Immuno TB Flashcards Unit 1
1) Eosinophils are involved in the immune response against:
2) What are considered to be an acute phase protein?
a. serum amyloid A
b. streptolysin O
c. cardiolipin
d. reagin
3) A patient is tested for the presence of C-reactive protein and is
found to have an elevated level. What does this indicate is
taking place in the patient?
4) What are directly used in oxidative killing of target cells?
5) A protein that only changes in concentration significantly in
response to inflammation and is not detectable when there is no
inflammation is called a/an:
6) What can be measured as an indicator of inflammation?
7) What cells are components of innate (natural) immunity?
8) Neutrophils and macrophages use all of the following to kill
bacteria EXCEPT:
a. H2O2
b. perforin
c. hydroxyl radical
d. lysozyme
e. superoxide anion
9) What is a characteristic of circulating neutrophils (PMN)?
a. lyse cells with perforin
b. recognize antigen with an antigen-specific receptor
c. have surface receptors for Fc of IgG
d. have surface receptors for C5a
10) What is the name of the process by which phagocytic cells are
attracted toward a substance such as complement fragment
C3a?
11) The function(s) of macrophages/monocytes in the host immune
response is (are):
12) Acute phase reactants have been determined to be elevated in a
patient. What does this result on its own indicate about the
patient?
13) The phagosome of a macrophage is a membrane-bound vesicle
that contains:
14) Oxidative killing involves What?
15) Macrophages recognize target cells using What?
multicellular parasites
A
inflammation
lysozyme
acute phase protein
Temperature, number of
WBCs, and erythrocyte
sedimentation rate
Macrophages
B
have surface receptors for
Fc of IgG
chemotaxis
antigen presentation,
phagocytosis, secretion of
cytokines
Inflammation of unknown
cause is present.
ingested bacteria
formation of reactive
oxygen intermediates
mannose receptors
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Immuno TB Flashcards Unit 1
16) Diapedesis is:
17) The respiratory burst is:
18) What is part of the external defense system?
19) Which is characteristic of natural immunity?
20) What is the major function of C-reactive protein (CRP)?
21) All of the following are considered part of natural immunity
EXCEPT:
a. eosinophils
b. lymphocytes
c. acute phase reactants
d. neutrophils
22) Where does the immune response to foreign antigen in the
tissue mainly occur?
23) Which white cell in the peripheral blood migrates to the tissue
to become a macrophage?
24) What acute phase reactants is an important clotting factor?
25) Which substance best inactivates bacterial proteins?
26) A white blood cell that is 16 to 18 um in diameter, has a
horseshoe-shaped nucleus, and is capable of further
differentiation in the tissues best describes:
27) Jenner's discovery that cowpox generated immunity against
smallpox is based on the principle of:
28) All of the following are characteristic of acute phase reactants
EXCEPT:
a. increase rapidly in response to infection
b. used to diagnose a specific disease
c. enhance phagocytosis
d. promote inflammation
29) What is the function of the acute phase protein haptoglobin?
30) Measurement of CRP levels could be used for What?
31) Acquired (adaptive) immunity can be characterized by What?
32) Neutrophils are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. found in the marginating pool in blood vessels
b. capable of diapedesis
c. granules stain bright orange with Wright stain
d. segmented nucleus
cells squeezing through
endothelial cells to leave the
circulation
an increase in oxygen
consumption
skin
It depends on normally
present body functions.
acts as an opsonin
B
lymph nodes
monocyte
fibrinogen
OCl–
monocyte
cross-immunity
B
binds hemoglobin
to determine risk of a heart
attack, to determine flare-up
of rheumatoid arthritis, to
detect an inflammatory
process
involves memory
C
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Immuno TB Flashcards Unit 1
33) All of the following occur during the process of inflammation
EXCEPT:
a. increased capillary permeability
b. migration of basophils to tissue
c. increase in blood flow
d. swelling and pain
34) What best explains the reaction that takes place in the latex
agglutination slide test for CRP?
35) What is true of NK cells?
36) What is NOT characteristic of acquired immunity?
A. Memory is involved.
B. Lymphocytes play a major role.
C. It is very specific.
D. It depends on normally present body functions.
37) All of the following are characteristic of a lymph node
EXCEPT:
a. filters drainage from tissues
b. colonized with T and B cells
c. between 1 and 25 mm in size
d. considered a primary or central lymphoid organ
38) What represents the best explanation for the action of natural
killer (NK) cells?
