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W W W. S A K S H I E D U C AT I O N . C O M / B H AV I T H A . A S P X
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PHYSICS
BIT BANK / IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
The unit of weight in S.I. system...
Prepared by:
A. Naga Rajasekhar
School Assistant,
Chathakonda, Khammam
A) Head Scale B) Pitch Scale
C) Main Scale D) Vernier Scale
2. Let x be the distance travelled by the tip of
the screw through a nut when n complete
revolutions of the head are made then the
pitch of the screw is equal to ( )
A) n/2 B) xn C) x/n D) x - n
2.
A:
ANSWERS
MEASUREMENT OF LENGTH
Important Questions
1 Mark
1. What is meant by Least count of a Screw
gauge?
(Mar - 01)
A: The least count of Screw gauge is defined as
the ratio of pitch of the screw to no. of
head scale divisions.
pitch of thescrew(p)
Least count =
No.of Head Scale Divisions
2. On what principle does a Screw gauge
work?
(Mar-00, Jun-02)
A: Screw gauge works on the principle of
screw in a nut.
4 Marks
1. Describe a method to find the diameter of a
wire using Screwgauge?
2. What are the Positive and Negative zero
errors of a Screw gauge? How are they
determined?
5 Marks
1. Draw a neat labeled diagram of Screw
Gauge? (Mar-08,07,05,01,Jun-10,09,08,04)
2. Draw the diagrams showing zero errors of a
screw gauge a) Negative zero error, b)
Positive zero error. (Mar-11, 10, Jun-07)
Fill in the blanks
1) Least count; 2) Screw in a nut;
dis tan ce travelled by the tip of thescrew
;
3)
no.of complete rotations
4) Positive Zero error; 5) Negative; 6)
Negative zero error; 7) Positive; 8) PSR +
(HSR X LC); 9) Screw gauge; 10) Very low
Multiple Choice: 1) B; 2) C
OUR UNIVERSE GRAVITATION
1.
A:
2.
A:
3.
A:
Fill in the Blanks
1. Smallest length that can be measured accurately using any scale is called _____.
2. Screw gauge works on the principle of
_____ (Mar 04, Jun-04)
3. Pitch of the screw (P) = _____.
4. If the zeroth division of the head scale is
below the index line of Pitch scale, the error
is said to be _____.
5. For a Positive zero error the correction is
_____.
6. If the zeroth division of the head scale is
above the index line of pitch scale, the error
is said to be _____.
7. For a negative zero error, the correction is
_____.
8. Diameter of a wire or thickness of an object
using screw gauge is _____.
9. The distance between two adjacent threads
of a screw is _____.
10. To find the accurate length of an object, the
L.C. of the devise must be _____.
Multiple Choice
1. The Scale marked on the index line of a
screw gauge is ( )
4.
A:
1.
A:
Important Questions
1 Mark
What is Heliocentric theory?
(Mar-05)
According to Heliocentric theory, the sun is
located at the centre of the universe. The
earth, other planets revolve around the sun
in circular orbits of different radii. This theory was proposed by Copernicus
What is meant by Acceleration due to gravity?
(Apr-08, Mar-10,06)
The acceleration produced in a freely falling
body due to gravitational pull of the earth is
called acceleration due to gravity, denoted
by g.
Define the weight of an object? (Mar-11,07)
The weight of a body is the force with
which it is attracted by the earth towards its
centre. Weight W = mg.
State Hook's law? (Jun-10, Mar-04)
Hooke's law states that within the elastic
limit, the stretching in the spring is directly
proportional to applied force. l/f = constant
2 Marks
Derive a relation between acceleration due
to gravity(g) and Universal law of
Gravitation(G)?
(Jun-01)
If a stone of mass m is droped from a distance R from the centre of the earth of mass
M. Then the force on the stone is given by
the law of gravitation as
GMm
F=
→ (1)
r2
Where G is the Universal Gravitational
Constant.
The force produces acceleration (g) on the
stone.
From Newton's Second law of motion, we
have
F = ma F = mg → (2)
Where g is the acceleration due to gravity.
From (1) and (2) we have
GMm
GM
mg =
g= 2
r2
r
3.
A:
This shows that g is independent of the
value of the mass of the body.
Mention the differences between 'g' and 'G'
Gravitational Constant (G)
1. 'G' The gravitational constant is the force
of attraction between two unit masses separated by unit distance.
2. It is denoted by G
3. It is constant for all the bodies at any
place in the Universe
4. It is a Scalar quantity
5. Its units are Nm2Kg-2
Acceleration due to gravity (g)
1. The acceleration of a freely falling body
due to earth's attraction is called the acceleration due to gravity.
2. It is denoted by g
3. It varies from place to place.
4. It is a vector quantity.
5. Its units are m/Sec2
State the Newton's law of Universal
Gravitation. Calculate the gravitational
force on the object of mass 10kg.
Newton's law of Universal Gravitation says
that the force of attraction between any two
bodies in the Universe is directly proportional to the product of their masses and
inversely proportional to the square of the
distance between them.
The gravitational force acting on the object
of mass 10 Kg = W = mg
= 10 x 9.8
= 98 N
Fill in the Blanks
1. Ptolemic theory is also known as _____.
2. The value of Universal Gravitational constant _____ (Jun-04,07,09,Mar-09)
3. Gravitational constant is applicable_____.
4. Units of acceleration due to gravity ,g; is
_____ (Mar-01)
5. The relation between G and g is _____
6. The value of g at the poles is _____
7. The instrument used to measure small
changes in the value of g at a given location
is called _____ (Jun-01, 02, 05, Mar-04)
8. The mass of a body is _____ anywhere in
the universe.
9. The unit of weight in S.I. system _____.
10. The gravitational force acting on a stone of
mass 10kg is _____.
11. The weight of a stone of mass 400gms is
_____ (Jun-10,08,Apr-08,Mar-11,00)
12. According to Keppler's laws planets revolve
around Sun in _____orbits
(Mar-10,06)
13. The value of g on the moon is _____.
Multiple Choice
1. Units of G in S.I system
()
B) N/Kg
A) NM2 Kg-2
D) Nm2/Kg
C) Kg/Nm2
2. The weight of an object on earth is 10gm.
The weight of the same object on Sun is ( )
A) 27.4gm
B) 2.74gm
C) 274gm
D) 0.274gm
3. The effective mass of the earth M is ( )
B) 4 πr2ρ
A) 4/3 πr3ρ
C) 4/3 πrρ
D) 4/3 πr2ρ
4. Weight of an object at poles ( )
A) Not changes B) Increases
C) Decreases D) Becomes zero
ANSWERS
Fill in the blanks
1) Geocentric theory; 2) 6.67 x 10_11 N M2Kg
-2; 3) Everywhere in the universe; 4) m/sec2;
5) F = GM/r2; 6) Maximum; 7) Gravity meter;
8) Constant; 9) Newton; 10) 9.8N; 11) 3.92N;
12) Elliptical; 13) 1.67m/sec2
Multiple Choice: 1) A; 2) C; 3) A; 4) B
KINEMATICS
1.
A:
2.
A:
Important Questions
1 Mark
What is the time of flight?
Time of flight is the time for which a vertically projected body remains in the air and
is given by the sum of time of ascent and
time of descent.
T = 2u/g
Find the velocity of a freely falling body
from a height of 20m when it touches the
ground?
(g = 10m/sec2) (Jun-05)
Height h = 20m
g = 10 m/sec2
Velocity of a body while touching the
ground V = 2gh
2x10x20
= 400
= 20m / sec
2 Marks
1. Derive an expression to find the maximum
height reached by a vertically projected
body?
A: Let a body be projected vertically upwards
with an initial velocity u
When a body is moving up acceleration due
to gravity is taken a s-g
After reaching maximum height the final
velocity of a body becomes '0' (V = 0)
From equation of motion (1),
we have V2 - U2 = 2as
V2 - U2 = -2gh
0 - U2 = -2gh
-U2 = -2gh
u2
h=
2g
4 Marks
1. Show that the time of ascent is equal to the
time of descent?
Fill in the Blanks
1. For a freely falling body the initial velocity
U=_____.
3
Ýë„ìS ¿¶æÑ™èl VýS$Æý‡$ÐéÆý‡… 23 íœ{ºÐ]lÇ, 2012
PHYSICS
BIT BANK / IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
Circular motion is the simplest of...
2. The value of g for a freely falling body is__.
3. The laws of motion in case of freely falling
body are _____.
4. The value of g for a body thrown upward is
_____.
5. The maximum height reached by a body
thrown upward h=_____.
6. Time taken by a vertically projected body to
reach its maximum height is called _____.
7. Time of ascent t1=_____.
8. Time taken by a freely falling body to touch
the ground is _____. (Mar-07)
9. Time of flight _____.
10. The time of ascent is equal to the _____ in
the case of bodies moving under gravity.
11. A stone is thrown vertically upward with an
initial velocity 10m/sec. Then the maximum
height reached by the body is_____(Jun-02)
12. The velocity of a stone on reaching the
ground when it is dropped from a height of
19.6 m is _____.
13. A stone is dropped from the top of a building is found to reach the ground is1 sec. The
height of the building is _____.
14. A ball is thrown up and attains a maximum
height of 80m.Its initial speed is _____.
15. Time of ascent depends on _____.
Multiple Choice
1. Maximum height reached by a body when
thrown vertically upward with an initial
velocity of 40m/sec. (Mar-04,02)
()
A) 80m B) 40m C) 20m D) 60m
2. If two objects of masses m1 and m2 are
dropped from the same height, what is the
ratio of velocities of the two objects when
touches the ground?
()
B) m1 = m2
A) m1 : m2
C) 1 : 1
D) √m1 : √m2
3. A stone is thrown upwards such that it
reaches a maximum height of 39.2m in
4sec. Then the initial velocity with which it
should be thrown upwards so that it reaches
half the height is
A) 156.8m/s
B) 19.6m/s
C) 78.4m/s
D) 9.8m/s
ANSWERS
Fill in the blanks
1) Zero; 2) Positive; 3) V = gt, h = 1/2gt2 , V2
= 2gh; 4) Negative,; 5) h = u2/2g; 6) Time of
ascent; 7) t1 = u/g; 8) Time of descent; 9) T =
2u/g; 10) Time of descent; 11) 5m; 12) 20m ;
13) 19.6m/sec; 14) 5m; 15) 40m/.sec.;
Multiple Choice:
1) A; 2) C; 3) B
DYNAMICS
Important Questions
1 Mark
1. What is the principle of launching a satellite
into an orbit?
(Jun-00,04,Mar-01)
A: The principle of launching an Artificial
Satellite into proper space orbit is to impart
sufficient initial horizontal speed such that
it revolves round the earth at the chosen
height.
2. Define banking angle?
(Jun-09)
A: The angle between theline joining inner
edge and outer raised edge to the horizontal
is called "angle of banking"
2 Marks
1. Distinguish between Rotatory motion and
Circular motion?
(Mar-10,06)
A: Rotatory motion
1. The motion of a particle under the action
of a force which is always directed towards
a fixed point away from its path is called
rotator motion.
2 Ex: Motion of a gaint wheel
Circular motion
1. It is a special case of rotator motion in
which magnitude of velocity does not
change but directional one changes, it is
called circular motion
2. Ex: Particle on a rigid body making circular motion.
2. What is a centrifuge? How does it work?
A: Centrifuge:
A centrifuge is a machine used to separate
particles of higher mass from those of lower
mass in a given mixture.
Working:
• It works on the principle of Centrifugal
force.
• A centrifuge consists of cylindrical vessel
rotated about its own axes at high speed.
• When milk is poured into the cylindrical
vessel, particles of higher mass are thrown
away from the centre due to greater centrifugal force.
• Lower mass particles like cream particles
are collected at the centre i.e. near the axle.
3. Describe the working of a laundry drier?
A: • Laundry drier works on the principle of
Centrifugal force.
