1.What is the direction of saliva effluence in the case of salivary fistula?
А) Through the entrance of the main salivary duct
С) Only through the salivary fistula
B) Both through the entrance of the main salivary duct
D) Saliva accumulates in the formatted cavity and
and salivary fistula
not effluen
2. Find the description of salivary gland (or fistula ???? ) plastic by Sapozhnikov method:
А) Cutting off the fistula together with the scar in the form of a backwardly transected triangle. At the end of the line a similar
turned up triangle is made. The flaps are mixed and stitched together.
B) The maximum possible oval cut is made to mark the fistula entrances and dissected . Two centesis are made towards the fascia
and the formed defect is to be sutured around and tightly knotted.
С) The salivary fistula plastics by transposition of triangular flaps made on the skin.
D) The marking and dissection of the fistula by extra oral horizontal sizing and the outlining of the canal distal area. A box-like flap
is made in the mucosa, led to the outer sizing and then stitched to the central canal section.
3. What medicine is used for the depression of the salivary glands function?
А) 3% solution of potassium iodide – 1 teaspoon 3 times a
C) 6-8 drops of pilocarpin
day
D) 0.1 solution of atropine sulfate – 6-8 drops
B) Intramuscular antibiotic injection
4. What is the amount of salivary secretion for an adult person during the period of 24 hours?
А) 300-800 ml
С) 1500 – 2000 ml
Е) 1000 – 1500 ml
В) 500 – 1000 ml
Д) 2000 – 2500 ml
5. What examination method applied for salivary fistula diagnostics is the most informative?
А) Cytology
С) X-Ray Examinational of face
Е) Ultrasound investigation of the
В) Fistulography
D) Thermography
salivary gland
6. What disease is not differentiated with the salivary fistula?
А) Actinomycosis
D) Chronic osteomielities of the lower jaw
В) Subdermal migrating granuloma
Е) Lipoma of MFA
С) Branchial arch fistula
7. What salivary gland does the Stenon duct belong to?
А) Parotid gland
С) Sublingual gland
В) Submandibular gland
D) Minor salivary gland
8. What is the cause of the salivary fistula?
А) Parenchyma gland injuring
D) Chronic long-lasting inflammatory process in salivary
В) Face soft tissues gunshot wound
gland or adherent tissues
С) Postsurgical complication of parotidectomy
Е) All the mentioned above causes
9. A patient suffers from the node and tissue hypertrophy appeared 4 months after the local plastic surgery along the scar . What
treatment should be applied to prevent the expansion of the colloidal scar ?
А. Electrophoresis of KJ
D) Ultraviolet irradiation
В) Ultrahigh frequency treatment
Е) Vibromassage of the soft tissues in the scart area.
С) Lipase electrophoresis
Contractubex gel lubrication.
10. What method of upper lip frenulum plastic are you aware of?
А) Thiersch grafting by Local flaps
D) Pedicle flaps grafting
В) Mucosa dissection
Е) Local flaps grafting by Shimanovskiy
С) Transposition of triangular flaps grafting by
Limberg
method
method
11. A patient suffers from the external salivary fistula developed on the skin after the healing of perforating cheek wound . What
surgical method should be applied?
А) Transposition of triangular flaps
В) Pedicle flaps grafting
D) Fistula cutting out and suturing
grafting
С) Bucket-handle graft
Е) Free flaps grafting
12. Define the contraindications for local face plastic surgery:
А) Facial skin pyodemia
D) Acute inflammatory processes of the oral cavity tissues (
В) Clotting disorder (hemophilia…)
stomatitis, glossitis, gingivitis, maxillar sinusitis…)
С) Imperceptible face deformities and defects suffered by
Е) All the mentioned above
older people
13. Define the possible postoperative complications of local plastic surgeries:
А) Surgical sepsis
С) Skin flap necrosis
Е) All the mentioned above
В) Disruption and dehiscence
D) Hematoma in the surgery locus
amplifications
14. A patient S., 26 y. o. , suffers from the lateral nose surface triangle defect . What kind of local plastic surgery should be applied
to correct the deficiency?
А) Z – plastics by A.. Limberg
С) Bucket-handle graft
В) Rotation skin flap by Y.
D) Free flaps grafting
Shimanovsky
Е) Pedicle flaps grafting
15. A patient was diagnosed the ambustial skin deformation. Before the surgical treatment a maxillo-facial surgeon defined the
necessary angles and the size of incision having marked it by the brilliant green. What method of local plastic surgery is the doctor
intended to apply?
А) Pedicle flaps grafting
С) Transposition of triangular flaps
D) Thiersch grafting
В) Bucket-handle graft
grafting
Е) Abbe grafting
16. A patient 42 y. o., suffers from the rhomboid form perforating left cheek wound . What examination is not necessary before
the local plastic surgery?
А) 3 – D computer modeling of the
В) 3- view photos of her face
D) Biochemical blood analysis
damage area
С) Face modeling
Е) Complete blood count analysis
17. Marked the soft tissues layers from the external to the internal side in the correct order:
А) Dermis, epidermis, muscle, subcutaneous , mucosa
В) Epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous , muscle, mucosa
С) Mucosa, muscle, subcutaneous , dermis, epidermis
D) Epidermis, subcutaneous , dermis, muscle, mucosa
Е) Epidermis, dermis, muscle, mucosa, subcutaneous
18. What kind of anesthesia will be apply to conduct a plastic surgery operation in a 3 year old child suffering from the face
defect?
А) Local infiltrative
С) Intravenous narcosis
Е) Intubation narcosis
В) Local block anesthesia
D) Inhalation narcosis
19. What physiotherapy method should be applied in a postoperative period to prevent the formation of thick colloidal scars and
cicatricial contraction?
А) Ultraviolet irradiation applied in
С) Lipase electrophoresis, therapeutic
D) Heparin ointment phonophoresis,
the damage area, sun wave lamp
radiology using Bukki rays, paraffin
microwave therapy
В) Trypsin electrophoresis, ultrahigh
therapy
Е) Darsonvalization and ascorbic C
frequency treatment
electrophoresis
20. A patient with a traumatic nasal tip and wing defect with a diameter of 3 cm was entered the maxillofacial surgery department
for plastics. The trauma was a half a year ago. What kind of plastic surgery should be applied ?
А) Free full thickness thermal flaps grafting
В) Derma and auricle cartilage grafting
С) Bucket-handle graft
D) Pedicle frontal and cheek flaps grafting
Е) Local naso-labial and cheek flaps grafting
21. A man 30 years old, grumbles about deformation of lower eyelid after the burn of face
which was a year ago. Objectively: in the left infraorbital area -the ambustial cicatrical sсar loсated
in a vertical plane, overhead end of which soldered with a lower eyelid.
What method of the plastic is indicated ?
А. Plastic by an adjacent tissue pedicle flap
В. Plastic by a round stem
С. Free epidermization
D. Scar carving and suturing of wound
Е. Plastic by transposition of triangular flaps
22.A patient N. , 32 y. o. was sent to the maxillofacial department because of a check penetration defect of 1.5 x 4.0 mm. What
neoplasty method should be applied ?