39) All of the following are considered part of natural immunity
EXCEPT:
a. eosinophils
b. lymphocytes
c. acute phase reactants
d. neutrophils
40) Macrophages that migrate to the liver are called:
41) Acquired immunity can be characterized by What?
42) The ability to resist infection through normally present body
functions best characterizes:
43) A white blood cell described as between 12 to 22 um with a
large horseshoe-shaped nucleus that further differentiates in the
tissue to become a macrophage best describes:
44) What is considered part of the internal defense system?
a. cilia
b. mucous membranes
c. neutrophils
d. acidity of the skin
B
Latex particles are coated
with anti-CRP.
They kill tumor and virally
infected cells.
D
D
They kill by releasing
perforins
B
Kupffer cells
involves memory
natural immunity
monocyte
C
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Immuno TB Flashcards Unit 1
45) All of the following are part of the process of phagocytosis
EXCEPT:
a. formation of a phagosome
b. creation of hypochlorite radicals
c. formation of fibrin clots
d. outflowing of cell cytoplasm
46) All of the following are examples of natural immunity
EXCEPT:
a. skin as a structural barrier
b. acute phase reactants
c. phagocytosis
d. antibodies
47) If a slide test for CRP is positive, what does this indicate?
48) All of the following are considered acute phase reactants
EXCEPT:
a. fibrinogen
b. complement
c. C-reactive protein
d. TNF-alpha
49) B cells that respond against self-antigens will undergo:
C
D
It is a nonspecific indicator
of inflammation
D
receptor editing, anergy,
apoptosis
memory lymphocyte
50) A cell that can recall previous contact with a particular antigen
so that subsequent exposure leads to a more rapid and more
effective immune response than the first encounter is by
definition which type of cell?
51) D-J rearrangements only have occurred in which stage of B cell pro-B cell
development?
52) The germinal center of a lymph node is made up primarily of
B cells
which type of cell?
53) The purpose of negative selection of B cells is to:
Identify B cells that are
specific for self-antigens.
54) B cells that express low-affinity IgM, respond to bacterial
B-1 cells
polysaccharides, and express CD5 are known as:
55) When IgM on the surface of an immature B cell binds to a self- apoptosis
antigen, What processes can occur?
56) What distinguishes mature B cells from B cells at other stages
co-expression of IgM and
of development?
IgD
57) What would NOT be found on the surface of a mature, naive B
cell?
58) Antigen-independent differentiation of B cells occurs in the:
59) What would be found on the surface of a pre-B cell?
60) The primary site of antigen trapping and presentation to
immune cells is the:
surrogate light chains
bone marrow
mu and surrogate light
chains
spleen
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Immuno TB Flashcards Unit 1
61) Predominant cell types involved in the humoral immune
response are:
62) The receptor for antigen on a mature naïve B cell is:
63) The difference in kinetics between a primary and secondary
immune response is due to the presence of:
64) The only cells in the body capable of specifically recognizing
and distinguishing different antigenic determinants are:
65) Tissues that function by trapping and concentrating antigens
for presentation to cells of the immune system are known as:
66) Neutrophils and other cells have receptors on their surface that
bind to the Fc region of IgG, which is known as:
67) T lymphocytes undergo antigen-independent maturation in the:
68) T helper cells recognize what?
69) How are cytotoxic T cells and natural killer cells similar?
70) T cells travel from the bone marrow to the thymus for
maturation. What is the correct order of the maturation
sequence for T cells in the thymus?
71) Immunoglobulin and T-cell receptors are similar in what
properties?
72) T cells emerging from the thymus are:
73) Perforin and granzymes are used by which cells to kill target
cells?
74) Which T cell surface protein is associated with the T-cell
receptor and is involved in signal transduction?
75) Cytotoxic T cells are the primary immune response against
which pathogen?
76) The cells that primarily function by secreting large amounts of
cytokines are:
77) The purpose or end result of negative selection of the T cell is
to ensure:
78) What binds to CD16 on the surface of natural killer cells?
79) What exhibits allelic exclusion in its expression?
