Hindawi Publishing Corporation Abstract and Applied Analysis Volume 2013, Article ID 473916, 11 pages http://dx.doi.org/10.1155/2013/473916 Research Article Product and Commutativity of πth-Order Slant Toeplitz Operators Chaomei Liu1 and Yufeng Lu2 1 2 School of Science, Dalian Jiaotong University, Dalian 116028, China School of Mathematical Sciences, Dalian University of Technology, Dalian 116024, China Correspondence should be addressed to Chaomei Liu; liuchaomeidjtu@126.com Received 9 November 2012; Revised 12 March 2013; Accepted 14 March 2013 Academic Editor: Miroslaw Lachowicz Copyright © 2013 C. Liu and Y. Lu. This is an open access article distributed under the Creative Commons Attribution License, which permits unrestricted use, distribution, and reproduction in any medium, provided the original work is properly cited. The commutativity of πth-order slant Toeplitz operators with harmonic polynomial symbols, analytic symbols, and coanalytic symbols is discussed. We show that, on the Lebesgue space and Bergman space, necessary and sufficient conditions for the commutativity of πth-order slant Toeplitz operators are that their symbol functions are linearly dependent. Also, we study the product of two πth-order slant Toeplitz operators and give some necessary and sufficient conditions. 1. Preliminaries Throughout this paper, π is a fixed positive integer, and π ≥ 2. π Let π(π§) = ∑∞ π=−∞ ππ π§ be a bounded measurable function on the unit circle T, where ππ = β¨π, π§π β© is the πth Fourier coefficient of π and {π§π : π ∈ Z} is the usual basis of πΏ2 (T), with Z being the set of integers. The πth-order slant Toeplitz operator ππ with symbol π in πΏ∞ (T) is defined on πΏ2 (T) as follows: ∞ ππ (π§π ) = ∑ πππ−π π§π . (1) π=−∞ In the past several decades, slant Toeplitz operators have played outstanding roles in wavelet analysis, curve and surface modelling, and dynamical systems (e.g., see [1– 10]). For instance, Villemoes [7] has associated the Besov regularity of solution of the refinement equation with the spectral radius of an associated slant Toeplitz operators and has used the spectral radius of the slant Toeplitz operators to characterize the πΏ π (1 ≤ π ≤ ∞) regularity of refinable functions; Goodman et al. [6] have shown the connection between the spectral radii and conditions for the solutions of certain differential equations that in the Lipschitz classes. However, these mathematicians concentrated mainly on the applications, but these considerations serve as a source of motivation to introduce and study the properties of slant Toeplitz operators. In 1995, Ho [11–14] began a systematic study of the slant Toeplitz operators on the Hardy space. In [15–17], the authors discussed some properties of πth-order slant Toeplitz operator. In [18, 19], the authors defined the slant Toeplitz operator and πth-order slant Toeplitz operator on the Bergman spaces, respectively, and studied some properties of these operators. In this paper, properties of πth-order slant Toeplitz operators with harmonic polynomial symbols, analytic symbols, and coanalytic symbols are discussed. We show that, on the Lebesgue space and Bergman space, the necessary and sufficient conditions for the commutativity of πth-order slant Toeplitz operators are that their symbol functions are linearly dependent. Meanwhile, we study the product of two πthorder slant Toeplitz operators and give some necessary and sufficient conditions. 2. Commutativity of πth-Order Slant Toeplitz Operators on πΏ2 (T) In [17], we investigated the properties of πth-order slant Toeplitz operators on πΏ2 (T) and have obtained that for π, π ∈ πΏ∞ (T), ππ and ππ commute (essentially commute) if and only if π(π§π )π − ππ(π§π ) = 0. 2 Abstract and Applied Analysis Immediately we come up with the following problem. Could the commutativity of two πth-order slant Toeplitz operators be fully characterized by their symbols? The partial answer to the pervious problem has been π obtained in [17]: for π ∈ πΏ∞ (T) and π(π§) = ∑π−1 π=0 ππ π§ or π(π§) = ∑0π=−π+1 ππ π§π , ππ and ππ commute (essentially commute) if and only if there exist scalars πΌ and π½, not both zero, such that πΌπ + π½π = 0. In this section the commutativity of πth-order slant Toeplitz operators with analytic symbols and harmonic symbols will be studied. First we discuss the commutativity of two πth-order slant Toeplitz operators with analytic symbols. ∞ Proposition 1. Let π, π ∈ π» (T), then the following statements are equivalent: (1.1) π(π§π )π(π§) = π(π§)π(π§π ); (1.2) there exist scalars πΌ and π½, not both zero, such that πΌπ+ π½π = 0. Proof. Begin with the easy direction. First, suppose that (1.2) holds. Without loss of generality, let πΌ =ΜΈ 0, so that π = −(π½/πΌ)π. Thus, π(π§π )π(π§) = π(π§)π(π§π ). To prove the other direction of the proposition, suppose that (1.1) holds; that is, π(π§π )π(π§) = π(π§)π(π§π ). Let π(π§) = ∞ π π ∑∞ π=0 ππ π§ and π(π§) = ∑π=0 ππ π§ , then ∞ ∞ ∞ ∞ π=0 π=0 π=0 π=0 ∑ ππ π§ππ ⋅ ∑ ππ π§π = ∑ ππ π§π ⋅ ∑ ππ π§ππ , (2) that is, ∞ ∞ ∑ ∑ ππ ππ π§π = ∑ ∑ ππ ππ π§π , π=0 ππ+π=π π=0 π+ππ=π (3) where π and π are both nonnegative