Fall 2011 Natural Resources Final
Name (print large and clearly):
Date:
Hr:
Directions: Do NOT open this packet until instructed to do so. There should be absolutely NO TALKING during the exam
unless you have raised your hand and have been called on by the instructor. Failure to do so will result in one verbal
warning, and then a failed test grade.
Students should sit on opposite sides of the lab tables for this exam. DO NOT sit together on the same side.
Select the BEST answer to each question from the options given (more than one may sound right, but there is only one
entirely correct answer per question). Be sure to clearly mark your answers on the Scantron sheet. You may write on
your test packet, but only answers on the Scantron will be considered.
You may use one and only one 3x5” note card with your own handwritten note. This notecard must stay on the desk in
front of you at all times.
Exam test taking tips:
Treat each question like a short answer question if you can. Cover the answers, create an answer in your head, and then
match that answer to those given to find the best answer.
If you do not know an answer, skip it and come back later.
Use information from other questions to help you. One question may help you answer another question.
Cross off answers to eliminate and lower possibilities. If you cannot narrow the options to just one, select the answer
that sounds the best to you and makes the most sense.
Read each question AND each option carefully. Do not select an answer until you have read them all!
Good Luck!
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Copyright 2011 by Craig Kohn, Agricultural Sciences, Waterford WI. This source may be freely used provided the author is cited.
1. Which of the following is NOT considered an aquatic ecosystem?
a. Oceans b. Lakes c. Rivers d. Wetlands e. None of the above; all are aquatic ecosystems
2. The area of land from which a body of water receives its water is called at…
a. Drainage basin b. Water drain c. Watershed d. Precipitation reservoir
3. Which of the following is the base of the food chain in an aquatic ecosystem?
a. Phytoplankton b. Zooplankton c. Macroinvertebrates d. Small fish
4. Which of the following would be an example of Non-point Source pollution?
a. Photosynthesis due to sunlight
b. The presence of zooplankton in a body of water
c. Discharge from an overwhelmed sewage treatment plant
d. Topsoil erosion from farm fields into a river
5. Which of the following would be an example of Point-source pollution?
a. Photosynthesis due to sunlight
b. The presence of zooplankton in a body of water
c. Discharge from an overwhelmed sewage treatment plant
d. Topsoil erosion from farm fields into a river
6. Which of the following best describes biomagnification?
a. When PCBs collect in the sediment of a river
b. When lead concentrations in living tissue increase at each level of the food chain
c. When high nutrient levels cause algae blooms that lower dissolved oxygen
d. When photosynthetic organisms at the base of the food chain fail to produce food
7. Which of the following best describes eutrophication?
a. When PCBs collect in the sediment of a river
b. When lead concentrations in living tissue increase at each level of the food chain
c. When high nutrient levels cause algae blooms that lower dissolved oxygen
d. When photosynthetic organisms at the base of the food chain fail to produce food
8. Why would a predator fish be more likely to cause a problem related to biomagnification?
a. The higher the animal is on the food chain, the worse the problem of biomagnification becomes
b. Predator fish are more likely to eat the phytoplankton that have the highest concentrations of a
pollutant
c. Predator fish like Brittney Spears albums, such as her latest album Toxic
d. None of the above – predator fish are less likely cause biomagnification-related problems than smaller
fish
9. In order for a pollutant to biomagnify, it must be…
a. Mutagenic b. Synthetic c. Easily degradable d. Fat-soluble
10. If a toxin is mutagenic, it may affect an organism’s…
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Copyright 2011 by Craig Kohn, Agricultural Sciences, Waterford WI. This source may be freely used provided the author is cited.
a. DNA b. Ability to reproduce c. Immune System d. All of the above
11. PCB’s are a problem today because…
a. They are still legal and widely used
b. They are long-lived and continue to be introduced from leaky sites and equipment
c. They are produced naturally by ecological processes
d. PCB’s are not a problem today
12. Why should hunters and fishermen avoid lead-based ammunition and sinkers?
a. Lead can cause eutrophication
b. Lead can lower oxygen levels in the water
c. Lead can biomagnify in living tissue
d. Lead is just fine to use so long as you don’t use too much
13. Nitrates and phosphates are a problem because…
a. They can biomagnify
b. They are mutagens
c. They increase oxygen levels in the water
d. They lead to eutrophication
14. What is eutrophication?
a. The process in which water levels heat up, lowering dissolved oxygen
b. The process in which dissolved oxygen levels are lowered due to the overgrowth of algae
c. The process in which mutagenic compounds lower the levels of dissolved oxygen in the water
d. The process in which the population of fish increases too quickly, lowering dissolved oxygen
15. Why would increased algae populations lower dissolved oxygen levels?
a. Algae prevents plants under the water from getting sunlight, stopping photosynthesis and oxygen
production.
b. Algae consumes oxygen when it photosynthesizes
c. Algae consumes oxygen when it consumes dead organisms
d. None of the above
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Copyright 2011 by Craig Kohn, Agricultural Sciences, Waterford WI. This source may be freely used provided the author is cited.