• In a laundry drier, the wet clothes are
dropped into a cylindrical vessel containing
holes.
• When the vessel is rotated, the wet clothes
get struck to the walls of the vessel containing holes.
• The centrifugal force pushes out the water
molecules from the clothes through the
walls and the clothes are dried.
4. What are the characteristics of Simple
Harmonic Motion?
(Jun-10,05)
A: The to and fro motion of a particle about a
mean position on a fixed path sch that the
acceleration of a particle is always directed
towards the mean position and is directly
proportional to the displacement of the particle from its mean position is called a
5.
A:
1.
2.
Simple Harmonic Motion.
Its characteristics are
• A constant time period T or a constant frequency.
• A fixed amplitude (A).
• A constant mechanical energy which is
the sum of potential energy and kinetic
energy at every point in the path of oscillation.
Distinguish between inertial frame of reference and non inertial frame of reference?
Inertial frame of reference
1. An Imaginary coordinate system which is
either at rest or in uniform motion and
where Newtons laws are valid is called inertial frame of reference.
2. In these frames centrifugal force is a
pseudo force
Non inertial frame of reference
1. An Imaginary coordinate system which is
attached to a rotating (or) accelerated body
where Newton's laws are not valid is called
Non inertial frame of reference.
2. In these frames centrifugal force is the
real force.
4 Marks
Distinguish between Centripetal force and
Centrifugal force? (Mar-02, Jun-08, 02,03)
Derive an expression to find the Banking
angle? (Jun-01)
Fill in the Blanks
1. Circular motion is the simplest of _____.
2. The direction of velocity of a body executing circular motion will be _____.
3. Angular displacement is measured in
_____.
4. The rate of angular displacement is defined as
_____.
5. The units of angular velocity are _____.
6. In a uniform circular
motion, the _____is constant.
7. The relation between linear velocity and angular
velocity is _____.
8. The angular momentum
possessed by a particle in a
circular motion is given by
_____.
9. Centripetal acceleration
_____.
10. _____ force acts towards
the centre of the circle.
11. Centripetal force _____.
12. Newton's laws are not
valid in _____frame of reference.
13. Newton's laws are valid in
_____frame of reference.
(Jun-03)
14. _____ force is known as fictious force.
15. Centrifuge works on the principle _____.
16. A _____ is a machine used to separate particles of higher mass form those of lower
mass in a given mixture.
(Mar-01)
17. Banking angle _____.
18. The escape velocity of a body is _____.
19. Centre seeking force is called _____.
20. Any motion that repeats itself along the
same path in equal intervals of time is called
a _____.
21. A body executing oscillatory motion comes
to rest at _____.
22. The acceleration of a body executing
S.H.M. is directly proportional to the_____.
23. The time period (T) of a simple pendulum is
independent of _____.
Multiple Choice
1. A car moves on a curved but level road. The
necessary centripetal force on the car is provided by (Mar-09, Jun-04,03)
()
A) Inertia
B) Gravity
C) Friction between the tyres and road
D) Normal reaction of the car.
2. In a uniform circular motion, if the radius is
doubled the centripetal force now required
is
()
A) one-quarter as greater before
B) Half as great as before
C) Twice as great as before
D) Four times as great as before.
3. A car of mass 1200 kg takes a turn of a
curved road of radius 180m with a speed of
6m/s. The centripetal force acting on the car
is
()
4
Ýë„ìS ¿¶æÑ™èl VýS$Æý‡$ÐéÆý‡… 23 íœ{ºÐ]lÇ, 2012
BIT BANK / IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
PHYSICS
A medium transmits a sound wave..
A) 48N
B) 147N
C) 240N
D) 1440N
4. Relation between the time period T and frequency f is
()
A) T = f
B) 1/f =1/T
C) T = 1/f
D) f/T =1
5. A wheel of diameter 8cm describes 1200
revolutions per minute. The angular velocity of the wheel is ( )
A) 40 π rad/sec B) 20 π rad/sec
C) 40 rad/sec D) 20 rad/sec
ANSWERS
Fill in the blanks
1) Rotatory motion; 2) Tangential to the circle;
3) Radian; 4) Angular velocity; 5) Radian/sec;
6) Angular velocity; 7) v = rw; 8) L = m ω r2.;
9) a= v2/r.; 10) Centripetal; 11) F = mv2/r (or)
mw2r.; 12) Non inertial; 13) Inertial; 14)
Centrifugal; 15) bodies of higher mass rotate
on a circle of higher radius.; 16) Centrifuge;
17) Tan θ = v2/rg.; 18) 11km/sec; 19)
Centripetal force; 20) Periodical motion; 21)
Equillibrium position or mean position; 22)
Displacement; 23) Amplitude & mass
Multiple Choice: 1) C; 2) B; 3) C; 4) C; 5) A
ELECTRO MAGNETIC SPECTRUM
1.
A:
2.
A:
3.
A:
4.
A:
1.
A:
Important Questions
1 Mark
What is Radiography?
(Mar-03)
Medical diagnosis usig soft X-rays is
known as Radiography.
What is Radiotherapy?
Medical treatment using X-rays is known as
Radiotherapy.
What are the uses of hard X - rays? (Jun-01)
a) Used to determine the structure of materials.
b) Used for testing of materials in industry.
What is the reason of depletion of ozone
layer in atmosphere? (Jun-06, Mar-00)
Atmospheric Ozone is depleted recent years
as a result of chemical reactions with fluorocarbons released from aerosol sprays,
refrigeration equipment, and other pollutants.
2 Marks
What are the common features among all
electromagnetic radiations?
Common features among all electromagnetic radiations are
a) They all can be described in terms of
oscillating electric and magnetic fields perpendicular to each other and hence called
electromagnetic radiations.
b) The electric and magnetic fields are
found to oscillate perpendicular to the
direction of propogation of radiation.
c) All electromagnetic waves are transverse
in nature.
d) All these radiations travel with the same
speed, that is the speed of light in vacuum.
C = νλ = 3 x 108 m/s
Fill in the Blanks
1. _____is a group of wavelengths or frequencies.
2. All electromagnetic radiations are _____in
nature. (Mar-06,01 Jun-02)
3. Velocity of light in vacuum is _____.
4. _____radiations are used to take photographs of objects in darkness.
5. Mapping of the radio emissions from extraterrestrial sources is known as _____.
6. _____radiations are produced by the transitions of electrons in atoms.
7. Medical diagnosis using X-rays is called
_____ (Mar-11, Jun-10)
8. Curing of diseases using X-rays is called
_____.
9. RADAR stands for _____. (Mar-05)
10. _____ are used in RADAR.
Multiple Choice
1. The wavelength range of visible spectrum()
A) 0.4μm --- 0.7μm
C) 10μm -- 10m
B) 0.4μm --- 1 nm
D) 0.7μm -- 100μm
2. The electromagnetic waves emitted in
radioactivity (Jun-01, Mar-07)
()
A) Radio waves
B) Micro waves
C) Gamma rays
D) X- rays
3. The radiations used in physiotherapy are( )
A) I.R
B) Microwaves
C) X - rays
D) Radio waves
4. The ozone layer protects us from _____
radiations from the Sun (Mar-04)
()
A) I.R
B) Radio waves
C) Gamma rays D) Ultra Violet
ANSWERS
Fill in the blanks
1) Spectrum; 2) Transverse; 3) 3x108 m/sec.;
4) Infra red; 5) Radio Astronomy; 6)
Ultraviolet;
7)
Radiography;
8)
RadioTheraphy; 9) Radio detection and
Ranging; 10) Microwaves
Multiple Choice: 1) A; 2) C; 3) A; 4) D
SOUND
1.
A:
2.
A:
Important Questions
1 Mark
What are damped vibrations? (Mar-07)
Periodic vibrations of decreasing amplitude
are called damped vibrations.
Define Resonance?
Resonance is the phenomenon, in which if
one of the two bodies of same natural frequency is set into vibration, the other body
also vibrates with larger amplitude under
the influence of first body.
3. Define Node and Antinode?
A: Node
Nodes are the points in a stationary wave,
where the particles undergo minimum displacement.
Antinodes
Anti nodes are the points in a stationary
where the particles undergo maximum displacement.
4. Define Stationary wave?
(Mar-11)
A: A stationary wave is formed when two
waves of equal frequency and amplitude
travel in opposite directions along the same
path.
2 Marks
1. Mention any two incidents of Resoance
phenomenon observed in your day to day
life?
(Jun-01, Mar-01)
A: a) When soldiers cross a suspension bridge,
they are asked to break their step. This is
because if the frequency of vibration of
their marching becomes equal to that of natural frequency of the bridge, the bridge
would vibrate with larger amplitude due to
resonance and the bridge would collapse.
b) A pronounced rattling sound may occur
in a car when it is travelling at a particular
speed. But if it travels faster or slower than
this speed, no sound occurs. This is due to
resonance between car engine and body of
the car.
4 Marks
1. Distinguish between progressive and stationary waves?
(Mar-09, 02, Jun-01)
2. Describe an experiment to determine the
velocity of sound in air? (Jun-06,05,04,00)
Fill in the Blanks
1. Every body has its own frequency called
_____.
2. When a body is set into vibration and then
left to itself, the vibrations are called _____.
3. Periodic vibrations of decreasing amplitude
are called _____(Mar-08)
4. When a body executes vibrations under the
action of an external periodic force, then the
vibrations are called _____(Jun-07)
5. On reflection form a rigid of fixed end, a
wave undergoes a phase change of _____.
6. In a stationary wave the points where the
particles undergo minimum displacement
are called _____.
7. In a stationary wave, the points where the
particles undergo maximum displacement
are called_____.(Mar-05,02, Jun-08, 02,00)
8. The distance between a node and its adjacent antinode is equal to_____.
9. Distance between two successive nodes or
antinodes is equal to _____(Mar-10)
10. Velocity of sound in air is _____.
11. In the formula V= √γP/ρ, ρ, is _____.
12. Velocity of sound if the frequency of the
wave ν is and wavelength λ is _____.
13. Velocity of sound in air according to resonating air columns experiment is _____.
14. If the distance between a node and its adjacent antinode is 10 cm, then the wavelength
= _____. (Apr-08,Mar-03, Jun-01,05,09)
15. In resonating air columns if the length of
first resonance is 10 cm, then the length of
air column at second resonance is _____.
Multiple Choice
1. A medium transmits a sound wave through
it by virtue of its (Mar-07)
()
A) Elasticity
B) Inertia
C) A & B
D) None
2. The waves which possesses compressions
and rarefactions are
()
A) Longitudinal waves
B) Transverse waves C) Progressive waves
D) Stationary waves
3. In _____ waves, energy is trapped in a fixed
region of medium
()
A) Longitudinal waves
B) Transverse waves
C) Progressive waves
D) Stationary waves
4. The velocity of sound in air is 300m/s, Find
the wave length of wave with frequency
10000 Hertz.
A) 30cm
B) 3 cm
C) 35cm
D) 3.5cm
5. Units of frequency.
()
A) Ohm
B) C.M
C) meters
D) Hertz
ANSWERS
Fill in the blanks
1) Natural Frequency; 2) Natural or Free
vibrations; 3) Damped Vibrations; 4) Forced
vibrations; 5) 1800; 6) Nodes; 7) Antinodes; 8)
λ/4.; 9) λ/2; 10) V=√γP/ρ; 11) Ratio of
Specific Heats; 12) V= η λ.; 13) V=2 η (l2l1).; 14) 40 cm; 15) 30 cm
Multiple Choice: 1) C; 2) B; 3) D; 4) B; 5) D
LIGHT
1.
A:
2.
A:
3.
A:
Important Questions
1 Mark
Define Diffraction? (Jun-09)
The bending of light waves around an
obstacle whose dimensions are comparable
to the wavelength of the incident light and
hence its spreading into the geometrical
shadow is called diffraction.
What is interference?
The physical effect of superposition of
waves from two sources vibrating with
same frequency and amplitude is called
"interference of waves".
