Federalism #4
1) In the eyes of most Americans today, the power of the federal government, compared with that
of state governments, seems
a) Weak or unimportant.
b) Equally shared.
c) Vastly powerful.
d) Weak on foreign matters, strong on domestic matters.
2) Federalism involves two levels of government, both of which are
a) Sovereign.
b) Democratic.
c) Representative.
d) Bicameral.
3) The concept of separate, sovereign national and state governments is known as
a) Nationalism.
b) Democracy.
c) Confederation.
d) Federalism.
4) Which of the following countries does not have a federal system of government?
a) The United States
b) Great Britain
c) Canada
d) Germany
5) Which of the following countries has a federal system of government?
a) France
b) India
c) Italy
d) Sweden
6) Which of the following allows national governments the right to alter or even abolish local
government?
a) A constitutional government
b) Federalism
c) A unitary system
d) Socialism
7) Which of the following countries does not have a unitary system of government?
a) France
b) India
c) Italy
d) Sweden
8) Ukraine, formerly one of the Soviet republics, had its own local unit of government, yet the
Soviet Union was not considered a federal system. This is because, in the former Soviet Union,
a)
b)
c)
d)
Local governments were not independent of the central government.
Local government officials were not elected democratically.
The central government did not have a constitution.
Central government officials were appointed by local governments.
9) One of the things that has kept our local governments independent of the national government
is
a) Article X of the U.S. Constitution.
b) The power of free elections.
c) The commitment of Americans to the ideal of local government.
d) The fact that the local tax structure requires local administration.
10) At a time when other Western nations were debating whether government ought to provide
pensions or regulate business, the question in the United States was
a) How government could reduce its social commitments.
b) Whether state or local government was better equipped for such tasks.
c) Whether the national government had the right to do these things.
d) What tradeoffs would have to be made.
11) In the United States, programs such as the interstate highway system and services to the
unemployed are most accurately considered
a) State functions that operate without any involvement on the part of the federal
government.
b) Federal functions, although state governments pay some of the costs.
c) State functions, although the federal government seeks to regulate them.
d) Federal functions that operate without any involvement on the part of state governments.
12) Which of the following systems of government would be most likely to appeal to those in the
United States who wish to implement liberal policies in the nation but who encounter resistance
from conservative state legislatures?
a) Confederal
b) Federal
c) Republican
d) Unitary
13) An interest group with a strong following in only one region of the country would have the best
chance to achieve its goals under what type of system?
a) Democratic
b) Republican
c) Federal
d) Unitary
14) A unitary form of government is most likely to appear preferable in the view of
a) Liberal U.S. senators facing conservative state legislatures.
b) Governors wishing for more control over their states’ budgets.
c) Mayors seeking funding for urban problems.
d) Taxpayers seeking relief from federal income taxes.
15) A federal system of government would probably appeal most to an interest group with
a) Most of its support concentrated in one region.
b) Majority support throughout the country.
c) Minority support throughout the country.
d) No support anywhere to speak of.
16) Under a unitary system of government, which of the following political outcomes would be
highly unlikely?
a) A group of farmers staging a massive demonstration by parking their trucks at the capitol
b) Terrorists holding a city hostage with the threat of a nuclear detonation
c) Southern senators blocking the passage of civil rights legislation
d) The national government sending troops into a region of the country that is threatening to
secede
17) One important feature of a federal system such as that in the United States is the fact that
a) In matter of national concern – for example, military spending – state and local
governments will make governing difficult.
b) The cost of organized political activity will be higher than in a unitary system.
c) Most local programs such as welfare and taxation will be funded and regulated at the
national level.
d) Different political groups pursuing different political purposes will come to power in
different places.
18) The cost of political participation to the average U.S. citizen is less than that to the average
French citizen because, in the United States,
a) More small, political constituencies are found than in France.
b) The media give greater coverage to political protest than in France.
c) Fewer citizens become involved in political causes than in France.
d) Political participation is both protected and encouraged by the U.S. Constitution.