16. Which of the following would be an accurate description of thermal pollution?
a. The increase in water temperature due to human activity
b. The decrease in water temperature due to human activity
c. The reduction of dissolved oxygen in a body of water due to high nutrient levels
d. When fish start wearing bulky winter clothes that really aren’t flattering
17. How are dissolved oxygen and water temperature related?
a. The colder the water, the lower the dissolved oxygen
b. The warmer the water, the lower the dissolved oxygen
c. Oxygen levels peak at room temperature but are lower at higher or lower temperatures
d. Dissolved oxygen and water temperature are unrelated
18. How does warm water affect dissolved oxygen levels?
a. As the water warms, oxygen levels increase because of increased rates of photosynthesis
b. As the water warms, its ability to hold gases like oxygen is reduced.
c. As the water warms, rates of decomposition increase, lowering oxygen rates.
d. Both B and C are correct
19. Nitrates are most commonly introduced into aquatic ecosystems from what sources?
a. Manure, sewage, and poorly constructed feedlots
b. Industrial waste, leaky landfills, and electronics
c. Water used for cooling factory machines
d. Parking lots and asphalt roadways
20. High levels of nitrates in a waterway causes…
a. Eutrophication
b. Biomagnification
c. Thermal pollution
d. Acid rain
21. Methemoglobinemia results from high nitrate levels; methemoglobinemia causes…
a. Birth defects and growth disorders
b. Pancreatic failure
c. The inability of red blood cells to carry oxygen
d. Weakened, brittle bones
22. High levels of phosphates in a waterway causes…
a. Eutrophication b. Biomagnification c. Thermal pollution
d. Acid rain
23. Heavy metals are ….
a. Always toxic to living organisms
b. Needed by organisms in trace amounts
c. Needed in large amounts by organisms
d. Unlikely to cause environmental problems
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Copyright 2011 by Craig Kohn, Agricultural Sciences, Waterford WI. This source may be freely used provided the author is cited.
24. High levels of lead in an organism are likely to result in what problems?
a. Bioaccumulation leading to liver and kidney failure
b. Replacement of calcium in the bones
c. Displacement of oxygen on red blood cells
d. High levels of this substance are unlikely to cause physical problems in an organism.
25. High levels of mercury in an organism are likely to result in what problems?
a. Bioaccumulation leading to liver and kidney failure
b. Replacement of calcium in the bones
c. Displacement of oxygen on red blood cells
d. High levels of this substance are unlikely to cause physical problems in an organism.
26. Macroinvertebrates are…
a. Small fish b. Single-celled aquatic organisms
c. Aquatic bugs d. Predator fish
27. Macroinvertebrates are advantageous for indicating water
quality because…
a. They can help us determine the exact cause of
water pollution problems
b. They change color when the water is polluted
c. They are always found at the same amounts in every
aquatic habitat
d. They can provide information about the longterm health of an aquatic habitat
Stream X has Riffle Beetles, Damselflies, Fingernail
Clams, Craneflies, Leeches, and Sowbugs
Stream Y has Aquatic Earthworms, Flat-tailed Maggots,
Leeches, Sowbugs, and Snails
Stream Z has Freshwater Clams, Water Pennies,
Dragonflies, Gill Snails, and Mayflies
Which stream is healthiest?
28. Stream X b. Stream Y c. Stream Z d. You cannot tell
from this information
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Copyright 2011 by Craig Kohn, Agricultural Sciences, Waterford WI. This source may be freely used provided the author is cited.