Define 'Solid angle'?
When normal lines are drawn from the
5
Ýë„ìS ¿¶æÑ™èl VýS$Æý‡$ÐéÆý‡… 23 íœ{ºÐ]lÇ, 2012
PHYSICS
BIT BANK / IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
Corpuscular theory of light was..
1.
A:
2.
A:
3.
A:
4.
A:
5.
A:
boundary of a portion on the surface a
sphere such that the lines meet at its centre
and form a cone, then the angle enclosed by
the conical surface is defined as solid angle
and is equal to the ratio of the area of the
base of the conical surface to the square of
the radius of the sphere.
Corpuscular theory and Huygen's wave
Theory of light? (Mar-11, 10, 05, 03)
2. Describe a ripple tank? How does it help in
understanding reflection and refraction of
light? (Jun-07, Mar-02)
3. What are the applications of LASER light
in Science and Technology? (Mar-06, 04)
2 Marks
What are the different theories which
explain the nature of light?
Different theories which explain the nature
of light are
a) Corpuscular theory proposed by Newton
b) Wave theory Proposed by Huygen
c) Electromagnetic theory proposed by
Maxwell
d) Quantum theory proposed by
Maxplanck.
What are the special properties of LASER
light?
The special properties of LASER light are
a) Coherence
b) Directionality
c) Monochromacity
d) High intensity
Mention the applications of LASER in
medicinal field? (Jun-03,06,10)
Applications of LASER in medicine field
are
a) LASERs are used for bloodless surgery
b) The liver and lung diseases could be
treated by lasers.
c) Lasers are used in fibre-obtic endoscope
to detect ulcers in the intestines.
d) Lasers are used extensively in the treatment of eye diseases, particularly to reattach a detached retina.
Mention the applications of LASER in
industry and defence space science?
Applications of LASER in industry
a) Lasers are used now for cutting, drilling
and welding of metals and other materials.
b) Laser light is used to collect information
about the prefixed prices of various products in shops and business establishments
from the bar-code printed on the product.
Applications of LASER in defence and
space science:
a) Lasers are used in various guided missiles and also for detection of enemy targets.
b) Lasers are also used in space communication, in radars and in satellites.
What are the basic processes involved in the
working of a LASER? (Mar-01)
The basic processes involved in the working of LASER are
a) absorption
b) spontaneous emission
c) Population inversion and pumping
d) Stimulated emission of radiation.
Fill in the Blanks
4 Marks
1. Give a comparison between Newton's
1. Corpuscular theory of light was proposed
by _____.
2. Wave theory of light was proposed by____.
3. Electromagnetic theory of light was proposed by _____.
4. According to corpuscular theory, various
colours of light are supposed to be due to
_____.
5. According to Huygens, light propagates in
the form of _____.
6. Corpuscules are _____by reflecting surface.
7. Corpuscules are _____by refracting surface. (Mar-11)
8. According to Huygen's the colours of light
are due to difference in _____.
9. The phase difference when constructive
superposition obtained between two waves
is _____. (Jun-08)
10. The phase difference when destructive
superposition obtained between two waves
is _____.
11. Unit of solid angle _____.
12. The total solid angle for a sphere is _____.
13. Unit of luminous intensity _____. (Jun-09)
14. The basic scientific principle behind a laser
was first put forward by _____.
15. LASER: _____. (Apr-08, Jun-09,05)
16. Bandwidth of LASER is of the order _____.
17. The process of achieving population inversion is called _____.
18. ____is used as active medium in Ruby laser.
19. The wave length of Ruby laser is _____.
20. Lasers are used in a special three dimensional photography called _____.
Multiple Choice
1. Huygen proposed that for the propagation
of light waves _____ medium is required( )
A) glass
B) Water
C) Wood
D) Ether
2. The unit of Luminosity is
()
B) lm/m2
A) lm/cm2
C) lm/W
D) Cd/cm2
3. The troughs of water waves in ripple tank
form
()
A) bright band
B) dark band
C) colour band
D) None
4. A sound wave due to conversation in the
neighboring room is heard in your room
because _____ of sound.
A) Interference
B) Diffraction
C) Reflection D) Polarisation
ANSWERS
Fill in the blanks
1) Newton; 2) Huygen; 3) Maxwell; 4)
Difference in the size of the corpuscular; 5)
waves; 6) Repelled; 7) Attracted; 8) Wave
lengths; 9) 2nπ; 10) (2n+1)π; 11) Steredian;
12) 4π Steredians; 13) Candela; 14) Dr
Charles H. Townes; 15) Light Amplification
by Stimulated Emission of Radiation; 16)
10A0; 17) Pumping; 18) Ruby crystal; 19)
6943 A0; 20) Halography
Multiple Choice: 1) D; 2) C; 3) A; 4) B
MAGNETISM
1.
A:
2.
A:
3.
A:
Important Questions
1 Mark
Define Magnetic moment? (Jun-05,00)
The quantity of magnetic pole strength
acquired by a magnet is called "magnetic
moment". Magnetic moment is measured as
the product of length ( 2l ) and pole strength
( m ) of a bar magnet.
M = 2lm
What are the Ferro magnetic substances?
Ferro magnetic substances are those in
which the resultant magnetic moments of
individual atoms align themselves in parallel because of a special effect present in
them giving rise to spontaneous magnetization.
Ex: Iron (Fe), Cobalt (Co), Nickel (Ni),
Gadolinium (Gd), Dysprosium (Dy)
Define magnetic field induction? (Mar-11)
Magnetic flux density or magnetic field
induction is defined as the magnetic flux
passing through a unit normal area.
Units: MKS: Tesla S.I: Newton/Amp-meter
2 Marks
1. State and explain Coulomb's inverse square
law of magnetism?
A: The inverse square law of magnetism states
that the force of attraction or repulsion
between two magnetic poles is directly proportional to the product of their pole
strengths and inversely proportional to the
square of the distance between them.
Let m1 and m2 be the magnetic poles separated by a distance r, then the force (F) of
attraction or repulsion between them is
mm
given by
F∞ 1 2 2
r
2. Define magnetic Susceptibility and magnetic permeability? (Mar-02)
A: Magnetic susceptibility:
Magnetic susceptibility (χ) of a substance is
defined as the ratio of the intensity of magnetization (I) and the intensity of applied
magnetic field (H)
χ = I/H
Magnetic permeability:
Magnetic permeability of a medium is
defined as its ability to allow the magnetic
lines of force to pass through it or to allow
itself to be influenced by magnetic field.
4 Marks
1. What are the essential ideas of Ewing's
molecular theory of magnetism? What are
the reasons for its failure?
(Mar-02)
2. Compare the values of susceptibility and
permeability of Dia, Para, and Ferro magnetic substances? (Mar-01,04,Jun-04,06,07)
3. Compare the properties of Dia, Para, and
Ferro magnetic substances? (Jun-09,00)
5 Marks
1. Draw the arrangements of magnetic lines of
force when the magnetic North facing
towards Geographic North? Locate the null
points? (Mar-03,Jun-05,02,01)
2. Draw the arrangement of magnetic lines of
force when the magnetic South facing
towards Geographic North? Locate the null
points? (Mar-09)
Fill in the Blanks
1. The two poles in a magnet have the ability
to attract or repel another magnetic pole
called _____.
2. The S.I unit of polestrength is _____.
3. The ratio of magnetic force in a medium to
the magnetic force in free space is called
_____.
4. Unit of µ0 is _____ (S.I system)
5. The unit of magnetic flux is _____.
6. The relation between units of pole strength
in M.K.S and S.I system is _____.
7. 1 Wb/m2 = _____ Gauss.
8. The value of µ0 = _____.
9. When magnetic flux (φ) is measured in
webers the unit of B is _____.
10. The strength of a magnetic field at a point in
C.G.S. units is defined as _____.
11. The units of H in C.G.S. system is _____.
12. The product of the pole strength and the
magnetic length of a magnet is called ____.
13. The S.I. units of magnetic moment are
_____ (Mar-04)
14. The value of (B) on the axial line is _____
the value on the equatorial line for the same
distance.
15. When N- pole of a bar magnet points
towards geographical N-pole of the earth
the two null points lie on the _____ line.
16. When S-pole of a bar magnet points
towards geographical N-pole of the earth
the two neutral points lie on the _____ line.
17. The value of Bo in Andhra Pradesh is ____.
18. The ability of a medium to allow the magnetic lines of force to pass through it is
called as _____.
19. 1 Weber = _____ Amp-Metre.
20. The total number of magnetic lines of force
6
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BIT BANK / IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
PHYSICS
Units of electrical Potential...
in given area is called _____.
21. Units of magnetic flux in M.K.S. system are
_____.
22. Units of Magnetic field induction (B) are
_____.
23. Units of Magnetic field induction (B) in
C.G.S. system are _____ .
24. 1 Tesla = _____ Gauss.
Multiple Choice
1. The example of diamagnetic substance is ( )
A) Bi B) Fe C) Cu
D) Al
2. The magnetic susceptibility (χ) of a dia
magnetic substance is (Mar-05, Jun-01) ( )
A) Small and positive
B) Small and negative
C) Large and positive
D) None
3. The example of para magnetic substance is
A) Fe B) Bi
C) Cu
D) Al
4. The ratio of SI unit to CGS unit for magnetic flux density ( )
A) 103 B) 105 C) 104 D) 106
5. Magnetic moment per unit volume is called
A) Magnetic field B) Magnetic induction
C) Magnetic flux
D) Intensity of magnetization
1.
A:
2.
A:
3.
A:
ANSWERS
Fill in the blanks
1) Pole strength; 2) Ampere-meter; 3) Relative
permeability; 4) Henry/meter; 5) Weber; 6) 1
weber = µ0 amp.m.; 7) 104 Gauss; 8)4Πx10-7
Henry/metre.; 9) Weber / meter2 or Tesla; 10)
Intensity of magnetic field; 11) Gauss; 12)
Magnetic moment; 13) Amp - meter2; 14)
twice; 15) equatorial; 16) Axial; 17) 0.39x10-4
Tesla; 18) Magnetic permeability; 19) µo
Amp-Metre.; 20) Magnetic flux (ϕ); 21)
Weber; 22) N/A-m or Weber/m2 or Tesla; 23)
Gauss; 24) 104 Gauss
Multiple Choice: 1) A; 2) B; 3) D; 4) C; 5) D
1.
ELECTRICITY
1.
A:
2.
A:
3.
A:
4.
A:
Important Questions
1 Mark
What is the difference between AC motor
and DC motor?
(Mar-00)
A.C motor do not consist commutator
where as DC motor consists commutator
What is the principle of working of a
Transformer? (Mar-02,00, Jun-00)
Transformer works on the principle of
mutual induction.
What is electrolysis?
The process of decomposition of a chemical
compound in a solution by passing electric
current through it is called electrolysis.
State Ohm's law?
At constant temperature the Potential
Difference across the ends of a conductor is
directly proportional to current passing
2.
1.
2.
3.
4.
through it. V = iR
2 Marks
State the laws of Resistance? (Mar-07)
Laws of Resistance
a) The resistance R of a conductor of a
given material is directly proportional to its
length R∞ l
b) The resistance R of a conductor of a
given material is inversely proportional to
its area of cross section. R∞ 1/A
State and explain Lenz's law?
The induced current always flow in a direction such that it opposes the change that
produced it.
" This is the consequence of law of conservation of Energy. According to this law,
when a bar magnet with its north pole is
pushed towards a coil, current is induced in
the coil such that it always opposes the
motion of north pole of the magnet.
" Thus the face of the coil towards north
pole of the magnet becomes north. Thus the
induced current direction on that face of the
coil is in anti clock wise direction.
State Faraday's laws of electrolysis?