19) The text argues that political activism at the local level has been increased as a result of
a) Vibrant political parties.
b) Lower costs of participation under federalism.
c) Higher costs of participation under federalism.
d) The influence of mass media.
20) Perhaps the most obvious effect of federalism in the United States has been to
a) Centralize the government.
b) Prevent states from blocking national interests.
c) Mobilize political activity.
d) Raise the cost of organized political activity.
21) For the Founders, federalism was a device to
a) Protect liberty.
b) Provide efficient local administration.
c) Encourage citizen participation.
d) Guarantee equality.
22) The Framers of the U.S. Constitution believed that federalism would protect liberty because
a) A federal government would be less of a threat to liberty.
b) Liberty would be kept within limits in a federal system.
c) Only a free people could operate a federal system.
d) It included separation of powers as its basic tenet.
23) The government in the South during the Civil War was called a confederacy. A true confederacy
differs from the federalist system of the United States in that it
a) Grants more sovereignty to the individual states.
b) Permits state governments to do only what the central government allows.
c) Is legally and politically independent of any other government.
d) Gives local units of government a specially protected existence.
24) Which of the following statements about the federal system adopted at the Constitutional
Convention is most accurate?
a) It had been tried without success in other countries.
b) It was adopted as an alternative to a confederate system, in which local governments are
granted a specially protected existence.
c) It granted supreme authority to neither national nor state government.
d) It specifically reserved powers not delegated to the United States by the U.S. Constitution to
the states.
25) The Founders did not include in the U.S. Constitution an explicit statement of state powers but
added it later in the
a) Second Amendment.
b) Seventh Amendment.
c) Tenth Amendment.
d) Fourteenth Amendment.
26) The reason a specific statement to state powers was not part of the original U.S. Constitution
was that
a) No such consensus existed at the Constitutional Convention.
b) It was deleted under the Virginia Plan.
c) It was assumed to be obvious.
d) The U.S. Constitution would not have been ratified.
27) Just what sort of commerce Congress could regulate between the states was not spelled out in
the U.S. Constitution because
a) No consensus existed.
b) Of an oversight.
c) Commerce was a new phenomenon.
d) Slavery was involved.
28) Of all the Founders, Alexander Hamilton was the most consistent supporter of
a) States’ rights.
b) Enlarging the electorate.
c) A bill of rights.
d) A strong federal government.
29) Among the Founders, the most prominent and consistent defender of the power of the federal
government was
a) Thomas Jefferson.
b) Alexander Hamilton.
c) James Madison.
d) George Washington.
30) Today’s federalist system in the United States, in which the power of the central government is
stronger than ever before, would be most likely to please
a) Thomas Jefferson.
b) James Madison.
c) Alexander Hamilton.
d) Patrick Henry.
31) If Alexander Hamilton were to participate in today’s debate about decentralizing responsibilities
from the federal to the state governments, he would probably be
a) Opposed.
b) Undecided.
c) In favor.
d) Uncomprehending.
32) Applying the principles of Thomas Jefferson to current political issues would probably dispose
one to
a) Favor the decentralization of government power.
b) Oppose the decentralization of government power.
c) Favor seven-year terms for presidents.
d) Oppose seven-year terms for presidents.
33) The Civil War settled one part of the issue of national supremacy versus states’ rights, namely,
that
a) State governments are supreme over the national government.
b) The national government derives its sovereignty from the states.
c) The national government derives its sovereignty from the people.
d) The national government derives its sovereignty from both the people and the states.
34) John Marshall was the first chief justice to greatly enlarge the powers of the
a) States.
b) National government.
c) Congress.
d) President.
35) The early chief justice whose decisions generally gave the broadest possible sweep to federal
powers was
a) Roger Taney.
b) Frederick Vinson.
c) John Marshall.
d) Alexander Hamilton.
36) In his interpretation of national and state-level powers, John Marshall was most akin to
a) Thomas Jefferson.
b) Alexander Hamilton.
c) Patrick Henry.
d) James Madison.
37) The McCulloch v. Maryland decision established
a) Judicial review by the Supreme Court.
b) State sovereignty in interstate commerce.
c) National government supremacy over the states.
d) The legality of the slave trade.
