) Elephant
9) Queen’s are ____________ responsible for egg laying in bee hive.
a) Sterile females
b) Fertile females
c) Sterile males
d) Fertile males
10. Muga silkworm are found in ____________
a) Bihar
b) Maharashtra c) Assam
d) Kerala
2. Answer any five of the following :
10
1) Enlist earthworm species used in vermiculture.
2) Osteichthyes fishes.
3) Oriparous animals.
4) Enlist fresh water fishes used in aquaculture.
5) Enlist platyhelimithes parasites.
6) Medicinal uses of honey.
3. A) Answer any two of the following :
6
i) Give general characters of phylum Porifera.
ii) Explain general characters of class Aves.
iii) Give general characters of class Nematoda and add note on its parasitic
adaptations.
B) Explain different castes of honey bee and add note on uses of honey bees.
4. Answer any two of the following :
4
10
i) Give an account on Sericulture.
ii) Describe general characters of class Amphibia.
iii) Describe life cycle of malarial parasile in mosquito.
5. Answer any two of the following :
i) Explain general characters of Phylum Mollusca.
ii) Give general characters of Cephalochordata.
iii) Write an account on Vermiculture.
_______________
10
SLR-O – 11
*SLRO11*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Sem. – I) Examination, 2014
BIOTECHNOLOGY
Fundamentals of Chemistry and Biophysics
Paper – I : Chemical Science (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 10-11-2014
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
N. B. :1)
2)
3)
4)
Max. Marks : 50
All questions are compulsory.
Draw neat diagram and give equations wherever necessary.
Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Use of log table, calculator is allowed.
1. Select the correct alternative for the following and rewrite the sentences :
10
1) Order of reaction 2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g) having Rate = K[NO]2.[O2]
is _________________
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
2) If the pH of solution is equal of 7 then the nature of solution is
a) acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of above
3) _________________ is the extensive property.
a) Surface tension
b) Refractive index
c) Temperature
d) Energy
4) If the salt bridge is removed from the two half cell, emf of cell _____________
a) drops to zero
b) does not change
c) decreases gradually
d) increases
5) For single step reaction A + 2B → product the molecularity is ____________
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
6) The solutions having same osmotic pressure are known as ___________
solution.
a) hypotonic
b) hypertonic c) isotonic
d) both a) and b)
7) Entropy change for process is given by _________________
T
q
a) qrew × T
b) q
c) rew
d) Δ Hrew × T
T
rew
8) A cell that can generate electrical energy by spontaneous oxidation – reduction
is _____________
a) half cell
b) hydrogen cell
c) reversible cell
d) galvanic cell
P.T.O.
SLR-O – 11
-2-
*SLRO11*
9) The bond angle in methane molecule is _________________
a) 120°
b) 180°
c) 109°. 5′
d) 90°
10) The weak attractive forces existing between the molecule is called
_________________
a) a Vander Walls forces
b) hydrogen bond
c) ionic bond
d) none of these
2. Answer any five of the following :
10
i) Give any two statements of second law of thermodynamics.
ii) Write the Nernst equation and explain the terms involved in it.
iii) Calculate [H+] ion concentration of solution having pH = 5.126.
iv) Define ionic bond and covalent bond.
v) Give one biological role of each Mg and Fe element.
vi) Define the terms :
i) bond length
ii) bond energy.
3. A) Answer any two of the following :
i) What are colligative properties ? Define osmosis, osmotic pressure and
reverse osmosis with one example each.
ii) Write cell reaction and calculate E°cell and E cell at 25°C.
6
pb (s ) Pb + + (0.5M ) Cu + + (0.001M ) Cu
E°pb = − 0.126V
E°cu = − 0.337V
iii) Give the postulates of Valance Bond Theory (VBT).
B) A first order reaction takes 15 minutes to comple. 25%. How much will it take
to complete 65% ?
4
4. Answer any two of the following :
10
⎛ ∂ ( ΔG) ⎞
i) Deduce Gibbs – Helmboltz equation ΔG = ΔH + T ⎜
⎟ .
⎝ ∂T ⎠P
ii) Derive an equation for rate constant of first order reaction.
iii) What is hybridization ? Explain sp2 hybridization by giving suitable example.
5. Answer any two of the following :
i) What are buffers ? Explain mechanism of acidic buffer.
ii) What is hydrogen bonding ? Explain intra and intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
iii) Describe construction and working of calomel electrode.
_____________________
10
SLR-O – 12
*SLRO12*
S
N
e
o
a
t
.
B.Sc. – I (Sem. – I) Examination, 2014
BIOTECHNOLOGY (Old)
Fundamentals of Chemistry and Biophysics
Biophysics (Paper – II)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 11-11-2014
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
N.B. : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Max. Marks : 50
All questions are compulsory.
Figures to right indicate full marks.
Draw neat diagrams wherever necessary.
Use of logarithmic table is allowed.
1. Select correct alternative from the following :
10
i) Viscosity of water __________ with increase in pressure.
a) decreases
b) increases
c) remains constant
d) none of these
ii) The SI unit of stress is __________
a) dyne/cm2
b) N/m2
c) m/s
d) kg/m2
iii) __________ is used to determine rate of flow of liquid.
a) Calorimeter
b) Barometer
c) Venturimeter
d) Voltmeter
iv) The phenomenon of bending of path of light waves at an edge of obstacle is
called __________
a) reflection
b) diffraction
c) refraction
d) interference
v) Tensile strain is related to change in __________ of a body.
a) volume
b) length
c) shape
d) area
P.T.O.
SLR-O – 12
*SLRO12*
-2-
vi) Surface tension of liquid __________ with rise in temperature.
a) increases
b) does not change
c) decreases
d) may increase or decrease
vii) Bulk modulus is the property of __________
a) only solids
b) only liquids
c) solids, liquids and gases
d) only liquids and gases
viii) The SI unit of surface tension is __________
a) kg/m
b) J/m
c) N/s
d) N/m
ix) Ultrasonic waves have __________
a) high frequency and small wavelength
b) low frequency and large wavelength
c) both frequency and wavelength high
d) both frequency and wavelength low
x) Ink rises in a pen due to __________
a) viscosity
b) capillary action
c) elasticity
d) none of these
2. Answer any five of the following :
1) What is the process of stimulated emission of radiation ?
2) Define :
a) Surface tension
b) Angle of contact.
3) State Bernoulli’s theorem.
4) State any two applications of a laser source of light.
5) What do you mean by :
a) Mechanical waves
b) Electromagnetic waves.
6) State Hooke’s law.
10
*SLRO12*
-3-
3. A) Attempt any two of the following :
SLR-O – 12
6
1) State the laws of reflection of light.
2) Explain the surface energy of a liquid.
3) Explain :
a) Young’s modulus
b) Bulk modulus.
B) Describe the working of Pitot’s tube with neat diagram.
4. Attempt any two of the following :
4
10
1) Obtain an expression for frequency of beats.
2) Describe the construction and working of Helium-Neon Laser.
3) Discuss the factors affecting the surface tension.
5. Attempt any two of the following :
1) What is Doppler effect ? Explain any two applications of it.
2) Explain the working of Venturimeter with neat diagram.
3) Explain the stress-strain curve within and beyond the elastic limit.
_____________________
10
*SLRO15*
SLR-O – 15
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Semester – II) (Biotechnology) (New) Examination, 2014
ENGLISH (Compulsory)
On Track : English Skills for Success
Day and Date : Friday, 28-11-2014
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
N. B. : i) All questions are compulsory.
ii) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing the correct alternative :
10
1) The ______________ missile was the first greatest single achievement in
the history of rockets and missiles.
a) V – 1
b) V – 2
c) V – 3
d) V – 4
2) The Parliament of Religion was to be held in ______________
a) South Africa
b) Singapore
c) Canada
d) America
3) Vivekananda represented Hinduism as ______________
a) The mother of religions
b) The father of religions
c) The sister of religions
d) The brother of religions
4) The primary idea of human rights involves ______________
a) Rights of the Govt.
b) Rights for the Govt.
c) Rights formulated by the Govt. d) Rights to operate against Govt.
5) In the Zoo at Lusaka, there is a cage where the notice reads, “The worlds
most dangerous animal.” Inside the cage there is ______________
a) A crocadle
b) A leopard
c) No any one but a mirror
d) An anaconda
6) According to Emerson Shadow and ______________ are the same.
a) Moon light
b) Sun light
c) Twilight
d) Dark night
7) ______________ challenge the sacred identify of the moon.
a) The Children
b) Mothers
c) Astronomers
d) Rocket experts
P.T.O.
*SLRO15*
SLR-O – 15
8) I met my friend John and gave ______________ the invitation card.
a) him
b) his
c) her
d) its
9) Mount Everest is the ______________ mountain in the World.
a) higher
b) highest
c) high
d) highly
10) Ajay and Vijay finished ______________ work and went home.
a) their
b) his
c) her
d) its
2. Answer any five of the following questions in two or three sentences each :
i) What is Dr. Kalams attitude towards work culture ?
10
ii) What does Dr. Kalam mean by ‘flow’ in the essay work bring solace ?
iii) How did Vivekananda greet the people in the Parliament of Religions ?
iv) Why was Vivekananda not prepared for weather conditions in Chicago ?
v) What was the motivating Slogan behind the American Civil-War ?
vi) What do you understand by human rights ?
3. A) Answer any two of the following questions in 2 to 3 sentences each :
i) Who are the Watchers of the moon ? What happened to them ?
ii) What is the origin or background of the poem ‘Brahma’ ?
iii) Examine the theme of innocence verses experience in the poem
‘Full Moon’.
6
B) Answer any two of the following questions briefly :
i) What are the important features of notices ?
ii) What is the CV ? How is it important in the letter of Application ?
iii) As a Secretary of Science Association prepare an ‘agenda’ for its
inauguration function ?
4
4. A) You are Prashant Kumar living at 44, Golden Residency, Shivaji Nagar, Pune,
you have just received a letter of appointment as Assistant Executive in the
accounts department of Samartha Industries, 151, Shubhan Complex,
M.G. Road Bengaluru. The letter is dated 10th October 2014 and the sender is
Mr. Ajaykumar, the General Manager, Draft e-mail with this effect.
10
OR
B) Imagine that you have received an e-mail of appointment as a sales executive
by Parimal Book Publishers, Kanpur. Write an e-mail accepting the
appointment.
5. Prepare a C.V. of your friend who is employed as a Bank Manager in a
reputed Bank.
_____________________
10
’
SLR-O – 16
*SLRO16*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Semester – II) (New ) (Biotechnology) Examination, 2014
ENVIRONMENTAL POLLUTION & MICROBIAL TECHNIQUES (Paper – I)
Day and Date : Saturday, 29-11-2014
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by selecting correct answer from given
alternatives.
10
1) Photochemical smog formation in urban areas are mainly due to presence of
____________ in atmosphere.
a) Ozone, PAN and nitrogen dioxide
b) Fog and smoke
c) Particulate matter
d) Heavy metals
2) ____________ is example of chlorinated hydrocarbon.
a) Parathion
b) DDT
c) Malathion
d) Diazinion
3) Nuclear energy is generated by process of ______
a) Nuclear fussion
b) Nuclear fission
c) Radiation
d) Oxidation
4) The solar energy is an alternative source of energy because
a) Sunlight is free of cost
b) Sunlight is pollution free
c) Solar energy avoids transmission loss
d) All of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-O – 16
*SLRO16*
-2-
5) In minamata disease, mercury waste was dumped by ____ manufacturing
plant.
a) Plastic
b) Pesticide
c) Chemical
d) Steel
6) _____ are used to kill rats.
a) Insecticide
b) Rodenticide
c) Algaecide
d) Pesticide
7) The presence of ____ above 1.5 mg/l in water causes mottling of teeth.
a) Arsenic
b) Mercury
c) Zinc
d) Fluoride
8) The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in year _____
a) 1981
b) 1986
c) 2001
d) 1998
9) The ______ is example of secondary pollutant.
a) CFC
b) CH4
c) PAN
d) CO
10) ________ is an important solution on energy crisis in rural areas.
a) Petroplants
b) Tidal energy
c) Biogas
d) Nuclear energy
2. Describe any five of the following :
10
1) What is eutrophication ?
2) Define point and nonpoint source of pollution.
3) Write down phenomenon of acid rain formation.
4) Enlist sources of water pollution.
5) What is photochemical smog ?
6) Define bioaccumulation and biomagnification.
3. A) Write down any two of the following :
6
1) Write down types and sources of air pollution.
2) Write down briefly on minamata disease.
3) Write down effects of radiation pollution.
B) What is marine pollution ? Write down effects of marine pollution on aquatic
life.