First Law:
Faraday's first law of electrolysis states that
the mass of ions liberated from an electrolyte is directly proportional to the
strength of the current (i) and the time (t)
for which the current passes.
m ∞ it
m = zit
Second Law:
Faraday's second law of electrolysis states
that when same quantity of current is passed
through different electrolytes for same time,
the masses of ions liberated at the respective electrodes are proportional to their
chemical equivalents.
m1 : m2 : m3 = Z1 : Z2 : Z3
4 Marks
Derive R = R1 + R2 + ---- (or) Show that the
resultant resistance is equal to the sum of
the individual resistances when they are
connected in series? (Mar-06,04, Jun-06)
Derive 1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + ---- (or) Derive
an expression to find the resultant resistance
when two or more resistors are connected in
parallel? (Apr-08, Mar-02, Jun-07)
5 Marks
Derive Q = i2Rt / J (Mar-08,Jun-02,03)
Describe an experiment to verify the Ohm's
law? (Mar-05,01)
Describe an experiment to verify the
Faraday's second law of eletrolysis? (Jun10, Mar-03)
Explain the construction of a Transformer
with a neat labeled diagram? (Jun-08)
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
Fill in the Blanks
1. The net charge flowing through a cross sec-
34.
tion of a conductor in unit time is called
_____.
Units of electric current _____ (Mar-99)
Current is measured in Amperes using ____
Units of electrical Potential _____.
Units of electro motive force (e.m.f.)_____.
When cells are connected in series, the
resultant potential difference is equal to the
_____.
When the cells of 1V , 1.5V, 2V, are connected in series then the resultant emf is
_____.
When three cells of 1V, 1.5V,2V are connected in parallel, then the resultant emf is
_____.
If 90 coulombs charge passes through the
conductor for 5 minutes, then the current in
the conductor is _____.
Electric potential is measured using _____.
Units of resistance _____. (Mar-11)
Conductors which do not obey ohm's law
are called _____. (Mar-06, Jun-02)
Example of non ohmic conductors _____.
_____is used to regulate the value of current in a circuit
The resistance of a conductor is directly
proportional to its _____.
Units of specific resistance _____.
In ________combination the same current
exists in all of them through a single path.
When resistances are connected in _____
the total voltage is divided among them.
In a _____combination same potential difference exists across all of the resistors.
When resistances are connected in _____
the total current is divided among all the
resistors.
When two resistances of 6 Ω and 12 Ω are
connected in series then the effective resistance is _____.
When two resistances of 6 Ω and 12 Ω are
connected in parallel then the effective
resistance is _____. (Jun-01)
If two resistances of 100 Ω and 1Ω are connected in parallel then the effective resistance is _____. (Apr-08, Mar-01)
Rate of electric work done is defined as___.
In the formula W = JQ , J is _____.
The value of Mechanical equivalent of heat
( J ) = _____ (Mar-09)
The units of house hold consumption of
electrical energy are _____.
1 K.W.H. = _____ Watt second.
In the formula m = Zit, Z is known as_____.
Units of e.c.e. are _____.
According to Faraday's second law of electrolysis m1: m2 : m3 = _____.
_____ energy is converted into _____energy by electric motor. (Mar-07)
Rectangular coil of wire in a motor is
known as _____.
Full form of R.P.M. is _____.
35. A ___is an electrical device which converts
mechanical energy into electrical energy.
36. Units of self induction are _____.
37. The unit of mutual induction is _____.
38. Transformer works on the principle of____.
39. A transformer uses _____ to minimize
power loses. (Mar-01)
40. Ammeter is always connected in _____in
an electrical circuit
ANSWERS
Fill in the blanks
1) Current; 2) Ampere; 3) Ammeter; 4) Volt;
5) Volt; 6) Sum of the P.D of the individual
cells; 7) 4.5V; 8) 2V; 9) 0.3A; 10) Volt meter;
11) Ohm (Ω); 12) Non ohmic conductors; 13)
Electrolytes and Semi conductors; 14)
Rheostat; 15) Length; 16) Ohm meter; 17)
Series combination; 18) Series; 19) Parallel;
20) Parallel; 21) 18Ω; 22) 4Ω; 23) 0.99Ω;24)
Electric power; 25) Mechanical equivalent of
heat; 26) 4.18j/cal; 27) Kilowatt Hour; 28) 36
X 105 Watt Second; 29) Electro Chemical
Equivalance; 30) gm/Coulomb; 31) Z1 : Z2 :
Z3 =E1 : E2 : E3; 32) Electrical , Mechanical;
33) Armature; 34) Rotations per minuite; 35)
Dynamo; 36) Henry; 37) Henry; 38) Mutual
induction; 39) Iron core; 40) Series
MODERN PHYSICS
1.
A:
2.
A:
3.
A:
4.
A:
5.
A:
6.
A:
7.
Important Questions
1 Mark
Define mass defect?
Mass defect is the difference between the
sum of the individual masses of the constituents of nucleus and the mass of the
nucleus itself.
What is binding energy? (Mar-02)
Binding energy is the energy useful to bind
the protons and neutrons together inside the
nucleus.
What are the Isobars? Give examples?
Atoms of the different elements having
same mass number but different atomic
number are called
40
40
Isobars.
Ex: K19 and Ca 20
What are Isotopes? Give examples?
Atoms of the same element having same
atomic number but different mass number
are called Isotopes
1
2
3
of that element. Ex: H1 , H1 , H 1
What are Isotones? Give examples?
Isotones are the atoms having same number
of neutrons but different number of protons.
30 31
Ex: Si14 , P15 ,
State law of radioactive disintegration?
In any radioactive substance, the number of
atoms disintegrating per second is directly
proportional to the number of atoms present.
Define mass energy equivalence? (Mar-11)
7
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PHYSICS
BIT BANK / IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
A group of IC s is called...
A: According to Einstein mass and energy are
mutually convertible. The principle of massenergy equivalence is given by E = Δ mc2
1.
A:
2.
A:
1.
2.
1.
2 Marks
What is the role of moderator in a Nuclear
reactor? (Jun-00.07)
Neutrons with low energy are called
Thermal neutrons. These Thermal neutrons
initiate fission in Uranium. The neutrons
released in the chain reaction will have high
energies of the order of 1MeV and these
move with higher velocities and bombard
the fissionable material. So as to slow down
the fast moving neutrons in the reactor
moderator is used. Graphite or Heavy water
is used as moderator.
What are the uses of Radio isotopes in the
field of Industry? (Mar-02)
a) Radio Isotopes are used to study wear
and tear of internal parts of a machine.
60
b) Radio Cobalt ( Co 27 ) is used to detect
internal flaws of the cast material.
c) Radiation from radio isotopes is used to
dispel the static electricity acquired by
some material.
4 Marks
Compare the properties of α, β, and γ radiations? (Apr-08, Jun-10,05)
What is the principle of Nuclear Reactor?
How the chain reaction does controlled in a
nuclear reactor?
5 Marks
Draw a neat labeled diagram of Nuclear
Reactor? (Mar-04,02,00,Jun-02)
Fill in the Blanks
1. Radius of nucleus is _____(Jun-03)
2. Rutherford's gold foil experiment led to the
discovery of _____.
3. Neutron was discovered by _____.
4. Einstein's mass energy equivalence is ____
5. The magnitude of the mass defect is a measure of the _____of nucleus.
6. Binding energy = _____.
7. 1. amu = _____ev. (or) _____Mev. (Jun-09)
8. 1. Mev = _____ Joules.
9. Electron volt is a unit of _____.
10. Radioactivity was discovered by _____.
11. α particle is the doubly ionized_____ atom.
12. α particles have _____ penetrating power
when compared to β and γ radiations.
13. The speed of α particle is _____.
14. The speed of β particles is of the order ____
15. The ionizing power of γ radiation is _____.
16. When α particle is emitted the atomic number of the original nucleus is reduced by 2
and its mass number by _____.
17. When β particle is emitted the atomic number of the original nucleus is increased by
_____.
18. Uranium series is _____ series.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
Actinium series is _____series.
Thorium series is_____series. (Jun-03)
Neptunium series is _____series. (Jun-06)
The stable end product of all radioactive
series is _____.
The inert gas formed in all radioactive
series is _____.
Atoms of different elements having same
mass number but different atomic numbers
are called _____. (Jun-05)
_____are the atoms with their nuclei having
same number of neutrons but different number of protons.
The electro magnetic radiations in the
radioactive disintegration are _____.
The process of determining the age of fossils by using artificial radioactivity is
known as _____.
Nuclear reactor works on the principle of
_____.
The neutrons with energies of about 0.04 ev
are called _____.
The material that slows down the neutrons
in a nuclear reactor is called a _____.
Multiple Choice
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
40
K19
and Ca 40
20
are the examples of ( )
A) Isotopes
B) Isobars
C) Isotones
D) Radioactives
Penetrating capacity is highest in the case of
A) α Particles B) β Particles
C) γ Particles D) X rays
When a γ ray is emitted by an unstable atom
then
()
A) Z increases B) Z decreases
C) A increases D) Z and A remains same.
Isotopes are the elements with
()
A) Same mass number
B) Same atomic number
C) Same neutron number
D) Same number of electrons
Ionization power is high in case of ( )
B) β Particles
A) α Particles
D) X rays
C) γ Particles
ELECTRONICS
1.
A:
2.
A:
3.
A:
4.
A:
5.
A:
Important Questions
1 Mark
Define Hole? (Jun-08)
The vacancy created by electron in valence
band is called 'hole'
What is a Byte? (Mar-03)
Byte is a group of 8 bits.
What is doping? (Mar-08,04,00,Jun-09,06)
Introducing impurity in small quantities to a
semiconductor material to increase its conductivity is called doping
What is modulation?
The process of fixing message signals over
carrier waves is called 'modulation'.
What is a programme?
A programme is a set of instructions written
in proper sequence.
2 Marks
1. What are the differences between machine
language and high level language? (Jun-02)
A: Machine language contain only binary digits, but a high level language contains limited number of usual English words.
2. What are the hardware and software in a
computer? (Mar-05,07,Jun-07)
A: The physical components like C.P.U , input,
and Output devices put together are called
hardware. The sequence of instructions
given to the computer is called Software.
3. What are the important uses of computer in
daily life? (Jun-01)
A: " A computer is most useful device in the
field of banking, industry, science, education, technology, medicine, weather prediction, satellite communications, defence and
information technology by its memory,
capacity to store data, automation, reliability and caccuracy.
" It is used in processing data and sorting
word processing.
" It can do all operations in sequential order
as per the program.
" It is a super-servant of modern man.
ANSWERS
Fill in the blanks
1) 2.4 X 10-15mts; 2) Nucleus; 3) Chadwick;
4) E = Δ mc2; 5) Stability; 6) Mass defect x
931.5 mev; 7) 931.5x106 ev. (or) 931.5 Mev.;
8) 1.6 x 10-12 Joules; 9) Energy; 10)
A.H.Becqueral; 11) Helium; 12) small; 13)
107 m/sec; 14) Electrons; 15) Very less; 16)
2,4; 17) 1; 18) 4n + 2; 19) 4n + 3; 20) 4n; 21)
4n + 1; 22) Lead (pb); 23) Radan; 24) Isobar;
25) Isotones; 26) γ rays; 27) Radioactive dating; 28) Controlled Chain Reaction; 29)
Thermal Neutrons; 30) Moderator
Multiple Choice:
1) B; 2) C; 3) D; 4) B; 5) A
4 Marks
1. Explain the formation of p-type and n-type
semi conductors? (Jun-08,Mar-06)
2. What are properties and uses of Junction
Diode? (Mar-10,09,08,05)
3. What are the properties and uses of junction
transistor? (Mar-07,03)
4. Explain the important steps involved in
Radio broadcasting? (Mar-00)
5. Explain the important steps involved in T.V.
broadcasting? (Mar-04,Jun-04)
6. Draw the block diagram of Computer and
explain the various components in it?
Fill in the Blanks
1. The gap between conduction band and
valence band is known as _____or _____.
2. At 00K semi conductor behaves as an ____.
3. The absence of an electron in the valence
band of a semi conductor is called _____.