integers. Hence, for all nonnegative integers π, π, and π, ∑ ππ ππ = ∑ ππ ππ . ππ+π=π π+ππ=π (4) Now we would give the proof in four cases. Case I. Suppose that π0 π0 =ΜΈ 0. Let π = π0 /π0 and we continue the proof by the induction. When π = 1, from (4) we get that π0 π1 = π1 π0 , which means that π1 = ππ1 . When π = 2, from (4) we get that π0 π2 + π1 π0 = π2 π0 + π0 π1 , π0 π2 = π2 π0 , if π = 2, if π > 2, (5) which means that π2 = ππ2 , since π1 = ππ1 . Now suppose that ππ = πππ for all integers π with 0 ≤ π ≤ π. Then, observe the connection between ππ+1 and ππ+1 . Let π + 1 = ππ + π, where π and π are nonnegative integers with 0 ≤ π ≤ π − 1. When π = π + 1, from (4) we get π0 ππ+1 + π1 ππ+1−π + π2 ππ+1−2π + ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ + ππ ππ+1−ππ = π0 ππ+1 + π1 ππ+1−π + π2 ππ+1−2π + ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ + ππ ππ+1−ππ . (6) From the assumption we have π0 ππ+1 = π0 ππ+1 ; that is; ππ+1 = πππ+1 . Hence, from the above discussion we get that ππ = πππ for all integers π with π ≥ 0 by the induction, which means that π(π§) = ππ(π§). So, the required result holds. Case II. Suppose that π0 = 0 and π0 =ΜΈ 0. We want to show that ππ = 0 for all integers π with π ≥ 0; that is, π ≡ 0. Suppose that there exists some ππ which is not zero. Without loss of generality, let ππ = 0 for all integers π with 0 ≤ π ≤ π − 1 and ππ =ΜΈ 0, where π ≥ 1 is an integer, then π(π§) = π§π π1 (π§) and ∞ σΈ π π π1 (π§) = ∑∞ π=0 ππ+π π§ =Μ ∑π=0 ππ π§ . π Because π(π§ )π(π§) = π(π§)π(π§π ), we can get that π§(π−1)π π1 (π§π )π(π§) = π1 (π§)π(π§π ), which means that ∞ ∞ ∑ ∑ ππσΈ ππ π§π+(π−1)π = ∑ ∑ ππσΈ ππ π§π . π=0 ππ+π=π π=0 π+ππ=π (7) Thus, we have π0σΈ π0 = 0, and, so, since π0σΈ = ππ =ΜΈ 0, we have π0 = 0. This leads to a contradiction. Hence, π ≡ 0 and the required result holds. Case III. Suppose that π0 =ΜΈ 0 and π0 = 0. Similar to Case II, we can get that π ≡ 0. So, the required result holds. Case IV. Suppose that π0 = 0 and π0 = 0. If π ≡ 0 or π ≡ 0, then the required result holds. Otherwise, without loss of generality, let ππ = 0 for all integers π with 0 ≤ π ≤ π − 1 and ππ =ΜΈ 0, and let ππ = 0 for all integers π with 0 ≤ π ≤ π − 1 and ππ =ΜΈ 0, where π and π are positive integers. Then, π(π§) = π§π π1 (π§) and π(π§) = π§π π1 (π§). If π = π, then π(π§π )π(π§) = π(π§)π(π§π ) is equal to π1 (π§π )π1 (π§) = π1 (π§)π1 (π§π ). The proof is similar to Case I. If π > π, then π(π§π )π(π§) = π(π§)π(π§π ) is equal to π(π−π) π§ π1 (π§π )π1 (π§) = π1 (π§)π1 (π§π ). The proof is similar to Case II. If π < π, then π(π§π )π(π§) = π(π§)π(π§π ) is equal to π1 (π§π )π1 (π§) = π§π(π−π) π1 (π§)π1 (π§π ). The proof is similar to Case III. From the preceding Proposition 1, it is evident that Corollary 2 holds. Corollary 2. Let π, π ∈ π»∞ (T), then the following statements are equivalent: (1.1) π(π§π )π(π§) = π(π§)π(π§π ); (1.2) there exist scalars πΌ and π½, not both zero, such that πΌπ+ π½π = 0. From Theorem 2.8 in [17], Proposition 1, and Corollary 2, we can obtain the following Theorem 3. Abstract and Applied Analysis 3 Theorem 3. Let π, π ∈ π»∞ (T) or π, π ∈ π»∞ (T), the following statements are equivalent: (1.1) ππ and ππ commute; between π−π+π and π−π+π . Let π = ππ + π, where π and π are both nonnegative integers with 0 ≤ π ≤ π − 1. When π = −(π + 1)π + π, by (9) we get that π−π π−π+π + π−π+1 π−π+π−π + ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ + π−π+π π−π+π−ππ (1.2) ππ and ππ essentially commute; = π−π π−π+π + π−π+1 π−π+π−π + ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ + π−π+π π−π+π−ππ . (1.3) π(π§π )π(π§) = π(π§)π(π§π ); (1.4) there exist scalars πΌ and π½, not both zero, such that πΌπ+ π½π = 0. Now we start to study the commutativity of two πth-order slant Toeplitz operators with harmonic symbols. Proposition 4. Let π(π§) = ∑ππ=−π ππ π§π and π(π§) = ∑ππ=−π ππ π§π , 2 2 where π−π +π−π =ΜΈ 0 and π is a positive integer, then the following statements are equivalent: (1.1) π(π§π )π(π§) = π(π§)π(π§π ); (1.2) there exist scalars πΌ and π½, not both zero, such that πΌπ+ π½π = 0. Proof. We begin with the easy direction. First, suppose that (1.2) holds and let πΌ =ΜΈ 0 without lost of generality, so that π = −(π½/πΌ)π. Thus, π(π§π )π(π§) = π(π§)π(π§π ). To prove the other direction of the proposition, suppose that (1.1) holds. Since π(π§) = ∑ππ=−π ππ π§π and π(π§) = ∑ππ=−π ππ π§π , then π(π§π ) = ∑ππ=−π πp π§ππ , π(π§π ) = ∑ππ=−π ππ π§ππ and π π π ππ π (π§ ) π (π§) = ∑ ππ π§ = π Lemma 5. Let π(π§) = ∑ππ=−π ππ π§π , π(π§) = ∑π π=−π ππ π§ , and ππ π−π =ΜΈ 0, where π and π are integers and π > π ≥ 1. If π(π§π )π(π§) = π(π§)π(π§π ), then ππ = 0 for any integers π with π + 1 ≤ |π| ≤ π. π Proof. Since π(π§) = ∑ππ=−π ππ π§π , π(π§) = ∑π π=−π ππ π§ , and π(π§π )π(π§) = π(π§)π(π§π ), then ππ+π ∑ π=−(ππ+π) ππ+π=π π π = (8) ππ π=−π (π+1)π ∑ π ∑ ππ ππ π§π , π=−(π+1)π π+ππ=π where both π and π are integers with −π ≤ π, π ≤ π. Because π(π§π )π(π§) = π(π§)π(π§π ), we can get that ∑ ππ ππ = ∑ ππ ππ , ππ+π=π π+ππ=π (11) π=−(π+ππ) π+ππ=π ∑ ππ ππ = ∑ ππ ππ . ππ+π=π π (π§) π (π§ ) = ∑ ππ π§ ⋅ ∑ ππ π§ π=−π ∑ ππ ππ π§π . (12) for any integers π