Math 409 Advanced Calculus Spring 2016 Final Examination Please write your solutions on your own paper. These problems should be treated as essay questions to answer in complete sentences. 1. Show that the positive values of π₯ for which π₯ log(5) = 5 log(π₯) are like the Sith Lords in Star Wars: “two there are—no more, no less.” Solution. The intuitive idea is that the graph of the function on the right-hand side is concave, and the graph of the function on the left-hand side is a line, so the intersection of the two curves must be either two points (the expected case) or one point (in the case of tangency) or no points (if the curves fail to meet). See the figure. π¦ π¦ = π₯ log(5) π¦ = 5 log(π₯) π₯ Some analysis is needed to confirm the intuition. Here is one way to proceed. Let π (π₯) denote the difference π₯ log(5) − 5 log(π₯). The goal is to show that π (π₯) = 0 for exactly two values of π₯. One method is to solve two subproblems: (a) there are at most two values of π₯ for which π (π₯) = 0, and (b) there are at least two values of π₯ for which π (π₯) = 0. Since π ′ (π₯) = log(5)− π₯5 , the derivative is equal to zero if and only if π₯ = 5β log(5). Rolle’s theorem implies that the derivative is equal to zero at least once between each two points where π is equal to zero. Since π ′ is equal to zero only once, there can be at most two points where π is equal to zero. Evidently π (5) = 0, and π ′ (5) = log(5) − 1 > 0 (since 5 > π). Therefore π (π₯) is increasing near the point where π₯ = 5, so π (π₯) is negative for values of π₯ slightly smaller than 5. Now π (1) = log(5) > 0, so the intermediate-value theorem for continuous functions implies that π (π₯) is equal to zero for some value of π₯ in the open interval (1, 5). Thus π (π₯) is equal to zero for at least two values of π₯: one value is 5, and a second value is somewhere between 1 and 5. 5/5/2016 Page 1 of 7 Dr. Boas Math 409 Advanced Calculus Spring 2016 Final Examination The deductions in the two preceding paragraphs combine to show that π (π₯) is equal to zero for exactly two values of π₯. Notice that π ′′ (π₯) = 5βπ₯2 > 0, so the graph of π is convex (but this information is not needed). Moreover, π (π₯) → ∞ when π₯ → 0+ and also when π₯ → ∞ (but this information is not needed either). See the figure below. π¦ π¦ = π (π₯) π₯ 1 5 2. Consider the sequence {π₯π } defined recursively as follows: π₯1 = 5, and π₯π+1 = 5 − 1 π₯π when π ≥ 1. Does this sequence converge? Why or why not? Solution. The sequence does converge, by the monotone convergence theorem. What needs to be shown is that the sequence is bounded and monotonic. Both properties can be established by induction. The first claim is that all the terms of the sequence lie between 4 and 5. The basis step is evident, since π₯1 = 5. If, for some natural number π, the value of π₯π is known to lie between 4 and 5, then 1βπ₯π lies between 1β5 and 1β4, so 5 − 1βπ₯π lies between 4.75 and 4.8. Thus π₯π+1 lies between 4 and 5, so the induction step holds. The second claim is that the sequence is decreasing, that is, π₯π+1 < π₯π for every natural number π. The basis step is evident, since π₯2 = 4.8 < 5 = π₯1 . If, for some natural number π, the value of π₯π+1 is known to be less than π₯π , then 1βπ₯π+1 is greater than 1βπ₯π , so 5 − 1βπ₯π+1 is less