38) The Supreme Court case that established national supremacy was
a) McCulloch v. Maryland.
b) Marbury v. Madison.
c) United States v. Virginia.
d) Brown v. Maryland.
39) Any state could legally have taxed the national bank into bankruptcy if the Supreme Court had
reversed itself in
a) Marbury v. Madison.
b) McCulloch v. Maryland.
c) Roe v. Wade.
d) Miranda v. Missouri.
40) In McCulloch v. Maryland, if the Supreme Court reached the opposite conclusion on the right of
Congress to charter a bank, the bank would have been
a) Taken over by the state of Maryland.
b) Declared illegal.
c) Taken over by the federal government.
d) Declared legal.
41) An important outcome of Marshall’s ruling in McCulloch v. Maryland (1819) was to
a) Place limits on the constitutional powers granted to Congress by refusing McCulloch’s
appeal.
b) Give greater power to the states in taxing agents of the federal government, including
banks.
c) Protect newspaper editors who publish stories critical of the federal government.
d) Confirm the supremacy of the federal government in the exercise of the constitutional
powers granted to Congress.
42) During the battle over slavery, the case for nullification was forcefully presented by
a) William Jennings Randolph.
b) Robert E. Lee.
c) William Graham Sumner.
d) John C. Calhoun.
43) The doctrine of states’ rights espoused by John C. Calhoun of South Carolina is best known as
a) Subordination.
b) Reification.
c) Nullification.
d) Interposition.
44) States cannot declare acts of Congress unconstitutional. In other words, states do not have the
right of
a) Nullification.
b) Local mandate.
c) Dual federalism.
d) Habeas corpus.
45) The doctrine of nullification refers to
a) The power of Congress to veto state laws that violate the U.S. Constitution.
b) The claimed authority of the states to declare a federal law void for violating the U.S.
Constitution.
c) The power of the president to veto state laws for violating the U.S. Constitution.
d) The authority of the president to dissolve Congress and to call for new elections.
46) The doctrine of dual federalism grew out of a protected debate on the subject of
a) Commerce.
b) Banking.
c) Manufacturing.
d) Welfare.
47) One can argue that the concept of dual federalism was doomed from the beginning because
a) Nature abhors a vacuum.
b) Birds of a feather flock together.
c) Likes attract and opposites repel.
d) Two rulers cannot rule one people.
48) Most forms of economic activity are now included under
a) First Amendment freedoms.
b) Interstate commerce.
c) The doctrine of implied powers.
d) The reserved powers of the states.
49) Until recently, the interstate commerce that the federal government could regulate is
interpreted to include
a) Almost any kind of economic activity.
b) Only the movement of goods between states.
c) Almost any commerce in goods, but not labor transactions.
d) Commerce between states and a handful of transactions within states.
50) The text concludes that it would be a mistake to conclude that the doctrine of dual federalism is
a) Entirely dead.
b) Alive and well.
c) Much changed.
d) No longer a threat.
51) By ruling that the government cannot require local police to conduct background checks on all
gun purchases, it held that to do so would be a violation of the _______ Amendment.
a) Fifth
b) Sixth
c) Tenth
d) Fourteenth
52) Under their police powers, states can enact and enforce all of the following except
a) Criminal codes.
b) Require children to attend school.
c) Restrict the availability of pornographic materials or activities of prostitutes and drug
dealers.
d) Regulate interstate commerce.
53) This is a procedure that enables voters to reject a measure adopted by the legislature.
a) Initiative
b) Referendum
c) Recall
d) Logrolling
54) This procedure in effect in about one-third of the states permits voters to remove an elected
official from office.
a) Initiative
b) Referendum
c) Recall
d) Logrolling
55) The tidelands oil reserves case was an example of the national government’s deciding that
a) State governments were asserting too much independence.
b) Local governments needed help that state governments could not provide.
c) It was better to cede to the states a power that legally belonged to Washington.
d) Too many conditions had been attached to a well-meant program of aid.