with 0 ≤ |π| ≤ π + ππ, π π ∑ ∑ ππ ππ = 0, ∑ ππ ππ π§π , ∑ π+ππ Since π > π ≥ 1, we can get that for any integers π with π + ππ + 1 ≤ |π| ≤ ππ + π, π=−(π+1)π ππ+π=π π ∑ ππ ππ π§π = π π=−π (π+1)π From the assumption we get that π−π π−π+π = π−π+π π−π , which means that π−π+π = ππ−π+π . Hence, by the induction we obtain that ππ = πππ (π = −π, . . . , π); that is, π(π§) = ∑ππ=−π πππ π§π = π ∑ππ=−π ππ π§π = ππ(π§). So, the required result holds. ππ+π=π ⋅ ∑ ππ π§ π=−π (10) (9) for any integers π with −(π + 1)π ≤ π ≤ (π + 1)π. Now we start to investigate the connection between ππ and 2 2 ππ (π = −π, . . . , π) by induction. Since π−π + π−π =ΜΈ 0, without loss of generality, let π−π =ΜΈ 0 and let π = π−π /π−π , which also means that π−π = ππ−π . When π = −(π + 1)π + 1, then by (9), we can get that π−π π−π+1 = π−π+1 π−π , which means that π−π+1 = ππ−π+1 , since π−π =ΜΈ 0. Suppose that π−π+π = ππ−π+π for any integers π with 0 ≤ π ≤ π − 1, where 1 ≤ π ≤ 2π. Now we consider the connection π+ππ=π (13) We want to show that ππ = 0 for any integers π with π + 1 ≤ π ≤ π. Here are two cases: π < π + π and π ≥ π + π. Let π = ππ + π, where π and π are nonnegative integers with 0 ≤ π ≤ π − 1. First Case. If π < π + π, then π(π + 1) + π = ππ + π + π > ππ + π. Now we, continue the discussion by induction. When π = ππ + π, by (12), we can get that ππ ππ = 0. So, ππ = 0, since π−π ππ =ΜΈ 0. When π = ππ+π−π, by (12) we can get that ππ−1 ππ +(π− π)+ ππ ππ−π = 0, where (π − π)+ = max{sgn (2π − π + 1), 0} and sgn is a sign function. So, ππ−1 = 0, since π−π ππ =ΜΈ 0 and ππ = 0. Suppose that ππ−π = 0 for any integers π with 0 ≤ π ≤ π‘ < π − π − 1. Now, consider the value of ππ−π‘−1 . When π = ππ + π − π(π‘ + 1), by (12) we get that ππ−π‘−1 ππ + ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ + ππ−π‘−1+π ππ−ππ = 0, (14) where π = π‘ + 1, π=[ 2π ], π if 2π ≥ (π‘ + 1) π, if 2π < (π‘ + 1) π, (15) 4 Abstract and Applied Analysis and [2π/π] is the biggest integer which is not bigger than 2π/π. Then, by the assumption and (14), we get that ππ−π‘−1 = 0, since ππ π−π =ΜΈ 0. Hence, from the above discussion we obtain that ππ = 0 for all integers π with π + 1 ≤ π ≤ π by the induction. Second Case. If π ≥ π + π, then π(π + 1) + π = ππ + π + π ≤ ππ + π. Now we continue the discussion by induction. When π = ππ + π, by (12), we can get that ππ ππ = 0. So, ππ = 0, since π−π ππ =ΜΈ 0. Suppose that ππ−π for any integers π with 0 ≤ π ≤ π‘ < π − π − 1. Now, consider the value of ππ−π‘−1 . If π = ππ + π − π(π‘ + 1) > ππ + π, by (12) we get that ππ−π‘−1 ππ + ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ + ππ−π‘−1+π ππ−ππ = 0, (16) where π = π‘ + 1, π=[ 2π ], π if 2π ≥ (π‘ + 1) π, if 2π < (π‘ + 1) π, (17) and [π₯] is the biggest integer which is not bigger than π₯. Then, by the assumption and (16), we get that ππ−π‘−1 = 0, since ππ π−π =ΜΈ 0. If π = ππ + π − π(π‘ + 1) ≤ ππ + π, by (13), we get that ππ−π‘−1 ππ + ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ + ππ−π‘−1+π 1 ππ−π 1 π = ππ πππ−ππ−ππ‘−π+π + ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ + ππ−π 2 πππ−ππ−ππ‘−π+π+π 2 π , (18) (1.2) there exist scalars πΌ and π½, not both zero, such that πΌπ+ π½π = 0. Theorem 7 is obvious from Theorem 2.8 in [17] and Proposition 6. π Theorem 7. Let π(π§) = ∑ππ=−π ππ π§π , π(π§) = ∑π π=−π ππ π§ , and ππ π−π =ΜΈ 0, where π and π are integers and π > π ≥ 1, and the following statements are equivalent: (1.1) ππ and ππ commute; (1.2) ππ and ππ essentially commute; (1.3) π(π§π )π(π§) = π(π§)π(π§π ); (1.4) there exist scalars πΌ and π½, not both zero, such that πΌπ+ π½π = 0. 3. Product of Two πth-Order Slant Toeplitz Operators on πΏ2 (T) In [15, 17], the authors have investigated properties of the product of two πth-order slant Toeplitz operators on πΏ2 (T) and have obtained the following result. Theorem 8 (see [15, 17]). Let π, π ∈ πΏ∞ (T), then the following statements are equivalent: (1.1) ππ ππ is a πth-order slant Toeplitz operator; (1.2) ππ ππ is a zero operator; (1.3) ππ ππ is compact; where π 1 = π‘ + 1, π1 = [ π 2 = 2π, π2 = [ 2π ], π (1.4) π(π§π )π(π§) = 0. if 2π ≥ (π‘ + 1) π, if 2π < (π‘ + 1) π, if ππ + ππ − ππ‘ − π + π ≤ π, (19) π + ππ + ππ‘ + π − ππ − π ], π if ππ + ππ − ππ‘ − π + π > π, and [π₯] is the biggest integer which is not bigger than π₯. Then, by the assumption and (18), we get that ππ−π‘−1 = 0, since ππ π−π =ΜΈ 0. Hence, from the above discussion we obtain that ππ = 0 for all integers π with π + 1 ≤ π ≤ π by the induction. Similarly, we could get that ππ = 0 for all integers π with −π ≤ π ≤ −(π + 1). From Proposition 4 and Lemma 5, it is evident that Proposition 6 holds. π Proposition 6. Let π(π§) = ∑ππ=−π ππ π§π , π(π§) = ∑π π=−π ππ π§ and ππ π−π =ΜΈ 0, where π, π are integers and π > π ≥ 1, then the following statements are equivalent: (1.1) π(π§π )π(π§) = π(π§)π(π§π ); In this section, we will describe properties of the product of two πth-order slant Toeplitz operators with analytic symbols and harmonic symbols on πΏ2 (T) by their symbols. First, we start to discuss properties of two πth-order slant Toeplitz product with analytic symbols. Proposition 9. Let π, π ∈ π»∞ (T), then