than 5 − 1βπ₯π , which means that π₯π+2 is less than π₯π+1 . Thus the induction step holds. In summary, mathematical induction implies that the sequence is both decreasing and bounded below by 4, so the sequence converges to the infimum, which is some value no smaller than 4. Remark. The question does not ask for the value of the limit, but that value is computable. Once the limit πΏ is known to exist, passing to the limit in the recursive formula shows that πΏ = 5 − 1βπΏ, or πΏ2 − 5πΏ + 1 = 0. This quadratic equation has two solutions, and πΏ must √ be the one of those two solutions that is between 4 and 5: namely, (5 + 21 )β2. 5/5/2016 Page 2 of 7 Dr. Boas Math 409 Advanced Calculus Spring 2016 Final Examination 3. Let πΈ denote the subset of the interval [0.05, 0.55] consisting of real numbers that can be written as decimal expansions using only the digits 0 and 5. Explain why πΈ is a compact set with empty interior. Solution. A set of real numbers is compact if and only if the set is simultaneously closed and bounded. Since πΈ is specified to be bounded both below (by 0.05) and above (by 0.55), what needs to be shown is that πΈ is closed, that is, contains every accumulation point of πΈ. Observe that the smallest element of πΈ having decimal expansion starting with a digit 5 is 0.5000 …, and the largest element of πΈ starting with a digit 0 is 0.0555 …, so two elements of πΈ that differ by less than 0.4 must have the same first decimal digit. Similarly, if two elements of πΈ differ by less than 4 × 10−π , then they share the first π decimal digits. Accordingly, if a sequence {π₯π } of points of πΈ converges, then for every natural number π, the πth decimal digit of π₯π eventually stabilizes and so has a limit as π → ∞, say ππ . Let π₯∗ be the decimal expansion whose πth digit is ππ for each natural number π. Then limπ→∞ π₯π = π₯∗ , and π₯∗ ∈ πΈ. Thus πΈ contains every accumulation point, as required. What remains to show is that πΈ has no interior points or, equivalently, that every point of πΈ is a limit of points lying in the complement of πΈ. If π₯ is an arbitrary point of πΈ, then let π₯π be the same decimal expansion except with the πth decimal digit changed to a 2. Then π₯π ∉ πΈ, and limπ→∞ π₯π = π₯. Thus π₯ is a boundary point of πΈ, as required. 5 4. Show that lim π→∞ ∫0 π₯1β2 cos(ππ₯) ππ₯ = 0. Solution. Method 1. If π₯ > 0, then ( ) π₯−1β2 sin(ππ₯) π π₯1β2 sin(ππ₯) = π₯1β2 cos(ππ₯) + . ππ₯ π 2π If π > 0, then integrating on the interval [π, 5] and applying the fundamental theorem of calculus shows that 5 5 51β2 sin(5π) π1β2 sin(ππ) 1 − = π₯1β2 cos(ππ₯) ππ₯ + π₯−1β2 sin(ππ₯) ππ₯. ∫π π π 2π ∫π (This calculation is equivalent to integrating by parts. The reason for working on the interval [π, 5] instead of on [0, 5] is that π₯−1β2 is unbounded at 0.) The absolute value of the expression on the left-hand side is no greater than (51β2 + π1β2 )βπ. Since | sin(ππ₯)| ≤ 1, the second term on the right-hand side has absolute value bounded above by 5 1 π₯−1β2 ππ₯, ∫ 2π π 5/5/2016 or Page 3 of 7 51β2 − π1β2 . π Dr. Boas Math 409 Advanced Calculus Spring 2016 Final Examination Combining the two inequalities shows that | 5 1β2 | 51β2 | | |∫ π₯ cos(ππ₯) ππ₯| ≤ 2 ⋅ π . | π | The expression π₯1β2 cos(ππ₯) is continuous on the interval [0, 5], hence Riemann