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ENVIRONMENTAL MANAGEMENT
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Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary Level
8291 Environmental Management November 2011
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
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Paper 8291/01
Paper 1
General comments
It is pleasing that this syllabus once again has attracted an increased entry. This session saw a
significant number of candidates finding the data response questions in Section A of the paper
quite difficult whilst better performances frequently occurred in Section B.
Although Lithosphere and Atmosphere questions are generally to be found more difficult, a large
number of candidates made silly errors, most often derived from carelessness in giving the
questions and data the attention they required. These points will be developed within the individual
question analysis.
This paper proved to be an effective test of both knowledge and the ability to analyse a wide
variety of data. The quality of written English was generally of a high standard with many of the
essays a pleasure to read.
Comments on Individual Questions
Section A
Question 1
Although there were some excellent answers to Question 1, it was disappointing that many
candidates displayed either a lack of understanding of plate tectonics and volcanicity or were quite
simply very careless. This became a good example of where it is vital to pay careful attention to
the wording of each part of the question and, where needed, link together parts of the question.
Although (a) and (b) were concerned with volcanic activity at a convergent or destructive plate
boundary, candidates sometimes contradicted themselves by stating convergence at the start then
describing a feature at a divergent or constructive boundary. Part (c)(ii) was better answered than
other sections of this question.
(a)
(i)
Most candidates provided an adequate definition of plate tectonics with plate
movement leading to earthquakes, volcanoes and fold mountains.
(ii)
Only about 30 % of candidates recognised that subduction was the process
operating at point A. Many candidates stated convergence or destructive boundary
without recognising that a distinctive process operates at point A.
(iii)
While most candidates explained the process of subduction, only a few went on to
describe an ocean trench. In fact some contradicted their reference to convergence
in (ii) by incorrectly stating that a trench is a rift valley produced by divergence. It
was quite clear that some candidates do not know the difference between ‘describe’
and ‘explain’.
(i)
Here, many candidates did not use the information given in the question. At the
beginning of (b) there is a clear statement that the volcanic eruption in Fig. 1.2
(b)
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© 2011
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary Level
8291 Environmental Management November 2011
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
frequently occurs at the plate boundary shown in Fig. 1.1. Unfortunately a
significant number described divergent boundaries with basaltic eruptions; many
described features that are not present in the photograph. It was quite common to
read about a volcanic eruption, but not that shown in Fig. 1.2. The small number of
candidates receiving full credit made succinct statements about an explosive
eruption, pyroclastics, a nuee ardente and the likelihood of acidic magma.
(ii)
In contrast to (i) most candidates gave a full answer by stating that plate
convergence often leads to the release of magma. In fact some who referred to
volcanoes at divergent boundaries in (i), here, outlined convergent boundaries.
(i)
Although chemical analysis, tilt meters and seismometers are stated in the syllabus
as methods that are used to predict volcanic activity, their use was not understood
by many. Weaker answers did little more than repeat the information given in the
question. A small number of good answers described how tilt meters measure the
rate of expansion (bulge) and deflation of the sides of the volcano; how
seismometers record harmonic tremor as magma moves, and chemical analysis
reveals changes in gas composition, with increases in sulfur of particular
importance. It was surprising that some very capable candidates described
earthquake activity rather than predicting a volcanic eruption.
(ii)
This formed the best element of Question 1 with detailed descriptions of rescue,
evacuation and emergency services.
(c)
Question 2
Unusually many candidates found the atmosphere question more accessible than the tectonics
question. Most coped quite well with the climatic data in (a) and although more difficult, made a
good attempt at the two questions in (b).
(a)
(i)
Most candidates recognised the need to overcome anomalous weather but did not
continue further to state that averaging over 25 years produced more representative
or reliable data.
(ii)
The only issue with this question was that it required a calculation. Whilst a
significant number of candidates gave a complete answer, some just stated the two
extremes that produced the range and did not perform the calculation.