4. The process of introducing impurities in
small quantities into a material is called
_____.
5. In an n type semiconductor the majority
carriers are _____ and the minority carriers
are _____.
6. In a semiconductor the charge carriers are
_____and _____ (Mar-03,00)
7. The combination of p type and n type semi
conductors results in the formation of ____.
8. Diode is used as _____ (Jun-00)
9. _____ converts AC to DC.
10. The three terminals of a transistor are
_____,_____, AND _____.
11. The arrow mark in the symbol of transistor
indicates _____.
12. Transistor acts as _____. (Mar-03)
13. In radio communication the range of carrier
frequency is _____. (Mar-10,99)
14. In T.V. transmission, the range of carrier
frequency is _____.
15. The process of fixing message of radio frequency (r.f) carrier waves is called _____.
16. The camera consisting of a cathode ray
beam and a photo cell is called _____.
17. T.V. set is also known as _____.
18. The _____ circuit separates images from
the r.f. carrier wave.
19. The combination of diodes and transistors
is called _____.
20. A group of IC s is called _____.
21. C.U. stands for _____.
22. ALU stands for _____.
23. CPU stands for _____.
24. The binary digit of 1 or 0 is called a _____.
25. A group of 8 bits is called a _____.(Mar-00)
26. Set of instructions is called a _____.
27. The language used by a computer is called
_____.
28. Machine language is dependent of _____.
29. _____ converts high level language into
machine language.
30. Set of programmes is called _____.
Multiple Choice
1. The energy gap is highest in the case of
A) Metal
B) Insulator
C) Semi conductor
D) Diode
2. The charge carriers in a semi conductor are
A) electrons
B) holes
C) electrons and holes
D) ions
3. The concentration of free electrons is more
in ( )
A) Copper
B) Silicon
C) Wood
D) Germanium
4. In a p-type semiconductor, majority carriers
are (Mar-09,02) ( )
A) Holes
B) Electrons
8
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CHEMISTRY
BIT BANK / IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
Shape of s- orbital is...
C) both electrons and holes
D) Negative ions
5. To make Silicon a p-type semiconductors,
the impurity to be doped is ( )
A) Arsenic
B) Aluminium
C) Phosphorous
D) Antimony
6. Important part of an Amplifier is ( )
A) Diode
B) p-type semi conductor
C) n-type semi conductor
D) Transistor
ANSWERS
Fill in the blanks
1) Energy gap or Forbidden gap; 2) Insulator;
3) Hole; 4) Doping; 5) Electrons; 6) Electrons
and Holes; 7) Junction; 8) Rectifier; 9)
Rectifier; 10) Emitter, Base, and Collector;
11) Emitter; 12) Amplifier; 13) 300K.Hz to 30
M.Hz.; 14) 30 M.Hz to 300 m. Hz.; 15)
Modulation; 16) Iconoscope; 17) Kinescoppe;
18) Local Oscillalator; 19) Intergrated Circuit
(IC); 20) Mictro Processor; 21) Control Unit;
22) Arithmetic Logical Unit; 23) Central
Processing Unit; 24) Bit; 25) Byte; 26)
Programme; 27) Machine Langua-ge; 28)
Hardware; 29) Compiler; 30) Software
Multiple Choice: 1) B; 2) C; 3) A; 4) A; 5) B;
6) D
ATOMIC STRUCTURE
1.
A:
2.
A:
3.
A:
4.
A:
5.
A:
Important Questions
1 Mark
Write the Planck's quantum equation? What
is its value? (March-10,07,05, )
Plank'sequation is E = hν Where
E = Energy of radiation
h = Plank's constant
ν = Frequency of radiation.
Value of Plank's constant is 6.625x 10-27erg.
sec (or) 6.625 x 10-34 Joule. sec.
What is a stationary orbit? (Oct-99, Mar-11)
The orbit in which the electron revolve
around the nucleus and the energy is constant is known as Stationary Orbit.
What is a nodal plane? (March-03)
The region in the space of an atom where
the probability of finding of electron is zero
is known as Nodal Plane.
Why an electron enters into 4s but not into
3d after filling up of 3p orbital?
According to Aufbau Principle, Electrons
occupy the orbital having lowest energy
first. The energy of orbital can be calculated in terms of (n + l) values.
(n + l) value of 4s is 4 + 0 = 4
(n + l) value of 3d is 3 + 2 = 5
As the (n + l) value of 4s is less than 3d,
electron entres into 4s but not into 3d after
filling up of 3p orbital.
State Aufbau principle? (Jun-08)
Aufbau Principle states that the electron
occupies the orbital having lowest energy.
6. State pauli's exclusion principle? (Jun-05)
A: According to Pauli's Exclusion principle, no
two electrons in an atom will have all four
quantum numbers same.
7. What are degenerate orbitals? (Jun-10)
A: Orbitals having same energy are known as
degenerate orbitals.
8. Define Atomic radius? (Mar-08, 03, Jun-08)
A: The distance between the nucleus and the
valency orbital of an atom is known as its
atomic radius or atomic size.
9. Write Hund's rule of maximum multiplicity? (Mar-06)
A: Hun's rule states that electron pairing takes
place only after all the available degenerate
orbitals are occupied by one electron each.
1.
A:
2.
A:
3.
A:
4.
A:
2 Marks
Define Electron affinity and Ionization
energy? (Jun-07)
Electron Affinity:
Electron affinity is defined as the energy
released when an electron is added to a neutral gaseous atom in its lowest energy state.
Ionization Energy:
Ionization Energy is defined as the minimum energy required to remove an electron
from the outermost orbital of an atom in
gaseous state.
Write the electronic configurations of Cu,
and Zn.? (Jun-00)
Electronic configuration of Cu (Z =29) is
1s22s22p63s2 3p64s13d10
Electronic configuration of Zn ( Z = 30) is
1s22s22p63s2 3p64s23d10
Write a short note on Principle quantum
number? (Mar-07)
Principle Quantum number
" Principle quantum number was proposed
by Neils bohr.
" It is denoted by n
" It has the values from 1,2,3,4,………..
" It gives the size and energy of the orbit.
" n = 1,2,3,4 ….are denoted by K, L, M, N...
Distinguish between Orbit and Orbital?
ORBIT
1. A definite path around the nucleus in
which the electron revolves.
2. It represents the movement of electron in
one plane
3. Orbits are designated by K, L, M, N, …..
ORBITAL
1. The region or space around the nucleus
where the probability of finding the electron
is maximum.
2. It represents the three dimensional space
around the nucleus.
3. Orbitals are designated by s,p,d,f,…….
4 Marks
1. What are the important features of
2.
3.
4.
5.
Rutherford's planetary model? Mention its
defects? (Mar-05)
State the postulates of Bohr's model of
atom? What are its defects?
Define ionization energy? What are the factors influencing it? (Jun-07, Mar-11, 08,04)
State and explain Aufbau principle with an
example? (Jun-10)
State and explain with one example the
Hund's rule of maximum multiplicity?
Fill in the Blanks
1. Rutherford proposed the model of atom
based on his _____experiment. (Mar-06)
2. Rutherford's model of atom is also known
as _____.
3. Quantum theory of radiation is proposed by
_____.
4. Quantum principle is _____.
5. In the formula E = hν 'h' is _____.
6. Value of Planck's constant is _____.
7. Bohr proposed a model of atom based on
_____.
8. In the formula mvr = nh /2Π 'n' is known as
_____.
9. Splitting of spectral lines in the presence of
magnetic field is known as _____.
10. Dual nature of electron was explained by
_____.
11. De broglie explained _____ based on the
dual nature of electron.
12. Wave equation of electron was proposed by
_____ (Jun-10)
13. Principle quantum number was proposed by
_____.
14. Azimuthal quantum number was proposed
by _____.
15. For a given value of n, the maximum value
of l is _____.
16. Magnetic quantum number was proposed
by _____.
17. For a given 'l' value, 'm' can have___values.
18. The boundaries of 'm' values for a given 'l'
value are _____.
19. Orbitals having same energy are called___.
20. The shell having least energy is _____.
21. Maximum value of l when n=5 is _____.
22. No. of sub shells present in L shell are ____.
23. Spin quantum number was proposed by___.
24. Spin of electrons takes the values as _____.
25. The region in space where there is finite probability of finding electron is called____.
26. Shape of s- orbital is _____ (Jun-00)
27. The n+l value of 3s orbital is _____.
28. Shape of P-orbital is _____.
29. Among 3s, 3p the orbital having least energy is _____.
30. The 'l' value of d-orbital is _____ (Mar-99)
31. The 'l' value of f-orbital is _____.
32. _____ principle states that no two electrons
will have all four quantum numbers same.
33. Electronic configuration of Cr(Z=24) is___.
34. The distance between nucleus and valency
orbital is known as _____ (Jun-07)
35. Units of atomic radius _____.
36. 1 A0 = _____cm.
37. Units of Ionization Energy are _____.
38. After filling the 3d orbital electron enters
into _____ orbital. (Mar-04)
39. Valence electronic configuration of Cu is__
40. [Ar] 4s2 is the configuration of _____.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
Multiple Choice
f - orbitals are present in ( )
A) K - Shell
B) M- Shell
C) N - Shell
D) L - Shell
Which of the following shell has the least
energy
()
A) L B) K
C) M
D) N
The No. of d - orbitals present in n = 3 are
A) 5 B) 4
C) 6
D) 2
The sub-shells present in L shell are ( )
A) s and d
B) s and p
C) s, p and d
D) s, p, d, and f.
The maximum value of l for n = 5 is ( )
A) 3 B) 5
C) 4
D) -5
Elliptical orbits are introduced by
A) Schrodinger B) Sommerfeld
C) Neils bohr D) Louis De Broglie
Which of the following gives the size and
energy of a stationary orbit? ( )
A) n B) l
C) m
D) s
ANSWERS
Fill in the blanks
1) α - ray scattering experiment; 2) Planetary
model; 3) Max planck; 4) E = hν; 5) Plank's
constant; 6) 6.625 x 10-27 erg sec or 6.625 x
10-34 joule.sec; 7) Quantum theory of radiaton;
8) Principle quantum number; 9) Zeema
effent; 10) Louis De Broglie; 11)
Quantizationof angular momentum; 12) Erwin
Schordinger; 13) Neils bohr; 14) Somerfield;
15) n - 1; 16) Lande; 17) (2l + 1); 18) -l to + l;
19) Degenerate orbitals; 20) K; 21) 4; 22) 2;
23) Uhlenbeck and Goudsmith; 24) +1/2 or 1/2; 25) Orbital; 26) spherical; 27) 3; 28)
Dumbell; 29) 3S; 30) 2; 31) 3; 32) Pauli's
exclusion; 33) 1s22s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d5(or)
[Ar] 4s1 3d5; 34) Atomic radius; 35) A0 36) 108 Cm; 37) e.v or K. Cal/mole or K. Joule/mole;
38) 4p; 39) 4s13d10.; 40) Ca
Multiple Choice:
1) C; 2) B; 3) A; 4) B; 5) C; 6) B; 7) A
CHEMICAL BOND
Important Questions
1 Mark
1. Write the names of two atoms having
pyramidal shape? (Mar-03, Jun-01)
A: The atoms having Pyramidal Shape are
NH3 and PCl3
9
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CHEMISTRY
BIT BANK / IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
Scandium was discovered by...
2 Marks
1. Mention the differences between σ and π
bonds?
A: σ Bond
1. Sigma bond is formed by end - on - end
overlapping
2. It is the strong bond
3. It can form independently
π Bond
1. π Bond is formed by side way overlapping
2. It is the weak bond
3. π Bond is not independent. It can form
only after σ Bond is formed.
2. What is the shape of PCl5? Draw it? (Mar07,05,03,01,00, Jun-00,03,07)
A: Phosphorous Penta Chloride (PCl5) has
Trigonal By Pyramidal Shape.
