Urban Geography Practice MC Exam

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AP Human Geography
Chapter 13: Urban Geography (Practice MC Exam)
Name: _________________________________________
1. The process of settlement formation, expansion, and
change is called
a. suburbanization.
b. urbanization.
c. post modern expansion.
d. city growth.
e. all of the above
8. The wide boulevards built in cities in LDCs were most
likely built during what era?
a. pre-colonial
b. colonial
c. independence
d. medieval
e. all of the above equally
2. The physical qualities of the original location for a city is
referred to as the
a. relative location.
b. locational determinants.
c. site characteristics.
d. situational characteristics.
e. none of the above
9. Which of the following is BOTH the least urbanized AND
the most rapidly urbanizing realm of the world?
a. Middle America
b. Africa south of the Sahara
c. East Asia
d. South Asia
e. the Middle East
3. The location of a city relative to its surroundings and other
places refers to its
a. site
b. situation
c. genealogy of development
d. approximate latitude and longitude
e. physical characteristics
10. The most urbanized region in the developing world is
a. South Asia
b. China
c. North Africa
d. Southeast Asia
e. South America
4. Where did the first urban development originate?
a. Southeast Asia
b. Southwest Asia
c. North Africa
d. Western Europe
5. (AP Exam) All of the following were crucial to the
emergence of the first cities EXCEPT
a. an agricultural surplus
b. a stratified social system
c. labor specialization
d. a system for food storage and distribution
e. separation of the ruling system and the religious
system
6. (AP Exam) Prior to 1850 the location of all major North
American cities was related, chiefly, to the presence of
a. transcontinental highways
b. defensive sites
c. railroad junctions
d. navigable waterways
e. water power
7. The Industrial Revolution
a. had little impact on urban areas.
b. spawned vast manufacturing centers.
c. began in the Great Lakes region.
d. made factory workers obsolete
e. caused an urban to rural migration.
11. Higher income people tend to live near the center of the
city in all but which of the following regions?
a. Latin America
b. North America
c. South Asia
d. Western Europe
e. none of the above
12. What is the most noticeable geographic trend in the last
30 years with respect to the world's twenty most
populated cities?
a. Most of the-20 most populated cities are now located
in more developed countries.
b. Compared to 30 years ago, a much larger percentage
of the cities are now located in Europe.
c. Most of the 20 cities are now located in less
developed countries.
d. Most of the 20 cities are now located in Africa.
e. The specific cities have not changed in 30 years; they
have only grown in population.
13. Classic ________ cities have narrow, winding streets to
maximize shade, open-air markets, many dead ends, and
courtyards surrounded by high walls.
a. medieval European
b. Hindu
c. Latin American
d. Islamic
e. colonial
14. From 1400-1700 many European powers established
___________ , which served as an entrance to or exit
from a conquered are
a. a colonial city
b. an administrative center
c. a gateway city
d. an outpost
e. provisional government
15. (AP Exam) Which of the following models of urban
structure pictured above depicts a commercial spine
bordered by an elite residential sector extending outward
from the central business district?
a. Urban realms
b. Concentric zone
c. Multiple nuclei
d. Latin American city
e. Southeast Asian city
16. When the models of urban structure which were
developed in the US are applied to cities in South
America, one conclusion is that
a. both lack high income neighborhoods
b. the multiple-nuclei model is difficult to classify
c. the poorest people live in completely different areas
d. the CBDs develop for different purposes
e. transportation has an opposite purpose
17. Many Latin American cities conform more or less to the
a. theory of ghettoization.
b. the sector model.
c. the multinode model.
d. inner city decay theory.
e. the concentric zone model.
18. What factor(s) have contributed to the rapid urbanization
in Least Developed Countries (LDCs) since 1950?
a. Cities provide opportunity for displaced rural
residents.
b. Explosive population growth has made it difficult for
subsistence farmers to support their families.
c. Cultural amenities attract large number of young
urban professionals.
d. All of the above
e. A and B only.