(iii)
The description of temperature and rainfall was generally well done with the general
patterns supported with data from Fig. 2.1.
(iv)
Although most mentioned that climate would affect agriculture, a large number did
not state how.
(i)
This question required candidates to use the data in Fig. 2.2 to describe how climate
might contribute to the fires in Greece. High temperatures and low rainfall in
summer, moderately mild yet moderate rainfall in winter leads to an annual moisture
deficit causing vegetation to dry out and be likely to ignite. These issues are
accentuated by the 1 oC increase in temperature; a product of climate change. Most
candidates mentioned high summer temperatures and low rainfall and a small
number the remainder of the answer. Some weaker candidates dwelt on human
activity rather than climate
(b)
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Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary Level
8291 Environmental Management November 2011
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
(ii)
This proved to be the weakest part of this question. A large number of candidates
only repeated the contents of the news report without any elaboration. This
elaboration should have included why farm abandonment would lead to fires, what
element of the lack of forest management might encourage fires, plus of course fires
produced by accidents or even arson.
Section B
It was pleasing that the three questions in Section B attracted approximately equal numbers.
Candidate performance was generally better than in Section A. There has been a marked
improvement in the quality of essays, careful planning and some excellent use of exemplar
material being important.
Question 3
(a)
There were some impressive descriptions of stratospheric ozone depletion with both
process and effect being well covered. Good answers were clear about the role of CFCs,
the catalytic features of ozone depletion and the detrimental effects increases in UV
radiation have on people and vegetation. Confusion with greenhouse gases and global
warming was the main contributor to weak answers.
(b)
All candidates made a good attempt at this question. Good answers were well balanced
in comparing successes and failure in managing ozone depletion and global warming.
These answers selected from both LEDCs and MEDCs with due consideration of Rio,
Montreal and Kyoto. Weak answers were typified by either a good balance and a lack of
detail, or a poor balance focussing on Global Warming and either LEDCs or MEDCs.
Question 4
(a)
This was the first occasion in which a question has been set on carbon capture. It was
quite impressive that the majority of answers showed a good understanding of Fig. 4.1
and were divided into three distinct advantages. The most common responses were the
reduction of atmospheric CO2 enabling the continued use of coal and producing
by-products from CO2. Weak answers were generally jumbled, brief and weak in detail. It
is possible that some candidates selected this question as they were attracted to (b).
(b)
Although there were some excellent responses to this question on renewable sources of
energy there was quite a wide variation in achievement. Good answers balanced the
advantages of renewable energy over non-renewable energy with detailed assessment of
at least three sources: mainly HEP, wind power and solar energy. These answers were
generally accurate in their assessment of take-up by LEDCs and MEDCs. Weak answers
generally lacked detail and often amounted to a brief list lacking any evaluative
statements.
Question 5
It was a little disappointing that some candidates expressed little understanding of soil processes.
Consequently the soil profile was poorly analysed and there were weaknesses in describing how
soil quality deteriorates.
(a)
Although in a slightly different form, the profile of a podzol soil has been used in previous
examinations. Candidates were expected to explain how the three factors: vegetation,
water infiltration and weathering contribute to the soil profile e.g.
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coniferous woodland produces an acid humus from pine needles that contribute few
minerals to the soil,
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Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary Level
8291 Environmental Management November 2011
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
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water infiltrates to eluviate the upper horizon producing a light coloured acidic layer
whilst illuviation produces the iron and aluminium layers,
weathering helps to break up the underlying rock thereby forming the soil skeleton.
Good answers contained three distinct sections in which each fact was considered. Weak
answers did not specify the contributing factors, were often unclear about soil chemistry
and were sometimes completely off the question.
(b)
Most candidates clearly understood how soil deteriorates through both human activity and
physical processes; the most common causes being, agricultural practice, building
construction, drought and erosion by wind or water. However the assessment of these
processes was frequently poorly developed. The best answers covered human activity
with physical processes being triggered e.g. downslope ploughing produces channels in
which rill wash and erosion occur. The weakest answers amounted to brief lists of causes
followed by a reflexive statement e.g. deforestation is a cause of soil erosion and soils can
be restored through planting trees.