4
*SLRO16*
-3-
SLR-O – 16
4. Write down note on any two of the following :
10
1) What is nuclear power ? Write down the process of nuclear energy generation.
2) Define BOD and COD. Explain its importance in treatment of polluted water.
3) What is global warming ? Write down brief account on greenhouse gases.
5. Write down answer on any two of the following :
1) Define energy and explain wind energy in detail.
2) Write down duties of SPCB and CPCB in environment pollution control.
3) Write down merits and demerits of solar energy.
__________________
10
’
SLR-O – 17
*SLRO17*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester – II) Examination, 2014
BIOTECHNOLOGY (New)
Environmental Pollution and Microbial Techniques
Microbial Techniques (Paper – II)
Day and Date : Monday, 1-12-2014
Max. Marks : 50
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
N.B. 1) All the questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to right indicate full marks.
1. Rewrite the complete sentence by appropriate alternatives given :
10
i) Autoclave is based on _______ principle.
a) Moist heat
b) Dry heat
c) Radiation
d) Dessication
ii) In UHT, pasteurisation is achieved at
a) 145°F for 30 min
b) 161°F for 15 Sec.
c) 300°F for 1 to 2 Sec.
d) None of these
iii) _________ method is used for capsule staining.
a) Gram’s
b) Giemsa’s
c) Manvel’s
d) Alberts
iv) Soil culture is mainly utilised for maintenance of
a) Bacteria
b) Fungus
c) Virus
d) Algae
v) ________ method is known for acid fast staining.
a) Manvel’s
b) Alberts
c) Gram’s
d) Ziehl-Neelsen
P.T.O.
SLR-O – 17
*SLRO17*
-2-
vi) Growth of cell population in which all cells divide at the same time known as
_________ growth.
a) Diauxic
b) Simple
c) Synchronous
d) Periodic
vii) Agar-agar is obtained from
a) Gelidium
b) Acanthis
c) Both of these
d) None of these
viii) Dry heat sterilization is achieved at
a) 121°C for 15 min
b) 160°C for 1 hr.
c) 180°C for 30 min
d) Both b and c
ix) Gas pack is used for culturing
a) Aerobic bacteria
b) Anaerobic bacteria
c) Both of these
d) None of these
x) __________ filters are provided in Laminar Airflow Device.
a) Asbestos
b) HEPA
c) Nylon
d) Glass
2. Answer any five of the following :
1) Define stain. Give its two examples.
2) Define pasteurisation.
3) Give difference between moist heat and dry heat.
4) Enlist different methods used for cultivation of anaerobes.
5) Define synthetic media and give its two examples.
6) Define germicide. Give its two examples.
10
*SLRO17*
-3-
SLR-O – 17
3. A) Write short note on (any two) :
6
1) Write in brief moist heat used for sterilization.
2) Write in brief pour plate tech. used for isolation of pure culture of bacteria.
3) Explain synchronous growth with neat labelled diagram.
B) Give detail account of different techniques used in maintenance of pure
culture.
4
4. Write a brief note on (any two) :
10
1) Give an account on different nutrient requirements of micro organisms.
2) Give in detail account of chemical agents used for sterilization.
3) Write an account on peptidoglycan theory to explain gram staining mechanism.
5. Answer any two of the following :
1) Acid fast staining.
2) Different methods of pasteurisation.
3) Nutritional classification of bacteria on the basis of carbon and energy source.
———————
10
SLR-O – 2
*SLRO2*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Sem. – I) (C.G.P.A. Pattern) Examination, 2014
BIOTECHNOLOGY
Ecology and Microbiology
Day and Date : Monday, 3-11-2014
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 70
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
SECTION – I
(Ecology)
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternatives given below :
5
1) –––––––––– is an example of Ex-situ conservation.
a) National Parks
b) Wildlife Sanctuary
c) Captive Breeding
d) Biosphere Reserves
2) The organisms which are able to synthesize their own food are known as
a) autotrophs
b) omnivorous
c) carnivorous
d) herbivorous
3) Silent valley is in
a) Karnataka
c) Tamil Nadu
b) Kerala
d) Goa
4) The species which are restricted to a particular region are called as –––––––
species.
a) Endangered
b) Threatened
c) Endemic
d) Rare
5) Troposphere extends upto ––––––––– kilometers from the earth surface.
a) 11
b) 50
c) 85
d) None of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-O – 2
-2-
*SLRO2*
2. Answer any five of the following :
10
i) Give gaseous composition of atmosphere.
ii) Explain energy pyramid.
iii) Give any four uses of biodiversity.
iv) Define species and community.
v) Draw neat labelled diagram of Hydrological cycle.
vi) What is meant by primary productivity and secondary productivity ?
vii) Enlist any four sanctuaries in India.
3. A) Write short notes on any two of the following :
10
i) Grassland ecosystem.
ii) Nitrogen cycle.
iii) Narmada Bachao Andolan.
B) Answer any one of the following :
10
i) Explain threats to biodiversity and add a note on conservation methods of
biodiversity.
ii) Write in detail about ecological succession and add a note on aquatic
ecosystem with suitable example.
SECTION – II
(Microbiology)
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternatives given below :
1) The filterable nature of viruses was first discovered by
a) Ivanowsky
b) D. Herelle and Twort
c) Stanley
d) Hashimoto
2) The type of ribosomes present in a prokaryotic cell is
a) 25S
b) 70S
c) 100S
d) 80S
3) ––––––––––– is example of thermophilic bacteria.
a) Thermus aquaticus
b) Halococcus
c) Thiobacillus
d) E.Coli
5
*SLRO2*
-3
SLR-O – 2
4) Many flagella dispersed randomly over the whole surface of bacterial cell is
called –––––––––– flagellar arrangement.
a) Lophotrichous
b) Monotrichous
c) Amphitrichous
d) Peritrichous
5) The protein sub unit of viral capsid is called as
a) Monomer
b) Polymer
c) Capsomer
d) Envelope
2. Answer any five of the following :
i) General characteristics of archaebacteria.
10
ii) Flagellar arrangements in bacteria.
iii) Define capsule and slime layer.
iv) Define and explain capsomer.
v) Define air microbiology and give names of airborne diseases.
vi) General characteristics of Fungi.
3. A) Write short notes on any two of the following :
10
i) Germ theory of disease.
ii) Structure and function of spore in bacteria.
iii) Structure and function of cell membrane in bacteria.
B) Answer any one of the following :
i) Write an account on applied branches in microbiology.
ii) Write an account on difference between Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic cells.
–––––––––––––
10
SLR-O – 20
*SLRO20*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – II) Examination, 2014
BIOTECHNOLOGY
Biometry and Tissue Culture
(New) Biometry (Paper – I)
Day and Date : Thursday, 4-12-2014
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
Max. Marks : 50
i) All questions are compulsory.
ii) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
iii) Use of calculator is allowed.
1. Multiple choice question.
10
1) If A = { 4, 5, 6, 7 } B = {5 , 6, 8} are two sets then A – B =
a) {4, 7}
b) {8}
c) {5, 6}
d) {4, 7, 8}
2) For two sets A and B if A ⊆ B then A ∩ B =
a) A
b) B
c) φ
d) None of these
3) If A = {φ} then P(A) =
4)
a) {φ, { φ}}
b) {φ}
c) {{φ}}
d) None of these
d
(log x ) =
dx
a) x
c)
1
x
b)
1
log x
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-O – 20
5)
*SLRO20*
-2-
∫ cot x dx =
a) log (sinx) + c
b) log x + c
c) cosecx + c
d) None of these
b) 12x2
c) 6
d) 12
b) 10
c) 100
d) None of these
d 2y
=
6) If y = 6x then
dx 2
2
a) 12 x
x 100 − 1
=
7) lim
x →1 x − 1
a) 1
8) A function f : R → R is defined by f(x) = ax + b where a ≠ 0 is of the type
a) Linear function
b) Quadratic function
c) Power function
d) Logarithmic function
9) If A = { a, b, c, d} then the size of power set of A is
a) 4
b) 8
c) 16
d) 32
b) + 1 – i
c) 1 + i
d) None of these
10) If z = – 1 + i then z =
a) – 1 – i
2. Answer any five of the following.
tan 7 x
.
x→0 tan 5 x
1) Evaluate lim
2) If f(x) = 3x + a and f (1) = 7 find a and f(4).
3) If A = { a, b, c} B = {1, 2} then find AxB, AxA.
4) Find moduls and argument of the following complex number z = 1 + i.
5
4
5) Solve log10
.
+ 2 log10
6) State Newton’s law of cooling.
10
*SLRO20*
SLR-O – 20
-3-
3. A) Answer any two of the following.
6
1) If A = {1,2, 3, 4 } B = {2, 4, 6, 8} C = {3, 4, 5, 6} verify that
i) A ∪ (B ∩ C) = (A ∪ B) ∩ (A ∪ C)
2) Let y =
3) Lim
x →∞
(
dy
ex + e−x
. Find
.
x
−x
dx
e −e
)
x2 + x + 1 − x .
B) Solve by Cramer’s Rule.
4
6 x + y − 3z = 5
x + 3 y − 2z = 5
2x + y + 4z = 8
4. Answer any two of the following.
10
1) Discuss the continuity of the following function at x = 7
f( x ) =
=
log x − log 7
for x ≠ 7
x 2 − 49
1
98
for x = 7
2) Solve 2y cos x dx + 3 sin x dy = 0.
3) Obtain
the
solution
x + 2y − z = 0
3x + 8y − 3z = 0
2x + 4y − 2z = 0
of
the
following
homogenous
system
SLR-O – 20
-4-
*SLRO20*
5. Answer any two of the following :
1) If u = log (tan x + tan y) then show that
Sin 2 x
∂u
∂u
+ sin 2 y
= 2.
∂x
∂y
2) Find the stationary points and examine for the maximum and minimum values
for the functions
f( x, y) = x2 – xy + y2 – 2x + y.
3) Determine the following system of equation for consistency
2 x + 4 y + 7z = 7
− 3x − y + 2z = 2
x + y + z = −3
_______________
10
’
SLR-O – 21
*SLRO21*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester – II) (New) Examination, 2014
BIOTECHNOLOGY (NEW)
Biometry & Tissue Culture Paper – II
Introduction to Tissue Culture
Day and Date : Friday, 5-12-2014
Max. Marks : 50
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever
necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternatives :
10
1) Vitamin _________ used as an antioxidant in MS media.
d) C
a) E
b) B
c) B12
2) Stomata were more open in plants grown in presence of higher ________
a) Magnesium
b) Potassium
c) Calcium
d) Uranium
3) Differentiation of shoot and root is controlled by
a) Enzymes
b) Light intensity
c) Temperature
d) Auxin and cytokinin ratio
4) Development of adventitious organs from undifferentiated cell mass in tissue
culture by the process of differentiation is known as
a) Suspension culture
b) Callus culture
c) Organogenesis
d) Embryogenesis
5) The ________ of the somatic plant cell of a culture to produce embryoids is
known as embryogenic potential.
a) Inability
b) Capability
c) Utility
d) Intensity
P.T.O.
SLR-O– 21
*SLRO21*
-2-
6) _________ was first cloned cell strain, isolated by capillary cloning from
mouse L-cells.
a) L929
b) L120
c) L22
d) L151
7) So as to obtain __________ it is necessary that tissue must be disaggregated.
a) Clumps of cells
b) Primary culture
c) Secondary culture
d) Continuous cell lines
8) __________ inhibitor can neutralise its residual enzyme activity only in the
serum free medium.
a) pectinase
b) cellulase
c) dehydrogenase
d) trypsin
9) _________ cells have finite life span on artificial medium.
a) abnormal
b) normal
c) concerous
d) tumour
10) Most common measurement of cell viability are based on ________ integrity.
a) membrane
b) cytoplasm
c) nucleolus
d) protoplast
2. Answer the following (any five) :
10
1) Culture vessel in PTC.
2) Gelling agent.
3) Stage I of micropropagation.
4) Function of CO2 incubator.
5) What is totipotency ?
6) Secondary cell line.
3. A) Answer the following (any two) :
6
1) Explain the method of organ culture.
2) Explain suspension culture.
3) Explain callus culture.
B) Describe different requirements for animal cell and tissue culture.
4
*SLRO21*
-3-
4. Answer the following (any two) :
SLR-O– 21
10
1) Explain different methods of isolation of protoplast.
2) Describe in detail role of macronutrients in MS media.
3) Discuss cold trypsinization.
5. Answer the following (any two) :
1) Give details of pollen culture.
2) Discuss laboratory design for animal tissue culture.
3) Describe natural media for animal tissue culture.