56) According to the text, the grant-in-aid system grew rapidly because it helped state and local
officials resolve what dilemma?
a) How to get federal money into state hands without violating the U.S. Constitution
b) How to limit federal taxation power without reducing aid to states
c) How to increase federal taxation power without violating the U.S. Constitution
d) How to shift financial control of state programs to the federal government without violating
states’ rights
57) All of the following are reasons why grant-in-aid systems grew rapidly throughout the twentieth
century except
a) The federal government had the money to spend.
b) The federal government could print money when it needed it.
c) The federal government had eliminated the federal income tax.
d) Politically, it was wise for states to get their money from the federal government rather than
from their own taxes.
58) During the 1960s, the nature of federal grants began to change because
a) Congress vastly slowed the flow of money to the states.
b) States began refusing the grants due to the number of strings attached.
c) The federal government began devising grant programs.
d) The federal government lost its ability to finance grants due to the federal budget deficit.
59) Which of the following was not one of the reasons federal grants were attractive to state
officials?
a) Federal government budget surpluses
b) Passage of the Fifteenth Amendment
c) The potency of the federal income tax
d) The appearance of “free money” for the states
60) The first form of grant-in-aid to the states made by the federal government to the state
governments was that of
a) Cash grants-in-aid.
b) Block grants.
c) Land grants.
d) Categorical grants.
61) Federal officials’ perceptions of national needs came to dominate the allocation of federal
grants in the
a) Reagan administration.
b) 1960s and 1970s.
c) World War II era.
d) Post-Civil War era.
62) While gleefully accepting federal grants with no apparent strings, state governors were
disregarding which fundamental axiom of politics?
a) There’s no such thing as a free lunch.
b) Politics makes strange bedfellows.
c) Nice guys finish last.
d) Those who respect sausages or law should avoid being present when they are made.
63) In the 1960s and 1970s, federal grants to states were increasingly based on
a) The demands of the individual states.
b) What state officials perceived to be important state needs.
c) The power of organized interest groups.
d) What federal officials perceived to be national needs.
64) A major shift in the focus of federal grant-in-aid programs took place in the 1960s. This shift was
toward
a) Meeting the demands of individual states and cities.
b) Requiring states to fund national programs.
c) Meeting national needs such as reducing pollution.
d) Requiring states to share their revenues with other states.
65) Between 1960 and 1995, federal grants for transportation and highways, as a proportion of all
federal grants,
a) Increased more than any other grant category.
b) Gradually became the largest grant category.
c) Decreased more than any other grant category.
d) Held steady from year to year.
66) Between 1960 and 1995, the category of federal grants that decreased most as a percentage of
all grants was
a) Income authority.
b) Health.
c) Education and training.
d) Transportation and highways.
67) The term intergovernmental lobby is used in the text to refer to lobbying activities by
a) State and local officials at the national government.
b) One branch of the national government at another branch.
c) Foreign governments in Washington, D.C.
d) Federal agencies at statehouses and city halls.
68) An example of an intergovernmental lobby would be a lobby comprising
a) Local police chiefs.
b) Local gas station owners.
c) Gun enthusiasts.
d) Oil company executives.
69) A categorical grant is a transfer of federal funds designed for
a) The private sector.
b) Discretionary use by a state.
c) Specific purposes.
d) Programs with matching grants.
70) A federal grant designed for a specific purpose defined by federal law is called
a) A categorical grant.
b) A land grant.
c) A block grant.
d) Revenue sharing.
71) A block grant is essentially a
a) Grant that benefits a single, local unit (or block).
b) Group of categorical or project grants.
c) Reverse grant-in-aid – money flows from states back to the federal government.
d) Project grant with tighter restrictions.
72) Block grants were designed to remedy a common criticism of categorical grants, namely,
a)
b)
c)
d)
Their lack of specificity.
The lack of conditions under which such grants were made.
The difficulty of adapting categorical grants to local needs.
Their discriminatory nature – decisions are too often based on politics.