29. pH is the measure of…
a. Hydroxide ion concentrations
b. The acidity of a substances
c. How basic a substance is
d. All of the above are true
30. Significant changes to the pH of a body of water indicates…
a. Thermal pollution
b. Eutrophication
c. That contaminants have been introduced
d. Nothing at all
31. Acid rain is caused by…
a. Nitrates and phosphates
b. Temperature change to a body of water
c. Heavy metals
d. Exhaust from automobiles and power plants
32. How does acid rain affect an ecosystem?
a. It leaches nutrients from the soil, harms the tissue of living organisms, and can cause the toxic buildup of
metals in a waterway
b. It lowers dissolved oxygen
c. It heats up a body of water.
d. It causes an overgrowth of algae.
33. Population ecology is…
a. The study of the factors that affect the population levels, survival, and reproduction of individual species
in a specific area.
b. The application of scientific knowledge and technical skills to protect, preserve, conserve, limit,
enhance, or extend the value of wildlife and its habitat
c. The study of the interaction of living and nonliving components of a habitat
d. The study of the interactions of different kinds of species
34. Wildlife Management is…
a. The study of the factors that affect the population levels, survival, and reproduction of individual species
in a specific area.
b. The application of scientific knowledge and technical skills to protect, preserve, conserve, limit,
enhance, or extend the value of wildlife and its habitat
c. The study of the interaction of living and nonliving components of a habitat
d. The study of the interactions of different kinds of species
35. A population is…
a. The number of individuals of a species in one area at one time.
b. The amount of species per unit area
c. Any non-domesticated vertebrate animals, including birds, mammals, reptiles, and amphibians
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Copyright 2011 by Craig Kohn, Agricultural Sciences, Waterford WI. This source may be freely used provided the author is cited.
d. Any living species that is not domesticated
36. Wildlife are…
a. The number of individuals of a species in one area at one time.
b. The amount of species per unit area
c. Any non-domesticated vertebrate animals, including birds, mammals, reptiles, and amphibians
d. Any living species that is not domesticated
37. Mr. Kohn wants to estimate the number of squirrels in the campus Environmental Center. He sets traps and
catches 7 squirrels the first time. He marks them, releases them, and sets the traps again. This time he catches
10 squirrels. He knows that he caught five squirrels twice because they are marked. How many squirrels exist in
the Environmental Center? (number below are rounded if not whole)
a. (7 x 10) / 5 = 14 squirrels in the Env’t Center
b. (7 x 5) / 10 = 3 squirrels in the Env’t Center
c. (10 x 5) / 7 = 7 squirrels in the Env’t Center
d. None of the above
38. 20 fish are caught in a local pond and have their fins notched. A month later, another 30 fish are caught. 5 have
their fins notched (meaning they were caught twice). How many fish are in this pond?
a. (20 x 5)/30 = 3 b. (20 x 30)/5 = 80 c. (30 x 5)/20 = 8 d. None of the above
39. What is the difference between fecundity and fertility
a. Fecundity is how many young a female actually has; fertility is how many they could have
b. Fertility is how many young a female actually has; fecundity is how many they could have
c. Fecundity is how many young a habitat can support; fertility is how many it must support
d. Fertility is how many young a habitat can support; fecundity is how many it must support
40. With unlimited access to resources, a species’ population will grow…
a. Slowly
b. Steadily and evenly
c. Exponentially and then level off
d. Exponentially without limit
41. The maximum number of individuals that a habitat can sustain without degradation is known as the…
a. Carrying Capacity b. Saturation Point c. K-value d. All of the above
42. Deer across the state of Wisconsin exhibit a ____________ pattern of dispersion
a. Clumped b. Uniform c. Random d. Zig Zag
43. Define abundance:
a. The total number of deer estimated for an entire unit
b. The likelihood of having deer in a certain area
c. The number of deer per square mile
d. A type of habitat where a deer have reached their saturation point
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Copyright 2011 by Craig Kohn, Agricultural Sciences, Waterford WI. This source may be freely used provided the author is cited.
44. Define density:
a. The total number of deer estimated for an entire unit
b. The likelihood of having deer in a certain area
c. The number of deer per square mile
d. A type of habitat where a deer have reached their saturation point
45. The Waterford Area has an estimated deer density of 60 deer per square mile. If you hunt on a property one
square mile in size in this area, you will likely see…
a. About 60 deer, with little variation from property to property
b. A wide variety of deer depending on the habitat quality and hunting pressure
c. The same number of deer as any other property in the state
d. No deer because the DNR doesn’t know what it’s talking about
46. Why might it be a bad idea to increase the size of a deer herd beyond the carrying capacity of a habitat?
a. You will increase the likelihood of a disease outbreak (like CWD)
b. You will cause increased competition and lowered biodiversity of other species in the habitat
c. You will threaten the long-term health of the habitat and of the deer herd
d. All of the above are possible consequences of an excessively large deer herd
47. Deer populations become __________ dense as available habitat is lost, reducing fertility and animal size while
increasing the risk of disease and degradation to a habitat.