А.Bucket-handle graft
В. Double-end graft
С. Advanced flap
D. Rawers method by deltopectoralis flap
Е. Transposition of triangular flaps
23. A patient of 30 years old suffers from a total nasal defect, the scar deformity of midface and infraorbital areas caused from a
shotgun wound. Choose the method for repair of a nasal defect:
А. Two pedicle cheeck flaps
В. A pedicle forehead flap
С. Radical rhinoplasty by F. Hitrow
D. 3 layer pedicle graft
Е. Free skin transplantant
24. What is the required size of epidermal free skin graft by Yatsenko-Tirsch method?
А. 0,7-0,9 mm
В. 0,5-0,6 mm
С. 0,6-0,7 mm
D. 0,2-0,4 mm
E. 0,9-1,0 mm
25. What is the required thickness for the split free skin flap by Bleirr- Brawn method?
А. 0,5-0,6 mm
В. 0,2-0,4mm
С. 0,6-0,7 mm
D. 0,7-0,9 mm
E. 0,9-1,0 mm
26. A patient N., 25 y. o. , addressed to the injury care center of the maxillofacial surgery department complaining of chin soft
tissue contused wound. The patient’s history: he had been traumatized by landing on the chin 2 hours ago. What initial care should
be provided ?
А. Antiseptic debridement
В. Antiseptic dressing
С. Compressive bandaging
D. Seondary surgical debridement of chin wound
Е. Primary surgical debridement of chin wound
27. Which skin layer is applied for the bucket-handle graft?
А Epidermic and malpighian layer
В. Skin, subcutaneous and muscle
С. Skin and subcutaneous
D. All the skin layers
Е. Epidermic, malpighian and reticular layers
28. A man , 40 y. o., suffers from a total nasal defect caused by a gunshot. Which method of plastic surgery is to be applied for
nasal reconstruction?
А. Bone, skin and pedicle chondros grafting
В. Free chondros, skin and bone grafting
С. Adherent tissue transposition by Shimanovsky method
D. Stage plastic by round flap by Hitrow method
Е. Auricle tissues grafting by Suslov method
29. Which skin flaps are applied for the free skin grafting in a maxillofacial
area?
А. Incomplete flaps
В. Split grafts
С. All skin layers flaps
D. Incomplete and all skin layers flaps
Е. Split and all skin layers flaps
30. The typical example of combined transplantation is?
А. Free graft of ear auricle part to the defect of nose wing
В. Chondros replating in cases of a saddle nasal deformity
С. Mandible bone plastic by titanium implant
D. Deformity correction by applying of deepidermic skin flap
31. Who is the author of the triangular flaps method applied in plastic surgery in cases of cicatricial oral cavity deformities and
mouth angulus downturning or lifting?
А. Limberg
В. Shimanovsky
С. Abbe
D. Bruns
32. Which of skin transplantant is the mostly affected by the adverse conditions that may appear in the process of transplantation?
А. Thin split skin flap
В. All layers skin flap
С. Middle split skin flap
D. Thick split skin flap
33. Cartilage grafting undergoes the following changes:
А. Ossifying
В. Not resolved and not regenerate
С. Induration ( hardening ) but no ossifying
D. Resolving
34. Which of the listed below factors causes the cartilage distortion in the recipient area?
А. The absence of cocoon dressing
В. Unstable pressure
С. Periosteum saving
35. A patient D. turned to an oral surgeon for the procedure of dental implantation. Disease anamnesis
showed non-compensated diabetes. Is the stomatological implantation possible in the case?
А. There are no contraindications for the dental implantation.
В. There are relative contraindications for dental implantation.
С. There are absolute contradictions for the dental implantation.
36. What are the normal limits of basal border horizontal osteoresorption in the implants area ?
А. 0,3 mm
С. 1 mm
Е. 2,5mm
В. 0,5 mm
D. 2 mm
37.Is a blade implants applied in the frontal area?
А. Yes
В. No
38. A patient T. of 35 years old underwent the one stage subperiosteum implantation procedure in the area
of the 25 lost tooth 6 weeks ago. The examination revealed the abnormal implant excursion and the
maturation of gingival pockets. X-ray picture showed the vertical osteoresorption in the graft area. What
treatment approach should be applied?
А. The implantant removal and reimplantation.
В. Antibacterial therapy.
С. Periosteotomy along the transitory fold in the implantation area.
D. Implantant removal and the bone wound debridement.
Е. Electrophoresis with the 3% solution of potassium iodide in the implantation area.
39. In what cases is the osteoid coalescence of dental implantant observed?
А. In the cases of a groove between the graft and the cortical plate.
В. In the cases of a tight graft contact with the cortical plate.
С. Always.
40. What are the indications for dental implantation implemented as support for prosthetic dentures?
А. Complete adentia and alveolar atrophy .
С. Digestive tract diseases.
В. Hypersensibility to the removable dentures.
D. All the answers are correct.
Е. None answer is correct.
41. A patient diagnosed with leukemia required for dental implantation. Is the procedure possible in the
case?
А. There are no contraindications for the dental implantation.
В. There are absolute contradictions for the dental implantation.
С. There are relative contraindications for dental implantation.
42. A patient diagnosed with Sjogren’s syndrome turned to a dentist for dental implantation. Is the
procedure possible in the case?
А. There are no contraindications for the dental implantation.
В. There are absolute contradictions for the dental implantation.
С. There are relative contraindications for dental implantation.
43. A patient turned to an oral surgeon for dental implantation in the areas of the 35th, 36th and 37th
extracted teeth. The anamnesis revealed the diagnosis of toxic craw. Is the dental implantation possible in
the case?
А. There are no contraindications for the dental implantation.
В. There are absolute contradictions for the dental implantation.
С. There are relative contraindications for dental implantation.
44. A patient turned to an oral surgeon for dental implantation in the areas of the 35th , 36th , 37th , 38th ,
46th , 47th and 48th lost teeth. The examination revealed osteodystrophy. What can be applied in the case?
А. There are absolute contradictions for the dental implantation
В. There are relative contraindications for dental implantation
С. There are no contraindications for the dental implantation
45. A patient suffering from bruxism addressed an oral surgeon for dental implantation. Is the procedure
possible in the case?
А. There are absolute contradictions for the dental implantation
В. There are relative contraindications for dental implantation
С. There are no contraindications for the dental implantation
46. A patient with the unsatisfactory oral hygine asked a dentist for dental implantation. Is the procedure
possible in the case?
А. There are no contraindications for the dental implantation.
В. There are relative contraindications for dental implantation.
С. There are absolute contradictions for the dental implantation.
47. A patient was inserted an implant along the toth canal to the bone which was a dental post with
different bonding elements. What kind of implantant was attached?
А. Combined endosteal-subperiosteal
С. Endodontal-endosteal
В.Endosteal
D. Subperiosteal
48. How many methods of dental implantation are you aware of?
А. One stage implantant procedure.
В. Two stage implantant procedure.
С. Both.
49. A patient was skeletonized a dental arch followed by bone relief impression . What kind of
implantation was applied?
А. Endodontal-endosteal.
С. Endosteal-subperiosteal.