80) Helper Tcels function directly in:
81) An immune T cell differs from a mature T cell because an immature
T cell:
82) Natural killer cells recognize and kill target cells that are:
83) A T cell that is rarely found in secondary lymphoid organs and
recognizes a limited number of native epitopes is known as a(an):
84) What cells that participate in cell-mediated immunity are antigen
specific and directly cytotoxic for target cells?
B cells
IgM
memory cells in the
secondary response
lymphocytes
peripheral or secondary
lymphoid organs
CD16
thymus
exogenous peptide bound to
class II
Both induce apoptosis in the
target cell.
maturation and selection
occur in the cortex, then the
medulla; release of mature
T cells to secondary
lymphoid organs
multiple gene segments
encoding the variable region
MHC restricted, selftolerant, antigen specific
natural killer cells and CD8
T cells
CD3
viruses
T helper cells
self-tolerance
Fc of IgG
T-cell receptor
delayed-type hypersensitivity
co-expresses CD4 and CD8
lacking expression of HLA-A,
B, and C
gamma-delta T cell
cytotoxic cells
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Immuno TB Flashcards Unit 1
85) What is a cytotoxic T cell membrane-bound factor that is involved in
Fas ligand
inducing apoptosis in target cells?
86) T cells differ from B cell in what ways?
a. T cells express surface immunoglobulin
b. B cells express CD19 but not CD3
c. T cells express CD19, CD3, and CD4
d. B cells express surface immunoglobulin and CD3
87) The T-cell receptor for antigen comprises what molecules?
88) Granzymes activate what in a target cell?
89) In antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity, target cells are
recognized by what?
90) All of the following are characteristic of a lymph node EXCEPT:
a. filters drainage from tissues
b. colonized with T and B cells
c. between 1 and 25 mm in size
d. considered a primary or central lymphoid organ
91) Which marker would be found on pre-B cells?
92) What represents the best explanation for the action of natural killer
(NK) cells?
93) A lymphocyte exhibits the following markers: CD19, IgM, IgD,
What is its likely identity?
94) Sheep red blood cells forming rosettes around T cells is due to the
presence of What T cells?
95) All lymphocytes arise from stem cells made in the:
96) Which best describes the specific antigen receptor that is part of CD3
found on T cells?
97) Which is a primary lymphoid organ?
98) Which cell is capable of producing antibody?
99) A plasma cell differs from a B cell in which way?
100)
101)
The function of T cells with CD4 antigen is what?
The stage in B cell development in which TdT and RAG
enzymes appear is called:
102) What contain B cells that are actively responding to antigen?
103) What surface markers are found on mature B cells?
104) Lymphocytes that have IgM, IgD, and MHC class II antigens on
their surface, and they mature in the bone marrow itself, are:
105) Which cells are responsible for killing virally infected host cells
and tumor cells?
106) What surface markers are found on mature T cells?
107) Lymphocytes that mature in the thymus are involved in
which immune response?
108) Which marker is found on the group of T cells that assist B
cells in making antibody?
109) What would be considered a primary lymphoid organ?
B
alpha and beta chains
apoptosis
CD16 on the effector cell
binding to Fc of IgG bound to
target cell
D
μ heavy chains
They kill by releasing
perforins
mature B cell
CD2
bone marrow
Alpha and beta chains bind
antigen
thymus
plasma cell
Only plasma cells secrete
circulating antibody
to help B cells make antibody
thymocyte
germinal centers
IgM and IgD
B cells
CD8 T cells
CD3
cytokine-mediated
responses
CD4
bone marrow
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Immuno TB Flashcards Unit 1
110) Where does contact with antigen and activation of B cells
normally occur?
111) Another name for antigenic determinant is:
112) The best immunogen would be:
113) A 50 kDa protein from a bacterial cell that has numerous
different epitopes would be called:
114) What molecules are the better immunogen?
115) A low-molecular-weight molecule that has one binding site
for an antibody would be what?
116) All of the following are characteristics of both MHC class
I and class II molecules EXCEPT:
117) Which MHC class of antigens is necessary for antigen
recognition by CD4-positive T cells?
118) Class II molecules bind to what kind of peptides?
119) MHC class II molecules have specificity for:
120) Major histocompatibility (MHC) molecules containing
beta-2-microglobulin:
121) The purpose of the invariant chain (Ii, CD74) is to block
the peptide-binding site of:
122) What is a characteristic of HLA-DR, -DP, and -DQ
molecules?
123) Which is characteristic of thymus-dependent antigens?