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© 2011
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary Level
8291 Environmental Management November 2011
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
ENVIRONMENTAL MANAGEMENT
Paper 8291/02
Paper 2
Key Messages
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•
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Candidates would do well to carefully read all the source material and make full use of it in
answering the questions.
In data response questions, candidates need to use and interpret data appropriately.
It is important that instructions are closely followed particularly distinguishing between,
‘describe’ and ‘explain’.
General Comments
There was a good response to all questions on this paper with equivalence of performance for
each of Section A and Section B of the paper. Many answers showed a good understanding of
terms and attention to detail, with effective use of exemplar material. In this session, some
answers were enhanced by effective use of appropriate labelled diagrams to illustrate key points
and the incorporation of precise definitions of terms.
Comments on Specific Questions
Section A
Question 1
(a)
Few difficulties were encountered with many candidates gaining the full credit available
with an appropriate definition of an ecosystem and using examples of the environment
and community specific to a coral reef. In weaker answers there was some confusion of
the terms abiotic and biotic and specific examples were generally omitted from answers.
(b)
This question required the use of data regarding the threats to coral reef ecosystems and
although the majority of candidates referred to the data provided, use of the data posed
some problems in terms of data interpretation and explanation of the threats.
In (i), a description of the pattern was required rather than just a description of the data.
This required evidence of using data to reveal a pattern in the differences in the degree of
both high and low risk, linked to the various threat factors. Some candidates were
awarded full credit, by referring not only to overall percentage threats but also using the
data to consider the relative proportions of high and medium risk. Weaker answers
quoted the overall percentages in order from high to low ignoring the differences in the
proportions of high and medium risk. Responses which did not address the question were
either due to reference to data from Fig. 1.2 instead of Fig. 1.1 or providing an
explanation. Unfortunately this was not required in this part of the question. This
demonstrates the need to pay close attention to the instructions.
The requirements of (ii) were to provide both a description of the simple pattern and also
provide a reason. Good answers grouped together areas of above and below average
risk and related these to higher and lower population density with examples of human
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Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary Level
8291 Environmental Management November 2011
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
activity. Some candidates simply repeated the data in the order it was presented in the
table without any attempt to organise the data to reveal a pattern. This made the link to
increased human intervention more difficult. Many candidates stated one of the four
categories provided in Fig. 1.1 without any further exemplification or examples of each
category.
Part (iii) required the identification of a different factor to those already mentioned in (i)
and (ii). Unfortunately answers relating to factors already listed in the table with examples
of over-exploitation, marine and land based pollution were invalid. Damage from the use
of sodium cyanide and dynamite were often mentioned although without any explanation.
(c)
This question provided information showing the strategies for conservation of the Great
Barrier Reef. Good answers to (i) recognised the importance of the biodiversity, the
degree of coral cover, the need to preserve high coral density and conserve low coral
density. The information was not always used effectively and in weaker answers there
was no further exemplification of the conservation strategies. Although essential
information was provided, occasionally this was ignored despite the instruction to refer to
Fig. 1.3. In these general answers about conservation there was no link to the specific
location.
In (ii) the majority of candidates linked the establishment of national parks to tourism.
Suggestions of how tourism was restricted to only some areas to enable conservation
were less clear.
In (iii) the majority of answers were able to justify how through the various strategies the
future of the reef was secure. This only presented one side of the argument and therefore
was awarded only partial credit. Those that also considered the consequences of climate
change or natural disasters and the difficulties in management produced excellent
responses with arguments on both sides, and achieved the balance necessary when an
assessment of extent is required.
Question 2
(a)
The vast majority of answers to (i) were awarded full credit as a result of demonstrating a
good understanding of the relationship between deforestation and increased runoff and
decreased transpiration.