В. Subperiosteal.
D. Endosteal
50. Per the type of construction the implants can be?
A. One-part
B. Two-part
C. Suprasturcture.
D. All the answers are
correct.
E. None answer is correct.
51. A patient underwent dental implantation. What is the allowable time period for the functional load on
the implants?
А. 3-5 hours after the implantation.
С. 2 months after the surgery.
В. 1-4 weeks after the wound healing.
D. 2-6 months after the surgery.
52. The one-part implant is inserted:
А. By applying the one stage procedure.
В. By applying the two-stage procedure.
С. By applying both methods.
53. A patient withstood dental implantation 10 days after a tooth removal. What implantation method
was applied?
A. Immediate dental implantation.
C. Early delayed dental implantation.
B. Early dental implantation.
D. Late delayed dental implantation.
54. What is the appropriate distance between the implantants?
A. 1mm.
B. 2-3mm.
C. 4 mm.
D. 5 mm.
55.
A.
B.
C.
Distraction-compression method is based on the principles elaborated by the:
Bernads’kiy Y.
D. Ilizarov H.
Limberg A.
E. Robustova T.
Kabakov B.
56. The main requirement for applying the distraction-compression method is the correct definition of
distraction rate. Choose the correct correlation of distraction rate and bone graft growth.
A. Bone graft growth rate is equal to distraction rate
B. Distraction rate is more than bone graft growth rate
C. Distraction rate is less than bone graft growth rate
D. Distraction rate changes in the course of treatment from more to less than bone graft growth rate
E. Distraction rate changes in the course of treatment from less to more than bone graft growth rate
57. A patient P. was taken to the dento-facial department and diagnosed with the posttraumatic
mandibular defect of 5 cm at length. Clinical – roentgenologic examination revealed the necessity of
submaxilla distraction. What is the appropriate distraction rate?
A. 1 mm /24 hours
D. 0.1 mm/24 hours
B. 3 mm/ 24 hours
E. 0.5 mm/ 24 hours
C. 0.25 mm/ 24 hours
58. A patient P. was taken to the dento-facial department suffering from the developmental disability of
maxillary bone. Clinical – roentgenologic examination revealed the necessity of super-maxilla
distraction. What is the appropriate distraction rate?
A. 1 mm /24 hours
D. 0.1 mm/24 hours
B. 3 mm/ 24 hours
E. 5 mm/ 24 hours
C. 0.25 mm/ 24 hours
59. A patient P. was taken to the dento-facial department and diagnosed with the posttraumatic
mandibular defect of 5 cm at length. Clinical – roentgenologic examination revealed the necessity of
submaxilla distraction. When is the distraction method to be applied in a postoperative period after
transverse osteotomy?
A. in 7-12 days
B. in 3-6 days
C. in 10-14 days
D. Immediately after osteotomy
E. 12 hours after osteotomy
60. A patient P. was taken to the dento-facial department suffering from the developmental disability of
maxillary bone. Clinical – roentgenologic examination revealed the necessity of super-maxilla distraction.
When is the distraction method to be applied in a postoperative period after transverse osteotomy? ?
A. in 10-14 days
D. Immediately after osteotomy
B. in 3-6 days
E. 12 hours after osteotomy
C. in 14-20 days
61. A patient A. is undergoing mandibular reduction determined by Habsburt jaw by applying distraction method.
According to the method, compression after compact osteotomy behind the medial foramen should be applied:
A. in 10-14 days
B. in 3-6 days
C. in 5-10 days
D. Immediately after osteotomy
E. 12 hours after osteotomy
62. A patient P. was taken to the dento-facial department and diagnosed with the posttraumatic mandibular defect
of 5 cm at length. Clinical – roentgenologic examination revealed the necessity of submaxilla distraction.
What is the reason of distraction delay after coalescence?
A. Some time is required for the primary osteotylus formation
B. Some time is required for the surgical wound repair
C. Distraction is applied immediately after fragments coalescence
D. Some time is required for a newly formed bone reconstruction and postprimary osteotylus development
E. Some time is required for the complete adhesion of coalescenced fragments and for the mineralization of
match lines
63. A patient P. was taken to the dento-facial department and diagnosed with the posttraumatic mandibular defect in the
chin area. What is the maximum possible length of mandibular defect in the chin area allowed for distraction local
flaps mandibular osteoplasty?
A. Up till 1 сm
B. Up till 5 сm
C. Up till 10 сm
D. Up till 15 сm
E. Local flaps distraction osteoplasty is not allowed in the cases of chin defects
64. A patient B. was taken to the dento-facial department and diagnosed with the posttraumatic mandibular defect of 4.5
cm at length on the right side. What method of distraction osteoplasty should be applied in the case?
A. Local flaps osteoplasty of mandibular bone
B. Flap coverage osteoplasty of mandibular bone applying the separation of a larger submaxilla fragment and its
distraction towards the lesser splinter
C. Flap coverage osteoplasty of mandibular bone applying the fragment separation from both splinters, their
coalescence and distraction on the match lines
D. Distraction method is not applied for mandibular osteoplasty
E. Any of the listed above methods may be applied
65. A patient H. was provided with urgent hospitalization in the oral surgery department after a gunshot wound in the chin
area. What primary surgical debridement is to be applied in the case?
A. Sparing surveying and the least possible osseous tissue resection
B. Surveying with the resection of all isolated fragments and keeping of all elements fixed on the periosteal
coverage
C. Removal of all splinters irrespective of their relation to the adherent soft tissues
66. A patient H. was provided with urgent hospitalization in the oral surgery department after a gunshot wound in the chin
area. Panoramic radiograph revealed the mandibular defect of about 2.5 cm at length. Which of the listed surgical
debridement methods is applied in order to achieve the correction of mandibular defect and prevent gunshot
osteomyelitis?
A. Compression method
B. Compression-distraction method
C. Distraction method
D. Any of the listed methods.
E. None splinter burden methods are applied.
68. The causes of endogenic aprosopia include the following factors:
A. Affect of radiation on fetus;
B. Abdominal trauma received during early pregnancy;
C. Contagious diseases which mother had;
D. Fetal hypoxia.
69. Microstoma is a result of the following:
A. Hypernormal adhesion of maxilla and mandibular processes during fetal period;
B. Adhesion disorder of maxilla and medial nasal processes during fetal period;
C Adhesion disorder of frontal and medial nasal processes during fetal period;
D. Unsufficient adhesion of maxilla and mandibular processes during fetal period.
70. A baby with a distortion of face was born in a maternity hospital . A gap crossing the face from the upper lip till
the under-ophthalmic area reaching the lateral angle of eye was clinically observed. Determine a diagnosis:
A. Lateralis facial cleft;
B. Mesial non-union of mandibylum;
C. Macrostoma;
D. Loxotic facial cleft.
71. The causes of endogenic aprosopia include the following factors:
A. Affect of radiation on fetus;
B. Artificial aborts;
C. Impact of medicine made on fetus;
D. Impact of thermal factors made on fetus.
72. A newborn infant had an abnormal face shape, clinically observed hard and soft palates cleft, microglossia,
developmentally disabled mandibule and glossoptosis. Determine a provisional diagnosis:
A. Crouzon syndrome;
B. Roben syndrome;
C. Facial bones dysplasia;
D. Microgenia.
Е. Treacher-Collins-Franceschetti syndrome.