124) T-independent antigens:
125) Endogenous peptides binding to HLA-A, B, or C
molecules on the surface of hepatocytes is critical for the
response by:
126) What substance and what molecular weight is likely to be
the most immunogenic?
127) Antigens found in different species that trigger a similar
antibody response are called:
128) Blood from a suspect is typed to see if it is a match with a
sample found at the crime scene. The suspect's blood exhibits
the following reactions: no agglutination with anti-A, no
agglutination with anti-B. What is the suspect's blood type?
129) The ability to respond to antigen depends on what factors?
130) A macromolecule that is capable of eliciting an immune
response in an immunocompetent host is called a(an):
131) When a human responds to a bacterial antigen, the
bacterial antigen is classified as a(an):
in lymph nodes
epitope
multivalent with many
specificities
immunogen and antigen
protein
hapten
expressed constitutively on
all nucleated cells
class II
processed exogenous
peptides with a particular
motif
are determined by HLAA, HLA-B, and HLA-C
genes
class II molecules
expressed co-dominantly
(maternal and paternal)
They are proteins
stimulate primarily an IgM
response
cytotoxic T cells
a protein with a molecular
weight of 45,000 d
heterophile antigens
type O
Age, proper nutrition, genetic
predisposition
antigen
heteroantigen
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Immuno TB Flashcards Unit 1
132) Which best describes a finding of Landsteiner's study of
haptens?
133) Naturally occurring anti-A and anti-B antibodies are
thought to be due to exposure to what?
134) A substance that is too small to stimulate antibody
production by itself unless it is attached to a larger carrier
molecule is called a(an):
135) If a determinant site on a molecule that stimulates antibody
formation is produced by the folding of the primary chain, this
is known as a:
136) If a person has a reaction to poison ivy, this is due to:
137) A substance used to enhance antibody formation is called
a(n):
138) The use of an aluminum salt in the hepatitis vaccine is an
example of a
139) What is the function of TAP proteins used in antigen
processing?
140) MHC class II antigens are recognized by what cells?
141) What best describes HLA class II molecules?
a. They interact with CD8+ T cells.
b. They have an alpha chain and beta-2 microglobulin.
c. They have alpha and beta chains of equal size.
d. They combine with antigen made inside the cell.
142) If a mother is HLA A3A14/ B5B15/ Cw3Cw4, and her
child is A3A9/B5B27/Cw4Cw7, What men is the most likely
candidate for the father?
143) What is true of HLA (MHC) class I antigens?
a. They are recognized by helper T cells.
b. They are found on all nucleated cells.
c. They combine with exogenous antigen.
d. They are coded for on chromosome 9.
144) HLA (MHC) class I protein is found on:
a. RBCs
b. all nucleated cells
c. B cells and macrophages
d. stem cells only
145) Heterophile antigens are characterized as:
146) If a patient's red cells agglutinate with anti-A reagent
antibody and the serum agglutinates B cells, what is the blood
type?
Spatial configuration is
recognized by antibody.
heterophile antigens
hapten
conformational epit
an autocoupling hapten
adjuvant
adjuvant
measure and transport
digested proteins to MHC
Class I
CD4+ T cells
C
A5A9/B5B27/Cw3Cw7
B
B
found in unrelated plants or
animals but cross-reacting
with the same antibody
type A
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Immuno TB Flashcards Unit 1
147) All of the following are characteristics of a good antigen
EXCEPT:
a. large molecule
b. foreign to host
c. repeating polymer
d. protein in nature
148) Which region of the immunoglobulin molecule can
bind antigen?
149) Which immunoglobulin appears first in the primary
response?
150) What is an accurate statement about monoclonal
antibodies? Monoclonal antibodies are:
A. A population of antibodies that all recognize a single
specific antigen
B. a population of antibodies that arise from single B cell
C. used to classify and identify specific cellular membrane
antigens
D. all of the above
151) The primary response is characterized by:
A. naive B cells recognizing antigens
B. memory B cells recognizing antigens
C. the production of large amounts of IgG
D. a very short lag period
E. a long duration of high titer
152) Which immunoglobulin appears in the highest titer in the
secondary response?
153) What pairings of immunoglobulin and a property are true?