π(π§π )π(π§) = 0 if and only if π = 0 or π = 0. Proof. As we know, the “if ” direction of the proposition is trivial. Now suppose that π(π§π )π(π§) = 0. Since π, π ∈ π»∞ (T), we Μ (π§) = 0, where π Μ are the Poisson extensions Μ (π§π )π Μ and π have π of π and π, respectively, and they are analytic on the unit disk Μ is identically Μ (π§π ) is identically 0 or π D. Hence, we get that π 0; that is, π is identically 0 or π is identically 0. Similarly, we could obtain Corollary 10. Corollary 10. Let π, π ∈ π»∞ (T), then π(π§π )π(π§) = 0 if and only if π = 0 or π = 0. It is obvious that Theorem 11 holds from the preceding analysis. Abstract and Applied Analysis 5 Theorem 11. Let π, π ∈ π»∞ (T) or π, π ∈ π»∞ (T), then the following statements are equivalent: (1.1) ππ ππ is a πth-order slant Toeplitz operator; Now suppose that π−π = 0 for any integers π with 0 ≤ π ≤ π‘, where π‘ is an integer with 0 ≤ π‘ ≤ π − 1. Considering the value of π−π‘−1 , when π = ππ − π‘ − 1, by (21), we get that ππ π−π‘−1 +ππ−1 π−π‘−1+π +ππ−2 π−π‘−1+2π + ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ +ππ−π π−π‘−1+ππ = 0, (22) (1.2) ππ ππ is a zero operator; (1.3) ππ ππ is compact; Now, we start to discuss the properties of two πth-order slant Toeplitz product with harmonic symbols. where π = min{π, [(π‘ + 1)/π]} and [π₯] is the biggest integer which is not bigger than π₯. By the assumption and the above equation, we get that ππ π−π‘−1 = 0; that is, π−π‘−1 = 0, since ππ =ΜΈ 0. From the preceding analysis, by the induction, we can obtain that π−π = 0 for any integers π with 0 ≤ π ≤ π. Hence, π ≡ 0. Proposition 12. Let π(π§) = ∑ππ=0 ππ π§π and π(π§) = −π ∑π π=0 π−π π§ , where π and π are both positive integers, then Second Case. If π−π =ΜΈ 0. Arguing as in the First case, we obtain that π ≡ 0. π (1.4) π(π§ )π(π§) = 0; (1.5) π = 0 or π = 0. π(π§π )π(π§) = 0 if and only if π = 0 or π = 0. Proof. We begin with the easy direction. First, suppose that π = 0 or π = 0; then it is clear that π(π§π )π(π§) = 0. 2 =ΜΈ 0. Otherwise, ππ2 + Without loss of generality, let ππ2 +π−π 2 π−π = 0; then we can consider the value of ππ and ππ , where π and π are both integers with 0 ≤ π ≤ π − 1 and 0 ≤ π ≤ π − 1, since π(π§) and π are both polynomial functions. There are four cases: (1) ππ = 0 for all integers π with 0 ≤ π ≤ π; (2) π−π = 0 for all integers π with 0 ≤ π ≤ π; (3) ππ =ΜΈ 0 and ππ = 0 for all integers π with π + 1 ≤ π ≤ π; (4) π−π‘ =ΜΈ 0 and π−π = 0 for all integers π with π‘ + 1 ≤ π ≤ π, where π and π‘ are both nonnegative integers with π ≤ π − 1 and π‘ ≤ π − 1. If the first two cases hold, then the required result holds; if the latter two cases holds, then we have π(π§) = ∑π π=0 ππ π§π and 2 2 =ΜΈ 0 or π(π§) = ∑π‘π=0 π−π π§−π and ππ2 + π−π‘ =ΜΈ 0. ππ 2 + π−π π ππ2 Now suppose that π(π§ )π(π§) = 0 and + −π π(π§) = ∑ππ=0 ππ π§π , π(π§) = ∑π π=0 π−π π§ , then π π ππ π (π§ ) π (π§) = ∑ ππ π§ π=0 π −π ⋅ ∑ π−π π§ π=0 ππ = ∑ 2 π−π =ΜΈ 0. Since π ∑ ππ π−π π§ , π=−π ππ−π=π where π and π are both integers with 0 ≤ π ≤ π and 0 ≤ π ≤ π. Because π(π§π )π(π§) = 0, we get, for any integers π with −π ≤ π ≤ ππ, ∑ ππ π−π = 0, (1.1) π(π§π )π(π§) = 0; (1.2) π(π§)π(π§π ) = 0; (1.3) π = 0 or π = 0. Proof. We begin with the easy direction. First, suppose that π = 0 or π = 0; then it is clear that (1.1) and (1.2) hold. Now suppose that (1.1) holds. Since π(π§) = ∑ππ=0 ππ π§π , π π(π§) = ∑π π=−π ππ π§ , then π π π=0 π=−π ππ+π π (π§π ) π (π§) = ∑ ππ π§ππ ⋅ ∑ ππ π§π = ∑ ∑ ππ ππ π§π , π=−π πi+π=π (23) (20) ππ−π=π Proposition 13. Let π(π§) = ∑ππ=0 ππ π§π and π(π§) = π 2 2 ∑π π=−π ππ π§ , where π and π are positive integers and ππ + ππ + 2 π−π =ΜΈ 0, then the following statements are equivalent: (21) where π and π are both integers with 0 ≤ π ≤ π and 0 ≤ π ≤ π. 2 =ΜΈ 0, yet we only obtain either ππ =ΜΈ 0 or π−π =ΜΈ 0. Since ππ2 + π−π First Case. If ππ =ΜΈ 0. Now we want to show that π ≡ 0 by the induction. When π = ππ, by (21), we get that ππ π0 = 0, which means that π0 = 0, since ππ =ΜΈ 0. When π = ππ − 1, by (21), we get that ππ π−1 = 0, which means that π−1 = 0, since ππ =ΜΈ 0. where π and π are both integers with 0 ≤ π ≤ π and −π ≤ π ≤ π. Because π(π§π )π(π§) = 0, we get that for any integers π with −π ≤ π ≤ ππ + π, ∑ ππ ππ = 0, ππ+π=π (24) where π and π are both integers with 0 ≤ π ≤ π and −π ≤ 2 π ≤ π. Since ππ2 + ππ2 + π−π =ΜΈ 0, yet we can obtain that ππ =ΜΈ 0, π−π =ΜΈ 0, or ππ =ΜΈ 0. First Case. If ππ =ΜΈ 0. Now we start to continue the proof by induction. When π = ππ + π, by (24), we get that ππ ππ = 0, which means that ππ = 0, since ππ =ΜΈ 0. When π = ππ + π − 1, by (24), we get that ππ ππ−1 = 0, which means that ππ−1 = 0, since ππ =ΜΈ 0. Now suppose that ππ = 0 for any integers π with π‘ ≤ π ≤ π, where π‘ is an integer with 0 < π‘ ≤ π. Considering the value of ππ‘−1 , when π = ππ + π‘ − 1, by (24), we get that ππ ππ‘−1 + ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ + ππ−π ππ‘−1+ππ = 0, (25) 6 Abstract and Applied Analysis where π = min{π, [(π−π‘+1)/2]} and [π₯] is the biggest integer which is not bigger than π₯. By the assumption and the above equation, we get that ππ ππ‘−1 = 0; that is, ππ‘−1 = 0, since ππ =ΜΈ 0. From the preceding analysis, by the induction we can obtain that ππ = 0 for any integers π with 0 ≤ π ≤ π. Then, by Proposition 12 we get that π ≡ 0, since π is not 0 identically. Second Case. If ππ =ΜΈ 0. In the following, we will continue the proof by induction. When π = ππ + π, by (24), we get that ππ ππ = 0, which means that ππ = 0, since ππ =ΜΈ 0. When π = ππ + π − π, by (24), we get that ππ−1 ππ + (π − π)+ ππ ππ−π = 0, where (π−π)+ = max{0, sgn (2π−π+1)} and sgn is a sign function. So, ππ−1 = 0, since ππ = 0 and ππ =ΜΈ 0. Now, suppose that ππ = 0 for any integers π with π‘ ≤ π ≤ π, where π‘ is an integer with 0 < π‘ ≤ π. Considering the value of ππ‘−1 , when π = π + ππ‘ − π, by (24), we get that ππ ππ‘−1 + ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ + ππ−ππ ππ‘−1+π = 0, (26) where π = min{π−π‘+1, [2π/π]} and [π₯] is the biggest integer which is not bigger than π₯. By the assumption and the above equation, we get that ππ ππ‘−1 = 0; that is, ππ‘−1 = 0, since ππ =ΜΈ 0. From the preceding analysis, by the induction we can obtain that ππ = 0 for any integers π with 0 ≤ π ≤ π, which means that π ≡ 0. Third Case. If π−π =ΜΈ 0. A computation analogous to the one done in the second case from which we can get that π ≡ 0. From the above analysis, we have that (1.3) holds. Arguing as in the pervious discussion, we obtain that if (1.2) holds, then (1.3) is true. π Proposition 14. Let π(π§) = ∑ππ=−π ππ π§π , π(π§) = ∑π π=−π ππ π§ , 2 where π and π are both positive integers and ππ2 + ππ2 + π−π + 2 π π−π =ΜΈ 0, then π(π§ )π(π§) = 0 if and only if π = 0 or π = 0. Proof. We begin with the easy direction. First, suppose that π = 0 or π = 0; then it is clear that π(π§π )π(π§) = 0. Now suppose that π(π§π )π(π§) = 0. Since π(π§) = π π ∑π=−π ππ π§π , π(π§) = ∑π π=−π ππ π§ , then π π π=−π π=−π π (π§π ) π (π§) = ∑ ππ π§ππ ⋅ ∑ ππ π§π ππ+π = ∑ (27) π ∑ ππ ππ π§ , π=−(ππ+π) ππ+π=π where π and π are both integers with −π ≤ π ≤ π and −π ≤ π ≤ π. Because π(π§π )π(π§) = 0, we get that, for any integers π with −(ππ + π) ≤ π ≤ ππ + π, ∑ ππ ππ = 0, ππ+π=π (28) where π and π are both integers with −π ≤ π ≤ π and −π ≤ π ≤ π. 2 2 + π−π =ΜΈ 0, without loss of generality, Since ππ2 + ππ2 + π−π suppose that ππ =ΜΈ 0. We want to continue the proof by induction. When π = ππ + π, by (28), we get that ππ ππ = 0, which means that ππ = 0, since ππ =ΜΈ 0, when π = ππ + π − 1, by (28), we get that ππ ππ−1 = 0, which means that ππ−1 = 0, since ππ =ΜΈ 0. Now suppose that ππ = 0 for any integers π with π‘ ≤ π ≤ π, where π‘ is an integer with 0 < π‘ ≤ π. Considering the value of ππ‘−1 . When π = ππ + π‘ − 1, by (28) we get that ππ ππ‘−1 + ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ + ππ−π ππ‘−1+ππ = 0, (29) where π = min{2π, [(π − π‘ + 1)/π]} and [π₯] is the biggest integer which is not bigger than π₯. By the assumption and the above equation, we get that ππ ππ‘−1 = 0; that is, ππ‘−1 = 0, since ππ =ΜΈ 0. From the preceding analysis, by the induction we can obtain that ππ = 0 for any integers π with 0 ≤ π ≤ π. Then, by Proposition 13 we get that π ≡ 0, since π is not 0 identically and π(π§π )π(π§) = 0 is equivalent to π(π§π )π(π§) = π(π§π )⋅π(π§) = 0. Form Proposition 3.4 and Theorem 3.1 in [15, 17], we will obtain the following theorem which describes the product of two slant Toeplitz operators with harmonic symbols. π Theorem 15. Let π(π§) = ∑ππ=−π ππ π§π , π(π§) = ∑π π=−π ππ π§ , 2 where π and π are both positive integers and ππ2 + ππ2 + π−π + 2 π−π =ΜΈ 0, then the following statements are equivalent: (1.1) ππ ππ is a πth-order slant Toeplitz operator; (1.2) ππ ππ is a zero operator; (1.3) ππ ππ is compact; (1.4) π(π§π )π(π§) = 0; (1.5) π = 0 or π = 0. 4. Commutativity of πth-Order Slant Toeplitz Operators on Bergman Spaces Let C be the complex plane and let D be the unit disk in C. Let ππ΄ be the area measure on D normalized so that ∫D 1ππ΄ = 1. Let π΄2 (D) be the space of analytic functions in πΏ2 (D, ππ΄) which consists of Lebesgue measurable functions π on D with σ΅¨2 σ΅¨ ∫ σ΅¨σ΅¨σ΅¨π (π§)σ΅¨σ΅¨σ΅¨ ππ΄ (π§) < +∞. D (30) It is well known that π΄2 (D) is a closed subspace of the Hilbert space πΏ2 (D, ππ΄) with the inner product β¨⋅, ⋅β© and {π§π : π ∈ Z+ } are the orthogonal basis in π΄2 (D), where Z+ is the set of nonnegative integers. Let πΏ∞ (D) be the Banach space of Lebesgue measurable functions π on D with σ΅©σ΅©σ΅©πσ΅©σ΅©σ΅© = ess sup {σ΅¨σ΅¨σ΅¨π (π§)σ΅¨σ΅¨σ΅¨ : π§ ∈ D} < +∞. (31) σ΅¨ σ΅© σ΅©∞ σ΅¨ Let π denote the orthogonal projection from πΏ2 (D, ππ΄) onto π΄2 (D). For π ∈ πΏ∞ (D), the Toeplitz operator ππ on π΄2 (D) is defined by ππ (π) = π (ππ) , π ∈ π΄2 (D) , (32) Abstract and Applied Analysis 7 and the πth-order slant Toeplitz operator π΅π on π΄2 (D) is defined by π΅π = ππ ππ , (33) where ππ is a bounded linear operator on π΄2 (D) which is defined as π§π/π , if π is divisible by π, ππ (π§ ) = { 0, otherwise. π (34) Now suppose that (1.1) holds. So, we get that π΅π∗ π΅π∗ (1) = that is, πππ∗ π = πππ∗ π. Now we continue the discussion in three cases. π΅π∗ π΅π∗ (1); First Case. If π ≡ 0 or π ≡ 0. It is obvious that the required result holds. Second