Physics 130B Section 722382 Fall 2011 Physics 130B Midterm Solutions Eric L. Michelsen Fall 2011 Version 5: Small clarifications. 1. A spin-1/2 particle has a definite value of spin “up” along an axis tilted 20 deg from the +z axis, toward the +x axis. (a 5pt) What is the probability of measuring the spin up along the z-axis? cos 20o / 2 o cos10 o sin 20o / 2 ei 0 sin10 2 Pr measuring z z 2 cos10o cos 2 10o 1 0 sin10o (b 5) What is the probability of measuring the spin down along the z-axis? Pr measuring z 1 Pr z 1 cos 2 10o or 2 Pr measuring z z Note that 2 cos10o sin 2 10 o 0 1 sin10o Pr(|z+>) + Pr(|z–>) = 1 (c 5) What is the average (over many particles) z-component of spin? sz or Pr z Pr z cos 2 10o sin 2 10o cos 20o 2 2 2 2 0 cos10o / 2 sz sˆz cos*10o , sin*10o 0 / 2 o sin10 cos10o cos2 10o sin 2 10o cos 20o cos10o , sin10o o 2 2 sin10 2 (d 5) What is the classical z-component of spin for the given particle? cos 20o , which must equal the quantum average, since the classical result is the 2 average of billions of quantized results. s z ( classical ) (e 5) If the particle is tilted 20 deg toward +y (instead of +x), what is the probability of measuring spin up along the z-axis? By axial symmetry about the z-axis, this is the same as part (a) 2. In computational quantum chemistry, the local energy of a trial wave-function is computed numerically, to provide adjustments to the wave-function, which is then the starting point for a new iteration. Given a trial wave-function: ( x) N 1 2 x 1 , N normalization constant (a 10) The potential is everywhere 0. Find the local energy, E(x). 11/14/2011 9:47:23 32 Physics 130B Section 722382 E ( x) Fall 2011 Eric L. Michelsen 2 ''( x ) 1 pˆ 2 ( x ) Eˆ ( x ) , ( x ) 2 m ( x) 2m ( x ) ' x2 1 2 2 x 2 x x 2 1 '' 2 x 2 x 2 1 3 2 2 x x2 1 x2 1 2 ''/ 2 4 x 2 x 2 1 2 2 4 x 2 x 2 1 E ( x) 2m N cancels, so we drop it: 2 1 x 1 2 2 2 3 x 2 1 m 2 2 x 1 1 (b 5) Is the total energy for this particle finite, or infinite? Justify your answer. E E ( x) ( x) 2 dx Since both terms in E(x) drop off faster than 1/x2, and integral 1/x2 is finite, and |ψ|2 is bounded, the total energy is finite. (c 10) What is the average momentum of this state? By symmetry of ψ(x) about x = 0, <p> = 0. Or, p pˆ * dx i x i * dx, but this must be real. x Since is real , the only way to get rid of the 'i ' is if the int egral 0 Note this is true for any real function ψ(x). Or, For any real ψ(x), we can evaluate the integral by parts: ' dx ' Or, p pˆ ' dx Using UV ' dx UV U 'V dx ' dx 0 * dx i x i x 2 1 1 1 x 2 1 2 2 x) dx, but the integrand is odd, and we integrate over a symmetric interval, so the left and right halves (about 0) cancel. Thus, <p> = 0. 3. Consider a simple harmonic oscillator, in standard notation. (a 5) What is <x> in the state |0>? By symmetry of |ψ(x)|2 about x = 0, <x> = 0. (b 5) What is <x> in the state |1>? Ditto. Note that ψ(x) is anti-symmetric about x = 0. (c 5) What is <x> in the state 11/14/2011 9:47:23 1 3 0 1 ? 2 2 33 Physics 130B Section 722382 3 1 3 2m 2 2 2 (d 5) What is <x> in the state x a† a 2m x x Fall 2011 1 2 Eric L. Michelsen 1 3 31 0a1 1 a† 0 2m 2 2 2 2 3 2m 2 1 3 2 1 ? 2 2 31 1 3 1a 2 2 a† 1 2m 2 2 2 2 31 1 3 6 2 2 2m 2 2 2 2 2 2 m (e 5) What is <x2> in the state of (d)? x2 4. a† a 2m 2 a† a† a† a aa† aa 2m 3 3 11 1 a† a aa† 1 2 a† a aa† 2 2m 2 2 22 1 7 3 14 7 1 2 2 3 m m m 2m 4 4 2 4 2 2 4 For l = 1, we have 0 1/ 2 0 Lˆ x 1/ 2 0 1/ 2 , 0 1/ 2 0 0 Lˆ y i / 2 0 i / 2 0 i/ 2 i / 2 0 0 (a 10) What is the operator for angular momentum along an axis 30 deg CCW from the +x axis? L-hat can be written as a superposition of L-hatx and L-haty, each of which projects a component onto Lhat: Lˆ cos30o Lˆx sin 30o Lˆ y cos Lˆx sin Lˆ y 6 6 0 0 1/ 2 0 cos 1/ 2 0 1/ 2 sin i / 2 6 6 0 0 1/ 2 0 0 i / 6 e / 2 0 e i / 6 / 2 0 e i / 6 / 2 i / 2 0 i/ 2 i / 2 0 0 ei / 6 / 2 0 0 (b 10) What are its eigenvalues? From the isotropy of space, the eigenvalues of any l = 1 component measurement are ħ, 0, –ħ (c 5) What is the eigenstate for measuring +ħ along this tilted axis? Dropping the ħ, so the eigenvalues reduce to +1, 0, –1, we use the eigenvector equation: 11/14/2011 9:47:23 34 Physics 130B Section 722382 ˆ , where Fall 2011 Eric L. Michelsen is the known eigenvalue. In this case: 1 1 ˆ L b 1 b c c where we have assumed we can set a = 1. This is justified by getting a result below. Solving: 1 0 0 e i / 6 / 2 1 i / 6 i / 6 e / 2 0 / 2 b b e c c 0 0 e i / 6 / 2 From the top row : be i / 6 / 2 1 b 2e i / 6 From the 2nd row : e i / 6 / 2 cei / 6 / 2 b 2e i / 6 e i / 6 ce i / 6 2e i / 6 , ce i / 6 e i / 6 , c e i / 3 1 1 eigenvector 2e i / 6 , Normalize : mag 2 1 2 1 4, multiply by 4 i / 3 e 1/ 2 eigenstate 1/ 2 e i / 6 1/ 2 e i / 3 11/14/2011 9:47:23 35