integrable, so 5 5 1β2 π₯ cos(ππ₯) ππ₯ = π₯1β2 cos(ππ₯) ππ₯. ∫π ∫0 Limits preserve the weak order relation, so lim π→0+ | 5 1β2 | 51β2 | | |∫ π₯ cos(ππ₯) ππ₯| ≤ 2 ⋅ π . | 0 | The upper bound evidently tends to 0 when π → ∞, so the squeeze theorem implies that 5 lim π→∞ ∫0 π₯1β2 cos(ππ₯) ππ₯ = 0. Method 2. Introduce a new variable π‘ equal to ππ₯ to rewrite the integral as follows: 5 1β2 ∫0 π₯ cos(ππ₯) ππ₯ = 5π 1 π3β2 ∫0 π‘1β2 cos(π‘) ππ‘. Since π‘1β2 is a strictly increasing function of π‘, the integrand is oscillating with increasing amplitude, as shown in the figure. π‘ π 2 3π 2 5π 2 The area under the cosine graph from 3πβ2 to 5πβ2 has the same magnitude as the negatively signed area lying between πβ2 and 3πβ2, so the area under the graph of π‘1β2 cos(π‘) between 3πβ2 and 5πβ2 exceeds the magnitude of the negatively signed area for the same graph from πβ2 to 3πβ2. Thus 5πβ2 ∫πβ2 5/5/2016 π‘1β2 cos(π‘) ππ‘ > 0. Page 4 of 7 Dr. Boas Math 409 Advanced Calculus Spring 2016 Final Examination The same reasoning applies for the interval from 5πβ2 to 9πβ2 and to subsequent intervals of width 2π. Accordingly, the integral of π‘1β2 cos(π‘) from 0 to 5π is a sum of some positive integrals, plus the initial integral from 0 to πβ2 (positive too), plus one integral over a partial period ending at 5π. That last integral could be negative, but the absolute value of the negative part is at most the product of (5π)1β2 (an upper bound for the absolute value of the integrand) times π (the maximal width of the final interval where the function is negative). The upshot is that 5π ∫0 π‘1β2 cos(π‘) ππ‘ > −(5π)1β2 π. Analogous reasoning shows that the integral of π‘1β2 cos(π‘) from 3πβ2 to 7πβ2 is negative, as are integrals over successive intervals of width 2π. Therefore the whole integral from 0 to 5π is a sum of some negative integrals, plus an initial positive integral from 0 to πβ2 (which is less than the product of the width πβ2 and the upper bound (πβ2)1β2 for the integrand), plus a possibly positive final term of size not exceeding (5π)1β2 π. Thus 5π (πβ2) 3β2 1β2 + (5π) π> ∫0 π‘1β2 cos(π‘) ππ‘. Putting the two inequalities together shows that 5π (πβ2)3β2 + (5π)1β2 π −(5π)1β2 π 1 1β2 π‘ cos(π‘) ππ‘ > > . π3β2 π3β2 ∫0 π3β2 Both the upper bound and the lower bound have limit equal to 0 when π → ∞, so the squeeze theorem implies that the expression in the middle has limit equal to 0 too. Remark. This problem is a special case of a general proposition known as the Riemann– Lebesgue lemma, according to which every integrable function π on a compact interval [π, π] has the property that π lim π→∞ ∫π π π (π₯) cos(ππ₯) ππ₯ = 0 and lim π→∞ ∫π π (π₯) sin(ππ₯) ππ₯ = 0. The intuitive idea is that when π is large, both cos(ππ₯) and sin(ππ₯) oscillate very rapidly, but π changes only a little on a small scale. Therefore the positive contributions to the integral and the negative contributions should approximately cancel. 5. a) State the completeness axiom for the real numbers. Solution. See §1.6 of the textbook. b) Define the concept of continuity of a function at a point. Solution. Several equivalent definitions are stated in §§5.4.2–5.4.3 of the textbook. 