Case. If π(0) =ΜΈ 0 and π(0) =ΜΈ 0. Since π, π ∈ π»∞ (D), ∞ π π let π(π§) = ∑∞ π=0 ππ π§ and π(π§) = ∑π=0 ππ π§ , then π0 =ΜΈ 0, ππ π0 =ΜΈ 0, and ππ∗ π(π§) = ∑∞ and π=0 ππ ((ππ + 1)/(π + 1))π§ In this section we will investigate the commutativity of πth-order slant Toeplitz operators with coanalytic symbols and harmonic symbols on Bergman space π΄2 (D). First, we study the commutativity of πth-order slant Toeplitz operators with coanalytic symbols. ππ ππ∗ π(π§) = ∑∞ π=0 ππ ((ππ + 1)/(π + 1))π§ , so so π(0) = 0. Since π is not 0 identically, without loss of generality, take π(π) (0) = 0 for any integers π with 0 ≤ π ≤ π and π(π+1) (0) =ΜΈ 0, then π(π§) = π§π+1 π1 (π§) and (ππ∗ π)(π§) = π§π(π+1) π2 (π§), where π1 (0) =ΜΈ 0, π2 (0) =ΜΈ 0, and π1 , π2 ∈ π»∞ (D); so, by (35) we get that π1 (π§) π2 (π§) π§(π−1)(π+1) = π§(π−1)(π+1) π2 (π§) π1 (π§) , (36) so π = π. Otherwise, if π > π, then by the above equation we get that π1 (π§)π2 (π§)π§(π−1)(π−π) = π2 (π§)π1 (π§), which means that π2 (0)π1 (0) = 0, that leads a contradiction; if π < π, then by the above equation we get that π1 (π§)π2 (π§) = π§(π−1)(π−π) π2 (π§)π1 (π§), which means that π1 (0)π2 (0) = 0, that leads a contradiction. Hence (1.2) holds. Similarly, we can obtain the other direction of the Lemma. Theorem 17. Let π, π ∈ π»∞ (D), then the following statements are equivalent: (1.1) π΅π and π΅π commute; (1.2) there exist scalars πΌ and π½, not both zero, such that πΌπ+ π½π = 0. Proof. First suppose that (1.2) holds; then it is obvious that π΅π and π΅π commute. π=0 ππ + 1 ππ ππ π§π , π + 1 π=0 ππ+π=π πππ∗ π (π§) ∞ ∞ ππ + 1 ππ = ∑ ππ π§ ⋅ ∑ ππ π§ π+1 π=0 π=0 π (37) ∞ ππ + 1 ππ ππ π§π . π + 1 π=0 π+ππ=π (1.2) π(π) (0) = 0 for any integers π with 0 ≤ π ≤ π and π(π+1) (0) =ΜΈ 0. (35) π=0 ππ + 1 ππ π§ π+1 =∑ ∑ (1.1) π(π) (0) = 0 for any integers π with 0 ≤ π ≤ π and π(π+1) (0) =ΜΈ 0; π1 (π§) (ππ∗ π) (π§) = π§(π−1)(π+1) π2 (π§) π (π§) , ∞ ∞ Lemma 16. Let π ≥ 0 be an integer, let π, π ∈ π»∞ (D), both of which are not 0 identically. If πππ∗ π = πππ∗ π, the following statements are equivalent: Proof. First, suppose that (1.1) holds. Since π ∈ π»∞ (D), we get that π(π§) = π§π+1 π1 (π§) and (ππ∗ π)(π§) = π§ππ+π π2 (π§), where π1 (0) =ΜΈ 0, π2 (0) =ΜΈ 0, and π1 , π2 ∈ π»∞ (D). Because πππ∗ π = πππ∗ π and π ∈ π»∞ (D), we get that ∞ πππ∗ π (π§) = ∑ ππ π§π ⋅ ∑ ππ =∑ ∑ Because πππ∗ π = πππ∗ π, we get that ∞ ∞ ππ + 1 ππ + 1 ππ ππ π§π = ∑ ∑ ππ ππ π§π , π=0 ππ+π=π π + 1 π=0 π+ππ=π π + 1 ∑ ∑ (38) that is, for any integers π ≥ 0, ππ + 1 ππ + 1 ππ ππ = ∑ ππ , π+1 π+1 π π ππ+π=π π+ππ=π ∑ (39) where π and π are both nonnegative integers. In the following, we want to continue the proof by the induction. When π = 0, by (39), we get that π0 π0 = π0 π0 , so π0 = (π0 /π0 )π0 , since π0 =ΜΈ 0. Let π = π0 /π0 , then π0 = ππ0 . When π = 1, by (39), we get that π0 π1 = π1 π0 , so π1 = ππ1 . Suppose that ππ = πππ for any integers π with 0 ≤ π ≤ π, where π is a nonnegative integer. Now, consider the connection between ππ+1 and ππ+1 . When π = π + 1, by (39), we get that ππ + 1 ππ + 1 ππ ππ = ∑ ππ , π+1 π+1 π π ππ+π=π+1 π+ππ=π+1 ∑ (40) that is, π0 ππ+1 + ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ + ππ + 1 π π π + 1 π π+1−ππ ππ + 1 = π0 ππ+1 + ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ + , ππ π + 1 π π+1−ππ (41) where π = [(π + 1)/π] and [π₯] is the biggest integer which is not bigger than π₯. By this assumption, we can obtain that π0 ππ+1 = π0 ππ+1 ; that is, ππ+1 = πππ+1 , since π0 =ΜΈ 0. 8 Abstract and Applied Analysis Hence, by the induction, we obtain that ππ = πππ for any nonnegative integers π from the pervoius discussion; that is, π π(π§) = ∑∞ π=0 πππ π§ = ππ(π§). So, the required result holds. Third Case. If π and π are both not 0 identically, and π(0) = 0 or π(0) = 0. Without loss of generality, take π(π) (0) = 0 for any integers 0 ≤ π ≤ π1 and π(π1 +1) (0) =ΜΈ 0. By Lemma 16, we get that (π) (π +1) π (0) = 0 for any integers 0 ≤ π ≤ π1 and π 1 (0) =ΜΈ 0, and Suppose that π−π+π = ππ−π+π for any integers π with 0 ≤ π ≤ π < π − 1. Now, consider the connection between π−π+π+1 and π−π+π+1 . When π = ππ + π − π − 1, by (44), we get that π−π+π+1 π−π ππΎ + 1 2π + 1 + ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ + π−π+π+1−ππΎ π−π+πΎ π+1 π+1 (42) ππΎ + 1 2π + 1 + ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ + π−π+π+1−ππΎ π−π+πΎ , π+1 π+1 (45) where π1 , π1 ∈ π»∞ (D), and π1 (0) =ΜΈ 0, π1 (0) =ΜΈ 0, so πππ∗ (π) = π§(π+1)(π1 +1) π1 ππ∗ (π1 ) and πππ∗ (π) = π§(π+1)(π1 +1) π1 ππ∗ (π1 ). Since πππ∗ (π) = πππ∗ (π), yet we can get that π1 ππ∗ (π1 ) = π1 ππ∗ (π1 ). Since π1 (0) =ΜΈ 0 and π1 (0) =ΜΈ 0, yet by the second case we get that π1 = π 1 π1 , where π 1 = π1 (0)/π1 (0). So, π(π§) = π§π1 +1 π1 (π§) = π 1 π§π1 +1 π1 (π§) = π 1 π1 (π§). The required result holds. where πΎ = [(π + 1)/π] and [π₯] is the biggest integer which is not bigger than π₯. From the assumption we obtain that π−π+π+1 π−π ((2π + 1)/(π + 1)) = π−π+π+1 π−π ((2π + 1)/(π + 1)), so π−π+π+1 = ππ−π+π+1 , since π−π =ΜΈ 0. From the pervous discussion, by the induction we obtain that π−π+π = ππ−π+π for any integers π with 0 ≤ π ≤ π − 1. Hence, π2 (π§) = ∑ππ=1 π−π π§π = ∑ππ=1 ππ−π π§π = ππ2 (π§). π (π§) = π§π1 +1 π1 (π§) , π (π§) = π§π1 +1 π1 (π§) , Now we are in a position to discuss the commutativity of slant Toeplitz operators with harmonic symbols. Theorem 18. Let π(π§) = ∑ππ=0 ππ π§π + ∑ππ=1 π−π π§π 2 2 ∑ππ=0 ππ π§π + ∑ππ=1 π−π π§π , where π−π + π−π =ΜΈ 0 and and π(π§) = π ≥ 1 is an integer, then the following statements are equivalent: = π−π+π+1 π−π Since π2 (π§) = ππ2 (π§), by (43), we get that π1 (0)π2 + π (π1 ππ∗ π2 ) = π1 (0)π2 + π (π1 ππ∗ π2 ) . Then, β¨π1 (0)π2 + π (π1 ππ∗ π2 ) , π§ππ β© = β¨ππ∗ π2 , π§ππ π1 β© = π−π π0 (1.1) π΅π and π΅π commute; (1.2) there exist scalars πΌ and π½, not both zero, such that πΌπ+ π½π = 0. Proof. First suppose that (1.2) holds. It is obvious that π΅π and π΅π commute. Now suppose that (1.1) holds. Let π1 (π§) = ∑ππ=0 ππ π§π , π2 (π§) = ∑ππ=1 π−π π§π , π1 (π§) = ∑ππ=0 ππ π§π , and π2 (π§) = ∑ππ=1 π−π π§π , then π = π1 + π2 and π = π1 + π2 . Since π΅π and π΅π commute, we have ππ ππ∗ ππ ππ∗ 1 = ππ ππ∗ ππ ππ∗ 1, that is, π2 ππ∗ π2 + π1 (0)π2 + π (π1 ππ∗ π2 ) = π2 ππ∗ π2 + π1 (0)π2 + π (π1 ππ∗ π2 ) . (43) Then, by (43), we get that for any integers π with ππ + 1 ≤ π ≤ ππ + π, ππ + 1 ππ + 1 = ∑ π−π π−π , ∑ π−π π−π π + 1 π+1 π+ππ=π ππ+π=p (44) where π and π are positive integers which are not bigger than 2 2 π. Since π−π + π−π =ΜΈ 0, without loss of generality, take π−π =ΜΈ 0. Now we continue the proof by the induction. When π = ππ+π, by (44), we get that π−π π−π ((ππ+1)/(π+ 1)) = π−π π−π ((ππ + 1)/(π + 1)), so π−π = (π−π /π−π )π−π , since π−π =ΜΈ 0. Let π = π−π /π−π , then π−π = ππ−π . When π = ππ + π − 1, by (44), we get that π−π+1 π−π ((ππ + 1)/(π + 1)) = π−π π−π+1 ((ππ + 1)/(π + 1)), so π−π+1 = ππ−π+1 , since π−π =ΜΈ 0. (46) 1 π+1 = β¨π1 (0)π2 + π (π1 ππ∗ π2 ) , π§ππ β© = β¨ππ∗ π2 , π§ππ π1 β© = π−π π0 (47) 1 , π+1 and we get that π−π π0 = π−π π0 ; that is, π0 = ππ0 . So, by (46) we have that π1 (0)π2 = π1 (0)π2 and π(π1 ππ∗ π2 ) = π(π1 ππ∗ π2 ), that is, π(ππ1 − π1 ππ∗ π2 ) = 0. Hence, for any integers π with ππ − π ≤ π ≤ ππ − 1, we have 0 = β¨π§π , 0β© = β¨π§π , π (ππ1 − π1 ππ∗ π2 )β© = β¨π§π , ππ1 − π1 ππ∗ π2 β© = β¨(ππ1 − π1 ) π§π , ππ∗ π2 β© , (48) that is, π π π=0 π=1 β¨ ∑ (πππ − ππ ) π§π+π , ∑ π−π ππ + 1 ππ π§ β© = 0. π+1 (49) ππ + 1 ππ π§ β© = 0. π+1 (50) Since π0 = ππ0 , we have π π π=1 π=1 β¨ ∑ (πππ − ππ ) π§π+π , ∑ π−π When π = ππ−1, by (50), we get that (ππ1 −π1 )π−π (1/(π+1)) = 0, so π1 = ππ1 , since π−π =ΜΈ 0. Then we have π π π=2 π=1 β¨ ∑ (πππ − ππ ) π§π+π , ∑ π−π ππ + 1 ππ π§ β© = 0. π+1 (51) Abstract and Applied Analysis 9 Suppose that ππ = πππ for any integers π with 0 ≤ π ≤ π , where 0 ≤ π ≤ π − 1. By (50), we get that π π β¨ ∑ (ππp − ππ ) π§π+π , ∑ π−π π=π +1 π=1 ππ + 1 ππ π§ β© = 0. π+1 (52) Since π2 = ππ2 , we have π = π1 + π2 = ππ1 + ππ2 = ππ. Hence, the required result holds. Proof. Let π1 (π§) = ∑ππ=0 ππ π§π , π2 (π§) = ∑ππ=1 π−π π§π , π1 (π§) = π π π ∑π π=0 ππ π§ and π2 (π§) = ∑π=1 π−π π§ , then π = π1 + π2 and π = π1 + π2 . Since π΅π and π΅π commute, we have ππ ππ∗ ππ ππ∗ 1 = ππ ππ∗ ππ ππ∗ 1; that is, + π1 (0)π2 + π (π1 π∗π π2 ) = π2 ππ∗ π2 + π1 (0)π2 + π (π1 π∗π π2 ) , ππ+π ∑ π−π π−π ∑ π=π+1 π+ππ=π π ππ + 1 π π§ + π1 (0) ∑ π−π π§π π+1 π=1 ππ + ∑ ∑ ππ π−π π=0 ππ−π=π ππ+π = ∑ π=π+1 ππ+π=π ππ + π1 (0) ∑ π−π π§π + ∑ ∑ ππ π−π π=1 π=0 ππ−π=π ππ − π + 1 π π§ . ππ + 1 Since π > π, let π = π + π, where π is a positive integer. Then, by the pervoius equation, we get that ππ+π=ππ+π π−π π−π ππ + 1 = 0, π+1 that is, π−π π−π ππ + 1 = 0, π+1 (54) so π−π = 0, since π−π =ΜΈ 0. ππ + ∑ ∑ ππ π−π π=0 ππ−π=π = ππ+π−ππ‘−π ∑ π=π+1 ππ−ππ‘−π + ∑ π=0 ππ − π + 1 π π§ ππ + 1 ∑ π−π π−π ππ+π=π ∑ ππ π−π ππ−π=π π ππ + 1 π π§ + π1 (0) ∑ π−π π§π π+1 π=1 ππ − π + 1 π π§ . ππ + 1 (55) Since π‘ + 1 < π, we can get that ∑ππ+π=ππ+π−ππ‘−π π−π π−π ((ππ + 1)/(π + 1)) = 0; that is, π−π+π‘+1 π−π π (π − π‘ − 1) + 1 π−π‘−1 π (π − π‘ − 1 + π) + 1 + ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ + π−π+π‘+1−π π−π+ππ = 0, π−π‘−1+π (56) where π = min{π‘+1, [2π/π]} and [2π/π] is the biggest integer which is not bigger than 2π/π. Since π−π =ΜΈ 0, by assumption, we get that π−π+π‘+1 = 0. From the preceding discussion, by the induction we can get that π−π = 0 for any integers π with π + 1 ≤ π ≤ π. (1.2) there exist scalars πΌ and π½, not both zero, such that πΌπ+ π½π = 0. (53) ∑ π−π‘−1 ππ + 1 π π§ + π1 (0) ∑ π−π π§π π+1 π=1 (1.1) π΅π and π΅π commute; ππ + 1 π π§ π+1 π ∑ π−π π−π Theorem 20. Let π(π§) = ∑ππ=0 ππ π§π + ∑ππ=1 π−π π§π and π(π§) = π π π 2 2 ∑π π=0 ππ π§ + ∑π=1 π−π π§ , where π−π + π−π =ΜΈ 0, π and π are integers with π > π ≥ 1, then the following statements are equivalent: ππ − π + 1 π π§ ππ + 1 ∑ π−π π−π ∑ ∑ππ=1 π−π π§π Lemma 19. Let π(π§) = + and π(π§) = π π π π ∑π=0 ππ π§ + ∑π=1 π−π π§ , where π and π are integers with π > π ≥ 1 and π−π =ΜΈ 0. If π΅π and π΅π commute, then π−π = 0 for any integers π with π + 1 ≤ π ≤ π. π2 ππ∗ π2 ππ+π−π‘−1 π=π+1 π+ππ=π Now consider the connection between ππ +1 and ππ +1 . When π = ππ − π − 1, by (52), we get that (πππ +1 − ππ +1 )π−π (1/(π + 1)) = 0, so ππ +1 = πππ +1 , since π−π =ΜΈ 0. Form the above discussion, by the induction we can obtain that ππ = πππ for any integers π with 0 ≤ π ≤ π, so π1 (π§) = ∑ππ=0 ππ π§π = ∑ππ=0 πππ π§π = ππ1 (π§). ∑ππ=0 ππ π§π Suppose that π−π+π‘ = 0 for any integers π‘ with 0 ≤ π‘ ≤ π−2. Now consider the value of π−π+π‘+1 . By the assumption and the above equation we get that Proof. First suppose that (1.2) holds. It is obvious that π΅π and π΅π commute. 