A. IgA: crosses the placenta
B. IgG: most abundant in serum
C. IgM: immunoglobulin produced by a T cell
D. IgE: major immunoglobulin of secondary response
154) The antigen specificity of a B cell is determined:
155) All of the following are functions of immunoglobulins
EXCEPT:
A. neutralization of toxic substances
B. facilitating phagocytosis through opsonization
C. interacting with cytotoxic T cells to lyse viruses
D. combining with complement to destroy cellular
antigens
156)
The idiotype of an antibody is located on which region?
157) Which immunoglobulin activates the classical complement
pathway?
158) What immunoglobulins are found in only trace amounts in
the serum?
C
Fab
IgM
D
naive B cells recognizing
antigens
IgG
B
by H and L chain variable
region sequences
C
VH + VL
IgM
IgD
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Immuno TB Flashcards Unit 1
159) All polymeric but not monomeric immunoglobulins are
characterized by:
160)
Kappa or lambda light chains:
161) Variations in immunoglobulin structure that occur because
of the use of different constant region domains are known as:
162) The ability of an antibody to opsonize is located in which
region?
163) When papain is used to cleave antibody molecules, what
are the products?
164) The function of IgD is to:
165) What characteristic is true of an anamnestic response
compared to a primary response? An anamnestic response has:
166) An immunoglobulin that contains a peptide that is not
synthesized by a B cell is:
167) Which immunoglobulins can cross the placenta?
168) The valence of an IgG antibody molecule is:
169) The receptor for antigen on a mature naive B cell is:
170) The region of an antibody molecule that exhibits the
greatest variability from antibody to antibody is known as the:
171) Somatic mutation of immunoglobulin genes accounts for:
172) What is the first step in immunoglobulin gene
rearrangement?
173) IgA in the secretions has a valence of:
174) Which represents an isotype of a heavy chain
175) IgD is produced b
176)
177)
178)
Which antibody is able to cross the placenta?
What is true of a secondary response to an antigen
All of the following are true of IgM EXCEPT:
A. It can cross the placenta.
B. It fixes complement.
C. It is a primary response antibody.
D. It can bind up to ten antigens.
179) The combination of a plasma cell fused to a myeloma cell
is called a:
180) What is true of IgE?
A. It fixes complement.
B. It binds to mast cells.
C. It is found on mucosal surfaces.
D. It participates in agglutination reactions.
a J-chain
associate with only one type
of heavy chain at a time
isotypes
Fc
2 Fab and Fc
bind antigen as a B-cell
surface receptor
a shorter lag phase
IgA in secretions
IgG
Two
IgM
hypervariable region
affinity maturation
heavy-chain variable region
Four
epsilon
differential splicing of the
RNA transcript
IgG
IgG is increased 100 to
1000 times.
A
hybridoma
B
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Immuno TB Flashcards Unit 1
181)
What is true of coding for antibody molecules?
A. Heavy-chains are coded for on chromosome 2.
B. V,D, and J code for heavy chain variable regions.
C. DNA coding for light chains are rearranged first.
D. V and D code for light chain variable regions.
182) Immunoglobulins are grouped into classes on the basis of
similarities in what?
183) What is the main function of IgD?
184) Bence-Jones proteins are identical to what?
B
heavy chains
It helps in class switching.
light chains
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Immuno TB Flashcards Unit 1
185)
All of the following are true of IgA EXCEPT:
A. It is found in secretions.
B. It fixes complement.
C. It is a dimer in serum.
D. It is important in oral immunizations.
186) Which class makes up 70 to 80 percent of total serum
immunoglobulins?
187)
All of the following are characteristic of secretory IgA
EXCEPT:
A)
It is found on mucosal surfaces.
B)
It has a secretory component made in epithelial
cells.
C)
It occurs as a monomer in the tissues.
D)
It defends against pathogens in the respiratory
tract.
188) Which best describes monoclonal antibody?
189) Papain cleavage of IgG results in what?
190) Which antibody agglutinates and fixes complement
best?
191) Immunoglobulins IgG, IgM, IgA, and IgD represent
what?
192) A Fab fragment consists of:
193) What represent light chains of antibody molecules?
194) Which immunoglobulin causes allergic reactions due
to release of histamine from mast cells?
195) Which is the main purpose of the secretory
component that is part of IgA?
196) What is true of IgE?