19. If cities in the poorer parts of the world share a common
characteristic, it may result from
a. an absence of enforced zoning regulations.
b. a total lack of industry.
c. acute water shortages.
d. poor public transportation.
20. Ramshackle houses on the periphery of cities in less
developed countries are known as
a. squatter settlements
b. council estates
c. public housing
d. zones of transition
e. spines of development
21. Which of the following is NOT correct regarding the great
metropolises of the developing world?
a. They contain both great wealth and tremendous
poverty.
b. Many retain architectural elements of their colonial
past.
c. Most have squatter settlements on their outskirts.
d. Because their economies are less developed, they
rarely suffer from significant pollution.
e. They house an increasing proportion of the world's
population.
22. (AP Exam) International company headquarters, major
global financial functions, and operations that reach
beyond state borders, are defining characteristics of
a. primate cities
b. entrepots
c. forward capitals
d. world cities
e. edge cities
23. The three most important world cities in the world are
a. New York, Paris, and Shanghai.
b. New York, London, and Tokyo.
c. New York, London, and Beijing.
d. New York, Paris, and Tokyo.
e. New York, Rome, and Shanghai.
24. Which world-class city is the best example of an
entrepot?
a. Shanghai
b. Dubai
c. Sao Paulo
d. Madrid
e. Singapore
25. What is one characteristic of megacities?
a. Each city has an efficient form of mass transportation.
b. Each has a population of more than 10 million people.
c. Each has a world-class airport with connections to
each continent.
d. Each possesses financial wealth greater than its gross
domestic product.
e. Each follows a model that is focused around the
central business district.
26. When several large urban areas essentially merge
together to form an even larger urban complex, it's called
a(n)
a. urban agglomeration.
b. megacity.
c. city conglomerate
d. megalopolis.
e. megatropolis.
27. Megalopolis refers to
a. adjacent, overlapping MSAs (metropolitan statistical
areas)
b. central cities
c. consolidated MSAs
d. central cities plus urbanized areas
e. cities with over 1,000,000 inhabitants
28. Which of the following cities is NOT part of a larger
megalopolis?
a. New York
b. Paris
c. Tokyo
d. Toronto
e. Essen, Germany
29. (AP Exam) The development of high-speed rail lines,
highways, and communications systems has created cities
that seem to be apart from traditional central-place
hierarchies because they have developed complementary
functions. Which of the following is an example of these
so-called network cities?
a. London-Birmingham-Liverpool
b. Hong Kong-Shanghai-Beijing
c. Moscow-St. Petersburg-Kiev
d. Cleveland-Toledo-Chicago
e. Tokyo-Osaka-Nagasaki
30. (AP Exam) Which of the following is useful for describing
a settlement node whose primary function is to provide
support for the population in its hinterland?
a. Von Thünen's model of land use
b. Concentric zone model
c. Core-periphery model
d. Rostow's model of economic development
e. Christaller's model of central place
31. (AP Exam) Central place theory describes the
a. spatial patterns of urban and outlying areas based on
the flow of goods and services
b. tendency of different ethnic groups to congregate in a
single location
c. tendency of civilizations to form around certain
natural features
d. outward radiation of cultural patterns from a central
place
e. tendency of wealth to concentrate in urban core
areas
32. According to central place theory, every settlement is a
“central place” surrounded by a
a. market area (hinterland)
b. threshold
c. hierarchy of cities
d. zone of limitation
e. uniform region
33. A hinterland reveals the ________ of each settlement.
a. total population
b. working population
c. economic reach
d. aggregate purchasing power
e. quality of agricultural land
34. A “market area” (central city surrounded by hinterland) is
a good example of what kind of region?
a. cultural
b. formal (uniform)
c. functional (nodal)
d. vernacular (perceptual)
e. suburban
35. The maximum distance people are willing to travel for a
service is
a. hinterland
b. range
c. threshold
d. median
e. activity space
36. Within the framework of central place theory, which of
the following provides the lowest-order (i.e. lowest
range) good or service?