4 Marks
1. Discuss the types of overlaps that are possible with s and p orbitals? (Mar-11,06)
2. Explain the formation of double bond?
3. Explain the formation of Triple bond?
4. Explain the formation of Coordinate covalent bond? (Mar-05, Jun-10,01,02)
A) Octet configuration
B) Electronic configuration
C) Orbital configuration
D) Orbit Configuration
4. The molecule with V - shape is
A) PCl3 B) H2O C) PCl5 D) NH3
5. Which of the following overlapping consists the lowest strength ( )
A) s - s B) s - p C) p - p D) B & C
ANSWERS
Fill in the blanks
1) Ionic; 2) Covalent; 3) Hydrogen (H2); 4) F2,
Cl2, Br2, O2, etc.; 5) Hcl, Hbr, Hi, H2S, etc; 6)
Sigma Bond (σ); 7) Sigma (σ); 8) Sigma (σ);
9) H2, Hcl, Cl2, BF3, BeF2 etc.; 10) Pie bond
(π); 11) Sigma bond (σ); 12) Ethylene (C2H4),
CO2, O2, N2, etc.; 13) O2, Co2, C2H4 etc; 14)
V shape (Angular); 15) Pyramidal; 16) One;
17) Pyramidal; 18) Trigonal By Pyramidal;
19) Linear
Multiple Choice: 1) C; 2) B; 3) A; 4) B;5) D;
PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION
OF ELEMENTS
Fill in the Blanks
1. Complete transfer of one or more electrons
from one atom to another result in the formation of _____ bond.
2. Sharing of two electrons between two
atoms causes _____ bond.
3. The atom formed by s-s overlapping is___.
4. The atoms formed by p-p overlapping are
_____.
5. The atoms formed by s-p overlapping are
_____ (Jun-09,04)
6. The bond formed by end on overlapping is
_____.
7. Strongest bond is_____ bond.
8. _____bond can exist independently.
9. Examples for Sigma bond.(σ) are _____.
10. The bond formed by side on overlap is____.
11. Pie bond (π).is present only along with a__.
12. Example for Pie bond (π) is _____.
13. Example for double bonded atoms _____.
14. Shape of water molecule is _____ (Mar-02)
15. Shape of Ammonia (NH3) atom is _____.
16. In Ammonia atom, after bond formation
Nitrogen has _____ lone pair of electrons.
17. Shape of Pcl3 is _____.
18. Shape of Pcl5 is _____.
19. Shape of Co2 is _____.
1.
A:
2.
A:
3.
A:
4.
A:
1.
A:
2.
A:
Multiple Choice
1. Which of the following has coordinate
covalent bond ( )
A) HCl2 B) H3 C) H3O+ D) H2
2. Example of p - p overlapping is ( )
A) H2 B) Cl2 C) HCl D) HBr
3. Existing of 8 electrons in valency orbital is
known as ( )
Important Questions
1 Mark
State Mendeleef's periodic law?
The physical and chemical properties of the
elements are the periodic functions of their
atomic weights.
Define atomic radius?
Atomic radius is defined as the distance
between the centre of the nucleus and the
outermost orbital.
State modern periodic law?
The physical and chemical properties of the
elements are the periodic functions of their
atomic numbers.
Name the inert gases? (June-09)
The Inert gases are Helium (He), Neon(Ne),
Argon (Ar), Krypton (Kr), Xenon (Xn), and
Radan (Rn).
2 Marks
How does the atomic radius vary in a period and in a group? (Mar-11, 02,Oct-99)
Period: Atomic radius decreases from left to
right in a period.
Group: Atomic radius increases from top to
bottom in a group.
How does the Ionization energy vary in a
period and in a group? (Mar-03)
Period: In a period, Ionization Energy does
not follow any regular trend.
Group: In a group, Ionization Energy
decreases from top to bottom.
4 Marks
1. How does the following properties vary in a
period and a group?
a) Atomic radiusb) Oxidation
c) Reduction
d) Electro negativity
e) Electro positivity
f) Ionization energy?
2. What is Modern periodic law? Explain its
main features? (Mar-10,08, Jun-07,10)
Gradation of atomic properties
in groups and periods.
Property of atom
Period
(From top
to bottom)
Atomic radius
Decreases
Electro negativity Increases
Electro positivity
Decreases
Oxidation property Increases
Reduction property Decreases
Ionization Energy No proper
tendency
Group
(From top
to bottom)
Increases.
Decreases
Increases
Decreases.
Increases
Decreases.
Fill in the Blanks
1. The first classification of elements is
attempted by _____(Mar-07)
2. Example for Debonair triad _____ (Mar-01)
3. Mendeleef's periodic table is based on the
_____(Jun -01,02)
4. Gallium was named by _____.
5. Scandium was discovered by _____.
6. Modern periodic table is based on _____.
7. In the periodic table horizontal rows are
called _____.
8. In the periodic table vertical columns are
called _____.
9. In the long form periodic table there are
_____ periods and _____ groups.
10. The number of elements in the first period
is _____ (Jun-06)
11. _____ period is incomplete. (Jun-08)
12. Elements from atomic number 57 to 70 are
known as _____ (Mar-03)
13. Valence electronic configuration of inert
gas is _____.
14. The tendency of bonded atom to attract the
electron is defined as _____.
15. Electro negativity is measured in _____
scale. (Jun-01,05)
Multiple Choice
1. The Ionization Energy in a group _____
from top to bottom (Jun-00) ( )
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Do not follow any regular trend
D) None
2. _____Group elements are Oxidising elements in a periodic table (Jun-02) ( )
A) I B) II
C) VI
D) VII
3. Another name of d block elements is _____
A) Basic metals B)Representative elements
C) Transition Elements
D) Inner transition elements.
4. Units of Atomic Size ( )
A) Angstrom
B) K.J/Mole
C) K.Cal/Mole D) Electron Volt
5. Elements from Atomic number 89 to 102
are known as _____ ( )
A) Actinoids
B) Lanthonoids
C) Representative Elements D) Inert gases
ANSWERS
Fill in the blanks
1) Doberneir; 2) LI, Na, K; 3) Atomic Weight;
4) De Boisbaudran; 5) Nilson; 6) Atomic
number; 7) Periods; 8) Groups; 9) 7, 16; 10) 2;
11) 7th; 12) Lanthanoids; 13) ns2 np6; 14)
Electro negativity; Prepared By; 15) Linus
pauling E.N. Scale;
Multiple Choice: 1) B; 2) D; 3) C; 4) A; 5) A
ALKALINE EARTH METALS
1.
A:
1.
A:
1.
2.
1.
Important Questions
1 Mark
How many water molecules are present in
Epsom salt?
(Jun=06,04)
The formula of Epsom salt is MgSO4 7H2O.
It Consists of 7 water molecules.
2 Marks
Why do we add Kcl and Nacl to Mgcl2 during Mg extraction? ((Jun-01,05, Mar-01)
Addition of Kcl and Nacl to MgCl2 during
Mg extraction increases the conductivity of
the electrolyte and decreases the melting
point of the electrolyte.
4 Marks
Write the reactions of alkaline earth metals
with a) oxygen b) Hydrogen c) water and d)
chlorine ? (Mar-99, 03, Jun-08,04,01)
Describe a method of extraction of Mg from
its ore?
5 Marks
Draw a neat diagram showing the extraction
of Magnesium form its ore?
Fill in the Blanks
1. Group II A elements are known as _____.
2. Beryl [Be3 Al2 (Sio3)6] is the ore of _____.
3. No.of water molecules in Epsum salt are
_____.
4. Chemical formula for Epsum salt is _____.
5. Barite (BaSo4) is the ore of _____.
6. The metals present in Dolomite
(MgCo3CaCo3) are _____.
7. From Be to Ra the Ionization Energy_____.
8. From Be to Ra the Electro Negativity____.
9. The Alkaline earth metal which gives peroxides in addition to oxide when burnt in
excess of air is _____ (Mar-01,05,08)
10. The oxides of alkaline earth metals are
_____ in nature.
11. All alkaline earth metals except Be, react
with H2 to form _____.
12. The reagent used to prepare BeH2 from
Becl2 is _____(Jun-06)
13. All alkaline earth metals react with chlorine
10
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CHEMISTRY
BIT BANK / IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
Naphthalene is soluble in...
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
to form _____.
All alkaline earth halides are___except Be.
While extracting Mg form Mgcl2 _____ are
added.
Addition of Kcl and Nacl during electrolytic extraction of Mg will lower the _____
and increases the _____.
The cathode in the electrolyses of Mgcl2 is
_____ (Mar-07, Jun-00,04)
The Anode in the electrolyses of Mgcl2 is
_____.
During electrolytic extraction of Mg _____
gas is liberated.
During electrolytic extraction of Mg _____
gas is passed over floating Mg, to prevent
oxidation.
Multiple Choice
Dolamite is a mineral of _____ (Mar-99) ( )
A) Ca B) Mg C) A & B D) Ba
Which of the following is an ore of Mg. ( )
A) Baryte
B) Beryl
C) Carnalite
D) Hematite
The alkaline earth metal is_____ (Jun - 03)
A) Lithium
B) Hydrogen
C) Sodium
D) Radium
CaO is _____ (Mar-09,04,00) ( )
A) Acidic
B) Basic
C) Neutral
D) Amphoteric
The chemical formula of Magnacite is ___()
B) Mgco3
A) Mg So47H2o
C) Caco3 Mgco3
D) Mgcl2Kcl 6H20
Which of the following property increases
from Be to Ra ( )
A) E.N B) I.E C) Atomic Size D) None
Lightest metal among the following ( )
A) Mg B) Ca C) Sr D) Be
ANSWERS
Fill in the blanks
1) Alkaline Earth Metals; 2) Beryllium; 3) 7;
4) MgSo4 7H2O; 5) Barium; 6) Magnesium
and Calcium; 7) Decreases; 8) Decreases; 9)
Barium; 10) Basic; 11) Hydrides; 12) LiAlH4;
13) Chlorides; 14) Ionic; 15) Kcl and Nacl;
16) Melting point , Conductivity; 17) Iron pot;
18) Graphite Rod; 19) Chlorine; 20) Coal;
Multiple Choice: 1) C; 2) C; 3) D; 4) B; 5) B;
6) C; 7) D
SOLUTIONS
1.
A:
2.
A:
Important Questions
1 Mark
Define Solubility?
Solubility is defined as the maximum
amount of solute by weight in grams dissolved in 100 gm of solvent at constant temperature.
Define molarity?
The number of moles of solute present in
one litre of solution is called "Molarity".
Molarity =
no.of moles of solute
volume of thesolution in litres
2 Marks
1. 2 Moles of Sodium carbonate is dissolved
in 3 moles of water. Calculate the mole
fractions of water and Sodium carbonate?
No. of moles of Sodium Carbonate = 2
No. of moles of water = 3
total no. of Moles = 2+3=5
Mole fractrion of Sodium Carbonate=
No.of moles of Sodium Carbonate
Total n o.of moles
=
2
5
= 0.4
Mole fraction of Water = 1-0.4 =0.6
2. 20 ml of Alcohol is dissolved in 160 ml of
water. What is the volume percentage of the
solution? (Mar-07)
Volume of Alcohol = 20ml
Volume of Water = 160ml
Volume of solution = 20+160= 180ml
Volume Precentage =
Volume of Solute
x100
Volume of Solution
Volume Precentage =
20
x100
180
= 11.11%
3. Calcualte the amount of oxalic acid present
in 500ml of 0.2M solution? (Mol. Wt. of
Oxalic Acid is 126) (Jun-07)
A: Volume of Solution =500ml = 0.5l
Molarity M = 0.2M
Mol. Wt of Solute = 126
Weight of Solute = ?
Weight of solute
1
Molarity =
x
gm.mol.wt of solute v
1
0.5
x = 0.2x126x0.5
x
0.2 = 126
x
= 1.26gm
4. Calculate the number of moles of NaOH
present in 750 ml of 0.4M solution.