73. What is the normal proportion of cerebral and visceral cranium for an adult person?
A. 6:1;
B. 4,5:1;
C. 2,5:1;
D. 3:2;
Е. 5,5:1.
74. What parts of newborn infant’s cranium are encephalic growth centers?
A. Neither answer is correct;
C. Postcranial crown of head;
Е. Mamillary frown of head;
B. Frontal crown of head;
D. Cuneated crown of head;
G. All the answers are correct.
75. A 3 year old child’s parents addressed to an
78. What anatomical structures of faces are formed
maxillofacial surgery department for a consultation.
from the III branchial arch during prenatal
The baby had the clinical symptoms of forehead
development?
hypernormal , eyebulb separation and bosselation,
A. Temporomandibular joint;
developmentally disabled nasal and maxillary bones
B. oral cavity bottom muscles;
(the nose looked like a bird beak) and mandibular
C. Inner ear;
protrusion. Teleroentgenorgram revealed skull
D. Mandibular ramus bone;
shortening, the developmental disability of nasal and
Е. Auricle.
maxillary bones and occlusion disturbance. Make a
76. What anatomical structures of faces are formed
provisional diagnosis:
from the II branchial arch during prenatal
A. Crouzon syndrome;
development?
B. Goldenhar syndrome;
A.Temporomandibular joint;
C. Roben syndrome;
B. Zygomatic arch and bone;
D. Dysplasia of facial bones;
C. Oral cavity bottom muscles;
Е. Treacher-Collins-Franceschetti syndrome.
D. Hyoid body;
Е. Inner ear.
77. A child suffers from face asymmetric resulted by
the developmentally disabled mandibular, maxillary
and zygomatic bones; skin and soft tissues on the left
side of the face are thin; auricle deformity on the left
side is clinically observed. Orthopantomography
showed the absence of mandibular ramus bone on the
left, mandibular body was coarcted , rounded at the
end and looking like an articular head. The child also
suffers from comorbidity – congenital heart defect.
Make a provisional diagnosis.
A. Roben syndrome
B. dysplasia of facial bones;
C. Crouzon syndrome;
D. Goldenhar syndrome;
Е. Treacher-Collins-Franceschetti syndrome.
79. What indicator is based on the definition of
premolar and molar indexes and applied for the
estimation of dental arcade shape and width?
A. Korkhaus index;
B. Pont’s index;
C. Tonn’s index;
D. Herlakh index;
Е. Snahina index.
80. What prenatal period is considered the aniage of
facial bones development?
A. 3-5 weeks;
B. 1-4 weeks;
C. 6-11 weeks;
D. 7-15 weeks.
81. What age is characterized by the cerebral cranium
growth cessation?
A. At the age of 10;
B. At the age of 14;
C. At the age of 16;
D. At the age of 18;
Е. At the age of 21.
82. A child of 10 suffers from a face asymmetric
caused by the unilateral developmental disability of
mandibule of the right side, as well as from right eye
and auricle damage. Hypoplasia of facial soft tissues
and masticatory muscle on the right were revealed. Xray examination discovered the developmental
disability of body and mandibular ramus bone on the
right side and articular head deformation. The child
was provided with an prosthodontic consultation and
diagnosed with axis damage (adhesion of spondyle and
anterior curvature). Determine a diagnosis:
A. Roben syndrome;
B. Dysplasia of facial bones;
C. Crouzon syndrome;
D. Goldenhar syndrome;
Е. Treacher-Collins-Franceschetti syndrome.
83. After a gunshot a patient of 32 withstood a plastic surgery - local flaps grafting. What treatment should be applied in
the postoperative period?
A. Local anti-inflammatory and anti edematous therapy at the first postoperative days;
B. Physiotherapeutic treatment starting from the 2nd – 3rd postoperative day;
C. Daily bandaging and the surgical wound examinations;
D. The wound indisturbance, the first dressing change at the 5th-6th day after the surgery provided that there are no
complains.
84. Put the epidermis layers in the correct order:
A. Basal layer, stratum spinosum, granular layer, stratum lucidum, stratum comeum;
B. Basal layer, stratum lucidum, granular layer, stratum comeum, stratum spinosum;
C. Stratum lucidum, basal layer, granular layer, stratum spinosum, stratum comeum;
D. Granular layer, stratum lucidum, stratum spinosum, basal layer, stratum comeum;
E. Stratum comeum, stratum spinosum, basal layer, granular layer, stratum lucidum.
85. What skin flaps are applied for free skin grafting in the maxillofacial area?
A. Split flap;
C. Split and full layers flap;
B. Full layers flap;
D. Incomplete and complete flaps;
E. Incomplete flaps.
86. Which of the free skin transplantants is the most vulnerable to any adverse conditions that may appear in the process
of transplantation?
A. Thin split skin flap;
C. Thick split skin flap;
B. Middle split skin flap;
D. Full layers skin flap.
87. What is the living-related time period for the bucket-handle graft being trained by applying the method of
compression:
A. 60 min.;
C. 30 min.;
E. 90 min.
B. 45 min.;
D. 70 min.;
88. A patient suffers from a skin salivary fistula resulted from the repair of a perforate cheek wound. What kind of plastic
surgery should be applied for its closing?
A. Bucket-handle graft;
D. Free skin graft;
B. Tubed pedicle flaps;
E. Fistula cutting and suturing.
C. Transposition triangle flaps;
89/. A patient of 47 suffers from a nasal defect (absence of external nose). Bucket handle graft surgery is being planned.
What area should be chosen for bucket-handle graft sampling in order to conduct a total rhinoplasty?
A. Cervix lateral surface;
C. Thoracic cage lateral surface
D. Dorsum;
B. Thoracic cage anterior surface;
and its anterior part;
E. Upper arm.
90.. What are the autografting indications?
A. Wound granulation period at conditions fever absence;
B. All the answers are correct;
C.Surgical debridement of a gunshot wound as long as there is sufficient amount of soft tissues and absence of
inflammatory processes;
D. Chronic odontogenic, gunshot and hematogenous osteomyelitis after sequestrectomy;
E. Neither of the answers is correct.
91. What is the most fitting sampling area for a skin flap?
A.Brachium external surface;
C. Forehead area;
B. Cervix lateral surface;
D. Femoral internal surface.
10. What are the local causes of skin necrosis after free grafting?
A. Inefficient wound edges and donor adaptation;
B. Defervercence of skin flap versus body temperature;
C. Flap damaging while sampling and transposition;
D. Hematoma under the skin flap, local blood supply disturbance.
92. What are the indications for epidermal flaps ingrafting to the oral cavity?
A. Plastic ( closing ) of oroantral connection;
B. Mucosa defects caused by vestibular plastic for better prosthetics conditions, as well as mucosa deformities caused by
scars excision in cases when a wound stitching up is impossible;
C. Ulcerative necrotic mucosa affects to provide their faster epithelialization.
93. A patient of 55 y. o., received a right cheek bite wound 2 months ago. The skin defect is 2x3x1.5 cm in the right
cheek area is clinically evident. Split skin flap plastic is being planned. What layers are included in the mentioned above
implantant?