Part (ii) was also well answered. Candidates were familiar with the positive outcomes
from the building of dams and usually responded with reference to the advantages for
agriculture from irrigation and the subsequent increase in the yield of crops or in
controlling discharge to reduce the risk of flooding.
In (iii) good answers were characterised by specific activities with an indication of the
effect upon some of the main processes of the hydrological cycle. This part was, however
generally less well answered with candidates tending to repeat information from Fig. 2.1
for example stating atmospheric pollution or salt water intrusion without elaboration or
making a specific link to the effect on the water cycle. Occasionally answers dwelt on the
effects of the human activity on humans, animals or buildings or on water quality rather
than the hydrological processes.
(b)
Good answers used the information as opposed to repetition of the boxes together with
illustrating each of up to 3 links with examples demonstrating cyclic relationships.
Excellent answers recognised the alternative pathways of the model or explained a
negative feedback mechanism to bring about a change in population size as a result of
diminishing water supplies. Some weak answers simply repeated the main headings of
the diagram as a general comment on the cyclic nature or only commented on one part of
a cycle.
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Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary Level
8291 Environmental Management November 2011
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
In (ii) good answers were expressed accurately in a variety of ways and these elaborated
the consequences for population dynamics and human outcomes as a result of the
increased demand; most answers in response to urbanisation leading to problems in
providing clean water. Weak answers simply repeated the information, rather than
making and elaborating upon a relevant link between the increase in population size and
increased demand for water.
Section B
Questions 3 and 5 were almost equally popular while Question 4 was the least popular attempted
by 25 %. Both parts (a) and (b) were equally well tackled with only a minority not completing (b),
the essay question.
Question 3
(a)
Good answers defined deforestation as the initial cause and then established sequences
of events to explain the effects resulting in the loss of topsoil and increased drought.
These considered a good balance between both strands of the flow chart. The strand
dealing with loss of topsoil was well established. The interactions between the two
strands resulting in degraded vegetation were an important discriminator between strong
answers and weaker answers which were generally poorly balanced in developing either
the loss of biomass or drought.
(b)
The question required a choice of either a MEDC or LEDC; an outline of the forest
reserves, the pressures placed upon these and the difficulties encountered in achieving a
sustainable utilisation. The aspect of sustainability was usually well done. Candidates
should ensure that they state a choice and name the country rather than make a vague
reference to an unspecified LEDC. Specific information on the area and the reserves
enables a direct link to the management strategies and affords a more effective
evaluation. Pressures, particularly social and economic, tended to be considered more
than the difficulties in achieving a sustainable utilisation. Details of the forest reserves
were actually limited overall. A well-chosen example with knowledge gained at first hand
or through a case study with reference to particular tree types provided the best
opportunity for assessment.
Question 4
(a)
Candidates did not in general make full use of the source so that few gave all three valid
reasons. The increase in tourism, particularly the growth of ecotourism and the need for
conserving the biodiversity was identified but it was rare for the natural beauty of the
landscape to be emphasised. Instead, an emphasis was placed on population growth
perhaps as a result of misinterpretation of the graph, as the scale for the local population
showed numbers considerably lower than the tourist population.
(b)
Where candidates chose a local area and were able to give specific detail on the biotic
fauna and flora particularly through first-hand experience of fieldwork or where a case
study for example a national park was chosen then sufficient detail of the biodiversity and
the ecological importance was stressed. This also enabled specific threats to be detailed
and appropriate conservation measures to be assessed in a local context. When a
specific example or case study was not chosen and a more general area was referred to
then the importance of the ecology tended to be lacking.
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Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary Level
8291 Environmental Management November 2011
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
Question 5
(a)
This was well answered with some excellent descriptions of the processes which resulted
in a rise and fall in the in water table and there was good linkage between the key points.
Sometimes a good explanation of a sequence of events omitted the direction of change.
In the weakest answers, the sequence was linked to an incorrect outcome in terms of the
change in the height of the water table.