5/5/2016 Page 5 of 7 Dr. Boas Math 409 Advanced Calculus Spring 2016 Final Examination (sin π₯)5 − π₯5 5 =− . π₯→0 (1 − cos π₯) sin(π₯5 ) 3 6. Show that lim Solution. A brute-force application of l’Hôpital’s rule is contraindicated, for you would have to differentiate seven times. Method 1. Lagrange’s theorem for Taylor polynomials implies that sin π₯ = π₯ − 1 3 π₯ + π(π₯5 ), 3! where π(π₯5 ) stands for a remainder whose absolute value is bounded above by a constant times |π₯|5 . The constant could be taken to be 1β5!, but the value of this constant is not important here. Invoking the binomial expansion shows that ( ) 1 (sin π₯)5 = π₯5 + 5π₯4 − π₯3 + π(π₯9 ). 3! Substituting π₯5 for π₯ shows that sin(π₯5 ) = π₯5 + π(π₯15 ). Also 1 − cos π₯ = 21 π₯2 + π(π₯4 ), so − 56 π₯7 + π(π₯9 ) − 56 + π(π₯2 ) (sin π₯)5 − π₯5 = 1 = 1 . 7 + π(π₯9 ) 2) (1 − cos π₯) sin(π₯5 ) π₯ + π(π₯ 2 2 Therefore the limit when π₯ → 0 is equal to −5β3. Method 2. Some trickery makes l’Hôpital’s rule a feasible method. Two easy applications of l’Hôpital’s rule show that π₯2 = 2, π₯→0 1 − cos π₯ lim so (sin π₯)5 − π₯5 (sin π₯)5 − π₯5 = 2 lim . π₯→0 (1 − cos π₯) sin(π₯5 ) π₯→0 π₯2 sin(π₯5 ) lim Also π₯5 = 1. π₯→0 sin(π₯5 ) π₯ = 1, so π₯→0 sin π₯ Therefore the problem reduces to computing lim lim (sin π₯)5 − π₯5 . π₯→0 π₯7 2 lim Apply the mean-value theorem to the fifth-power function to see that π’5 − π₯5 = 5π 4 (π’ − π₯) for some π between π’ and π₯. Setting π’ equal to sin π₯ reveals that (sin π₯)5 −π₯5 = 5π 4 (sin π₯−π₯) for some π between sin π₯ and π₯. Since (sin π₯)βπ₯ and π₯βπ₯ both approach 1 when π₯ → 0, the squeeze theorem implies that πβπ₯ → 1 too. Accordingly, the problem reduces to finding 5π₯4 (sin π₯ − π₯) , π₯→0 π₯7 2 lim or 5(sin π₯ − π₯) . π₯→0 π₯3 2 lim Three easy applications of l’Hôpital’s rule now yield the required answer of −5β3. 5/5/2016 Page 6 of 7 Dr. Boas Math 409 Advanced Calculus Spring 2016 Final Examination Extra Credit. The number Γ(1β5), also known as 5 ⋅ ( 51 !), can be expressed as the convergent improper integral ∞ π₯−4β5 π−π₯ ππ₯. ∫0 Show that the numerical value of Γ(1β5) lies between 4 and 5. Hint: Consult the captured secret plans below. π¦ 1 π¦ = π−π₯ π₯ 1 1 Solution. The integrand is positive, so the value of the integral exceeds ∫0 π₯−4β5 π−π₯ ππ₯. The function π−π₯ is convex with slope −1 at the origin, so π−π₯ ≥ 1 − π₯, with equality only when π₯ = 1. Therefore 1 1 [ ] 5 6β5 1 5 −4β5 1β5 −4β5 −π₯ π₯ (1 − π₯) ππ₯ = 5π₯ − π₯ π₯ π ππ₯ > = 5 − > 4. ∫0 ∫0 6 6 0 Thus 4 is a lower bound for the value of the whole integral. To find an upper bound, observe first that ∞ ∫1 ∞ π₯−4β5 π−π₯ ππ₯ < ∫1 π π−π₯ ππ₯ = lim π→∞ ∫1 [ ] 1 π−π₯ ππ₯ = lim −π−π + π−1 = . π→∞ π Convexity implies that when 0 < π₯ < 1, the graph of π−π₯ lies below the line joining the points (0, 1) and (1, π−1 ). The slope of this line is −(1 − π−1 ), so π−π₯ < 1 − (1 − π−1 )π₯ when 0 < π₯ < 1. Therefore 1 1 [ ]1 5 5 π₯−4β5 π−π₯ ππ₯ < π₯−4β5 − (1 − π−1 )π₯1β5 ππ₯ = 5π₯1β5 − (1 − π−1 )π₯6β5 = 5 − (1 − π−1 ). ∫0 ∫0 6 6 0 Adding the upper bounds for the two parts of the integral gives a total upper bound of 5π − 11 . 6π The value of 5π − 11 is positive, since π > 2.2, so this upper bound is less than 5. With more work, you could improve on this “back of the envelope” estimation. Asking a calculator or a computer for a precise approximation of the integral reveals that Γ(1β5) ≈ 4.59. 5− 5/5/2016 Page 7 of 7 Dr. Boas