A. Only epidermis and the surface layers of epithelium;
C. flap thickness depends on the instrument and
B. The transplantant includes papillary layer;
sampling method;
D. Includes all the skin elements.
94. What are the contra indications for free skin grafting?
A. large perforated defects of facial soft tissues;
B. Dense scars between the lateral tongue surface and the bottom of oral cavity;
C. The presence of granulation wound that cannot be closed by local tissues.
95. What does the full thickness skin flap include?
A. All the epidermis and dermis layers together with the
pilary follicles;
96. What are the indications for free grafting?
A.Any pathologic processes in tissues;
B. Imperceptible ( small ) defects and deformities;
C. Substantial ( large ) perforated defects of facial soft
tissues;
97. What are the requirements for a recipient wound surface?
A. Scar tissue cutting, fail-safe hemostasis;
B. Granulation tissue;
B. All the epidermis layers;
C. All the epidermis, dermis and subcutaneous layers.
D. Granulation wounds that cannot be closed by local
tissues.
C. All the answers are correct;
D. Inflammatory process.
17. A 45 y. o. patient with a ala nasi defect entered the maxillofacial surgery department for plastics. What should be
applied for defect correction?
A. Buccal pedicle flap;
C. Auricle grafting;
B. Bucket-handle graft;
D. Free skin grafting.
98. What should be considered while choosing the transplantat area?
A. Colour, pelage and the general skin structure;
D. Gender;
B. Skin graft size;
E. All the answers are correct.
C. Baring of the donors area while a patient’s
undressing;
99. A patient of 44 y. o., underwent chin plastic with the application of full thickness flaps. Will sensitivity in the postsurgery area recovery?
A. Sensitivity will never recover;
C. Touch, thermal and partly pain sensitivity will
B. Only thermal sensitivity will recover;
recover;
D. Only pain sensitivity will recover.
100. What is the thickness of a thin split flap:
A. 0,8 mm;
C. 1mm;
B. 0,5mm;
D. 0,3 mm;
101. Thiersch flap includes:
A. Epidermis and dermis papillary layer;
B. All the epidermis, dermis and subcutaneous fat
layers;
C. All the epidermis layers;
D. Only epidermis and epithelium surface layer.
E. 0,1 mm.
102. Therapeutic actions of the pre-dental prosthetics procedure include the following:
А. Removal of the decayed teeth and roots;
С. Endodontic treatment of periodontitis
В. Patient examination.
D. Preparation of mucosa for the dental prosthetics.
103. The local treatment of the pre-dental prosthetics procedure includes the following:
А. Patient examination.
В. Systemic medication.
С.The removal of spiny alveolar ridges.
104. The excavation of the vestibulum was conducted by means of dislodging the muco-periosteum flap from the
crestal bone to the jawbone body and fixing it with the bandage denture flap. Whose method of vestibulum plastic was
applied?
А. Rumpel’s.
С. Trauner’s.
В. Kazanyan’s.
D. Rerman’s.
105. What shape is the most appropriate for the jawbone ridge prosthodontics?
А.Semi-oval
В. Triangle
С. Piniform
106. What kind of surgery is applied in the case of a low sinus floor?
А. Sinus lifting.
В. Alveolplasty
С.Alveolar portion osteoplasty.
107. What actions can be referred to the local precaution taken against the atrophy of the dental arch bone after a tooth
removal?
А. The removal of teeth and roots with the minimum
С. Filling the alveolar socket by means of osteogenic
possible traumatization of the adjacent soft tissues.
tissues and materials.
В.Filling the alveolar socket by means of an
D. All the answers are correct.
integumentary flap.
Е. None answer is correct.
108. A patient suffers from pain in the mental area caused by the removable mandibular denture. The checkup
revealed the mental neurovascular tract under mucosa being traumatized by the prosthetic basis. What approach should
be applied by a dentist in the case?
A. Denture reline.
D. Making a new bone bed for the mental
B. Transection of the mental neurovascular tract.
neurovascular tract.
C. Drug therapy.
109. What actions cannot be referred to the local preventive measures taken against the atrophy of a dental arch bone
after a tooth removal?
A. Prevention of inflammatory and other complications.
B. Prevention of a “dry socket” and suffusion it with the blood from the adjacent tissues.
C. Filling the alveolar socket with an integumentary flap.
D. Excavation of the vestibulum.
110. . Pre-dental prosthetics examination revealed the sharp edges of alveolar sockets and midradicular septum of the
early removed teeth. What surgical methods should be applied prior to the prosthodontic treatment?
A. Oopen alveolectomy technique.
B. Closed alveolectomy technique.
C. Open transmucosal alveolar compression technique.
111. What method is applied for the removal of spiny alveolar ridges?
A. Open transmucosal alveolar compression technique.
B. Closed transmucosal alveolar compression technique.
112. What is the most effective method of upper and lower lip frenulum elongation ?
A. Local flaps grafting after Shimanovskiy.
B. Interchanging triangular flaps grafting after Limberg.
C. Local flaps grafting after Bernads’kiy.
113. As per Thiersch’s definition the split-thickness flap consists of the following:
A. Epidermis and papillary dermis.
B. Epidermis, papillary, subepithelial and reticular dermis.
C. Epidermis, dermis and subcutaneous fat.
114.Shallow anteroom was revealed during a patient examination. The anteroom modification was planned to be
carried out applying the split skin graft as per Thiersch’s method. What is the most appropriate thickness of the graft?
A. 0,2-0,4mm.
C. 0,6-0,8mm.
B. 0,5-0,6mm.
D. 0,9-1,2mm.
115. What is applied for increasing the altitude of alveolar portions?
A. Mandibular sagittal split osteotomy.
B. Free autologic bone grafting.
C. Vertical distraction of a dental arch.
D. All the answers are correct.
E. None answer is correct.
116. What method is not applied for the modification of an alveolar portion altitude in the course of therapeutic
actions prior to the dental implantation?
A. Mandibular sagittal split osteotomy.
B. Open alveotomy technique applied after the teeth removal.
C. Local osteogenic bone grafting.
117. What method is applied for the thickening a dental arch of mandibular body?
A. Transection and dilaceration of a dental arch by means of scoops inserted n the split bone graft.
B. Vertical distraction of a dental arch.
C. Lateralis and vertical distraction of a dental arch.
118. A patient turned to an oral surgeon for the dental implamantion in the areas of the 21st and 22nd absent teeth.
Examination revealed a narrow alveolar portion in the areas caused by the lack of a bone on the vestibular side. What
techniques can be applied to thicken the dental arch?
A. Transection and dilaceration of a dental arch by means of scoops inserted n the split bone graft.
B. Guided tissue regeneration of an alveolar portion.
C. Lateralis distraction of a dental arch.
119. Before dental implamantation CT scan maxilla inspection revealed a low sinus floor and small vertical dimension
of a dental arch. What techniques should be applied by an oral surgeon?