a. A furniture store
b. An orthodontist
c. A gas station
d. A jewelry store
e. A professional football stadium
37. The minimum number of people needed to support a
service in a city is
a. hinterland
b. range
c. threshold
d. median
e. activity space
38. According to Christaller's Central Place Theory, larger
settlements are characterized by
a. more services than smaller settlements
b. services with larger ranges than smaller settlements
c. services with higher thresholds than those in smaller
settlements
d. the opposite of all of the above
e. all of the above, as written
39. According to Christaller’s model of central place theory,
larger settlements are ____ numerous and
_____________ than small settlements.
a. less – farther apart
b. more – farther apart
c. less – nearer to one another
d. more – nearer to one another
40. Central place theory ranks settlements in the following
series, from smallest to largest:
a. hamlet, town, village, city
b. village, town, hamlet, city
c. town, hamlet, city, village
d. city, town, village, hamlet
e. hamlet, village, town, city
41. What geometric pattern is associated with Christaller’s
Central Place Theory?
a. Square
b. Circle
c. Hexagon.
d. Octagon.
e. Pentagon.
42. (AP Exam) According to the rank-size rule, if the largest
city in a country has a population of 10 million, the next
largest city will have a population of
a. 9 million
b. 8 million
c. 7.5 million
d. 5 million
e. 3.5 million
43. In a country which follows the rank-size rule – if the
largest city had 1,000,000 inhabitants, the fifth largest
city will have how many inhabitants?
a. 50,000
b. 100,000
c. 200,000
d. 500,000
e. 5,000,000
44. What concerns are there for a developing country if the
rank-size rule does not apply?
a. Services will be clustered in the primate city.
b. Services will not be evenly distributed through out the
country.
c. Smaller cities find it difficult to compete for services
with the primate city.
d. People in rural areas and small cities feel compelled
to migrate to the primate city for jobs.
e. All of the above
45. (AP Exam) An urban center that is disproportionately
larger than the second largest city in a country and that
dominates the country's social, political, and economic
activities can be best classified as
a. a megalopolis
b. a conurbation
c. a primate city
d. an edge city
e. an imperial city
46. (AP Exam) Which of the following describes a primate
city?
a. It is economically and politically interconnected to
other cities in the world.
b. It is disproportionately large in relation to the next
largest cities in that country.
c. It is surrounded by walls like a fortress.
d. It is linked by colonial administrators to an imperial
power.
e. It is primarily concerned with its role as a religious
center.
47. Which of the following lists is comprised of countries
with primate cities?
a. Germany, Italy, Netherlands, Poland
b. United States, Canada, Australia, South Africa
c. China, Japan, India, Brazil
d. France, UK, Mexico, Argentina
48. The three most famous models of urban structure –
concentric zone, sector, and multiple nuclei – were all
developed to describe what city?
a. New York
b. London
c. Los Angeles
d. Munich
e. Chicago
49. The three models of urban structure all agree on one
thing:
a. There are five major zones in a city.
b. Most people tend to prefer to live near others who
have the same characteristics.
c. Cities and suburbs make up a functional region.
d. The models apply to cities all over the world
50. The gravity model when, applied to urbanization, reveals
that
a. the two largest cities in a country will have the most
interaction between them.
b. the two closest cities will have the most interaction
between them.
c. the two cities with the most in common will have the
most interaction between them.
d. the two cities with the most branch offices will have
the most interaction between them.
e. the two cities with the most cultural connections will
have the most interaction between them.
54. In Burgess' concentric zone model, the zone of transition
became
a. a suburb.
b. deteriorated with more CBD encroachment, low
income housing, and warehouses.
c. a working class area.
d. a gentrified upscale new urban neighborhood.