a. More b. Less
48. Vostok is…
a. A former Soviet military base in Antarctica
b. A researcher who first proposed the idea of climate change
c. A Russian term for “change”
d. All of the above
49. Why is a research station for climate change located in Antarctica?
a. It is the only continent unaffected by development and industrialization
b. Antarctica is located directly on the jet stream, meaning it is affected by all activity on the planet
c. The ice on this continent preserves air over hundreds of thousands of years old
d. Antarctica is the only continent that does not receive precipitation, reducing the variability of the data
50. As researchers drill deeper into the ice, the air trapped in the ice gets…
a. Dirtier b. Older c. Cleaner d. Newer
51. The air trapped in the ice under Vostok is over _______ years old
a. 4500 b. 45,000 c. 450,000 d. 4,500,000
52. _________ is a byproduct of burning, decomposition, and cellular respiration, and is the most prevalent
greenhouse gas
a. Carbon Dioxide b. Methane c. Deuterium d. Dust
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Copyright 2011 by Craig Kohn, Agricultural Sciences, Waterford WI. This source may be freely used provided the author is cited.
53. ________ is not well understood in regards to its impact on climate change and can both lower and raise global
temperatures depending on the circumstances.
a. Carbon Dioxide b. Methane c. Deuterium d. Dust
54. ________ is the most potent greenhouse gas and is released when organic matter is broken down without
oxygen.
a. Carbon Dioxide b. Methane c. Deuterium d. Dust
55. ___________ is measured to determine the average global temperature in a given year.
a. Carbon Dioxide b. Methane c. Deuterium d. Dust
56. Why are CO2 levels a concern?
a. CO2 is a deadly greenhouse gas and is not found naturally in the atmosphere
b. CO2 can absorb radiation in the atmosphere, slowing its release into space
c. CO2 is a pollutant from industrial activity and can cause acid rain
d. None of the above. CO2 is naturally found in the atmosphere and therefore it is not a concern
57. Prior to the Industrial Revolution, CO2 naturally was found between ______________ ppm in the atmosphere.
a. 100-200 b. 200-300 c. 300-700 d. 700-1000
58. How does CO2 cause the atmosphere to warm?
a. CO2 causes increased cloud cover, which traps heat on the surface of the earth
b. CO2 decreases cloud cover, cause surface temperatures to warm up more than usual
c. CO2 breaks down in the atmosphere; this decomposition causes slight elevations in temperature
d. CO2 molecules absorb radiation, release it, and reabsorb it; this absorption-reabsorption slows the
movement of heat from the surface of the earth out into space
59. Today, CO2 levels are just under ________ ppm, or 50% higher than the natural maximum
a. 300 b. 400 c. 1800 d. 3000
60. Prior to the Industrial Revolution, methane levels were between ______________ ppb in the atmosphere.
a. 100-200 b. 200-300 c. 300-700 d. 700-1000
61. Today, methane levels are just under ________ ppb, or 390% higher than the natural maximum
a. 300 b. 400 c. 1800 d. 3000
62. We know the average temperature for every year for almost the past million years because we can analyze the
amount of __________ trapped in air bubbles in ice. The warmer the air at the time, the more we should find.
a. CO2 b. Methane c. Dust d. Deuterium
63. Prior to the Industrial Revolution, the maximum rate of increase of temperature was _____
a. 1o per thousand years
b. 3o per thousand years
c. 10 o per thousand years
d. 20 o per thousand years
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Copyright 2011 by Craig Kohn, Agricultural Sciences, Waterford WI. This source may be freely used provided the author is cited.