A. Vertical distraction of a dental arch.
B. Mandibular sagittal split osteotomy.
C. Sinus - lifting surgery.
120. What route is applied for the open sinus-lifting procedure?
A. The anterior maxillary sinus cavity.
B. The alveolar socket.
121. What route is applied for the closed sinus-lifting procedure?
A. The anterior maxillary sinus cavity.
B. The alveolar socket.
122.”Physiological regeneration” - is:
А. Posttraumatic bony tissue neogenesis.
В. Bone restructurisation.
С. Postoperative bony tissue restoration.
D. Bone restructurisation in endosteum and osteogenic periosteal coverage.
123. The bone repair influenced by following mechanisms : ?
А. Osteoblastic osteogeny.
В. Osteoinductive and osteoconductive osteogeny.
С.Osteoblastic, osteoinductive, osteoconductive osteogeny and osteo-activation.
D. Stimulated, osteoinductive and osteoconductive osteogeny.
Е. No need to affect the processes of bone repair.
124. A woman of 50 y. o., underwent teeth extraction 9 years ago caused by generalized periodontitis. She has used
removable denture ( prosthesis ). Total atrophy of alveolar arch has been developed since. What was the cause of
maxilla atrophy?
А. Teeth absence
В. Chronic inflammation resulted from periodontitis
С. Negative effect of the removable prosthesis
D. Microcirculation disorder and chronic inflammation caused by periodontitis
Е. Intercurrent diseases
125. In patient K. of 47 y. o., a plastic surgery operation at mandible restoration with a donor bone graft is planed.
Choose the right definition of this kind of transplantation:
А. Explantation.
В. Isotransplantation.
С. Xenoplasty.
D. Homotransplantation.
Е Homotransplantation.
126. A patient of 39 y. o., suffers from the mandible ramus and body defect till the 44 tooth resulted from
ameloblastoma removal. What kind of grafting should be applied in the case?
А. Formalinized brefobone grafting.
В. Rib autoplastic graft.
С. Rib allograft.
D. Freeze-dried allograft.
Е. Formalinized allograft.
127.n What kind of osteogeny is caused by the osteogenic progenitor cell activation?
А. Osteoblastic osteogeny.
В. Osteoinductive osteogeny.
С. Osteoconductive osteogeny.
D. Stimulated osteogeny.
Е. Determinated osteogeny.
128. A patient of 41 y. o., is undergoing mandibular bone intraoral graft. What is the sampling area for the intraoral
transplantants?
А. Retromolar area.
В. External oblique line of mandible.
С. Zygomatic bone.
D. Chin.
Е. All the answers are correct.
129. A patient of 53 y. o., is undergoing freeze-dried (lyophilized) allograft. What is meant under the term “ bone
lyophilization”?
А. Bone manipulation by means of high temperature and water.
В. Sublimation of water from frozen tissue in the vacuum environment.
С. Bone manipulation by applying high temperature and chemical solvents.
D. Bone freezing.
Е. Bone conservation in 0.25% formaldehyde solution.
130. Reparative regeneration of bone is:
A. Replacement of devitalized areas by granulation tissue and scar;
B. Delayed regenerative processes;
C. Overgrowth of the replacing tissue;
D. Restoration of tissues devitalized because of a pathological process;
E. Necrotic tissues devitalized in the course of their vital processes.
131. Define the first stage of reparative bone regeneration:
A. Response to trauma, cellular, structural and bone elements disruption;
B. Proliferation and differentiation of cell elements;
C. Appearance of primary osseous structures;
D. Resorption of provisional bone and formation of lamellar bone tissue.
E. Neither of the answers is correct.
132. Define the second stage of reparative bone regeneration:
A. Response to trauma, cellular, structural and bone elements disruption;
B. Proliferation and differentiation of cell elements;
C. Appearance of primary osseous structures;
D. Resorption of provisional bone and formation of lamellar bone tissue.
E. Neither of the answers is correct.
133. Define the third stage of reparative bone regeneration:
A. Response to trauma, cellular, structural and bone elements disruption;
B. Proliferation and differentiation of cell elements;
C. Appearance of primary osseous structures;
D. Resorption of provisional bone and formation of lamellar osseous tissue.
E. Neither of the answers is correct.
134. Define the fourth stage of reparative bone regeneration:
A. Response to trauma, cellular, structural and bone elements disruption;
B. Proliferation and differentiation of cell elements;
C. Appearance of primary osseous structures;
D. Resorption of provisional bone and formation of lamellar bone tissue.
E. Neither of the answers is correct.
135. A patient of 19 y. o., received mandible trauma 2 weeks ago and was sent to the maxillofacial surgery
department. After the examination a diagnosis: bilateral fracture of mandible bone in the angle areas was
determined. Bone plate osteosynthesis was applied. What drugs should be applied to effect reparative
osseogenesis?
А. Vitamins А, Е, С; tyrosine; retabolil.
В. Calcitonin, retabolil, paratirine, Ca.
С. Vitamins D3, А, Е, С; glutaminic acid.
D.Ferrum Lek, glutaminic acid, Ca.
Е. Broad-spectrum antibiotics.
136. What kind of material is beta-tricalcium phosphate referred to?
А. Osteoinductive
В.Osteoconductive
С.Osteoneutral
D.Heteroplastic.
137. A patient G., 16 y. o., complains of chin anteroposition, obstruct biting and upper lip recess. Palate cleft surgery was done in his
childhood. Objectively: upper lip recess, chin anteroposition, lower jaw is normal. Some frontal teeth are in mesiocclusion. Other teeth are of
correct proportion. Make a diagnosis:
A. Mandibular protraction
B. Real progenia
C. Imitative progenia
E. Mandibular hypoplasia
D. Maxillary protrusion
138. . A patient , 22 y.o. , maxilla micrognathia was treated by surgical osteotomy . The surgery included bony transplantant behind
the maxillary tubers. Define the aim of the implants installation:
A. Rigid fixation
B. Prevention the initial mandibular dislocation
C. Forward of jaw
D. The mid face extension
E. Elaboration of reparative osteogenesis.
139. A 17 y. o. patienthas entered the maxillofacial department with the congenital deformity of facial bones. During the examination facial
assymetry caused by the mandible underdeveloped and leftward chin displacement. Facial assymetry was more manifestative while opening
the mouth. In anamnesis an inflammatory process in the left mandibular ramus at the age of 5 y. o. Determine the clinical diagnosis:
A. One-side (unsymmetrical) microgenia
D. Prognathia
B. Unilateral (symmetrical) microgenia
E. Macrognathia
C. Imitative progenia
140. Plastic restoration is being planned to remove the mandible defect by of rib split transplantant . What kind of transplantation is going to
be applied:
A. Allo-grafting
C. Auto-grafting
E.Explantation
B. Isotransplantation
D. Xenoplasty
141. A newborn baby with a dental-face defect was consultated by a surgeon-dentist in a maternity hospital. The doctor revealed a
palate cleft , mandibular recession defect, tongue immaturity and impaction. What disease did the baby suffer from?