__________________
10
SLR-O – 25
*SLRO25*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Sem. – II) Examination, 2014
BIOTECHNOLOGY (Old)
Basic Biochemistry – II
Day and Date : Saturday, 29-11-2014
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate maximum marks.
3) Write biochemical reactions where involved.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by selecting the most correct answer from the
given options :
10
1) The pyrimidine present in DNA but absent in RNA is ____________
a) Adenine
b) Guanine
c) Thymine
d) Uracil
2) ________ is the imino acid found in protein structure.
a) Arginine
b) Proline
c) Histidine
d) Lysine
3) The class of enzymes involved in biosynthesis are ___________
a) Oxidoreductases
b) Transferases
c) Ligases
d) Isomerases
4) ___________ is the functionally active form of vitamin D.
a) Cholecalciferol
c) Dehydrocalciferol
b) Ergocalciferol
d) Calciferol
5) The coenzyme not involved in hydrogen transfer is __________
a) FMN
b) FAD
c) NADP+
d) FH4
6) IUB nomenclature system is used for the classification of __________
a) Proteins
b) Enzymes
c) Carbohydrates
d) Lipids
7) The lipids that function as fuel reserve in animals are _____________
a) Cholesterols
b) Triglycerides
c) Phospholipids
d) Cardiolipin
P.T.O.
*SLRO25*
SLR-O – 25
8) Nucleic acids are the polymers of ___________
a) Amino acids
b) Nucleosides
c) Phospholipids
d) Ribose sugars
9) The nonprotein organic low molecular weight and dialysable substance
associated with enzyme function is known as ___________
a) Cofactor
b) Coenzyme
c) Isoenzyme
d) Apoenzyme
10) _______ form of DNA contains 12 base pairs per turn of DNA.
a) A
b) B
c) Z
d) C
2. Write short answers to any five of the following :
10
1) Define isoelectric pH.
2) What are glycolipids ?
3) Give functions of RNA.
4) Give structure of nucleotide.
5) What is oxytocin ?
6) Explain A form of DNA.
3. A) Write in short (any 2) :
6
1) Physical properties of amino acids
2) Deficiency of vitamin D
3) Km value.
B) Give an account of important properties of proteins :
4. Write the following (any 2) :
4
10
1) Give an account of different structural levels of proteins.
2) Explain Watson and Crick model of DNA structure.
3) Explain structure and function of tRNA.
5. Write the following (any 2) :
10
1) Give an account of water soluble vitamins.
2) Explain Michaelis Menten equation.
3) Explain isoenzymes with examples.
_____________________
SLR-O – 26
*SLR-O-26*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Semester – II) Examination, 2014
BIOTECHNOLOGY
Cell Physiology – II (Old)
Day and Date : Monday, 1-12-2014
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Draw neat labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternatives given below :
10
1) Sandwich model of plasma membrane was proposed by _______________
a) Singer and Nicolson
b) Danielli and Davson
c) Gorter and Grendel
d) Robertson
2) In plant cells due to excess exogmosis the cytoplasm alongwith the
plasma membrane shrinks away from the cell wall, this process is known
as _______________
a) Endosmosis
b) Diffusion
c) Cell shrinkage
d) Water exchange
3) Facilitated diffusion is an example of _______________
a) Passive transport
b) Active transport
c) Simple transport
d) Molecular exchange
4) _______________ are example of adhering junctions.
a) Chemical synapse
b) Gap junctions
c) Plasmo desmata
d) Spot desmosomes
5) In molecular terms, cell differentiation means _______________
a) Variable gene activity
b) Gene expression
c) Genome expression
d) Cell termination
P.T.O.
SLR-O – 26
*SLR-O-26*
-2-
6) General characteristics of cell differentiation are _______________
a) The differentiated state is stable
b) It is induced automatically
c) It is not terminally differentiated
d) The differentiated state is unstable
7) In Xenopus embryo, the nucleus have totipotency upto _______________
cell stage.
a) 16
b) 14
c) 18
d) 20
8) Nuclear pore complex is an example of _______________ type of protein
transport.
a) Gated
b) Transmembrane
c) Vesicular
d) Non-gated
9) One of the following is not a property of cancer cell.
a) Invasion
b) Uncontrolled cell division
c) Metastasis
d) Differentiation
10) _______________ was 1st identified intracellular mediator of the hormone
action in 1959.
a) Cyclic Amp
b) ADP
c) Ca2+
d) Adenylyl cyclase
2. Answer the following (any 5) :
1) What are chemical synapse ?
2) Define glycocalyx.
3) Define Belt desmosomes.
4) What is mean by totipotency ?
5) What is pinocytosis ?
6) What are second messengers ?
10
*SLR-O-26*
-3-
SLR-O – 26
3. A) Answer the following (any 2) :
6
1) Write an account on germ cell determinants.
2) Describe in detail concept of intracellular compartments.
3) Write a essay on cell recognition.
B) Explain mechanism of facilitated membrane transport.
4. Answer the following (any 2) :
4
10
1) Describe Huid mosaic model of plasma membrane.
2) Explain mechanism of signalling is a G-Protein coupled cell surface receptors.
3) Explain role of nuclear pore complex in protein transport.
5. Answer the following (any 2) :
1) Explain communicating junctions with suitable example.
2) Describe in detail molecular mechanism of cell differentiation.
3) Define active transport and explain its different types.
_____________________
10
SLR-O – 27
*SLRO27*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Semester – II) Examination, 2014
BIOTECHNOLOGY (Old)
Basic Biotechnology – II
Day and Date : Tuesday, 2-12-2014
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
N. B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
3) Draw neat and labelled diagram whenever necessary.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternatives :
10
1) Variants selected in callus culture have been referred to as ________
a) Calliclones
b) Protoclones
c) Polyclones
d) Anuclones
2) ___________ mutations are not detected in plants regenerated from any cell
or tissue.
a) Dominant
b) Recessive
c) Hybrid
d) Super
3) Bt gene which produces protein toxic to insect larvae is ___________
a) Trp
b) nif
c) cry
d) gus
4) These are the methods of isolation of protoplast
a) Mechanical
b) Sequential enzymatic
c) Mixed enzymatic
d) All the above
5) _________ possess a nuclear genome from only one parent but cytoplasmic
genes from both parents.
a) Hybrids
b) Cybrids
c) Transgenics
d) Mutants
P.T.O.
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6) ___________ strategies are generally applicable for medium term storage.
a) Fast growth
b) Slow growth
c) Medium growth
d) Continuous growth
7) ____________ has been effectively used for a long time to obtain virus free
plant.
a) Thermotherapy
b) Cold condition
c) Boiling water
d) LN storage
8) Greatest benefit of meristem culture is
a) Development of somaclonal variation
b) Development of transgenic plants
c) Production of virus free plants
d) All of these
9) ___________ was first technology employed for detection of polymorphism.
a) RFLP
b) RAPD
c) QTL
d) STS
10) Resistance to herbicide glyphosate in transgenic plants is brought about by
a) Overproduction of RNA polymerase
b) Underproduction of EPSP synthase
c) Overproduction of EPSP synthase
d) Overproduction of Aspartate aminotransferase
2. Answer any five :
1) Variants
2) Resistant
3) Cybrids
4) Toxin gene
5) Male sterility
6) Breeding.
10
*SLRO27*
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3. A) Answer any two :
SLR-O – 27
6
1) Describe the origin of somaclonal variation.
2) What is cryopreservation add a note on slow growth.
3) Write note on antisense strategy.
B) Explain the method of RFLP.
4. Answer any two :
4
10
1) Write an account on protoplast fusion.
2) Explain the method of production of insect resistant plant.
3) Explain the mechanism of genetic variation.
5. Answer any two :
10
1) Describe genetic manipulation in flower pigment.
2) Explain AFLP as a molecular marker.
3) Write an account of map based cloning.
_________________
SLR-O – 28
*SLRNS3*
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B.Sc. (Semester – II) Examination, 2014
BIOTECHNOLOGY
Basics of Tissue Culture – II (Old)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 3-12-2014
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
N. B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
3) Draw neat and labelled diagram wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternatives :
10
1) Debergh and Mannae introduce stage zero (0) in __________
a) 1981
b) 1982
c) 1983
d) 1984
2) The term hyperhydration earlier called as __________
a) Glassiness
c) Translucency
b) Vitrification
d) Glausiness
3) Axillary buds are usually present in the axils of each __________
a) shoot
b) tip
c) leaf
d) root
4) __________ accelerates hepatic glycogen breakdown.
a) Insulin
b) Thyronin
c) Thyroxine
d) Glucagon
5) Oversecreation of ___________ causes gigantism in children.
a) GH
b) MSH
c) AcTH
d) LH
6) Synthesis and accumulation of ___________ repeatedly shown to co-occur
with stationary phase.
a) Tertiary metabolites
b) Secondary metabolites
c) Vitamins
d) Primary metabolites
7) ___________ are compounds of biological origin involved in plant microbe
interaction.
a) Activators
b) Repressors c) Elicitors
d) Phosphates
P.T.O.
*SLRNS3*
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8) Edible Vaccines are produced from ___________
a) Transgenic animal
b) Transgenic mice
c) Transgenic fish
d) Transgenic plant
9) Deficiency of ___________ a cytoplasmic enzyme found in high concentration
in lymphoid cells.
a) ADA
b) Kinase
c) HAT
d) Transferase
10) Silk is used for ___________
a) Manufacturing garments
b) Cartrige bags
c) Telephone cable insulators
d) All of these
2. Answer the following (any five) :
1) Explain off type.
10
2) Enlist the applications of micropropagation.
3) Give brief account on gene therapy.
4) Write the androgenic action of testosterone.
5) Explain production and recovery of cocoon in sericulture.
6) Explain stage I of micropropagation.
3. A) Answer the following (any two) :
1) Explain oxidative browning.
6
2) Explain recombinant antigenic protein production.
3) Describe life cycle of Bombyx mori in short.
3. B) Give detail account on hairy root culture.
4. Answer the following (any two) :
4
10
1) Discuss Human Genome Project.
2) Describe aquaculture w.r.t. fish.
3) Explain chloroplast transformation.
5. Answer the following (any two) :
1) Describe elicitor induced accumulation of product.
2) Discuss Neuroendocrine principles involved in regulation of growth in
vertebrates.
3) Explain mass cultivation of cells in bioreactor w.r.t. stirred tank reactor.
_____________________
10
*SLRO29*
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Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Biotech.) (Semester – II) (Old) Examination, 2014
MICROBIOLOGY – II
Day and Date : Thursday, 4-12-2014
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Draw a neat labelled diagram wherever necessary.
3) Figure to the right indicate full marks.
1. Rewrite the sentences by selecting the correct answer from the given alternative :
10
1) In gram staining procedure ___________ works as a primary stain.
a) Grams iodine
b) Crystal violet
c) Safranin
d) 95% Alcohol
2) _____________ is the example of moist heat sterilization.
a) Autoclave
b) Filtration
c) Hot air oven
d) None
3) _________________ agent used for gaseous sterilization.
a) Iodine
b) Silver nitrate
c) Ethylene oxide
d) Chlorine
4) Arrange the microorganism in asystematic way, this science is known as
_______________
a) Morphology
b) Genus name
c) Gram nature
d) Taxonomy
5) Gram positive bacteria posses _______________ in the cell wall.
a) Mg-ribonucleate
b) MgCO3
c) Mg-ribose
d) Mg-gluconate
6) _______________ is the checked by using light passing capacity of colony.
a) Margin
b) Opacity
c) Elevation
d) Size
7) Curd preparation is carried out by using ______________ microorganism.
a) E.Coli
b) Pseudomonas
c) Lactobacillus
d) None
P.T.O.
*SLRO29*
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8) ______________ is the substance when enter in an animal body, it stimulate
the antibody formation.
a) Antibody
b) Bacteria
c) Blood
d) Saline
9) Acid fastness in mycobacterium is due to presence of _____________ in
their cell wall.
a) Teichoic acid
b) Malic acid
c) Mycolic acid
d) Pyruvic acid
10) ______________ works as a solidifying agent in culture media.
a) Agar-Agar
b) Peptone
c) NaCl
d) Iodine
2. Answer any five of the following :
10
a) Define Fermentation
b) Enlist the chemical agent of sterilization
c) Define stain
d) Draw a neat labelled diagram of Autoclave
e) Define sterilization
f) Give example of acidic stain.
3. A) Answer any two of the following :
a) Explain negative staining
b) Write the general principle of taxonomy
c) Explain in brief production medium.
B) Explain in detail simple staining.
4. Answer any two of the following :
6
4
10
a) Explain in detail theory procedure and mechanism of gram staining.
b) Write in detail application of microbes in agriculture.
c) Explain the methods of physical agents of sterilization.