(b)
In weak answers, candidates did not make a clear selection of three areas of pollution and
often referred to the pollution of water generally, including surface water rather than
specifically the pollution of groundwater. The most common cause considered was
pollution from fertilizers leading to nutrient enrichment of groundwater. Many grouped
together pesticides and fertilizers although these should be treated separately. There
were three aspects of the requirements of the question in terms of the causes, the
characteristics and the management. Causes tended to be tackled better than the
management strategies. There was occasional mention of colour, nutrient content, pH
and hardness but invariably the characteristics were omitted in answers. This illustrates
the need to address all aspects of a question in order to score highly. Where local
examples were chosen the evaluation of the management strategies was more pertinent.
The difficulties in management could have been stressed in the assessment of extent.
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© 2011
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary Level
8291 Environmental Management November 2011
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
ENVIRONMENTAL MANAGEMENT
Paper 8291/03
School Based Assessment
General comments
As with previous sessions an increased entry has yielded a wide variety of topics which were
nearly all a pleasure to read. Judging by the quality of the research reports, this section of the
Environmental Management examination continues to be popular and successful. Although there
are still some issues to be overcome, it is quite apparent that the vast majority of candidates put a
great deal of effort into both their research and the production of the final report. The most
successful reports contained a structure modelled on scientific method and a content derived from
a focus on primary data obtained from field work. Although there were very few poor quality
reports, weaker submissions were brief and largely derived from secondary sources.
It is also pleasing that the quality of internal assessment was of a high standard with very few
administrative errors and, for the most part, credit for the assessment criteria accurately given.
The main issues were:
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credit being given for criteria not present in the report,
occasionally missing MS1 forms and mark record sheets,
a small number of Centres being late with their submission to CIE.
There are a number of positives from this examination that need to be stressed:
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there is a greater input of primary research rather than a dependence on secondary
sources,
more candidates are endeavouring to condense their work into 2000 to 2500 words,
most reports are structured into an introduction with hypothesis, methodology, results and
presentation and analysis/conclusion and evaluation section,
tables and photographs are referred to in the text,
secondary data and information are credited in a bibliography,
there is much less copied and pasted internet material.
This November’s reports were varied and of a high quality. Centres should congratulate their
candidates on the quality of their work; they are certainly a pleasure to read.
Assessment Criteria
Skill C1: Research and Planning
Most reports contained a lengthy section or chapter that backed up a question or hypothesis with
an introduction and statement of methods. Most preambles were of an adequate to good length
and contained effective descriptions of the background to the research topic. Although most
candidates outlined the methods to be used in their research, only a minority included a
justification.
Skill C2: Data Collection and presentation
As with previous sessions the weakest elements of this skill area were (b) the accuracy with which
data is collected and presented, and (e) the use of a suitable statistical tool to analyse data. The
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© 2011
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary Level
8291 Environmental Management November 2011
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
remaining criteria were well developed in the majority of reports. This session saw more in the way
of pictorial material in the form of photographs, maps and diagrams to show evidence and patterns.
Although a perfectly valid technique, it is better used with collected quantitative data presented in
the form of tables and graphs. The latter enables more credit to be given to criteria (b) and (e).
Fortunately this session also saw greater reliance on primary data and information rather than
secondary material obtained from the internet and texts. Not only do internet sources reduce the
quality of data presentation but lead to copying and pasting or plagiarism; both of which are not
permitted. Once again the weakest element in C2 proved to be the use of a suitable statistical tool.
Skill C3: Conclusions and evaluation
The quality of conclusions and evaluations was extremely varied. Conclusions should utilise data
from within the report in order to provide a concluding overview of the research. Although many
did achieve this, a significant number wrote a very general description of the topic rather than a full
conclusion. There is still some confusion over what constitutes an evaluation. It should be an
assessment of the success and limitations in the candidate’s own work rather than a set of
evaluative points about the topic.
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