64. Since 1900, the rate of temperature increase was…
a. 0.1o per hundred years
b. 1 o per hundred years
c. 1.4 o per hundred years
d. 10 o per hundred years
65. The 10 warmest years on record have all occurred since…
a. 1900 b. 1950 c. 1975 d. 1998
66. The sun’s energy output has ______________ since 2000
a. Increased b. Decreased c. Remained the same
d. Fluctuated widely
67. Which of the following is true?
a. The earth is warming at a rate over 10 times faster than normal and increasing at a faster rate each year,
with human activity as the major, if not the sole cause.
b. Greenhouse gases cause an unmistakable increase in global temperatures
c. Greenhouse gases are higher now than at any point in nearly the past million years.
d. The earth is changing at a rate in which it is impossible for adaptations to arise; species will go extinct
e. All of the above are accepted as true
68. Which of the following shows the correct order of survival needs from greatest to least?
a. Shelter, Water, Positive mental attitude, Air
b. Positive mental attitude; Air; Shelter; Water
c. Water, Shelter, Air, Positive Mental Attitude
d. Air, Water, Shelter, Positive Mental Attitude
69. To “size up your surroundings” means to…
a. Locate your current whereabouts on a map
b. Estimate your likelihood of living
c. Assess your physical condition, understand your surroundings, and size up what you have for equipment
d. Guess how tall the trees around you are
70. It is important to plan and use your senses because in an emergency, your ability to make good decisions is…
a. Often impaired because of shock b. At its peak c. Impossible d. Good but not great
71. If you have no map, how can you obtain a sense of direction?
a. Look at the stars; they are always in the same place in the sky
b. Use your watch – the second hand always points north
c. Remember that the sun rises in the east and sets in the west
d. Yell “Where am I?” really loudly. Maybe someone will tell you
72. If you feel panic rising, what should you do?
a. Keep panicking…people perform best under pressure
b. Verbally explain to other people all of the things that are making you panic
c. Close your eyes and crouch until the feeling goes away
d. Take a deep breath and focus on how you would be rescued
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Copyright 2011 by Craig Kohn, Agricultural Sciences, Waterford WI. This source may be freely used provided the author is cited.
73. In the presentation, one of the tips was to “value life”. What does this mean?
a. Focus on how current suffering will help you to stay alive
b. Ignore suffering altogether and imagine what things were like before the emergency
c. Don’t value dying…it just doesn’t help
d. Buy a Life AlertTM medical device
74. If something is safe for an animal to consume, is it safe for you?
a. Always
b. Never
c. Not necessarily – only consume something if you have reason to believe it is safe
75. In a cold weather emergency, what body parts should remain covered at all times?
a. The head b. The neck c. The head, neck, wrists, and ankles d. The head, neck, chest, and groin
76. Hypothermia is…
a. The formation of ice crystals inside living tissue
b. When your extremities feel cold
c. When your core body temperature falls below 98o
d. When your body overheats from exertion
77. Which of the following would NOT prevent hypothermia?
a. Dressing in lose layers
b. Engaging in physically exerting activities
c. Eating high-energy foods
d. Staying dry and avoiding cotton
78. If a person has hypothermia and has rigid muscles that stop shivering, they have…
a. Frostbite b. Mild Hypothermia c. Severe Hypothermia d. No hypothermia – they’re fine
79. The only way to treat hypothermia is to…
a. See a doctor b. Exercise c. Warm the victim in any way d. Soak the affected limbs in tepid water
80. Frostbite is…
a. The formation of ice crystals inside living tissue
b. When your extremities feel cold
c. When your core body temperature falls below 98o
d. When your body overheats from exertion
81. The best way to prevent frostbite in an emergency is to…
a. Eat high-energy foods
b. Wear cotton
c. Exercise
d. Keep extremities covered at all times
82. Which of the following is a symptom of frostbite?
a. White spots surrounded by red skin b. A body temperature below 98o c. Shivering d. Slurred speech
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Copyright 2011 by Craig Kohn, Agricultural Sciences, Waterford WI. This source may be freely used provided the author is cited.
83. To treat frostbite, you must…
a. Slowly and gently warm the affected area
b. Quickly warm the affected area or the cold will continue to kill the tissue
c. Have the person exercise to increase blood circulation
d. See a doctor; frostbite can’t be treated without one
84. Carbon monoxide poisoning is most likely to occur when…
a. A person is in a cold-weather emergency
b. Something is burned in an enclosed area
c. Something is burned in an open area
d. A person has hypothermia
85. Symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning include…
a. Gray gums and a low body temperature
b. Yellow eyes and shivering
c. Cherry red gums, headache, and dizziness
86. In a cold weather emergency, how long can you survive without shelter?
a. 3 hours b. 3 days c. 5 hours d. 5 days
87. Which of the following should always be in your car?
a. First aid kit b. Blanket c. Flashlight with extra batteries d. All of the above
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Copyright 2011 by Craig Kohn, Agricultural Sciences, Waterford WI. This source may be freely used provided the author is cited.