5. Answer any two of the following :
a) Describe in detail differential staining.
b) Explain in detail bacterial classification.
c) Write in detail methods of chemical agents of sterilization.
_____________________
10
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*SLRO3*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester – I) (C.G.P.A. Pattern) Examination, 2014
BIOTECHNOLOGY
Introduction to Biosciences
Day and Date : Wednesday, 5-11-2014
Max. Marks : 70
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Answer to the both Section are to be written in separate
answer book.
3) Draw neat labelled diagram wherever necessary.
4) Figures to right indicate full marks.
SECTION – I
(Plant Sciences)
1. Choose the correct answer from given alternatives :
5
1) Bryophytes like _______ is used for production of antibiotics.
a) Polyfrichum
b) Riccia
c) Sphagnum
d) Anthoceros
2) Apical cell theory of growth in plants was proposed by
a) Nageli
b) Hanstein
c) Schmidt
3) The term taxonomy was coined by
a) A.D. decondolle
c) Rendle
d) Easy
b) Darwin
d) Theophrastus
4) Aerenchyma is common tissue found in
a) mesophytes
b) xerophytes
c) hydrophytes
d) epiphytes
5) The growth curve is usually in ________ shaped curve.
a) ‘S’ shaped sigmoid
b) ‘ β ’ shaped
c) ‘V’ shaped
d) ‘ α ’ shaped
P.T.O.
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*SLRO3*
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2. Answer any five of the following :
10
i) Write any five economic importance of Fungi.
ii) Write significance of binomial nomenclature.
iii) Merits of Bentham and Hooker’s system of classification.
iv) Schizocarpic fruits with suitable examples.
v) Periderm formation.
vi) Practical applications of cytokinins.
vii) Structure of seed.
3. A) Write short notes on any two of the following :
i) Primary structure of dicot stem.
ii) Types of pollination with suitable example.
iii) Forms of corolla with suitable example.
10
B) Answer any one of the following :
10
i) Write general characters of angiosperms and add note on economic
importance of it.
ii) What is seed dormancy ? What are the causes ? Add note on vigour and
viability.
SECTION – II
(Animal Science)
1. Choose the correct alternatives from the given below :
5
i) The salient feature of arthropoda is
a) Soft-bodied animals
b) Presence of jointed appendages
c) Presence of setae
d) Presence of gastrovascular cavity
ii) Heart is perfectly four chambered in
a) Crocodile
b) garden lizard c) snake
iii) Frog belongs to class
a) Pisces
b) Amphibia
c) Reptilia
d) Aves
d) wall lizard
*SLRO3*
SLR-O – 3
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iv) ________ are pseudocoelomate animals.
a) Nematodes
c) Annelids
b) Platyhelminthes
d) Molluscs
v) ________ is defined as the culturing and growing of living organisms in water
under controlled condition.
a) Apiculture
b) Aquaculture
c) Sericulture
d) Vermiculture
2. Answer any five of the following :
10
i) Give unique features of phylum Annelida
ii) Explain the term Parasitism.
iii) Give the general characters of class cephalochordata.
iv) What is host specificity ?
v) Give the importance of sericulture.
vi) What is fishery ? Enlist the types of fisheries with an example each.
vii) Write the principles of classification.
3. A) Answer any two of the following :
10
i) Describe parasitic adaptations of Fasciola hepatica.
ii) Describe various species of honey bees. Give economic importance of
apiculture.
iii) Write the general characters of phylum porifera. Enlist the classes of it
and give one example of each class.
B) Answer any one of the following :
10
i) Give an account on technique of vermiculture. Add a note on factors
required for vermiculture.
ii) Give an account on the general characteristics of phylum chordata and
its classification upto class.
———————
SLR-O – 30
*SLRO30*
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B.Sc. – I (Sem. – II) Examination, 2014
BIOTECHNOLOGY (Old)
Ecology – II
Day and Date : Friday, 5-12-2014
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
N. B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the following questions by choosing correct alternatives given below :
1) Major pollution causing agents are __________
a) Men
b) Animals
c) UV-rays
10
d) Green house gases
2) An example of natural pollution is __________
a) Forest fire
c) Natural organic decays
b) Volcanic eruptions
d) All of these
3) Sources of Marine Pollution are __________
a) Industrial effluents
b) Oil spillage
c) Nuclear tests
d) All of these
4) Torrey canon is famous for __________
a) Gulf war
b) Industries
c) Electric potential
d) Oil spillage
5) Solid waste management includes __________
a) Packing
c) Recycling
b) Transportation
d) Municipal earning
P.T.O.
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*SLRO30*
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6) Energy resources derived from natural organic materials are called ________
a) Geothermal energy sources
b) Fossil fuels
c) Biomass
d) All of these
7) Acid rain is formed due to contribution from the following pair of gases
_________
a) Methane and ozone
b) Oxygen and nitrous oxide
c) Methane and sulphur dioxide
d) None of these
8) __________ of the following is not a consequence of global warming.
a) Rising sea level
b) Increased agricultural productivity world wide
c) Worsening health effects
d) Increased storm frequency and intensity
9) The three primary soil macronutrients are __________
a) Carbon, Oxygen and Water
b) Copper, Cadmium and Carbon
c) Potassium, Phosphorus and Nitrogen
d) Boron, Zinc and Manganese
10) An example of non-degradable pollutant is __________
a) sewage
b) plastic
c) litter
2. Answer any five of the following :
i) Enlist sources of pollution.
ii) Define pollutant and give its types.
iii) Give effects of solid waste.
iv) Enlist sources of nuclear pollution.
v) Give various uses of isotopes.
vi) Describe energy plantation. Give its applications.
d) vegetable waste
10
*SLRO30*
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SLR-O – 30
3. A) Answer any two of the following :
6
i) Describe mechanism of ozone depletion and add a note on ozone depleting
substances.
ii) What is nuclear pollution ? Explain treatment of nuclear pollution.
iii) What is gasohol ? Explain new techniques of biological energy production.
B) Define pollution. Explain local and global impacts of pollution.
4. Answer any two of the following :
4
10
i) Describe non-biological methods of energy production.
ii) Give a detailed account of minamata episode.
iii) Define soil pollution and add a note on impacts of excessive irrigation on soil.
5. Answer any two of the following :
i) Write a brief account of biogas production and give its applications.
ii) Enumerate the sources, effects and control measures of water pollution.
iii) Describe various sources of radioactive pollution and add a note on nuclear
fusion.
_____________________
10
SLR-O – 31
*SLRO31*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – II) (Biotechnology) Examination, 2014
Biostatistics (Old)
Biometry – II
Day and Date : Saturday, 6-12-2014
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
N. B. : i) All questions are compulsory.
ii) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
iii) Use of calculator is allowed.
1. Multiple choice questions.
10
1) ______________ is always the best measure of central tendency.
a) Arithmetic mean
b) Median
c) Mode
d) All of these
2) Quartiles divides the series of observations into ______________ equal parts.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) None of these
3) The distributions are said to be positively skewed if ______________
a) Mean > Median > Mode
b) Mean < Median < Mode
c) Mean = Mode = Median
d) None of these
4) The curve which is neither flat nor peaked is known as ______________
a) Mesokurtic
b) Platykurtic
c) Leptokurtic
d) None of these
5) Arithmetic mean of regression coefficient is ______________ the correlation
coefficient if correlation coefficient is positive.
a) Less than
b) Greater than
c) Equal to one
d) None of these
P.T.O.
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*SLRO31*
6) Probability of an impossible event is ______________
a) Zero
b) One
c) > 0
d) None of these
7) Which is uniparametric distribution ?
a) Binomial
c) Normal
b) Poisson
d) All of these
8) If P(A ∩ B) = 0, then two events A and B are ______________
a) Mutually exclusive
b) Exhaustive
c) Equally likely
d) Independent
9) Parameter is a statistical measure which relates to ______________
a) Sample
b) Population
c) Census
d) None of these
10) If A and B are the two events such that A ⊂ B then P(B/A) = ______________
a) 0
c) P(A)
b) 1
d) None of these
2. Answer any five of the following :
10
1) Define mean deviation about mean and coeff. of mean deviation.
2) The mean and standard deviation of 100 observation is 45 and 10 respectively.
Find the new mean and standard deviation if each observation is increased
by 5.
3) State the empirical relationship among mean, median and mode.
4) Let X be a binomial random variable with parameters n and p E(X) = 4 and
Var (X) = 2.4. Find n and p.
5) State Poisson Distribution.
6) State merits of arithmetic mean.
3. A) Answer any two of the following :
i) Show that arithmetic mean is affected by both, change of scale and origin.
ii) What do you mean by measures of dispersion ?
iii) State the properties of correlation coefficient.
6
*SLRO31*
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SLR-O – 31
B) Let A and B be two events connected with a random experiment such that
P(A) =
1
3
5
, P(A ∪ B) = , P(B′) = Find
2
4
8
4
i) P(A ∩ B)
ii) P( A′ ∩ B)
iii) P( A′ ∪ B′ )
iv) P( A′ ∩ B′ )
4. Answer any two of the following :
10
1) Calculate the correlation coefficient γ xy from the following result.
n = 20, Σ x = 80, Σ y = 40, Σ x2 = 1680, Σ y2 = 320, Σ xy = 480.
2) Write a short note on tabulation of data.
3) What is an ogive curve ? How it is constructed ?
5. Answer any two of the following :
1) What are type I and type II errors ?
2) Obtain variance from the following result.
N = 100, Σ fx = 12500, Σ fx2 = 158500.
3) If mortality rate for certain disease is 0.10, then find the probability that out of
10 people with this disease exactly four will survive.
_____________________
10
SLR-O – 32
*SLRO32*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – II) Examination, 2014
BIOTECHNOLOGY (Old)
Computer – II
Day and Date : Monday, 8-12-2014
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
N.B. :
Max. Marks : 50
i) All questions are compulsory.
ii) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by using correct answer from given alternatives : 10
i) E-mail stands for _____________
a) Electrical mail
c) Exchange mail
b) Electronic mail
d) None
ii) The information science in bioinformatics includes _______ fields.
a) Computer Science
b) Statistics
c) Biology
d) Both a) and b)
iii) WWW stands for _____________________
a) World Wide Web
b) World Web World
c) World Web Wide
d) None
iv) _____________ is a machine which shares its resources across the network.
a) Client
b) Server
v) SRS stands for ______________
a) Sequence Reversible System
c) Sequence Retrieval System
c) Web browser d) Hypertext
b) Selected Retrieval System
d) Soluble Recombinant Sequence
vi) The speed is maximum in _________ topology.
a) Star
b) Bus
c) Ring
vii) _____________ tool is used for sequence comparison.
a) Phylip
b) Blast
c) Gene finder
d) Hybrid
d) Gene Mask
viii) Hub is a central point of controller for a __________ network.
a) Ring
b) Star
c) Bus
d) Hybrid
P.T.O.
*SLRO32*
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ix) One of the most popular tool used for phylogenetic analysis is _______
a) Blast
b) Gold
c) Phylip
d) Amber
x) _____________ is a most widely used search engine.
a) Google
b) Khoj
c) Litcounter
d) Altavista
2. Answer any five of the following :
10
i) Define the terms :
1) Computer Network
2) Network topology.
ii) Write a note on IUPAC nomenclature.
iii) Explain the benefits of networking.
iv) Explain SRS.
v) Write a note on “Star-bus topology”.
vi) Write a note on gene analysis.
3. A) Answer any two of the following :
6
i) Explain Bus Topology.
ii) Write a note on “Hubs”.
iii) Explain Applications of Internet.
B) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of Star, Ring and Bus Topology.
4. Answer any two of the following :
4
10
i) What is Computer network ? Explain local area network.
ii) What is Phylogenetic relationship ? Give role of Bioinformatics in Phylogenetic
relationship.
iii) Write a note on “E-mail”.
5. Answer any two of the following :
i) Explain NCBI.
ii) Explain the types of Twisted pair cables.
iii) Write a note on “Co-axial Cable”.
