5.73 Lecture 39 39 - 1 One Dimensional Lattice: Weak Coupling Limit See Baym “Lectures on Quantum Mechanics” pages 237-241. Each atom in lattice represented as a 1-D V(x) that could bind an unspecified number of electronic states. Lattice could consist of two or more different types of atoms. Periodic structure: repeated for each “unit cell”, of length l. Consider a finite lattice (N atoms) but impose periodic (head-to-tail) boundary condition. L = Nl Each unit cell, eq: A+ • B– × A– • Vi(x) i-th unit cell This is an infinitely repeated finite interval: Fourier Series V( x) = ∞ ∑ e iKnx Vn n =−∞ K= 2π l “reciprocal lattice vector” updated September 19, 2003 5.73 Lecture 39 39 - 2 Vn is the (possibly complex) Fourier coefficient of the part of V(x) that looks like a free particle state with wave-vector Kn (momentum hKn). Note that Kn is larger than the largest k (shortest λ) free particle state that can be supported by a lattice of spacing l. Kn = n 2π , l first Brillouin Zone for k − π l ≤k≤ π l We will see that the lattice is able to exchange momentum in quanta of hnK with the r free particle. In 3-D, K is a vector. To solve for the effect of V(x) on a free particle, we use perturbation theory. 1. Define basis set. 2 p2 h d2 H = =− 2m 2m dx 2 V( 0 ) = cons tan t ( 0) ψ (k0 ) = L−1/ 2e ikx E 2. ( 0) k k2 = 2m h H = (1) 2 ∞ ∑ e iKn Vn n =−∞ = ∫ dx[L−1/ 2e − ik ′x ]∑ e iKnx Vn [L−1/ 2e ikx ] 0 n ( ) e ix k + Kn − k ′ Vn Matrix elements: H H (1) k ′k 1 L = ∫ dx ∑ L 0 n (1) k ′k L integral = 0 if k + Kn − k ′ ≠ 0 ∴ k ′ = k + Kn H(k1′)k = 1 L ∑ Vn δ k ′,k + Kn = ∑ Vn δ k ′,k + Kn L n n updated September 19, 2003 5.73 Lecture 39 39 - 3 Must be careful about H(kk1) ′ (relative to H(k1′)k ) 1 L ( ) H = ∫ dx ∑ e ix − k + Kn + k ′ Vn = ∑ Vn δ k ',k − Kn L 0 n n but Hermitian H requires H(kk1) ′ = H(k1′)*k (1) kk ′ ∴ ∑ Vn δ k ',k − Kn = ∑ Vn*δ k ',k + Kn n n true if Vn = V−*n So now that we have the matrix elements of H(0) and H(1), the problem is essentially solved. All that remains is to plug into perturbation theory and arrange the results. ( 0) (1) Solve for ψ k = ψ k + ψ k 3. ψ (k0 ) = L−1/ 2e ikx −1/ 2 ψ =L (1) k −1/ 2 ψ =L (1) k ψ ik ′x (1) ik ′x V e δ H e − 1 / 2 ′ , − n k k Kn ′ ( Σ ′ means k ′ ≠ k ) Σ ′ ( 0kk) Σ′ ( 0) ( 0) = L ( 0) n E n E k − E k − Kn k − Ek′ i( k − Kn )x V e n Σ′ ( 0) ( 0) n E k − E k − Kn (1)* k −1/ 2 =L Vn*e − i( k − Kn )x ′ Σ ( 0) ( 0) n E k − E k − Kn Vn* = V− n ψ (1)* k −1/ 2 =L − i( k − Kn )x − i( k + Kn )x V e V e 1 / 2 − n n − = L Σ ′ ( 0) Σ′ ( 0) ( 0) ( 0) n E −n E k − E k − Kn k − E k + Kn But n is just a dummy index, so replace –n by n. updated September 19, 2003 5.73 Lecture 39 39 - 4 4. Use ψ k and ψ *k to compute E k = E (k0 ) + E (k1) + E (k2 ) . Rather than use the usual