2 2 Now suppose that (1.1) holds. Since π−π + π−π =ΜΈ 0, we can get that π−π =ΜΈ 0 or π−π =ΜΈ 0. If π−π =ΜΈ 0, by Theorem 18, we can get the required result. If π−π =ΜΈ 0, by Lemma 19, we can get that π(π§) = π π π ∑ππ=0 ππ π§π + ∑π π=1 π−π π§ . Let π1 (π§) = ∑π=0 ππ π§ , π2 (π§) = π π π ∑π=1 π−π π§π , π1 (π§) = ∑π=0 ππ π§π , and π2 (π§) = ∑π π=1 π−π π§ , then π = π1 + π2 and π = π1 + π2 . Since π΅π and π΅π commute, we have ππ ππ∗ ππ ππ∗ 1 = ππ ππ∗ ππ ππ∗ 1; that is, π2 ππ∗ π2 + π1 (0)π2 + π (π1 π∗π π2 ) = π2 ππ∗ π2 + π1 (0)π2 + π (π1 ππ∗ π2 ) . (57) 10 Abstract and Applied Analysis By (57) we get that for any integers π with ππ + 1 ≤ π ≤ ππ + π, ππ + 1 ππ + 1 = ∑ π−π π−π , ∑ π−π π−π π + 1 π+1 π+ππ=π ππ+π=π 0 = β¨π§π , 0β© = β¨π§π , π ((ππ1 − π1 ) ππ∗ π2 )β© (58) where π and π are positive integers with −π ≤ π ≤ π and −π ≤ π ≤ π. Now we continue the proof by the induction. When π = ππ + π, by (58), we get that π−π π−π ((ππ + 1)/(π + 1)) = π−π π−π ((ππ + 1)/(π + 1)), so π−π = (π−π /π−π )π−π , since π−π =ΜΈ 0. Let π = (π−π /π−π ), then π−π = ππ−π . When π = ππ+π−1, by (58), we get that π−π+1 π−π ((ππ+ 1)/(π+1)) = π−π π−π+1 ((ππ+1)/(π+1)), so π−π+1 = ππ−π+1 , since π−π =ΜΈ 0. Suppose that π−π+π = ππ−π+π for any integers π with 0 ≤ π ≤ π < π − 1. Now consider the connection between π−π+π+1 and π−π+π+1 . When π = ππ + π − π − 1, by (58), we get that π−π+π+1 π−π ππ + 1 + ⋅⋅⋅ π+1 + π−π+π+1−ππ π−π+π = π−π+π+1 π−π = β¨π§π , (ππ1 − π1 ) ππ∗ π2 β© = β¨(ππ1 − π1 ) π§l , ππ∗ π2 β© , (62) that is, π π π π=0 π=π+1 π=1 β¨ ∑ (πππ − ππ ) π§π+π − ∑ ππ π§π+π , ∑ π−π π (π − π) + 1 π−π+1 Since π0 = ππ0 , we have π π π π=1 π=π+1 π=1 β¨ ∑ (πππ − ππ ) π§π+π − ∑ ππ π§π+π , ∑ π−π ππ + 1 ππ π§ β© = 0. π+1 (64) When π = ππ − 1, by (64), we get that (ππ1 − π1 )π−π ((ππ + 1)/(π + 1)) = 0, so π1 = ππ1 , since π−π =ΜΈ 0. Then, we have π π π π=2 π=π+1 π=1 ππ + 1 ππ π§ β© = 0. π+1 (65) (59) Suppose that ππ = πππ for any integers π with 0 ≤ π ≤ π , where 0 ≤ π ≤ π − 1. By (64), we get that π π π π=π +1 π=π+1 π=1 β¨ ∑ (πππ − ππ ) π§π+π − ∑ ππ π§π+π , ∑π−π π (π − π) + 1 . π−π+1 ππ+1 ππ π§ β© = 0. π+1 (66) From the assumption we obtain that π−π+π+1 π−π ((ππ + 1)/(π + 1)) = π−π+π+1 π−π ((ππ + 1)/(π + 1)), so π−π+π+1 = ππ−π+π+1 , since π−π =ΜΈ 0. From the pervious discussion, by the induction we obtain that π−π+π = ππ−π+π for any integers π with 0 ≤ π ≤ π − 1. π π π Hence, π2 (π§) = ∑π π=1 π−π π§ = ∑π=1 ππ−π π§ = ππ2 (π§). Since π2 (π§) = ππ2 (π§), by (57), we get that π1 (0)π2 + π (π1 π∗ π2 ) = π1 (0)π2 + π (π1 π∗ π2 ) . ππ + 1 ππ π§ β© = 0. π+1 (63) β¨ ∑ (πππ − ππ ) π§π+π − ∑ ππ π§π+π , ∑ π−π ππ + 1 + ⋅⋅⋅ π+1 + π−π+π+1−ππ π−π+π π(π1 π∗π π2 ); that is, π((ππ1 − π1 )ππ∗ π2 ) = 0. Hence, for any integers π with ππ − π ≤ π ≤ ππ − 1, we have Now consider the connection between ππ +1 and ππ +1 . When π = ππ − π − 1, by (66), we get that (πππ +1 − ππ +1 )π−π ((ππ + 1)/(π + 1)) = 0, so ππ +1 = πππ +1 , since π−π =ΜΈ 0. From the pervious discussion, by the induction, we can obtain that ππ = πππ for any integers π with 0 ≤ π ≤ π. Hence, π π π π=0 π=0 π=π+1 π1 (π§) = ∑ ππ π§π = ∑ πππ π§π + ∑ ππ π§π (67) π (60) π = ππ1 (π§) + ∑ ππ π§ . π=π+1 Then, Let π3 (π§) = ∗ β¨π1 (0)π2 + π (π1 π π2 ) , π§ β© 1 π+1 = β¨π1 (0)π2 + π (π1 π∗ π2 ) , π§ππ β© = β¨π∗ π2 , π§ππ π1 β© = π−π π0 = π1 +π2 = ππ1 +π3 +π π2 = ππ + π3 , since π2 = ππ2 . Now we want to show that π3 ≡ 0. Because π΅π π΅π = π΅π π΅π , yet we get that π΅π3 π΅π = π΅π π΅π3 , which means that ππ = β¨π∗ π2 , π§ππ π1 β© = π−π π0 ∑ππ=π+1 ππ π§π , then π ππ3 ππ∗ ππ ππ∗ = ππ ππ∗ ππ3 ππ∗ . (61) 1 , π+1 and we get that π−π π0 = π−π π0 ; that is, π0 = ππ0 . So, by (60), we have that π1 (0)π2 = π1 (0)π2 and π(π1 π∗ π2 ) = ππ3 ππ∗ ππ ππ∗ 1 (68) ππ3 ππ∗ [π2 Since π ≥ 1, we have = 0; that is, + π1 (0)] = 0. Then, we get that for any integers π with 0 ≤ π ≤ ππ − π − 1, β¨ππ3 ππ∗ [π2 + π1 (0)], π§π β© = 0; that is, π β¨ ∑π−π π=1 π ππ + 1 ππ π§ + π1 (0), ∑ ππ π§π+π β© = 0. π+1 π=π+1 (69) Abstract and Applied Analysis 11 By (69), we can get that for any integers π with max{0, ππ − π} ≤ π ≤ ππ−π−1, π−π πππ−π (1/(π+1)) = 0; that is, πππ−π = 0, since π−π =ΜΈ 0. If π ≤ ππ, then π3 ≡ 0, which means that π = ππ, so the required result holds. If π ≥ ππ + 1, then π3 (π§) = ∑ππ=ππ+1 ππ π§π . So, by (68), we can get that ππ3 ππ∗ ππ ππ∗ (π§π ) = 0, that is, ππ3 ππ∗ [π2 π§ππ + π(π1 π§ππ )] = 0. So we get that for any integers π with max{0, π2 π + ππ − π} ≤ π ≤ π2 π − 1, π β¨ππ∗ [π2 π§ππ + π (π1 π§ππ )] , ∑ ππ π§π+π β© = 0. (70) π=ππ+1 By (70), we can get that for any integers π with max{0, π2 π + ππ − π} ≤ π ≤ π2 π − 1, π−π ππ2 π+ππ−π (1/(π2 π + ππ + 1)) = 0, that is, ππ2 π+ππ−π = 0, since π−π =ΜΈ 0. If π ≤ π2 π + ππ, then π3 ≡ 0, which means that π = ππ, so, the required result holds. 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