_____________________
10
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*SLRO33*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – III) (Biotechnology) Examination, 2014
GENETICS (New)
Inheritance Biology – I
Day and Date : Friday, 21-11-2014
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
Instructions : 1) All the questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
3) Draw diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the sentences by choosing the correct alternatives :
10
1) _________________ individual has identical alleles at both gene loci for a
particular phenotypic trait.
a) Heterozygous
c) Allelic
b) Homozygous
d) Allelomorphs
2) Both dominant alleles, when present together, complement each other and
are called _________________
a) Supplementary
b) Co-dominant
c) Suppressor
d) Complementary
3) A human, having ‘A’ Blood group, possesses _________________ antigens
in red blood cells.
a) B
b) A
c) A, B
d) None
4) In Drosophila , _________________ type of sex determination is observed.
a) XY – XX
b) XO – XY
c) XX – XY
d) ZZ – ZW
5) Colour blindness in man is an example of _________________inheritance.
a) X-linked
b) Y-linked
c) XY-linked
d) None
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6) The phenomenon of sex-linked inheritance was proposed by ____________
a) T. H. Morgan
b) F.H.C. Crick
c) Bateson and Punnet
d) E. Strasburger
7) The characteristic of incomplete dominance in F2 generation is _________________
a) The ratio of phenotype is 3:1
b) The ratio of genotype is 3:7
c) Phenotypic ratio corresponds to genotypic ratio
d) All of the above
8) According to Avery, McLeod and McCarty the substance responsible for
transformation was _________________
a) RNA
b) DNA
c) Both DNA and RNA
d) Protein and RNA
9) The genes are located on non-homologous segment of Y-chromosome is
known as Y-linked inheritance and is also called as _________________
a) Gene manipulation
b) Gene expression
c) Holandric genes
d) Complete linkage
10) In monohybrid cross, _________________ is the genotypic ratio.
a) 3:1
b) 1:2:1
c) 1:2:2:1
d) 2:2
2. Answer the following (any 5) :
1) What is linkage ?
2) Define plasmid.
3) What is Hfr cell ?
4) Describe in brief transformation.
5) What is monohybrid cross ?
6) Define the terms-phenotype and genotype.
10
*SLRO33*
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3. A) Answer the following (any 2) :
6
1) Explain the term epistasis and dominance.
2) Describe in brief the types of plasmids.
3) Explain the mechanism of transduction in bacteria.
B) Explain the self-incompatibility in plants with an example.
4. Answer the following (any 2) :
4
10
1) Describe the incomplete dominance with an example.
2) What is gene interaction ? Describe supplementary gene interaction with an
example.
3) Define multiple allele. Explain ABO blood group in humans.
5. Answer the following (any 2) :
1) What is gene mapping ? Explain it with the help of three point test cross.
2) Describe Mendel’s dihybrid cross with an example.
3) Describe the cytoplasmic inheritance by mitochondria with an example.
––––––––––––––––––––
10
SLR-O – 34
*SLRO34*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Biotechnology) (Semester – III) (New) Examination, 2014
GENETICS
Cytogenetics and Population Genetics – II
Day and Date : Saturday, 22-11-2014
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat labelled diagram wherever necessary.
1. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the sentence again.
10
1) In human beings the composition of female destined zygote is ___________
a) 22 + X
b) 22 + Y
c) 44 + XX
d) 44 + XY
2) Mutation arise due to ___________
a) Infection by microorganism
b) Abrupt change in the genes
c) Dominant character of one of the parents
d) Nutritional factor
3) The character of organisms is said to be sex linked when its gene is carried
on ___________
a) Y-chromosome
b) X-chromosome of male or female
c) X and Y chromosomes
d) A particular autosome
4) The ratio of the one allele to other alleles in a gene pool or a population is
called ___________
a) Gene frequency
b) Gene flow
c) Immigration
d) Mutation
P.T.O.
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*SLRO34*
5) Transposable elements are also known as ___________
a) Jumping genes
b) Mobile genes
c) Selfish DNA
d) All of these
6) SINEs stands for ___________
a) Short Interspersed Nuclear Sequences
b) Small Interspersed Nuclear Sequences
c) Small Interrelated Nuclear Sequences
d) Short Interrelated Nuclear Sequences
7) Transposable elements first discovered by ___________ in 1958.
a) Barbara McClintock
b) H. J. Muller
c) T. H. Morgan
d) G. J. Mendel
8) The nullosomic organism has genomic formula ___________
a) (n + 1)
b) (n – 1)
c) (2n – 2)
d) (2n + 2)
9) Kernel colour in wheat is a ___________ character was first studied by
H. Nilson-Ehle.
a) Qualitative
b) Quantitative
c) Phenotypic
d) Genotypic
10) ___________ is quantity obtained by dividing the sum of the values of items
in a variable by their number.
a) Median
b) Mean
c) Mode
d) Mean deviation
2. Answer any five of the following :
1) What are IS elements ?
2) Define lethal mutations.
3) What is euploidy ?
4) Define migration.
5) Define standard deviation.
6) What is heterochromatin ?
10
*SLRO34*
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3. A) Answer any two of the following :
SLR-O – 34
6
1) Write a note on role of chromosome in heredity.
2) What is spontaneous mutation ?
3) Write a note on satellite DNA.
B) Write a note on sex chromosome.
4. Answer any two of the following :
4
10
1) What is Hardy Weinberg law ? Explain it with suitable example.
2) Write a detail account on Transposable elements.
3) Describe multiple factor hypothesis with suitable example.
5. Answer any two of the following :
1) Describe Lampbrush chromosome with suitable diagram.
2) Write a note on effects of environment on quantitative traits.
3) What is aneuploidy ? Explain different types of aneuploidy.
_____________________
10
SLR-O – 35
*SLRO35*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – III) (Biotechnology) Examination, 2014
BIOTECHNIQUES (New)
Biophysical Techniques – I
Day and Date : Monday, 24-11-2014
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Draw neat labelled diagram wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Rewrite the following sentences choosing the correct alternative :
10
1) The most widely used hydrogen ion sensitive electrode is ___________
a) Glass
b) Calomel electrode
c) Silver-Silver chloride
d) Platinum electrode
2) The pH range of an indicator is detected by ___________
a) Change in consistency
b) Change in color
c) Change in temperature
d) All of the above
3) A light microscope has an objective lens with a magnification of 40X and an
ocular lens with a magnification of 10X then the image is magnified _________
a) 50X
b) 400X
c) 40X
d) 450X
4) The radioactively labelled and unlabeled antigens are used in _________
a) Flow cytometer
b) AAS
c) UV spectrophotometer
d) RIA
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*SLRO35*
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5) In centrifugation a more dense particle tends to move _________ than a less
dense one.
a) Slower
b) Faster
c) With medium speed
d) Better
6) ___________ is the ability to reveal closely adjacent points as separate and
distinct.
a) Resolution
b) Magnification
c) Numerical aperture
d) Fluorescence
7) The wavelength of an absorption of 495 nm lies in the _______ electromagnetic
spectrum.
a) Microwave
b) Radiowave
c) Infra red
d) Ultraviolet-visible
8) The Nernst glower rod is heated to produce infrared radiation at _________°C.
a) 2000
b) 1500
c) 3000
d) 5000
9) γ radiations have ___________ nature.
a) Particle
b) Wave
c) Visible light
d) Infrared
10) Determination of precise spacing of atoms within a large protein is possible
only through the use of ________________
a) A Ramachandran Plot
b) Light microscopy
c) X-ray diffraction
d) Electron microscopy
2. Answer the following (any five) :
1) Define Extinction.
2) Dissociation constant.
3) Image formed in a compound microscope.
4) Dose equivalent.
5) Give the applications of circular Dichroism.
6) Properties of radioisotopes.
10
*SLRO35*
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SLR-O – 35
3. A) Answer the following (any two) :
6
1) Explain positron and negatron emission.
2) Write down the principle of optical Rotatory Dispersion.
3) Give the principle of phase contrast microscopy.
B) Give the different types of rotors used in a centrifuge with their applications.
4. Answer the following (any two) :
4
10
1) Give the instrumentation of a turbidometer.
2) What are analytical ultracentrifugation instruments used for ? Give its
application.
3) What are chromatic aberrations ? Explain.
5. Answer the following (any two) :
1) Give the principle of a colorimeter.
2) What is half-life of a radioisotope ?
3) Discuss the image formation in an electron microscope.
__________________
10
SLR-O – 36
*SLR-O-36*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – III) Examination, 2014
BIOTECHNOLOGY (New)
BioTechniques
Biochemical Techniques – II
Day and Date : Tuesday, 25-11-2014
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
N. B : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Draw neat and labelled diagram wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternative :
10
1) Migration rate under unit potential gradient is known as ______________ of
ions.
a) Mobility
b) Intensity
c) Resistivity
d) Absorptivity
2) β -Mercapto ethanol reduces ______________ in protein structure.
a) Methyl group
b) Disulphide linkage
c) Hydrogen bonding
d) Carboxyl bonding
3) Chromatography is ______________ method for separation of compounds.
a) Chemical
b) Mechanical
c) Physical
d) Biological
4) ______________ method is especially useful for the separation of 4S and 5S
t-RNA.
a) Gas Liquid Chromatography
b) Affinity Chromatography
c) Ion exchange chromatography
d) Molecular sieve chromatography
P.T.O.
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-2-
*SLR-O-36*
5) ______________ is the physical method of cell disruption.
a) Osmotic shock
b) Lysozyme
c) Alkali
d) Detergents
6) In Biological terms ______________ occurs at the barrier between blood
and filtrate in the renal capsule.
a) Centrifugation
b) Ultra filtration
c) Macro filtration
d) Paper filtration
7) BCA stands for ______________
a) Bromide catalytic assay
b) Bergmans centrifugation assay
c) Bicinchoninic acid assay
d) Baltimore’s citrate assay
8) When sample is less than 500 μ l, method of choice for precipitation is
______________
a) Chloroform : Butanol
b) Chloroform : ethanol
c) Chloroform : Iso propyl alcohol d) Chloroform : Methanol
9) In 1994 ______________ threw the term proteome into the scientific
community.
a) Mare Wilkins
c) Filipe Anderson
b) Joe Root
d) Rutherfoard
10) ______________ proteins are under represented during 2-D gel
electrophoresis.
a) DNA
b) Membrane
c) Cellular
d) Organelle
2. Answer the following (any five) :
1) Write a note on electrophoresis.
2) Types of columns used in GLC.
3) Cell disruption by organic solvents.
4) Write the principle of BCA assay.
5) Define functional genomics and proteomics.
6) Write a note on chromatography.
10
*SLR-O-36*
-3-
SLR-O – 36
3. A) Answer the following (any two) :
6
1) Write a note on agar as support media.
2) Write a note on dialysis.
3) Write a note on ascending paper chromatography.
B) Describe basic principle of Electrophoresis.
4. Answer the following (any two) :
4
10
1) Discuss western blotting technique.
2) Explain chromatographic technique which separate the molecules on the
basis of their size.
3) Describe 2-D gel electrophoresis technique.
5. Answer the following (any two) :
1) Discuss sample taking methods for proteomics study.
2) Give details of Lowry assay for protein determination.
3) Describe methods of enzyme immobilization.
_____________________
10
SLR-O – 37
*SLRO37*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – III) (Biotechnology) Examination, 2014
IMMUNOLOGY (New)
Cells and Organs of Immunity – I
Day and Date : Wednesday, 26-11-2014
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
N.B. : 1) All the questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the sentence again :
10
1) CD8+ cells are known as ________________
a) TH
b) Dendritic cells
c) Macrophages
d) TC
2) Blood borne antigens mainly trapped in ___________
a) Spleen
b) Lymphnode
c) Bone marrow
d) Thymus
3) Phenomenon of phagocytosis is first determined by ___________
a) Louis Pasture
b) Elie Metchnikoff
c) Edward Jenner
d) Alexander Flemming
4) Forssman antigen is common example of _______________
a) Autoantigen
b) Histocompatibility antigen
c) Heterophile antigen
d) Microbial antigen
P.T.O.
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*SLRO37*
-2-
5) Fluorescein isothiocyanate or Lissamine rhodamine are used in __________
a) Radioimmunoassay
b) Immuno-fluorescence
c) ELISA
d) Complement fixation
6) Antibodies labelled with enzyme are used in _________ test.
a) Immunofluorescence
b) ELISA
c) Agglutination
d) Complement fixation
7) The immunoglobulin which contains a secretary piece is _____________
a) IgA
c) IgD
b) IgG
d) IgE
8) Class I MHC molecules peptide binding cleft is formed by _____________
domains.
a) α 1 and β 2
b) α 2 , α3
c) α1 and α 3
d) α1 and α 2
9) In alternative pathway binding of _________ stabilises the C3bBb
(C3 convertase)
a) Serine protease
c) Properdin
b) Lectin
d) C1
10) Hematopoietic stem cell is ________________
a) Unipotent
b) Dipotent
c) Pluripotent
d) None of these
2. Answer any five of the following :
1) Define and explain Hematopoiesis.
2) Define Immunogenicity and antigenicity.
3) Define antibodies and give its types.
4) Give functions of cytokines.
5) Write the applications of monoclonal antibody.
6) Define and explain Redundancy.
10
*SLRO37*
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SLR-O – 37
3. A) Answer any two of the following :
6
1) Explain the properties of cytokine.
2) Explain different types of antigen and factors affecting antigenicity.