A: Volume of Solution = 750ml. = 0.75l
Molarity M = 0.4M
No. of moles of Solute = ?
no.of moles of solute
Molarity =
Volume of solution in litres
x
0.4 =
0.75
= x = 0.4x0.75
= 3.0
5. 15ml of Hexane is mixed with 45 ml of
Heptane. Calculate the V% of this solution.
A: Volume of Solute (Hexane) = 15ml
Volume of Solvent (Heptane) = 45ml
Volume of Solution = 15 + 45 = 60ml
Volume Percentage=
Volume of solute
x100
Volume of Solution
= 25
4 Marks
1. Define Molarity? 2.12 gms of Na2CO3 is
present in 250 ml of its aqueous solution.
Calculate the molarity of the solution?
(Molecular weight of Na2CO3 is 106)
2. How do you prepare 0.1M standard
Na2CO3 solution? (Jun-04, Mar-01)
ACIDS BASES AND SALTS
1.
A:
2.
A:
Fill in the Blanks
1. In a solution the component which is taken
in relatively less quantity is called _____.
2. In a solution, the component which is taken
in relatively large quantity is called _____.
3. Solubility depends on _____.
4. Common name of sodium thiosulphate is__
5. Chemical name of Hypo is _____.
6. Naphthalene is soluble in _____ (Mar-10)
7. Water is a _____ compound.
8. On increasing the temperature, the solubility of Nacl remains _____ (June-99)
9. On increasing the temperature, the solubility of NaNo3 (Sodium Nitrate) _____.
10. The solution of Co2 in water is called ____.
11. Solutions which ionize completely (100%)
are known as _____.
12. Solutions which ionize incompletely
(<100%) are known as _____.
13. The solution whose concentration is known
is called _____.
14. Standard solution is prepared in _____.
15. Nacl is _____ electrolyte.
Multiple Choice
1. 10 gm of Na2CO3 is dissolved in 190 gm of
water. Its weight percentage is ( )
A) 20 B) 10 C) 5 D) 2.5
2. 4ml of Alcohol is dissolved in 36ml of water. The Volume Percentage of the solution is
A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40
3. Molecular weight of Na2CO3 (Mar-08) ( )
A) 106 B)126 C) 120 D) 130
4. The Solvent in acqueous solutions is ___( )
A) Water
B) Alcohol
C) Mercury
D) Naphthalene
5. Solubility decreases with increase of temperature in case of ( )
A) NaCl
B) Ce2(SO4)3
C) KNO3
D) NH4Cl
ANSWERS
Fill in the blanks
1) Solute; 2) Solvent; 3) Nature of Solute,
Nature of Solvent, and Temperature; 4) Hype;
5) Sodium Thio Sulphate (Na2 S2 O3); 6)
Kerosene; 7) Polar; 8) Same; 9) Increses; 10)
Soda; 11) Strong Electrolytes; 12) Weak electrolytes; 13) Standard Solution; 14) Standard
Flask; 15) Strong
Multiple Choice:
1) C; 2) A; 3) A; 4) A; 5) B
3.
A:
4.
A:
5.
A:
6.
A:
Important Questions
1 Mark
Define PH? (Mar-99,05, Jun-01,05,09)
PH is defined as the negative logarithm of
[H+] concentration.
PH = -log[H+]
What is the ionic product of water?
The product of concentrations of [H+] and
[OH-] in one mole of water is known as
Ionic product of water. Kw = [H+] x [OH-]
Define heat of neutralization? (Mar-09,08)
The heat liberated when one mole of H+
combines with one mole of OH- ions is
called heat of neutralization.
Calculate the PH of 0.001M Hcl?
Concentration of HCl = 0.001M
Concentration of H+ = 10-3
PH = -log[H+] = - log [10-3]
=3
What is an Arrhenius acid? (Mar-06)
According to Arrhenius, acid is a substance
which gives H+ in its acqueous solution.
Ex: HCl → H+ + ClArrange the following acids in the increasing order or their volatility?
HCl, H2SO4, and CH3COOH
H2SO4 < HCl < CH3COOH
2 Marks
1. What is Ionic product of Water? What is its
value at 250C?
A: The product of concentrations of [H+] and
[OH-] in one mole of water is known as
Ionic product of water.
Kw = [H+] x [OH-]
The value of Kw at 250C is 1.0.x 10-14 mole
. Ion2 / Lit2
4 Marks
1. State Arrhenius theory of Acids and Bases?
What are its limitations?
Fill in the Blanks
1. Blue litmus changes into red colour in the
presence of _____.
2. Acid changes the colour of the methyl
orange indicator into _____.
3. Red litmus changes into blue colour in the
presence of _____.
4. Base changes the colour of the methyl
orange indicator into _____ (Jun-00)
5. At 250C, Kw = _____ (Mar-09, Jun-05)
6. The term pH is introduced by _____.
7. The negative logarithm of H+ ion concentration is defined as the _____.
8. pH = _____.
9. If pH < 7, then the solution is_____.
10. If pH > 7, then the solution is _____.
11. If pH = 7, then the solution is _____.
12. The pH of 0.001M Hcl solution is _____.
13. The concentration of H+ ions in a solution
whose pH = 10 is _____(Mar-04, Jun-02)
14. The Kw is _____dependent.
15. The heat evolved when a strong acid reacts
11
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CHEMISTRY
BIT BANK / IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
Number of carbon atoms in Hectose are...
with a strong base is equal to _____.
NaOH + Hcl → Nacl + H2O + _____.
The body fluid whose pH > 7 is _____.
Weak acids ionize upto _____ (Mar-10)
The colour of phenophthalene indicator in
basic solution is _____ (Mar-01,00)
20. The pH of gastric juice is _____.
16.
17.
18.
19.
Multiple Choice
1. If the PH of a solution is 8, then its [H+]
concentration is (Mar-03) ( )
A) 10-10 B) 1010 C) 10-8 D) 108
2. PH of pure water is (Jun-03) ( )
A) 0 B) 5.5 C) 2 D) 7
3. ____is formed when SO2 dissolved in water
B) H2SO4
A) H2SO3
C) H2SO5
D) HNO3
4. If a non metallic oxide is added to water,
then the PH of the solution is ( )
A) 7 B) < 7
C) > 7
D) 14
5. Which of the following is a strong base ( )
B) Mg(OH)2
A) NH4OH
C) Ca(OH)2
D) KOH
ANSWERS
Fill in the blanks
1) Acid; 2) Red; 3) Base; 4) Yellow; 5) 1.0 x
10-14 Mole ion2 / Litre2; 6) Sorenson; 7) PH;
8) - log [H+}; 9) Acid; 10) Base; 11) Neutral;
12) 3; 13) 10-10; 14) Temperature; 15) 13.7 K.
cal/mole; 16) 13.7 K.Cal/mole; 17) Blood; 18)
<100%; 19) Pink; 20) 1 to 2
Multiple Choice: 1) C; 2) D; 3) A; 4) B; 5) D
1.
A:
2.
A:
3.
A:
4.
A:
1.
A:
CHEMISTRY OF CARBON
COMPOUNDS
Important Questions
1 Mark
What is Allotropy? (Jun-03,00)
The occurrence of same element in two or
more different forms is known as allotropy.
Define catenation? (Mar-03, Jun-00)
Catenation is the phenomenon in which
atoms of same element join together to form
long chains, branched chains and rings.
What is polymerization? (Jun-06, Mar-04)
Formation of a long chain by combining a
very large number of small atoms together
is known as polymerization. The substances
so formed are known as Polymers.
What are the uses of Acetylene?
a) Acetylene is used in welding
b) Acetylene is used for artificial ripening
of fruits.
2 Marks
Differentiate between Alkanes and
Alkenes? (Mar-03)
Alkanes
1. Alkanes are saturated Hydrocarbons
2. Their General Formula is CnH2n+2
3. They undergo substitution reactions
4. They are also known as paraffins
Alkenes
1. Alkenes are unsaturated Hydro carbons
2. Their General Formula is CnH2n
3. They undergo addition reactions
4. They are also known as Oleifins
2. Mention the uses of CO2?
A: a) Carbon Dioxide is used in preparation of
Soda water and cooldrinks etc..
b) It is used in the manufacturing of washing soda
c) It is used as fire extinguisher.
4 Marks
1. Compare the structures of diamond and
graphite? (Jun-09,03)
6. The process in which coal is heated without
contact to air is called ( )
A) Defecation B) Sulphitation
C) Distillation D) Carbonization
7. The type of coal which gives large amount
of heat is _____ ( )
A) Coke
B) Anthracite
C) Bituminous D) Lignite
8. C4H6 exists in _____ state ( )
A) Gas B) Solid C) Liquid D) Plasma
9. On hydrolysis of calcium carbide, _____
gas is formed ( )
A) Methane
B) Acetylene
C) Ethane
D) Oxygen.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
1.
ANSWERS
Fill in the Blanks
1. The density of Diamond is _____.
2. _____ is used as glass cutter.
3. In diamond carbon atoms are in _____
arrangement.
4. The C-C bond length in diamond is _____
5. The density of graphite is _____.
6. In graphite the C-C bond length is _____
7. In graphite the C-C bond angle is _____.
8. Two successive graphite layers are separated by _____.
9. C60 is a _____ like structure.
10. In C60 the average bond length is _____.
11. Solid carbon dioxide is called _____ .
12. Example of aromatic hydrocarbon is _____.
13. Saturated hydrocarbons are also known as
_____.
14. General formula of alkanes is _____.
15. Alkanes undergo _____ reactions.
16. L.P.G consists of _____ (Mar-05)
17. The general formula of alkenes is _____.
18. Alkenes are also known as _____.
19. Alkenes undergo _____reactions. (Mar-07)
20. Ethylene mixed with air is used as _____.
21. The general formula of alkynes is _____.
22. Common name of ethyne is _____.
23. _____is used for artificial ripening of fruits.
24. The presence of alcoholic functional group
is tested by addition of _____ metal.
25. -COOR is called _____.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Multiple Choice
C8H18 is _____ (Apr-08, Jun-04) ( )
A) Hexane
B) Octane
C) Methane
D) Propane
Example of COOR functional group is ___
B) C3N7NH2
A) CH3COOC2H5
C) CH3CHO
D) CH3COOH
Ketone functional group is represented by()
A) -OH B) -CHO C) - O - D) >C = O
The functional group -NH2 is known as ___
A) Acid B) Amine C) Ether D) Alcohol
CO2 gas is cooled to form dry ice by sudden
expansion. This is called ( )
A) Einstein effect
B) Rutherford effect
C) Joule-Thomson effect D) Bohr effect
Fill in the blanks
1) 3.51 gm/cc; 2) Diamond; 3) Tetrahedral; 4)
1.54A0; 5) 2.25gm/cc; 6) 1.42A0; 7) 1200; 8)
3.35A0; 9) Foot ball; 10) 1.4A0; 11) Dry ice;
12) Benzene; 13) Paraffins; 14) CnH2n + 2; 15)
Substitutiion; 16) Butane (C4H10); 17) CnH2n;
18) Olefins; 19) Addition; 20) Anaesthetic;
21) CnH2n - 2; 22) Acetylene; 23) Acetylene;
24) Sodium; 25) Ester group
Multiple Choice: 1) B; 2) A; 3) D; 4) B; 5) C;
6) D; 7) B; 8) C; 9) B
2.
Fill in the Blanks
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
CARBOHYDRATES AND PROTEINS
1.
A:
2.
A:
3.
A:
4.
A:
5.
A:
Important Questions
1 Mark
Define calorific value?
The amount of energy made available consumption of 1 gram of a substance is called
its calorific value.
What is defecation?
The process of adding lime, to sugar cane
juice in order to precipitate the impurities
and to neutralize the juice is called defecation.
What is Sulphitation? (Jun-03)
The process of adding SO2 to the sugarcane juice solution to remove any traces of
lime is called sulphitation.
What is rectified spirit?