73) Federal grants over which local officials have wide discretion are called
a) Categorical grants.
b) Lands grants.
c) Matching grants.
d) Revenue-sharing funds.
74) If the recent growth rates of categorical and block grants were reversed, we could predict that in
the next decade state governments would
a) Be in a tight bind financially.
b) Begin offering greater incentives to the private sector.
c) Be competing for public-sector recognition.
d) Have more money to throw around.
75) According to the text, both revenue sharing and block grants have enjoyed only marginal
success, in part because
a) The federal government steadily increased the number of strings attached to such grants.
b) Money from categorical grants shrank so low as to make these other grants essential.
c) These grants were based on local priorities rather than on the needs of the nation as a
whole.
d) These grants discouraged federal control over how the money was to be used.
76) Between 1993 and 1995, the entire growth in federal grants to state and local governments was
in
a) Categorical grants.
b) Expansion of old block grants.
c) Revenue sharing.
d) New block grants.
77) Political maneuvering and lobbying by local officials will probably be greatest when what type of
federal money is involved?
a) Revenue sharing
b) A block grant
c) A mandated grant
d) A categorical grant
78) Localities receiving funds from general revenue sharing include
a) Poverty-stricken ones such as Paw Paw, West Virginia.
b) Affluent ones such as Beverly Hills, California.
c) Both of the above.
d) Neither of the above.
79) Categorical grants are most likely to be a matter of life or death for
a) Agencies that are funded by them.
b) Cities in the Northeast.
c) The middle class.
d) Minor political parties.
80) What type of federal funds are most likely to be critical for an agency that depends on the
federal government for its existence?
a) Categorical grants
b) Block grants
c) Fund grants
d) Revenue-sharing programs
81) Block grants allocated in large chunks to just a few programs are most likely to result in
a) A presidential veto.
b) Severe opposition from interest groups.
c) Good prospects for surviving cutbacks.
d) Poor prospects for surviving cutbacks.
82) If you were trying to allocate a block grant to increase its political survivability, you would be
wise to
a) Keep all allocations out of the public sphere.
b) Concentrate it in a few areas, each receiving a great deal of funding.
c) Spread it around to a great many programs, each receiving a little money.
d) Make sure that all the monies were spent by the end of the fiscal year.
83) One reason why revenue sharing has proved unsuccessful as a means of distributing federal
money to local governments is because it
a) Lacks strong local political support.
b) Is too vulnerable to political lobbying.
c) Requires annual congressional approval.
d) Encourages rivalry among states competing for federal money.
84) The type of locally distributed federal money that would be most affected by changes in
population and distribution formulas is
a) The block grant.
b) The categorical grant.
c) Revenue sharing.
d) The land grant.
85) The connection between the national census taken every ten years and the allocation of various
federal grants-in-aid is that
a) No new programs may be implemented until the census is taken.
b) Some allocation formulas are based on census figures.
c) The census is funded by federal levies on the states.
d) Demographic reasons must accompany any proposal to alter existing allocations.
86) Which of the following statements about categorical grants is typically true?
a) They have a high likelihood of presidential veto.
b) They face severe opposition from interest groups.
c) They have the support of the business community.
d) They have the support of interest groups.
87) Which of the following statements about state and local government lobbying in Washington is
correct?
a) It is substantial.
b) It is illegal.
c) It may not be carried out with public monies.
d) It is unnecessary, given the strong local orientation of Congress.
88) Which of the following types of federal grants have the strongest interest-group support?
a) Categorical grants
b) Block grants
c) Revenue-sharing programs
d) None of the above
89) When a locality is required by federal law to do something, regardless of whether it receives
federal funding for that purpose, this duty is called a
a) Condition of aid.
b) Mandate.
c) String-attached edict.
d) Court decision.
90) The difference between a mandate and a condition of aid is that
a) With a mandate the federal government tells a state government what it must do if it wants
grant money.
b) A mandate applies to a block grant; a condition of aid applies to a categorical grant.
c) A mandate applies to a categorical grant; a condition of aid applies to a block grant.
d) With a mandate it makes no difference who is paying the costs of a program.