3) Explain exocytic pathway of antigen presentation.
B) Explain the structure of class I MHC molecule.
4. Answer any two of the following :
4
10
1) Write in brief on structure of antibody molecule.
2) Explain sandwitch ELISA with heat labelled diagram.
3) Write in brief on classical complement pathway.
5. Answer any two of the following :
1) Write an account on primary lymphoid organs.
2) Explain the cytokine receptors with examples.
3) Explain the types of immunodiffusion procedures.
_____________________
10
SLR-O – 38
*SLRO38*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Biotechnology) (Semester – III) Examination, 2014
IMMUNOLOGY (New)
Immune Effector Mechanisms – II
Day and Date : Thursday, 27-11-2014
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
N. B. :
Max. Marks : 50
1) All the questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the sentences again :
10
1) Active immunisation is done by using ____________
a) Readymade antibodies
b) Vaccines
c) Immune sera
d) None of these
2) ____________ is a substance helping in nonspecific defence mechanism of
respiratory, digestive and urinogenital systems.
a) Sebum
b) Urine
c) Mucus
d) Saliva
3) ___________ lymphocyte is involved in the humoral immune response.
a) T
b) T or B
c) B
d) T and B
4) ___________ is the major antibody produced in primary immune response.
a) IgG
b) IgM
c) IgD
d) IgA
5) ___________ is a autoantigen.
a) Eye lens proteins
b) Hapten
c) RBCs
d) WBCs
6) ___________ is responsible for type I hypersensitivity.
a) IgA
b) IgG
c) IgD
d) IgE
7) BCG is an example of ___________ vaccine.
a) Live attenuated
b) Killed
c) Live and killed
d) None of these
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*SLRO38*
SLR-O – 38
8) The transfer of graft from donor to recipient belonging to different species is
called ___________
a) Isograft
b) Allograft
c) Xenograft
9) CD4+ glycoprotein is present on _________
b) TH cells
c) B cells
a) TC cells
d) Autograft
d) None of these
10) Rheumatoid arthritis is __________ type of autoimmune disease.
a) Organ specific
b) Non organ specific
c) Hemolytic
d) None of these
2. Answer any five of the following :
10
1) Define active and passive immunity.
2) Define vaccine with examples.
3) Define and explain phagocytosis.
4) Give examples of antimicrobial substances present in blood and tissue fluids.
5) Define graft and give its types.
6) Give primary mediators of type I hypersensitivity reactions.
3. A) Answer any two of the following :
6
1) Explain mechanism of inflammation.
2) Explain general mechanism of anaphylaxis.
3) Explain active and passive immunisation.
B) Write an account on T cell maturation, activation and differentiation.
4. Answer any two of the following :
4
10
1) Explain mechanism of immunity to bacteria.
2) Write an account on vaccines.
3) Write an account on “First line of defence”.
5. Answer any two of the following :
a) Write an account on monoclonal antibody synthesis.
b) Write in brief on general mechanism of autoimmunity.
c) Write in brief on mechanism of allograft recognition.
_____________________
10
SLR-O – 4
*SLRO4*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I. (Semester – I) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2014
BIOTECHNOLOGY
Fundamentals of Chemistry and Biophysics
Day and Date : Friday, 7-11-2014
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 70
N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Use of log table/calculator is allowed.
SECTION – I
(Chemical Science)
1. Select the most correct alternative from among those given below and write the
complete sentence.
5
i) __________ is an example of ionic solid.
a) CH4
b) KCl
c) C2H2
d) C6H6
ii) Average bond length in case of carbon-carbon single bond is _________ A .
a) 1.54
b) 1.44
c) 1.34
d) 0.94
iii) Entropy is expressed in
a) deg. cal–1
b) Kcal–1 deg.
c) KJ–1 deg.
d) e.u.
iv) Br2 ⎯⎯→ 2 Br is __________ reaction.
a) unimolecular
b) bimolecular
c) termolecular
d) pseudounimolecular
v) Dipole moment is an example of _____________ property.
a) constitutive
b) additive
c) colligative
d) atomic
P.T.O.
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*SLRO4*
-2-
2. Answer any five of the following.
10
i) Define the terms bond angle and bond energy.
ii) What is intermolecular hydrogen bonding ? Give one example.
iii) What are essential and trace elements.
iv) Write integrated rate expression for zero and first order reaction.
v) What is dipole moment ? Mention its significance.
vi) Define the terms hypotonic and hypertonic solutions.
vii) State and explain second law of thermodynamics.
3. A) Answer any two of the following.
10
i) What is VBT ? Write its postulates.
ii) Show that in case of first order reaction the time required to complete
99% of reaction is twice the time required to complete 90% reaction.
iii) Derive the equation for velocity constant for first order reaction.
B) Answer any one of the following.
10
i) What is catalysis ? Discuss its types, with examples, write characteristics
of catalysis.
ii) What are different types of electrodes ? Give construction and working of
calomel electrode.
SECTION – II
(Biophysics)
1. Select correct alternative from the following :
i) Viscosity of water __________ with increase in pressure.
a) decreases
b) increases
c) remains same d) none of these
ii) Bulk modulus is the property of
a) only solids
b) only liquids
c) solids, liquids and gases
d) only liquids and gases
iii) For propagation of _____________ material medium is required
a) light waves
b) x-rays
c) mechanical waves
d) electromagnetic waves
5
*SLRO4*
SLR-O – 4
-3-
iv) In Helium-Neon Laser, type of pumping is
a) optical
b) electrical
c) chemical
d) thermal
v) For constructive type of interference of light, the path difference between two
monochromatic light waves reaching at a point is
a) n λ
b) 2n λ
c) (2n+1) λ
d) (2n+1) λ 2
2. Answer any five of the following.
10
i) What is Doppler effect ?
ii) Define coefficient of viscosity.
iii) State any two applications of a Laser source of light.
iv) Define (a) Range of molecular attraction (b) Sphere of influence
v) State Bernoulli’s theorem.
vi) What is the process of stimulated emission of radiation ?
vii) State any four characteristics of transverse waves.
3. A) Attempt any two of the following.
10
i) Using Brewster’s law, derive an expression for refractive index of the
medium, from the surface of which light is partially reflected and partially
refracted.
ii) What are ultrasonic waves ? Explain in brief any two applications of them.
iii) Explain the working of pitot tube.
B) Attempt any one of the following.
i) Describe Jaeger’s method for measurement of surface tension.
ii) Explain the stress-strain curve within and beyond the elastic limit.
_________________
10
*SLRO43*
SLR-O – 43
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Biotechnology) (Semester – III) Examination, 2014
BIOENERGETICS AND METABOLISM – I (Old)
Bioenergetics and Thermodynamics
Day and Date : Wednesday, 26-11-2014
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
N. B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the sentences by choosing correct alternatives given below :
10
1) The actual free energy change of ongoing process is always _________
a) Negative
b) Positive
c) Zero
d) May a), b) or c)
2) The statement that total amount of energy in the universe remain constant is
explained by ___________ law of thermodynamics.
a) 1st
b) 2nd
c) 3rd
d) Both 1st and 2nd
3) ____________ reaction is considered as reduction.
b) Cu2+ + electron → Cu2+
a) Cu2+ + electron ← Cu+
c) Fe2+ → Fe3+ + electron
d) Cu+ → Cu2+ + electron
4) The standard free energy change of hydrolysis of ATP to ADP is ________
Kcal/mole.
a) – 35
b) – 30.5
c) – 15.7
d) – 7.3
5) __________ coenzyme is involved in electron transfer reactions.
d) Tetrahydrofolate
a) TPP
b) Cobamide
c) NAD+
6) ___________ is protease specific for peptide bonds adjacent to aromatic
amino acid residues.
a) Chymotrypsin
b) Carboxypeptidase
c) Lysozyme
d) All of these
7) In non-competitive inhibition of enzyme the Km of enzymatic reaction is ______
a) Increased
b) Remains constant
c) Decreased
d) Doubled
8) __________ factor affects the activity of enzyme.
a) Temperature
b) pH
c) Substrate concentration
d) All of these
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*SLRO43*
SLR-O – 43
9) ___________ is the quantitative expression for the state of randomness or
disorder in system.
a) Gibb’s free energy
b) Enthalpy
c) Entropy
d) Equilibrium constant
10) The electron affinity of electron acceptor in redox conjugate pair is measured
in terms of _________
a) Volts
b) Ampere
c) Calorie
d) Jule
2. Answer any five of the following :
10
a) What is state function ?
b) Draw structure of ATP.
c) What is prosthetic group ? Give an example.
d) Give the significance of Kcat/Km.
e) Define free energy and standard free energy.
f) Give any two applications of second law of thermodynamics.
3. A) Answer any two of the following :
a) Illustrate the principles of thermodynamics.
b) Introduce the high energy phosphate compounds.
c) Define the units for measurement of enzyme activity. Give relationship
between IU and Katal.
6
B) Derive Michaelis-Menten equation for uni-substrate enzymatic reaction.
4
4. Answer any two of the following :
10
a) Discuss in detail the mechanism of action of enzyme carboxypeptidase.
b) Explain in detail the effect of temperature on enzyme activity. Why this effect
takes place ?
c) Describe the relationship between standard free energy change and equilibrium
constant.
5. Answer any two of the following :
a) Describe in detail biological oxidation reduction reaction. How electrons are
transferred in redox reactions ?
b) What is enzyme assay ? How it is carried out ?
c) What is uncompetitive inhibitor ? Give its effect on Km and Vmax of enzymatic
reactions.
_____________________
10
SLR-O – 44
*SLRO44*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – III) Biotechnology Examination, 2014
IMMUNOLOGY – I (Old)
Cells and Organs of Immunity
Day and Date : Thursday, 27-11-2014
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the sentence again.
10
1) Main function of hematopoietin (Hematopoietic growth factor) is _______ production.
a) Platelet
b) Neutrophil
c) Erythrocyte
d) Mast cell
2) B cells mature in _____________
a) Lymph node
b) Bone marrow
c) Spleen
d) Thymus
3) _____________ plays a major role in mounting immune response to antigens
in the blood stream.
a) Thymus
b) Lymph node
c) Bone marrow
d) Spleen
4) The major function of Class I MHC is presentation of peptide-antigen to
_____________ cells.
b) TC
c) TS
d) B
a) TH
5) IL-4 induces class switching to _____________
a) IgA
b) IgG
c) IgE
d) IgD
6) C5 and C8 complements are synthesized in _____________
a) Spleen
b) Liver
c) Macrophages
d) Lymph node
7) _____________ cells are not used for monoclonal antibody production using
hybridoma technique.
a) Myeloma
b) B lymphocytes
c) B clone
d) Plasma
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*SLRO44*
SLR-O – 44
8) ABO blood group antigens are examples of _____________ antigens.
a) Heterophile
b) Iso-
c) T cell dependent
d) Auto-
9) In complement fixation test amboceptor is _____________
a) Rabbit RBCs
b) Sheep RBCs
c) Anti-sheep RBCs
d) Horse RBCs
10) VDRL test is example of _____________ test.
a) Slide flocculation
b) Ring precipitation
c) Tube agglutination
d) Diffusion
2. Answer any five of the following :
10
1) Enlist the cells of immunity.
2) Enlist organs of immunity.
3) Explain the adjuvant with example.
4) Define phagocytosis and opsonization.
5) Enlist the functions of monoclonal antibody.
6) Define epitope and parotope.
3. A) Answer any two of the following :
6
1) Explain the lectin pathway of complement activation.
2) Explain the technique immunofluorescence with its significance.
3) Explain the functions of B & T cells.
B) Explain various agglutination tests.
4. Answer any two of the following :
4
10
1) Write an essay on structure and functions of spleen.
2) Write an essay on types of antigen.
3) Explain complement fixation test.
5. Answer any two of the following :
1) Explain the complement activation pathway.
2) Explain the structure and functions of IgG antibody.
3) Explain the immuno electrophoresis.
––––––––––––––––––––
10
SLR-O – 45
*SLRO45*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) Examination, 2014
BIOTECHNOLOGY
Genetics – II
Microbial Genetics
Day and Date : Friday, 14-11-2014
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
N. B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternative :
10
1) Which of the following is related to genetic engineering ?
a) Plasmid
b) Plastid
c) Heterosis
d) Mutation
2) Conjugation is bacteria was discovered by ___________
a) Watson and Crick
b) Lederberg and Talum
c) Jacob and Monod
d) Zinder and Lederberg
3) The bacteriophage with bacterial DNA packaged into a protein coat is known
as ___________
a) Virulent phage
b) Transducing phage
c) Prophage
d) Temperate phage
4) Transfer of foreign DNA into any cell is called ___________
a) Transformation
b) Conjugation
c) Transduction
d) All of the above
5) Plasmid which can be used as a vector must have ___________
a) Unique restriction site
b) Marker gene
c) Origin of replication
d) All of the above
6) Plasmids found in cells of bacteria are molecules of ___________
a) DNA
b) RNA
c) Proteins
d) Amino acids
7) When transposable elements inserted into target DNA it generates ___________
a) Inverted repeats
b) Direct repeats
c) No repeats
d) Inverted sequence
P.T.O.