The product containing 96% alcohol and
4% water is commercially called rectified
spirit.
What is bagasse? How is it useful?
The spent cane is called bagasse. It is used
as fuel in the production of electricity and in
the manufacture of paper.
2 Marks
1. What are the functions of proteins? (Jun-09)
A: a) Proteins serve as the chief structural
material of animal tissues.
b) Some proteins function as enzymes and
they catalyze biological reactions.
c) They regulate metabolic processes.
d) Some proteins act as anti-bodies. They
protect the body from disease causing
germs.
4 Marks
How are carbohydrates classified based on
their behaviour towards hydrolysis?
Explain with examples?
How is Tollen's reagent prepared? How is
glucose tested with it? (Mar-09)
How is Benedict's reagent prepared? How
is glucose tested with it?
Explain the various steps involved in manufacturing of sugar from sugar cane?
How is alcohol manufactured industrially?
5 Marks
Draw the diagram showing the parts of
sugar industry?
Draw a chart showing alcohol manufacture? (Mar-08,05,03,Jun-10,08,05,01,00)
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
Sweetest sugar is ____ (Mar-09,04,Apr-08)
Example for polysaccerides is_____.
Number of carbon atoms in Hectose are __.
In Tollen's test, Glucose reduces _____
Defacation is addition of _____.
The sugar content of molasses is _____.
The main by-product in sugar industry is__.
The chief use of ethyl alcohol is as _____.
_____ is added to get absolute alcohol from
rectified spirit.
Consumption of denatured spirit causes___.
Calorific value of Glucose is _____.
Plants prepare carbohydrates by the process
known as _____.
The dirty grey precipitate formed during the
preparation of Tollen's reagent is _____.
The spent cane is called _____.
_____ are used to separate the crystals of
sugar and liquid juices. (Jun-01)
_____is the micro organism used for fermentation of molasses.
Sucrose is broken down into _____ during
fermentation.
Sucrose is broken down into Glucose and
fructose during fermentation by the enzyme
_____ (Jun-00,07,Mar-07)
_____enzyme breaks Glucose. (Jun-00)
_____ is the by-product of alcohol industry.
Co-NH bond is called _____.
96% alcohol is commercially called _____.
_____ is added to denatured spirit.
The result of Tollen's test is _____.
In Benedict's test, glucose reduces _____.
The result of Benedict's test is _____.
In sulphitation _____ is added to the juice.
The purified sugarcane juice is called____.
Multiple Choice
1. Which of the following is polysaccharide
A) Glucose
B) Fructose
C) Sucrose
D) Starch
2. Which of the following is the sweetest
12
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BIT BANK / IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
CHEMISTRY
Chemical composition of talc is...
ANSWERS
Fill in the blanks
1) Fructose; 2) Starch and Cellulose; 3) 6; 4)
Ag+ ion into Ag metal; 5) Ca(OH)2; 6) 50%;
7) Molases; 8) Solvent; 9) CaO; 10)
Blindness; 11) 3.81 K.Cal/gm or 686
K.Cal/mole; 12) Photosynthesis; 13) AgOH;
14) Bagasse; 15) Centrifuge Machine; 16)
Yeast; 17) Glucose and Fructose; 18)
Invertase; 19) Zymase; 20) CO2; 21) Peptide
Bond; 22) Rectified Spirit; 23) Pyridine; 24)
Silver mirror on the walls of the test tube; 25)
Cu+ ion to Cu2O; 26) Formation of red precipitate; 27) So2; 28) Clarified juice
Multiple Choice: 1) D; 2) C; 3) C; 4) D; 5) B
1.
A:
2.
A:
3.
A:
1.
A:
1.
2.
OILS AND FATS
Important Questions
1 Mark
What is the hydrogenation of oils?
When Hydrogen gas is passed through oils
in the presence of Nickel catalyst fats are
formed.
This
process
is
called
Hydrogenation of oils.
What is saponification? (Jun-05, Mar-02)
Saponification is the process of obtaining
soap from oils or fats by hydrolysis in the
presence of a base.
(C17H33COONa)3 + 3NaOH →
3 C17H33COONa+CH2OH-CHOH-CH2OH
(Soap)
(Glycerol)
What is a soap? (Mar-07)
Soap is defined as Sodium (or) Potassium
salt of fatty acids of long carbon chains.
Soap can be obtained from oils or fats by
hydrolysis in the presence of a base.
2 Marks
What are the industrial uses of oils?
Oils are used in the preparation of
a) Soaps,paints, varnishes and fatty acids,
b) Fatty alcohols, detergents and protective
coatings,
c) leather, jute and in plastic industries.
4 Marks
How do you test the quality of a soap?
What are detergents? Explain the steps
involved in manufacture of detergent?
3. What are the differences in the manufacturing of soap and detergent? (Mar-08)
Fill in the Blanks
1. The chief sources of oils are _____.
2. The cation of soap useful for dry cleaning is
_____.
3. Shaving soap contains excess of _____.
4. The catalyst used in the hydrogenation of
oils is _____ (Mar-99, 04, Jun-05,02)
5. The chemical formula of soap is _____.
6. Deodorant soap contains _____.
7. The formula of stearic acid is _____.
8. Hydrolysis of oils and fats in the presence
of a base is called _____(Mar-01)
9. Sodium salt of ABS or FAS + builders =
_____.
10. Saturated fatty acids have high _____.
11. _____ removes the Ca2+ ions present in
hard water.
12. Detergents are useful even in hard water
because _____ (Jun-02, 04)
Multiple Choice
1. The formula of linolenic acid is (Jun - 00)()
B) C17H33COOH
A) C17H29COOH
D) C17H35COOH
C) C11H23COOH
2. The by product in saponification is ( )
A) Detergents B) Glycerol
C) Soap
D) None
3. The process of manufacturing of soap is
known as ( )
A) Hydrogenation
B) Polymerization
C) Saponification
D) Esterification
4. Source of stearic acid ( )
A) Whale
B) Coconut oil
C) Butter
D) Soyabean
5. Which of the following gives foam with
hard water ( )
A) Soaps
B) Detergents
C) Petrol
D) None
ANSWERS
Fill in the blanks
1) Animals and Plants; 2) Tri ethanol ammonium; 3) Stearic acid; 4) Ni; 5) C17H33COONa.;
6) 3,4,5 Tribromo salicylanilide; 7) C17H35
COOH; 8) Hydrogenation of oils; 9) Soap; 10)
Melting point; 11) Na3 PO4; 12) They react
with hard water but do not form precipitate;
Multiple Choice:
1) A; 2) B; 3) C; 4) C; 5) D
CHEMISTRY AND INDUSTRY
Important Questions
1 Mark
1. What is the use of adding cullet to the raw
materials of glass? (Mar-11,09,08,Jun-07)
A: Cullet helps in lowering the melting point
of raw materials.
2. What are primary nutrients? (Mar-10,06)
A: Nitrogen, Phosphorous, and Potassium are
the primary nutrients.
3. What is the use of Micronutrients?
A: B, Cu, Fe, Mn, are called micro nutrients.
Micro nutrients are added as their deficiencies lead to unhealthy growth of plants.
4. What is annealing? (Mar-07,Jun-05)
A: The process of slow and homogeneous
cooling of hot glass apparatus is called
annealing.
5. What is cracking?
A: Cracking is decomposition of larger hydrocarbon molecule into simple hydrocarbons
at high temperature and pressure.
2 Marks
1. What are the characteristics of a good quality face powder? (Jun-08, Mar-08)
A: The characteristics of a good quality face
powder are
a) Opacity
b) Slipness c) Adherence
d) Absorbency e) Fineness
2. Write a short note on pottery? (Mar-07)
A: Pottery: Pottery or Terracota are products
of porous nature such as pots, jugs, etc.
These are made from common clays. These
are not glazed. These are heated to 11000C
after drying. These are not very strong.
3. Write a short note on earthenware?(Mar-11)
A: Earthenware: Earthenware are glazed articles such as porcelain, wall tails, crucibles
and dishes. These are made formred clays,
grey clays etc. These are heated to 14500 18000C . So, these are harder than simple
pottery. These articles are dipped in the
slurry made from quartz, felspa, a little
borax and a little lead oxide and fired at
high temperature t get the glaze.
4 Marks
1. What is a drug? What are the qualities of an
ideal drug? (Mar-03, Jun-06)
2. What is a drug? How are they classified as
per therapeutic action? (Mar-00,04)
3. Describe manufacture of cement? (Mar-10)
5 Marks
1. Draw a neat diagram of fractionation of
petroleum and label its parts? (Mar-09)
2. Sketch the cement manufacture plant?
Fill in the Blanks
1. The raw materials required for cement manufacture are _____.
2. Gray hard balls of cement are called _____.
3. Glass may be considered as _____.
4. Raw materials used for glass manufacture
are _____. (Mar-99)
5. The mixture of raw materials in the glass
manufacture is called _____.
6. Broken glass pieces are called _____.
7. Cullet helps in _____of raw materials.
8. Slow cooling of glass is called _____.
9. Glass blowing is possible with _____ glass.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
Simple pottery(Terra-cota)articles are ____.
Earthen ware is _____ pottery.
Cold creams are _____ of oil and water.
Chemical composition of talc is _____.
First synthetic dye was prepared by_____.
Examples of chromophore _____.
Chemicals obtained from petrol are _____.
_____ are natural nutrients
Example of mixed fertilizer _____.
Examples of micro nutrients _____.
Polymeric organic substance is commonly
known as _____ (Mar-08)
Multiple Choice
1. Drugs which act on blood circulation are__
A) Cardiovasuclar
B) Harmones
C) Chemotherapeutic
D) Vitamins
2. Cement is a mixture of _____.
A) Calcium Silicates
B) Calcium Aluminates
C) A & B
D) A, B & Sodium
3. _____ gives red colour to glass (Mar-11) ( )
A) CuSO4 B) Cu2O C) MnO2 D) Cr2O3
4. Addition polymerization of Venyl Chloride
gives ( )
A) Nylon66
B) Polythene
C) PVC
D) Dacron
5. Chemicals derived from the fractions of
petroleum are ( )
A) Resins
B) Drugs
C) Polyesters D) Petrochemicals
6. Example of Oxochrome (Mar-08) ( )
B) -SO3H
A) -NO2
C) -NO
D) C=S
7. Which of the following is an artificial resin
A) Rosine
B) Decron
C) Lac
D) Cellulose acetate
8. Blue dye is obtained from ( )
A) Mader
B) Snails
C) Indigo plant D) All
ANSWERS
Fill in the blanks
1) Lime stone, clay; 2) Clinker cement; 3)
Frozen liquid or super cooled liquid; 4) Soda
ash (Na2CO3), Lime Stone (CaCO3), and Sand
(4Sio2); 5) Batch; 6) Cullet; 7) Lowering of
melting point; 8) Annealing; 9) Pyrex or
Borosilicate; 10) Porous; 11) Glazed; 12)
Emulsions; 13) Magensium silicate; 14)
W.H.Perkin; 15) -NO2, -NO, -N=N-, C=O,
C=S.; 16) Petrochemicals; 17) Carbon, H2 and
O2; 18) Nitrophosk; 19) B, Cu, Mn, Zn, Fe;
20) Resins
Multiple Choice: 1) A; 2) C; 3) B; 4) C; 5) D;
6) B; 7) B; 8) C
10th Physical Sciences Special
Fo
r
sugar (Apr-08, Mar-09,04) ( )
A) Sucrose
B) Glucose
C) Fructose
D) Maltose
3. Which of the following is not a by-product
of sugar industry ( )
A) Bagasse
B) Press mud
C) Sugar
D) Molasses
4. Benedict's reagent consists (Mar-02) ( )
A) Silver Nitrate
B) Copper Carbonate
C) Copper Oxide
D) Coper Sulphate
5. The precipitates formed by defecation, carbonation, and sulphitation is called ( )
A) Bagasse
B) Press mud
C) Clarified Juice
D) Molasses.
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