A)
fixes complement
B)
binds to mast cells
C)
found on mucosal surfaces
D)
participates in agglutination reactions
197) In serum electrophoresis conducted at pH 8.6, which
protein group migrates the fastest?
A)
albumin
B)
alpha-1 globulin
C)
alpha-2 globulin
D)
gamma globulin
198) The antibody that appears first in an immune
response and is a pentamer with a molecular weight of
900,000 best describes:
199) The antibody found on mucosal surfaces that acts as
a first line of defense is called:
B
IgG
C
antibody made from a single
antibody-producing cell
2Fab and an Fc fragment
IgM
isotypes
one light chain and one-half
of a heavy chain
Kappa and lambda
IgE
transports across endothelial
cells
B
A
IgM
IgA
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Immuno TB Flashcards Unit 1
200) Which antibody is found in the greatest supply and is
the only one capable of crossing the placenta?
201) All of the following are characteristic of IgE
EXCEPT:
A)
found on mast cells and basophils
B)
fixes complement
C)
found in low amounts in the blood
D)
causes allergic reactions
202) The antibody found on B cells that is thought to be
involved in B cell maturation is:
203) The theory that lymphocytes are preprogrammed to
respond to a particular type of antigen best describes:
204) In serum protein electrophoresis, which band
contains the immunoglobulins?
205) What best characterizes IgD?
206) Where on an antibody molecule does combination
with antigen take place?
207) All of the following are true of IgG EXCEPT:
A)
first class of antibody to appear
B)
able to cross the placental barrier
C)
the predominant antibody in serum
D)
provides immunity for the newborn
208) Which antibody is found mainly as a dimer in
mucosal secretions?
209) IgG differs from IgM in which way?
210) The primary response differs from the secondary
immune response in what way?
211) Cytokines exhibit pleiotropy, which refers to:
212) IL-2 is synthesized by which type of cell and acts on
which type of cell?
IgG
B
IgD
the clonal selection theory
gamma
surface receptor for antigen
variable region
A
IgA
IgG is the main antibody in
serum.
Amounts of IgG and IgM
are the same.
one cytokine affecting
multiple cells
TH1; CTL
213) A cytokine that is produced by TH2 cells and inhibits TH1 cells
is:
214) IL-1, IL-6, and tumor necrosis factor-alpha function by:
A. increasing vascular permeability
B. increasing acute phase proteins
C. acting on the hypothalamus
D. promoting migration of inflammatory cells
E. all of these
IL-10
215)
hematopoiesis
IL-3, IL-7, and GM-CSF are all involved in:
216) IL-2 is produced by one cell and the same IL-2 stimulates that
same cell. This type of cytokine activity is called:
217) IL-2 is a cytokine that could be more specifically called what
because of the cells that produce it?
E
autocrine
Lymphokine
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Immuno TB Flashcards Unit 1
218)
IL-4 functions by:
activating B cells
219) IFN-gamma is produced by:
220) When multiple cytokines act on the same cell, by definition
they have:
221) What cytokines is produced by TH1 cells and is
suppressive for TH2 lymphocytes?
TH1 cells
redundancy
222) All of the following are actions of interleukin-1 EXCEPT:
223) A protein released from a virally infected cell that protects other
cells from viral invasion best describes:
increased production of IgE
interferon-alpha
224) When Il-2 acts on T cells, B cells, and NK cells, this is an
example of:
225) The actions of IL-1 and IL-10 are an example of:
226) What is the main function of chemokines?
pleiotropy
227)
228)
What is the main action of interferon-gamma?
What is the function of TGF-alpha?
229)
The main target of interleukin-3 is:
230)
231)
232)
233)
234)
Which cytokine is involved in natural immunity?
Which cells produce interleukin-1?
Erythropoietin is classified as what?
Which acts as the best defense against gram-negative bacteria?
What can be attributed to interleukin-6 (IL-6)?
235) Which best describes the nature of interleukin-2?
236) What is one of the main activities of interleukin-4 (IL-4)?
237) Which complement component is found in both the classic and
alternative pathways?
238) What is a characteristic of complement?
A. It is activated by IgE in the classical pathway.
B. It cannot be activated by molecules other than antigen–antibody
complexes.
C. It plays a role in the lysis of target cells coated with specific
antibodies.
D. It is enhanced by decay accelerating factor.
239) What can activate the alternative complement pathway?
240) What functions by inserting itself into target membranes
and forming channels or holes in the membranes?