*SLRO45*
SLR-O – 45
8) Certain genetic elements that regularly “jump” to new locations, often
inactivating the gene into which they become inserted are called ___________
a) Episomes
b) Transposons
c) Heterochromatin
d) Overlaping genes
9) ___________ is an example of base analogue.
a) Mustard gas
b) Acriflavin
c) 5-Bromouracil
d) Nitrous oxide
10) The transposons are referred as ___________
a) Special DNA
b) General DNA
c) Selfish DNA
d) None of these
2. Define any five :
10
1) Cloning
2) Replication
3) Mutagens
4) Prototrophs
5) Transposons
6) F plasmid.
3. A) Answer any two of the following :
1) Explain the method of isolation of plasmid DNA.
2) Describe in brief mutation analysis in biochemical pathway.
3) Explain structure of transposons.
B) Write a note on non-homologous recombination.
4. Answer any two of the following :
6
4
10
1) Explain with suitable examples physical mutagens.
2) Write in detail rolling circle model of plasmid replication.
3) Explain non-replicative transposition.
5. Answer any two of the following :
1) Explain in detail mechanism of conjugation.
2) Describe the method of gene transfer via bacteriophage.
3) Explain the method of isolation of auxotrophic mutants.
_____________________
10
’
SLR-O – 46
*SLRO46*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. Biotechnology (Part – II) (Semester – IV) Examination, 2014
MOLECULAR BIOLOGY – II
(Gene Regulation and Expression)
Day and Date : Saturday, 15-11-2014
Max. Marks : 50
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right side indicates full marks.
1. Rewrite the sentence using correct alternative given below :
1) _____________ is translated into proteins.
a) tRNA
b) rRNA
c) mRNA
10
d) All
2) Introns are removed during
a) Replication
c) Post-translation
b) Post-transcription
d) None
3) In Lac operon lactose acts as
a) Inducer
b) Repressor
c) Co-repressor
d) Attenuator
4) Operon model was first discovered by
a) Watson and Crick
b) Jacob and Monad
c) Harshelle and Chasse
d) Maxum and Gilbert
5) The activated tRNA molecule is called as
a) f-met tRNA
b) amino acyl tRNA
c) D looped tRNA
d) None
6) In Lac operon Lac A gene encodes
a) Transacetylase
c) Preamease
b) Galactosidase
d) Lactamase
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7) During translation, the tRNA first occupies __________ site in ribosome.
a) P
b) A
c) Both P & A
d) None
8) Shine Dalgarno sequences are known as
a) Initiator sequences
b) Ribosome binding site
c) Promoter sequences
d) Operator sequences
9) ____________ is one of the place for post translation modification.
a) Mitochondria
b) Ribosome
c) ER
d) Lysosome
10) A muton refers to
a) Coding region
c) Mutated region
b) Non-coding region
d) Replicative region
2. Answer any five of the following :
10
i) Operator
ii) Polycistron
iii) 5S rRNA
iv) Ribosome
v) Operon
vi) TATA box
3. A) Answer any two of the following :
6
i) Explain mRNA processing in detail.
ii) Structure of ribosome.
iii) Catabolic repression.
B) Regulation of tryptophan operon.
4. Answer any two of the following :
4
10
i) Describe the mechanism of transcription in prokaryotes.
ii) Explain the mechanism of translation in eukaryotes.
iii) Explain Lac operon in detail.
5. Answer any two of the following :
i) Write a note on protein targeting in eukaryotes.
ii) Add a note on factors involved in prokaryotic translation.
iii) Add a note on inhibitors of transcription.
——————
10
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SLR-O – 48
*SLRO48*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II Biotechnology (Semester – IV) Examination, 2014
ENVIRONMENTAL BIOTECHNOLOGY – II
Bioenergy and Bioremediation
Day and Date : Tuesday, 18-11-2014
Time : 11.00 a.m. 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
3) Draw diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternatives given
below :
10
i) Harmful radiation emitted by the sun is
a) visible
b) ultra violet
c) infra red
d) radio waves
ii) _____ is a thero-chemical decomposition of organic material at elevated
temperatures without the participation of oxygen.
a) Gasification
b) Pyrolysis
c) Liquefaction
d) Compression
iii) The source of energy of the sun is
a) nuclear fission
b) chemical reaction
c) nuclear fusion
d) photoelectric effect
iv) Among the following ______ is not a bio-mass source.
a) gobar gas
b) coal
c) nuclear energy
d) wood
v) In biogas generation, the process of digestion takes place under ____
condition.
a) aerobic
b) facultative aerobic
c) anaerobic
d) any of these
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vi) Landfill leachate is treated by
a) geomembrane b) sump
c) geonets
d) all of these
vii) _____ is predominant fungus involved in bioremediation of various xenobiotics.
a) Pseudomonas putida
b) Phanerochaete chrysosporium
c) Flavobacterium Sp.
d) Alcaligenes Sp.
viii) In ______, injecting of air is carried out into the saturated zone of contaminated
soil.
a) pump and treat system
b) percolation
c) biopiling
d) biosparging
ix) ____ is the stable form of organic matter present in soil.
a) Humus
b) Glomalin
c) Detritus
d) Terra Preta
x) The use of plant roots to remove toxic metals from polluted water is known
as
a) Phytoextraction
b) Phytostimulation
c) Phytotransformation
d) Rhizofiltration
2. Answer any five of the following :
i) What is albedo ?
ii) How nutrients affect In situ bioremediation of ground water ?
iii) Explain the liquification of the conversion process of biomass.
iv) What is Ex situ bioremediation ?
v) Write a note on environment of soil microorganisms.
vi) What is anaerobic digestion ?
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3. A) Answer any two of the following :
6
i) Write a note on biomass composition. Give its types.
ii) Explain sun as a source of energy.
iii) Give an account on ecological foundation of bioremediation.
B) Illustrate the bioremediation technology for remediation of soil.
4. Answer any two of the following :
4
10
i) Describe various biotreatment technologies for biotreatment of industrial
waste water.
ii) Write a note on absorption, reflection, scattering and diffusion of radiations
in atmosphere.
iii) Give an account on role of microorganism to degrade industrial solvents and
hydrocarbon.
5. Answer any two of the following :
i) Explain human energy requirement. Add a note on impact of energy use on
environment.
ii) Discuss about decontamination of ground water by Ex situ bioremediation.
iii) What is biogas ? Describe the mechanism of production and use of biogas.
__________________
10
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*SLRO49*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester – IV) Examination, 2014
BIOTECHNOLOGY
Bioenergetics and Metabolism – II
Day and Date : Wednesday, 19-11-2014
Max. Marks : 50
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
3) Draw neat and labeled diagrams.
1. Rewrite the sentences using correct alternative :
10
1) Gluconeogenesis is decreased by
a) Glucagon
b) Insulin
c) Epinephrine
d) Glucocorticoids
2) The first pentose formed in pentose phosphate pathway is
a) Ribose S-phosphate
b) Ribulose S-phosphate
c) Xylulose S-phosphate
d) Xylose S-phosphate
3) _________ is not required for β -oxidation of fatty acids.
a) CoA
b) FAD
c) NADP
d) NAD
4) The lipid in the form of triacylglycerol is stored in
a) Liver
b) Muscle
c) Adipose tissue
d) Brain
5) The end product of purine metabolism in man is
a) Inosine
b) Hypoxanthine
c) Xanthine
d) Uric acid
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6) The nitrogen atoms of urea are provided by
a) Ammonia
b) Ammonia and alanine
c) Ammonia and aspartate
d) Ammonia and ornithine
7) Cyanide inhibits electron transport chain at the site
a) NAD
b) Cytochrome
c) Iron-sulfur proteins
d) Coenzyme Q
8) From stoichiometry of oxidative phosphorylation one FADH2 molecule
produces _________ ATP.
a) 3
b) 2.5
c) 2
d) 1.5
9) The net loss of ATP during transport of NADH across mitochondrial membrane
by glycerol 3-phosphate shuttle is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
10) Free ammonia is released during
a) Oxidative deamination of glutamate
b) Catabolism of purines
c) Catabolism of pyrimidines
d) All of these
2. Answer any five of the following :
a) Illustrate the lactic acid fermentation.
b) Give reaction for hydrolysis of triacylglyceride.
c) What are the pathways for transport of reducing potential across inner
mitochondrial membrane ?
d) Define term glycogenic amino acid. Give any two examples.
e) Mention the location for urea cycle. Give its net reaction.
f) What is chemiosmotic hypothesis of oxidative phosphorylation ?
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*SLRO49*
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3. A) Answer any two of the following :
6
1) Draw the general structure of purine and label the sources of atoms in
structure.
2) How mannose is entered in glycolysis ?
3) What are uncouplers ? Give two examples with their mode of action.
B) Explain in detail the regulation of cholesterol metabolism.
4. Answer any two of the following :
4
10
a) Discuss the non-cyclic photophosphorylation in photosynthesis.
b) Illustrate the biosynthesis of pyrimidine.
c) Describe in detail β -oxidation of unsaturated fatty acid.
5. Answer any two of the following :
a) Explain the regulation of TCA cycle.
b) Write a note on metabolism of ketone bodies.
c) Discuss in short oxidative phosphorylation.
———————
10
SLR-O – 5
*SLRO5*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Biotechnology) (Semester – I) Examination, 2014
CELL BIOLOGY AND BIOSTATISTICS (CGPA Pattern)
Day and Date : Monday, 10-11-2014
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
N.B. : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Max. Marks : 70
All questions are compulsory.
Draw a neat labelled diagram wherever necessary.
Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Use of calculator is allowed.
SECTION – I
(Cell Biology)
1. Multiple choice questions :
5
1) ________________ is known as suicide bags of cells.
a) Lysosomes
b) Plastids
c) Plasmids
d) Peroxisomes
2) Programmed cell death is called ____________________
a) Necrosis
b) Apoptosis
c) Cell quit
d) Cell Mortality
3) Unit membrane model of plasma membrane was proposed by __________
a) Singer and Nicolson
b) Robertson
c) Danielli and Davson
d) Watson and Crick
4) _____________ is responsible for acidification of stomach.
a) Proton pump
b) Na+–K+ ATP ase pump
c) Simple diffusion
d) Osmosis
5) In endocrine signalling, _________________ is act as signalling molecule.
a) Neurotransmitter
b) cAMP and Lipid
c) Enzyme
d) Hormone
2. Answer any five of the following :
10
i) Functions of plasma membrane.
ii) Types of chromosomes on the basis of position of centromere.
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iii) Nucleosome model.
iv) Tight junctions.
v) Intracellular compartments.
vi) Cell coat and cell recognition.
vii) Protein trafficking in chloroplast.
3. A) Write notes on any two of the following :
i) Describe structure and function of Nucleus.
ii) Describe process of meiosis and add a note on its significance.
iii) Explain Fluid Mosaic model of plasma membrane.
B) Answer any one of the following :
i) Describe generalized ultrastructure of prokaryotic cell.
ii) Describe mechanism of protein synthesis in prokaryotes.
10
10
SECTION – II
(Biostatistics)
1. Multiple choice questions :
1) Stratified random sampling is applied when the population is ___________
a) homogenous
b) heterogenous
c) homologous
d) none of these
2) _______________ is the best measure of central tendency.
a) Arithmetic mean
b) Median
c) Mode
d) All of these
3) Coefficient of Variation (C.V.) is the ratio of ______________
a) Standard deviation to mean
b) Mean to standard deviation
c) Standard deviation to median
d) None of these
4) The curve which is neither flat nor peaked is known as __________
a) Mesokurtic
b) Platykurtic
c) All the above
d) None of the above
5) If P(A ∩ B) = 0 then two events A and B are ___________
a) Mutually exclusive
b) Exhaustive
c) Equally likely
d) Independent
5
*SLRO5*
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2. Answer any five :
10
i) The mean and standard deviation of 100 observation is 45 and 10 respectively.
Find new mean and standard deviation if each observation is decreased
by 3.
ii) Explain null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis.
iii) If n = 10, and E(X) = 6. Find P and Var(X).
iv) The rainfall (in mm) at a particular place on 10 random days in August 2010
was recorded as follows :
25.9, 26.2, 20.7, 22.8, 20.7, 24.1, 21.9, 23.4, 28.0, 20.7
Determine the mode of data.
v) Define variance and standard deviation.
vi) Define weighted arithmetic mean.
vii) Define normal distribution.