91) Which of the following statements about mandates is not true?
a) They are reasonable enough, stated in general terms.
b) They are the result of court orders.
c) They are tied to specific federal grants.
d) They are open to interpretation by federal officials.
92) Which of the following mandates was enacted in 1990?
a) Voting Rights Act Amendments
b) Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act
c) Child Abuse Amendments
d) Americans with Disabilities Act
93) One of the problems the text mentions in connection with the administration of the Americans
with Disabilities Act is
a) The number of disabled Americans.
b) The specificity of the blueprint for administration.
c) The absence of a clear-cut definition of “equal access.”
d) A lack of public support.
94) Judges have ordered Massachusetts to change the way it hires firefighters, even though the
state does not receive aid from the federal government for firefighting. Such an order is referred
to as a
a) Condition of aid.
b) Quid pro quo order.
c) Mandate.
d) Pro bono requirement.
95) For states to qualify for certain federal highway funds, they must allow drivers to make a legal
right-hand turn after stopping at a red light. This requirement by the federal government is
known as a
a) Mandate.
b) Quid pro quo order.
c) Condition of aid.
d) Pro bono requirement.
96) States must pay construction workers the prevailing wage if they want to build something with
federal money, even if the federal share is only part of the total building costs. How might such
a requirement prevent a needed building from being constructed?
a) If it is tied to a categorical grant
b) If it makes the total costs prohibitively high
c) If it is tied to nondiscriminatory hiring
d) If the prevailing wage exceeds federal guidelines
97) A result of the Reagan-era block grants and budget cuts was
a) State and local governments unilaterally slashed programs.
b) Higher administrative costs for state and local governments.
c) Less flexibility in program design for state and local governments.
d) Higher service levels than otherwise would have been the case.
98) The first important function that the new Republican-controlled Congress sought to shift back to
the states in 1994 was ______________.
a) Health care
b) Education
c) Welfare
d) Transportation
99) The effort to pass on to the states many federal functions has been called
a) Evolution.
b) Devolution.
c) Enhancement.
d) Entitlement.
100)
The 104th Congress (1994-1996) block-granted the following federal aid program:
a) Medicaid.
b) Food stamps.
c) Medicare.
d) Aid to Families with Dependent Children (AFDC).
101)
The flow of power and responsibility from the states to local governments is referred to
as a _______________.
a) First-order devolution
b) Second-order devolution
c) Third-order devolution
d) Fourth-order devolution
102)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Which of the following was not a reason driving devolution efforts in the mid-1990s?
Deep-seated mistrust of the federal government
Concern about the budget deficit
Lack of confidence in state and local government capacity
Americans are in favor of devolution
103)
Why do members of Congress – who represent the interests of localities to the federal
government – pass laws that create so many problems for the mayors and governors of these
localities?
a) Because members of Congress often represent different constituencies from the same
localities
b) Because the power of political parties to influence the votes of party members is so great
c) Because mayors and governors frequently resent federal interference in local affairs
d) Because most members of Congress regard their role as that of representing the national
government to localities
ANSWERS
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
31)
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
37)
38)
39)
40)
C
A
D
B
B
C
B
A
C
C
C
D
C
A
A
C
D
A
B
C
A
A
A
C
C
C
A
D
B
C
A
A
C
B
C
B
C
A
B
B
41)
42)
43)
44)
45)
46)
47)
48)
49)
50)
51)
52)
53)
54)
55)
56)
57)
58)
59)
60)
61)
62)
63)
64)
65)
66)
67)
68)
69)
70)
71)
72)
73)
74)
75)
76)
77)
78)
79)
80)
81)
82)
D
D
C
A
B
A
D
B
A
A
C
D
B
C
C
A
C
C
B
C
B
A
D
C
C
D
A
A
C
A
B
C
D
D
A
A
D
C
A
A
C
B
83) A
84) C
85) B
86) D
87) A
88) A
89) B
90) D
91) C
92) D
93) C
94) C
95) C
96) B
97) D
98) C
99) B
100)
101)
102)
103)
D
B
C
A