241) What act as opsonins?
242) The C5 convertase of the alternative pathway of
complement activation is:
243) C5b6789 functions in:
IFN-gamma
antagonism
enhance migration of white
blood cells
activation of macrophages
regulates cell growth and
differentiation
macrophages
interleukin-6
macrophages
colony-stimulating factor
TNF
increases activation of T and B
cells
activates T helper cells
generation of TH2 cells
C3
C
C3b
C5b6789
C3b
C3bBb3bP
target cell lysis
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Immuno TB Flashcards Unit 1
244) The functions of C5a are to promote all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. phagocytosis of target cells
B. contraction of smooth muscle
C. increased vascular permeability
D. leukocyte attraction to the site of inflammation
245) Chemotactic and anaphylactic factors are produced by
proteolytic cleavage of:
246) The alternative and classical pathway C3 convertases are
destabilized as a means of down-regulating complement
function. One molecule that performs this function is:
247) What is cleaved by C3bBb?
248) What is the correct order of activation of complement in the
lectin activation pathway?
249) A native bacterial cell surface itself will activate
complement via which pathway(s)?
250) What is cleaved first by C1qrs in the classical pathway of
complement activation?
251) What complement components has chemotactic activity?
252) The C3 convertase of the alternative pathway of
complement activation is:
253) The target recognition molecule of the lectin pathway that
initiates complement activation is:
254) Which immunoglobulin(s) help(s) initiate the classic
complement pathway?
255) What has perforin-like activity?
256) What is cleaved by C4b2a3b?
257) A patient has an abnormal alternative pathway activation
pattern. What complement proteins should be assessed to
further elucidate the problem?
258) The C5 convertase of the classical pathway of complement
activation is:
259) A deficiency in complement component C2 would result in:
260) What represents C3 convertase?
261) Which factors are only associated with the alternative
pathway?
262) The lectin pathway is initiated by the presence of what?
263) The membrane attack unit of complement is represented by
what?
264) Which complement factor polymerizes to cause lysis of a
foreign cell?
265) The recognition unit in the classical complement pathway
consists of:
266) Binding of a lectin to a sugar found in bacteria and fungi
occurs in which complement pathway?
267) Which factor is unique to the lectin pathway?
A
C5, C3
membrane cofactor protein
C3
MBL, C4, C2, C3
Classical and alternative
pathways
C4
C3a
C3bBbP
mannose-binding lectin
IgG and IgM
C5b6789
C5
C3
C4b2a3b
immune complex disease
C4b2a and C3bBbP
factor B and factor D
Mannose
C5b6789
C9
C1qrs
MBL pathway
Mannose-binding protein
15
Immuno TB Flashcards Unit 1
268) Lack of the complement inhibitor C1INH results in which
disease?
269) All of the following can trigger the alternative pathway
EXCEPT:
A. fungal cell walls
B. bacterial cell walls
C. yeast
D. antibody
270) In the alternative pathway, C3 and C5 convertase are
stabilized by what?
271) Which factors are found in all three pathways?
272) What is able to activate complement?
273) Which complement protein is the key intermediate in all
pathways?
274) In the alternate pathway, factor B must bind to what to
initiate the cascade?
275) Which factor must be associated with factor H to inactivate
complement components?
276) Lack of the complement components C5-C8 may result in
which disease?
277) Which factor helps to dissociate C3b from red blood cells?
278) Which protein inhibits the classical complement pathway at
the very beginning of it?
279) What are important functions of the complement system?
280) Formation of the membrane attack complex (C5b-C9) is
stopped by which factor?
281) What is characteristic of complement components?
282) C4BP acts in association with which factor to inactivate
C4b?
283) All of the following statements are true of C3 except
284) What is referred to as C5 convertase?
285) What activities are associated only with the alternative
pathway of complement fixation?
286) A system of serum proteins that interact to enhance the
immune response by producing cytolytic, chemotactic, and
other effects best describes:
Hereditary angioedema
D
Properdin
C5-C9
IgM
C3
C3b
Factor I
meningitis
DAF
C1INH
Lysis of foreign cells,
Increase in vascular
permeability, Clearance of
antigen-antibody complexes
S protein
They play a major part in
the inflammatory response.
Factor I
It is known as the
recognition unit.
C4b2a3b
Factor B and C3b
combination
complement
16