formula for E(2), go back to the λn formulation of perturbation theory. E k = λ0E (k0 ) + λ1E (k1) + λ2E (k2 ) = ψ k λ0H( 0 ) + λ1H(1) ψ k Retain terms only through λ2 − i( k + Kn )x 2 2 V e d 1 L − ikx h iKmx n ′ Vm e E k = ∫ dx e + λ Σ ( 0) − 2m dx 2 + λ Σ ( 0) n E m − E L 0 k k + Kn i( k − Kn ′ )x ikx V e ′ n × e + λ Σ ′ ( 0 ) ( 0) n′ E − E ′ k k − Kn E (k0 ) 1 h2 ( 2 ) 0 h2k 2 = λ − −k L = λ 2m L 2m E (k0 ) h2 d 2 1 iKmx ikx − ikx = λ ∫ dx e ∑ e Vme + 2 terms involving − 2m dx2 L m 0 d 2 ikx 2 ikx = − e k e recall dx 2 1 1st term, only m = 0 term in sum gives nonzero integral. 2nd terms, need n or n′ = 0 term from sum, but these are excluded by Σ′. 1 E = λ LV0 = λ1V0 L (1) k 1 updated September 19, 2003 5.73 Lecture 39 39 - 5 i( k − Kn′ ) x ∞ ∞ V e 1 E (k2 ) = λ2 ∫ dx e − ikx ∑ Vme iKmx Σ′ (n0′) ( 0) L E E − n′ = −∞ k m = −∞ k − Kn′ − i( k + Kn ) x ikx V e iKm n Vme e + ∫ dx Σ ′ ( 0 ) ∑ ( 0) n≠ 0 E k − E k + Kn m 0 = – k + Km + k − Kn′, requires m = n′ 0 = – k − Kn + Km + k, requires m = n 1st term 2nd term E ( 2) k 2 2 V V 1 2 m m ′ + dx = λ ∫ dx Σ ′ ( 0 ) Σ ( 0) ( 0) ( 0) ∫ m E m E − E − E L k k + Km k k − Km E ( 2) k Vn2 = 2λ Σ ′ ( 0 ) ( 0) m = – ∞ E k − E k + Kn ∞ 2 Combine terms for n and − n and sum ∞ ∑ n =1 E (k0 ) − E (k0±) Kn = 2 k [ 2m h 2 1 1 + E (k0 ) − E (k0+)Kn E (k0 ) − E k − Kn E ( 2) k = 8m h 2 ∞ ∑ n =1 2 Kn [Kn ± 2k ] 2m 4m 1 = 2 2 2 2 h K n − 4k − (k ± Kn) 2 ] = h Vn2 K 2n 2 − 4 k 2 updated September 19, 2003 5.73 Lecture 39 39 - 6 But there are many zeroes in this denominator as n goes 0 → ∞. Must use degenerate perturbation theory for each small denominator. 1/ 2 2 V E k + E k ′ E k − E k ′ 2 +V → E ± = ± E k ′ 2 2 E k Recall V Vn2 k 8m ∞ Ek = + V0 + 2 ∑ 2 2 2 h n =1 K n − 4 k 2m h 2 2 Kn 2π nπ = ± n= ± except n = 0 2 2l l at k = 0, there are no nearby zeroes zeroes at k = ± dE k dk k =0 = k m h (minimum at k = 0) d 2E k h (positive curvature) = 2 dk k = 0 m just like free particle! K , there are zeroes in denominator, so there is a gap in energy of 2 K 2 V1 at k = ± 2 2 V2 at k = ±K At k = ± M 2 Vn at k = ± nK 2 What does this look like? updated September 19, 2003 5.73 Lecture 39 39 - 7 h2 2 E = V0 + k 2m look at text Baym page 240. updated September 19, 2003 5.73 Lecture 39 39 - 8 But we want to shift each of the segments by integer times K to left or right so that they all fit within the −K K ≤k≤ “first Brillouin Zone”. 2 2 E 2V3 2V2 2V1 V0 -K/2 K/2 k diagram. Curvature gives meff 3 − D k - diagram — much more information. Tells where to find allowed r r transitions as function of 3- D k vector in reciprocal lattice of lattice vector K. Scattering of free particle off lattice. Conservation of momentum in the sense r r r k final − k initial = K. updated September 19, 2003 k