A. Pierre Robin's Syndrome.
C. Albright's Syndrome
E. Cheilognathopalatoschisis
B. Hanhart's Syndrome
D. Paget disease
142.. A patient is 16 y. o. She has complained on face deformation and the restricted opening of the mouth. Objectively : symmetric
face, proportionless - "the bird face" syndrome. Opening of the mouth is up to 1 sm. Disturbed occlussion - profound overlap of
incisor. What pathology has the patient been suffering?
A. Mandibular protraction.
C. Maxillary protrusion
E.Microgenia with the acquired
B. Microgenia with the congenital
D. Progenia
ankylosis
ankylosis.
143. An 18 y. o. patrient was sent to the maxillofacial department with the congenital dentition abnormality diagnose. The examination
revealed: the mandible protrusion, the normal length of the mandibular ramus , the flat jaw angles, horizontal areas of the lower jaw are
increased and forward, mesioccluision, the inverted teeth arrangement, spaces of different sizes made between the upper and lower frontal
teeth during the central occlusion. Determine the clinical diagnosis:
A. Cross biting
C. Real progenia
E.Microgenia
B. Imitative progenia
D. Prognatia
144. A patient O., 16 y. o., has suffered from the impossibility of opening the mouth, the difficulties while eating and t he
underdevelopment of the lower third of the face. He had the osteomyelitis of mandible in his childhood. The opening of the
mouth was up till 0.5 mm, open and distal occlusion was revealed. The joint space was absent because of the oossification of
the temporal head and recess. Make a diagnosis:
A. Bony ankylosis.
B. Chronic arthritis
C. Recurrent arthrosis deformans
D. Fibrous ankylosis
Е. Osteoma of mandibular condilar
145. A patient needs transplantant after the jaw tumour excision. What material is reasonable to be used?
A. Autogenous
C. Heterogenic
Е. Enthetic implantant
B. Homogeneus
D. Combined transplantant
146. A 20 y. o. patient suffers from the absence of contact between the frontal teeth and the macrognathia. The examination revealed: face
deformity caused by the mandibular hyperplasia. His frontal and grinding teeth were in the anterior bite. There was a space between the upper
and lower frontal teeth while the central occlusion. What disease does the patient suffer:
A. Open occlusion
С. Micrognathia
E. Low retrognathia
B. Microgenia
D. Prognathia
147. A patient C. , 35 y. o., complaines with the oroantral opening caused by the traumatic 26 and 27 teeth extraction. What
methods can be used to close the defect?
A. Bucket-handle graft plastics.
B. One layer soft tissue flap plastics.
C. Two layer soft tissue flap plastic.
D. Tongue flap plastics.
Е. Microvascular anastomosis flap plastics.
148. A patient suffers from the upper lip recess and difficulties while eating. She underwent palate cleft plasty in her childhood .
Chin anteroposition and midface recess were manifested, the mandible is normal. Some frontal teeth were in the mesiocclusion.
Determine the diagnosis:
A. Prognathia.
C. Microgenia.
E. Mandibular hypoplasia
B. Maxillary hypoplasia.
D. Mandibular hypoplasia
149. A patient complains by difficult of mouth opening and mandible movement. After the examination he was diagnosed the left
temporomandibular joint ankylosis. A plastic surgery under general anesthesia was being planned. Choose the method of the general
anesthesia:
A. Inhalation narcosis
C. Local anesthesia
B. Endotracheal narcosis through the
D. Local potential anesthesia
tracheostoma
E. Intravenus narcosis.
150. A patient complains by difficult of mouth opening and mandible movement. After the examination he was diagnosed the left
temporomandibular joint ankylosis. A plastic surgery under general anesthesia was being planned. Choose the method of the general
anesthesia:
A. Inhalation narcosis
C. Local anesthesia
B. Endotracheal narcosis through the
D. Local potential anesthesia
tracheostoma
E. Intravenus narcosis.
151. A patient , 19 y. o., complains of the impossibility of biting and speech defect. The case history revealed the displaced fracture in the
area of 45 and 36 teeth had a place. Neither fragments reposition nor immobilisation had been made. The examination : the mandible
deformation, the only contact between the molars of both jaws, a space among the jaws incisors was up to 9 mm. Choose the treatment
method:
A. Refracture, reposition and fixation of the mandible fragments in the correct position
B. Orthodontic treatment
C. Prosthetic bite treatment
D. Molars crowns preparation
E. Cuneated resection of the alveolar jaw with the mandibular body osteotomy
152. A patient of 27 y. o., has suffered from the mid face deformation, occlusion disturbance and difficult mastication. He
withstood a cleft palate surgery. No orthodontic cure had been made. What kind of upper jaw deformation has he been suffered
from?
E.Upper prognathia
A. Upper micrognathia
C. Lower Micrognathia
B. Lower macrognathia
D. Upper macrognathia
153. A patient with the anterior bite underwent palate cleft plasty at the age of 5 y. o. . What was the reason of the pathological
bite?
A. Underdeveloped of maxilla.
D. Social habits.
Е. Nasal breathing troubles
B. Habsburg jaw
C. Non-effective surgical management.
154. After the removal of an osteogenic tumor a patient needs transplantation. What kind of material is the most effective in the bone grafting:
A. The use of implants
D. Combined transplantants
B. Homogeneous
E. Autogeneous
C. Heterogenic
155. A patient of 16 complains of the chin anteroposition, difficulties while biting and the upper lip recess. He underwent palate clef plasty in
his childhood. The examination revealed the following: upper lip recess, chin anteroposition, the lower jaw was normal. Some frontal teeth
were in mesiocclusion. The rest of the teeth were in the correct proportion. Determine a diagnosis:
A. Mandibular protraction
C. Imitative progenia
E. Mandibular hypoplasia
B. Real progenia
D. Maxillary protrusion
156. A child of 9 was revealed to have the progressive distortion of face. The growth retardation and restriction of lower jaw
movements as long as the movable joint head deformation, that had been confirmed by the X-ray control, were discovered. The
soft tissues were thickly placed on the underdeveloped side of the jowl making it round, while on the unaffected side the jowl was a
little extended. The mouth angle was dislocated downward. What disease is usually accompanied by the mentioned above
clinicoradiological symptoms?
A. Arthrosis deformans
B. Facioplegia
C. Miofacial pain syndrome.
D. Progressive facial hemiatrophy.
E. Mandibulo-facial dysostosis
157. Choose the remedy groups effective for treating peripheral trifacial neuralgia.
A. Sedative agents
C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory
B. Hydrocortisone
drugs
D. Antihistamine agents
E. All the answers are correct
158. Choose the vitamin groups applied for curing trigeminal neuritis.
A. Vitamins К and Е;
C. Vitamins А and D;
B. Vitamins В1 and В12;
D. Folic acid and rutin;
E. None answer is correct.
159. What drugs can be used to prevent the stroke of idiopathic trifacial neuralgia?
A. Carbamazepine;
C. Acetophen;
B. Ascorbic acid;
D. Nootropil;
E. Captopril.
160. What drug is not appropriate for the treatment of trigeminal neuritis?
A. Xantinol nicotinate;
C. Lipase;
E. Tetracyclin.
B. Proserin;
D. Nucleo cytidine monophosphate;
161. What syndrome, in addition to pain, is dominative in the cases of auriculotemporal neuralgia (Frey syndrome)?
A. Vegetative;
C. Amnestic;
E. vestibulo-ataxic.
B. Neurodystrophic;
D. Asthenic;
162. A patient was admitted to the dento-facial surgery department diagnosed with a facial soft tissue bruise caused by a
road traffic accident. The checkup revealed hematoma and nonsensibility in a periocular area and anterior teeth. Define the
traumatic complication followed by the listed above symptoms?