55. According to the Burgess Model of Urban Development,
the outer most ring is the
a. extensive agriculture
b. extensive commercial agriculture
c. the zone of better residences.
d. the zone of transition.
e. the commuter zone
51. Which of the following models of urban structure
(pictured above) describes an urban pattern in which a
city grows out from a Central Business District (CBD) in a
series of concentric rings each with different land uses
based on increasing level of income?
a. Urban realms model
b. Concentric zone model
c. Multiple nuclei model
d. Latin American city model
e. Primate City model
52. What theory suggests that in an urban setting, the
farther a neighborhood is from the central business
district, the greater its wealth is?
a. Sector model
b. Same-size rule
c. Multiple nuclei model
d. Concentric zone model
e. Urban periphery model
53. Which statement would be the most accurate regarding
the bid-rent theory?
a. Land value is the highest in the central business
district, and land value decreases with distance from
the CBD.
b. Land value is the highest in the suburbs, resulting in
bigger houses.
c. More space is available in the urban core due to the
plight of the inner city.
d. More space is available in the suburbs due to higher
demand for land there
e. Land value is constant throughout the urban area due
to the high demand for residential space there
56. Which of the following models of urban geography best
describes the above map?
a. central place theory
b. rank-size rule
c. Von Thünen's concentric ring theory
d. Sector model of urban development
e. Multinucleated model of urban development
57. (AP Exam) According to the sector model of North
American city structure, members of low-income groups
tend to live in which of the following places?
a. The inner city only
b. Peripheral temporary settlements
c. Linear residential areas radiating from the
d. center city outward
e. Evenly dispersed throughout the urban area (The
suburbs and rural areas only
58. According to the sector model, the best housing is
located in
a. a corridor from downtown to the edge of the city
b. an outer ring around the city
c. a node near a university or park
d. a renovated inner-city neighborhood
e. a suburb
59. The map of Los Angeles above most closely corresponds
to which urban model?
a. Multiple-nuclei model
b. Sector model
c. Concentric zone model
d. Mixed land use model
e. Urban corridor model
60. Large cities develop many nodes around which different
types of people and activities cluster. This describes the
a. Peripheral Model.
b. Multiple Nuclei Model.
c. Latin American Model.
d. Sector Model.
e. Concentric Zone Model.
61. Harris and Ullman's multiple nuclei model of urban
structure arose from the idea that __________ was losing
its dominant position in the metropolitan city to other
competition.
a. the exurb
b. the edge city
c. public transportation
d. the suburb
e. the CBD
62. According Ullman and Harris's multiple nuclei model,
what develops at the outskirts of core cities?
a. Airports
b. Nucleated cities
c. Edge cities
d. World cities
e. First-ring suburbs
63. (AP Exam) Which of the following is true of an edge city?
a. It is located on the edge of a lake, river, or other
physical feature.
b. It is close to bankruptcy.
c. It is an outlet for a region’s trade.
d. It is increasingly used for heavy industry.
e. It has a large amount of recently developed retail and
office space.
64. All of the following describe edge cites except
a. they are more convenient places of employment for
newer suburban communities.
b. they physically resemble a city, because of the
prevalence of tall office buildings.
c. they typically are located at the intersections of
highways.
d. other uses such as shopping malls and apartment
complexes are also present.
e. they make it easier for traffic planners to design mass
transit systems.
65. The area of the city where retail and office activities were
traditionally clustered is the
a. central business district
b. central city
c. urbanized area
d. metropolitan statistical area
e. zone in transition
66. The CBD attracts offices primarily because of its
a. high accessibility
b. high land costs
c. more intensive land use
d. construction of skyscrapers
e. lack of residential areas
67. What types of activities are generally NOT found in
CBDs?
a. retailers with a high range
b. manufacturing industries
c. retailers with a high threshold
d. face-to-face business services
68. Retail activities which tend to concentrate in the CBD
include those which have
a. a low range.
b. a need for rapid transportation.
c. a low threshold.
d. service for office workers.
e. all of the above
69. An example of the "vertical geography" of a CBD is
a. the hilly streets found in downtown San Francisco.
b. a barber shop on the bottom floor of a building, an
accounting firm occupying the middle floor, and a
group of condos on the top floor.
c. building height constrained by natural or cultural
factors, like earthquakes in Tokyo or zoning codes in
DC.