3. A) Write short notes on any two of the following :
10
i) Histogram.
ii) Correlation and type of correlation.
iii) t-test.
B) Answer any one of the following :
10
i) Find the regression equations from the following data :
x
6
2
10
4
8
y
9
11
5
8
7
ii) Twenty balls are serially numbered and placed in a bag. One ball is selected
and placed in a bag. One ball is selected at random. Find the probability
that a number on ball drawn is multiple at 3 or 5.
_____________________
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SLR-O – 50
*SLRO50*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) Examination, 2014
BIOTECHNOLOGY
Immunology – II (Humoral and Cell Mediated Immunity)
Day and Date :Thursday, 20-11-2014
Max. Marks : 50
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Draw figures where necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by selecting the correct answer from the given
alternatives :
10
I) Tuberculin test is an example of __________hypersensitivity.
a) type I
b) type II
c) type III
d) type IV
II) ________ antibody can cross the placental barrier.
a) IgM
b) IgE
c) IgD
d) IgG
III) Antibody present on B cell surface as BCR is _________
a) IgM monomeric
b) IgG
c) IgE
d) IgG2
IV) Eye lens protein is an example of _________
a) isoantigen
b) autoantigen
c) heterophile antigen
d) organ specific antigen
V) TH cells carry ________ molecules.
a) CD8
b) CD4
c) Interferon α
d) IL–1
VI) The immunoglobulin involved in host defense against helminths is ________
a) IgM
b) IgG
c) IgE
d) IgA
VII) _________ is not live attenuated vaccine.
a) anthrax
b) cholera
c) measles
d) tuberculosis
VIII) AB blood group persons have ________ antigen on their RBCs.
a) A
b) A and B both
c) B
d) H
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IX) All the following are antigen presenting cells except ______
a) Macrophages
b) Dendritic cells
c) B cells
d) Mast cells
X) _________ blood group persons are universal acceptors.
a) A
b) AB
c) O
d) B
2. Answer the following questions (any 5) :
10
1) Define ‘allograft’.
2) What is primary immune response ?
3) What are cytokines ? Give examples.
4) What is killed vaccine ? Give example.
5) Give the significance of ABO blood group system.
6) Which are structural components of MHC class I molecules ?
3. A) Answer the following questions (any 2) :
6
1) Give the role of cytotoxic T cells in immunity.
2) What is active immunization ?
3) Describe in short immunity to viruses.
B) Write in brief about ‘Rh blood group system’.
4. Write short notes on (any 2) :
4
10
1) MHC class II molecules.
2) Recombinant vaccines.
3) Organ specific autoimmunity.
5. Write short notes on (any 2) :
1) B lymphocytes.
2) Natural killev cells.
3) Secondary immune response.
__________________
10
SLR-O – 51
*SLRO51*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – V) (Biotechnology) Examination, 2014
ENGLISH COMPULSORY
Countdown – English Skills for Success
Day and Date : Saturday,1-11-2014
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 50
N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. A) Complete the following sentences choosing the correct alternative given below
them.
6
1) The experiments which led to the discovery of the ‘Raman effect’ were
conducted at the
a) Pune
b) Calcutta
c) Bangalore
d) Chennai
2) 28th February is celebrated as
a) National Science Day
b) Global Science Day
c) Regional Science Day
d) International Science Day
3) Cuddalore is in the state of
a) M.P.
b) U.P.
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Kerala
4) The tsunami had struck on a
a) Tuesday night
b) Monday afternoon
c) Sunday morning
d) Saturday morning
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5) Patik found city life
a) Liberating
b) Boring
c) Suffocating
d) None
6) The poet believes that life is
a) Transitory
b) Full of sorrow
c) Full of joy
d) Meaningless
B) Fill in the blanks using appropriate modal verb.
1) Children
2
Obey their parents.
(may, must)
2) Rekha loves apples,
we take some for her ?
(must, shall)
C) Rewrite the following sentences in indirect speech.
2
1) ‘The boys are playing’, Vandana says.
2) ‘Samarth runs fast’, said his friend.
2. Answer any five of the following questions briefly.
1) Write brief note on Raman’s career at Calcutta University.
2) What is Raman effect ?
3) What measures were taken to help children affected by the tsunami ?
4) Write a note on problems faced by the administration with regard to relief
material.
5) How did Phatik behave with his mother ?
6) Write a brief note on Bishamber’s wife.
10
*SLRO51*
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3. A) Answer any two of the following questions.
6
1) How do the lives of great men affect those around them ?
2) Write brief note on quality of emotions depicted in the poem ‘Village Song’.
3) What is the central theme of the poem ‘Village Song’ ?
B) Write reports in brief on any two of the following :
4
1) A car Accident
2) A visit to Garden
3) A Blood Donation Camp.
4. Prepare a presentation script on any one of the following using charts or slides 10
i) Promotion of a bathing soap
ii) Importance of voting.
5. Prasad, Raju, Priyanka and Prajkata are discussing the topic
‘Information Technology Age’ : Write the transcript of the discussion using the
following points.
10
a) Introduction
b) Causative agents
c) Effects etc.
___________________
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*SLRO55*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Biotechnology)(Part – III) (Semester – V) Examination, 2014
BIOINFORMATICS
Day and Date : Saturday, 8-11-2014
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right side indicates full marks.
1. Rewrite the sentence using correct alternative given below.
10
1) The study of complete genome of organism is known as
a) Proteomics
b) Metagenomics
c) Genomics
d) Pharmacogenomics
2) The search engine of NCBI is
a) Entrez
b) SRS
c) Pubmed
d) OMIM
3) ___________maintains PRINTS, a protein fingerprint database.
a) MIPS
b) NCBI
c) PIR
d) UCL
4) __________ is supplemented database of MIPS containing unverified
sequence.
a) Tr-EMBL
b) PATCHx
c) OWL
d) NRDB
5) The study of complete RNA is known as
a) Genomics
b) Transcriptomics
c) Proteomics
d) Metagenomics
6) In ___________ , similarity across the full extent of the sequence is considered.
a) Local alignment
b) Global alignment
c) Gapped alignment
d) Ungapped alignment
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7) Database such as CATH and SCOP are used to identify
a) Structural family to which protein belongs
b) Genetic family to which protein belongs
c) Homologous
d) Analogous
8) OWL is __________ database.
a) Redundant
b) Unverified
c) Unannotated
d) Composite
9) The structural database of nucleic acid is
a) PDB
b) NRL-3D
c) GenBank
d) NDB
10) ___________ refers to the process of identifying the regions of genomic DNA
of E. coli that encode genes.
a) Gene prediction
b) Eukaryotic gene prediction
c) Prokaryotic gene prediction
d) Gene finding
2. Answer any five of the following.
10
i) Write a note on DDBJ.
ii) What is proteomics ?
iii) What is sequence alignment ? Give types of sequence alignments.
iv) What is consensus sequence ?
v) Write a note on SRS.
vi) Write a note on OMIM.
3. A) Answer any two of the following.
6
i) Write a note on NCBI.
ii) Write a note on PIR.
iii) What is scoring matrix ? Give its types.
B) Write a note on gene prediction.
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4. Answer any two of the following.
10
i) Describe in detail structural classification databases.
ii) What is BLAST ? Explain the different types of BLAST.
iii) What is multiple sequence alignment ? Write a note on different types.
5. Answer any two of the following.
i) Give detail account of protein secondary databases.
ii) Write a note on local and global alignments.
iii) Add a detailed note on nucleic acid databases.
__________
10
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*SLRO7*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I Semester – I (Old) (Biotechnology) Examination, 2014
ECOLOGY AND MICROBIOLOGY
Ecology (Paper – I)
Day and Date : Monday, 3-11-2014
Max. Marks : 50
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing appropriate alternatives given
below :
1) The most abundant gases in the earth’s atmosphere by volume are
a) Carbondioxide and nitrogen
b) Oxygen and water vapour
c) Nitrogen and oxygen
d) Oxygen and carbon dioxide
2) The thickness of the crust of the earth is
a) about 4 miles b) about 4 kms c) about 40 kms d) about 400 kms
3) The relatively thin layer on the earth’s surface where life is possible is known
as
a) Ecosystem
b) Biosphere
c) Biome
d) Biopreserve
4) Grasslands do not have trees because
a) They are next to deserts
b) The soil is poor
c) Of the limited rainfall
d) There is too much sunlight in the summer season
5) On a daily basis, the greatest consumer of water is
a) agriculture
b) industry
c) power generation
d) muncipalities
6) Energy pyramid in ecosystem is
a) always upright
c) may be upright or inverted
b) always inverted
d) none of the above
7) Food chain in which microorganisms breakdown the food formed by producers
is _________ food chain.
a) Parasitic
b) Detritus
c) Consumer
d) Predator
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*SLRO7*
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8) A series of predictable changes that occur in a community over time is
called
a) succession
b) climax community
c) ecosystem
d) pioneer species
9) The greatest threats to most species is
a) Reduction of habitats
b) Water pollution
c) Parasites
d) Climate change
10) Chipko movement was started around early part of 18th century in _________
by Bishnoi community.
a) Assam
b) Uttar Pradesh
c) Rajasthan
d) Himachal Pradesh
2. Answer any five of the following :
i)
ii)
iii)
iv)
v)
vi)
10
Explain the types of food chains.
Write a note on Project Tiger.
Draw neat labelled diagram of interior of lithosphere.
Enlist any four National Parks in India.
What are productive uses of biodiversity ?
Write in short about silent valley movement.
3. A) Answer any two of the following :
i) Explain estuarine eco system.
ii) What are biodiversity hot spots ?
iii) Explain the structure of atmosphere with the help of neat labelled diagram.
B) Explain in detail biotic and abiotic factors of marine water eco system.
4. Answer any two of the following :
6
4
10
i) Explain biogeochemical cycles and add a note on water cycle.
ii) What are causes of natural resources degradation ?
iii) Explain terrestrial eco system and add a note on forest eco system.
5. Answer any two of the following :
i) Explain with examples about in-situ and Ex-situ conservation methods.
ii) Write in brief about save Western Ghats movement.
iii) What is bio-geographical region ? Explain bio-geographical regions of India.
__________________
10
SLR-O – 9
*SLR-O-9*
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Semester – I) Examination, 2014
BIOTECHNOLOGY (Old)
Introduction to Biosciences
Plant Science (Paper – I)
Day and Date : Friday, 7-11-2014
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Max Marks : 50
N. B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat and labelled diagram wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternative :
10
1) Double fertilization was termed by scientist __________________
a) Negeli
b) Newton
c) Robert Koach
d) Both a) and b)
2) __________________ is full form of ICBN.
a) International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
b) International Council of Botanical Name
c) International Code of Plant Name
d) International Code of Zoological Name
3) __________________ is a type of complex tissue.
a) Collenchyma
b) Sclerenchyma
c) Phloem
d) Sieve tube
4) __________________ are the assessory whorls of flower.
a) Calyx and corolla
b) Androsium and gynosium
c) Calyx and gynoecium
d) Corolla and Androsium
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*SLR-O-9*
5) The growth curve is __________________ shaped.
a) J shape
b) S shape
c) Z shape
d) C shape
6) ________________ hormone is responsible for increasing fruit size.
a) ABA
b) GA
c) Ethylene
d) Auxin
7) The science of giving scientific names to the plant called as
________________
a) Physiology
b) Taxanomy
c) Terminology
d) Immunology
8) Pollination with the help of air called as ________________
a) Hydrophily
b) Anemophily
c) Chiropetrophily
d) None
9) The entry of pollen tube through micropyle called as ________________
a) Porogamy
b) Chasmogamy
c) Mesogamy
d) Both a) and b)
10) Dormancy period of apple seed is _______________
a) 1 Year
b) 2 Days
c) 2 Years
d) 5 Years
2. Answer any 5 of the following :
1) Negative importance of fungi
2) Photoperoidism
3) Role of cytokinine
4) Growth phases
5) Typical flower
6) Vernalization.
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3. A) Answer any 2 of following :
6
1) Give an account of general characters of algae.
2) Describe salient features of ICBN.
3) Give general account of stem anatomy with respect to dicot and monocot.
B) Write a note on significance of bionomial nomenclature.
4. Answer any 2 of following :
4
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1) Describe in detail contrivances to achieve self pollination.
2) Describe in detail complex tissue system.
3) Describe in detail general characteristic features of fungi.
5. Answer any 2 of the following :
1) Describe in detail objective and functions of taxanomy.
2) Describe in detail methods of breaking seed dormancy.
3) Describe in detail Bentham and Hooker’s system of classification.
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