A. Acute idiopathic neuralgia;
C. Dental plexalgia;
E. Cerebral commotion
B. Traumatic pulpitis of anterior
D.Traummatic
neuritis
of
teeth;
ophthalmic nerve;
163. patient of 30 turned to a dentist complaining of a dull pain and numb feeling in lower teeth (tricuspid and dens
premolaris), as well as in the areas of lower lip and chin on the right side. The anamnesis discovered that the complains
appeared a week after the removal of the impacted dens serotini. What disease was developed?
A. Neuralgia of auriculotemporal nerve
D. Neuritis of mental nerve
B. Neuritis of lower alveolus nerve
E. Neuritis of facial nerve
C. Neuralgia of the III ramus of trifacial nerve
164. A patient turned to a dentist complaining of pain attacks resembling electric shock in the areas of low jaw and tongue
which appeared after the atypical removal of the 38th tooth a month ago. The mouth cavity mucosa was pale-pink and the
38th tooth alveolus was epithelized. Define a provisional diagnosis.
A. Neuritis of glossopharyngeal
B. Glossitis
D. Neuralgia of mandibular nerve
nerve
C. Glossalgia
E. Neuritis of lingual nerve
165. A patient of 42 complains of a constant dull pain the area of low jaw at the right and the non-sensibility of the lower
lip. The symptoms appeared after the endodontic treatment of the 46th tooth. Physical examination revealed that the
percussion of the 46th tooth was algesic, the transitory fold was swollen and tender while palpation. What diagnostic
technique should be applied to establish the distress cause?
A. Thermotesting
D. X-ray inspection
B. Luminescent examination
E. Electroodontodiagnosis
C. Electric encephalometry
166. What drug is applied for the application of dorsal schneiderian membrane to reduce algesic paroxysmal events
common for Slader’s syndrome (ganglionitis of pterygo-palatine ganglion )?
A. 2% ephedrine;
B. 10 % lidocaine;
C. 9% sodium chloride;
D. 1% furosemide;
E. 10% chloride of calcium
167. A patient of 55 suffers from pain attacks in the right lower face irradiating temporal fossa and auricle. The dentist
inspecting the patient made a diagnosis: the central (idiopathic) neuralgia of trifacial nerve. What drug should be applied to
stop the disease?
A. Analgin
C. Baralgin
E. Ketanov
B. Gabapentin
D. Diphenhydramine hydrochloride
168. A patient of 67 complains of pain in the parotic-masticatory area, as well as of sonitus, loss of hearing and lingual
burning. The checkup revealed xerostomia, abnormal teeth abrasion (diminution of occlusal vertical dimension), and the
hypertension of masticatory muscles. What is the provisional diagnosis?
А. Costen’s syndrome.
С. Osteoarthrosis of temporoD. Neuralgia of the III branch of
В. Masseter muscle contracture
mandibular joint
trifacial nerve.
E. Peracute otitis
169. A patient of 40 suffers from gnawing glossodynia increasing while talking and eating, hyposensivity in the anterior 2/3
tongue and mouth cavity mucosa. The anamnesis revealed that the pain had been brought after the care of lower teeth
applying local anaesthesia. Define a provisional diagnosis.
А. Neuralgia of lingual nerve
С. Acute glossitis
E. Subglossal neuroganglion
В. Glossdynia
D. Neuritis of lingual nerve
gangliitis
170. A patient of 59 suffers from spontaneous colicky pains of “shooting” character in the periocular area and the right side
of the upper lip. The pain suddenly arises while talking or eating, lasts for 3-5 minutes and then impulsively stops. The cold
pressure test is negative. Target supramaxilla Rtg-graphy was carried out. No abnormal changes in the roots have been
revealed. The patient has been taking analgin and tempalgin but no amelioration has followed. Define a diagnosis:
А. Peripheral secondary neuralgia of the II branch of trifacial nerve at the right.
В. Neuritis of the II branch of trifacial nerve at the right.
С.Central (idiopathic) neuralgia of the II branch of the trigeminal nerve at the right.
D. Upper tooth pulpitis
171. What are the main pathogenetic factors of trifacial neuiritis?
А. Toxic, metabolic or vascular abnormalities of nerve
С. Compression of nerve trunk or nerve branch
caused by a chronic inflammatory process
D. All the listed factors
В. Nerve degeneration
172. Define the effects caused by tranquilizers that are applied for trifacial neuralgia treatment.
А. Myorelaxing;
С. Sedative;
E. All the listed effects
В. Anxiolytic;
D. Hypnagogic;
173. A woman of 34 suffers from an attack-like violent pain in the periorbital, eyebulb and upper jaw areas. The pain is
accompanied by watery eye and rhinorrhea. Dorsal rhinedema and hyperemia of nasal mucosa are observed. What syndrome
can be defined in the case?
А. Hunt’s syndrome;
С. Frey syndrome;
E. Slader’s syndrome.
В. Oppenheim’s syndrome;
D. Sharlen’s syndrome;
174. Subtemporal anesthesia after P. Yehorov was carried out for the sake of verification the diagnosis “syndrome of the
algesic dysfunction of right temporomandibular joint”. The procedure resulted in myospasmolysis and gaining mouth
opening. What nerve filaments were blocked?
А. Motor fibers of trifacial nerve
В. Sensorial fibers of trifacial nerve
D. Sensorial fibers of upper cervical
plexus
С. Fibers of facial nerve
E. Auricular nerve ganglion
175. A patient of 62 applied to a dentist complaining of megalgia, stabbing and bursting pain in the area of upper lip at the
right. Pain attacks appear spontaneously in the area of infraorbital fossae. According to the patient’s words the pain was
caused by a partial denture. A control orthopantomography revealed the over-complete impacted 13th tooth. Define a
diagnosis:
A. Peripheral neurology of the II branch of trifacial nerve
D. Neuroloty of the II branch of central trifacial nerve
B. Ganglionitis of pterygo-palatine ganglion
E. Upper tooth pulpitis on the right
C. Neuritis of the II branch of trigeminal nerve
side
176. A patient of 52 complains of a gnawing pain in the lateral side of low jaw. Megalgia has resulted in the removal of the
early cared 35th, 36th and 37th teeth. The percussion test of the noninvolved 34th tooth causes pain increasing. X-ray
examination revealed the diminution of foramen. What is the provisional diagnosis?
A. Central neuralgia of the III
branch of trifacial nerve
B. Pulpitis of the 34th tooth
C. Periodontitis of the 34th tooth
D. Ganglionitis of sub-maxillary
ganglion
E. Peripheral neuralgia of the III
branch of trifacial nerve