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
70. The Central Business District is
a. attractive to consumer and business services for its
accessibility.
b. characterized by retail stores with low thresholds and
low ranges.
c. less important for retail because of changing shopping
habits.
d. A and B
e. A and C
71. European CBDs are similar to those in North America
because typically they both contain
a. retail and office activities
b. extensive residential areas
c. skyscrapers
d. structure inherited from medieval times
e. large parks
72. Compared to the US, poor families in European cities are
more likely to be
a. clustered in inner-city neighborhoods
b. dispersed throughout the city
c. clustered in suburbs
d. distributed uniformly across the urban area
e. living in rural areas
73. When comparing urban models for North American and
European cities, what is the difference between where
high-class residential neighborhoods area located?
a. In European cities they are located near the Central
Business District (CBD).
b. Both have high-class residential areas adjacent to the
main boulevard leading into the CBD
c. In North American cities they are typically located on
the outskirts of the metro area
d. Both have wealthy neighborhoods scattered through
out the city.
e. A and C only.
74. Grid street patterns are most typical for cities in
a. Europe
b. South Asia
c. Latin America
d. North America
e. Southeast Asia
75. The process of legally adding land to a city is known as
a. annexation
b. Council of Government
c. metropolitan statistical area
d. blockbusting
e. urbanization
76. An urban settlement that has incorporated into an
independent self-governing unit is a
a. metropolitan area
b. micropolitan statistical area
c. city.
d. metropolitan statistical area
e. consolidated metropolitan statistical area
77. A Metropolitan Statistical Areas (MSA)
a. always includes a city of at least 50,000 inhabitants
and its county
b. includes surrounding counties if over 50% of its
inhabitants are employed in the central city
c. covers a larger area than the other common
definitions of urban settlements
d. is the most useful definition of an urban settlement
for gathering information about a functional region
e. all of the above
78. The city plus its contiguous built-up suburban rings is
known as the
a. central city
b. urbanized area
c. metropolitan statistical area
d. consolidated metropolitan statistical area
79. Political geography can make it more difficult for
metropolitan governments to solve regionally based
problems because
a. competing municipalities often have conflicting
interests.
b. political boundaries make it difficult for regional
governments to exercise authority.
c. each city has its own unique government.
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
80. Government solutions that help solve regional
metropolitan issues include
a. establishing cooperative agencies , such as a council
of governments.
b. forming a federation of municipalities like Toronto.
c. consolidations where governments share services.
d. altering political boundaries so city and county
boundaries coincide
e. all of the above
81. (AP Exam) All of the following have helped create ghettos
in North American cities EXCEPT
a. blockbusting and racial steering
b. redlining by financial institutions
c. concentration of public housing and social services
d. fixed school district boundaries
e. Economic Enterprise Zones
82. In US cities the so-called underclass is
a. clustered in inner-city neighborhoods
b. dispersed throughout the city
c. clustered in suburban rings
d. distributed uniformly across MSAs
e. located mainly in rural areas
83. Compared to whites, African-Americans and other
minority groups are more likely to be
a. clustered in inner-city neighborhoods
b. dispersed throughout the city
c. clustered in the suburbs
d. distributed uniformly across the MSA
e. located mainly in rural fringe areas
84. A process which has resulted in a form of legal
segregation in American cities is
a. blockbusting
b. zoning
c. greenbelt construction
d. “smart growth”
e. redlining
85. Which is the illegal process by which real estate agents
encourage the sale of homes because people of certain
races have moved into a neighborhood?
a. Redlining
b. Ghettoization
c. Segregation
d. White flight
e. Blockbusting
86. A process by which banks designate an area within which
they refuse to lend money for improvements is
a. blockbusting
b. filtering
c. gentrification
d. redlining
e. squatting
87. The terms “scattered site” and “projects” are both
associated with
a. the construction of public housing
b. the addition of green spaces to existing cities
c. urban renovation
d. de-segregation of suburbs
e. the multiple-nuclei model of urban structure.
88. The process of change in the use of a house – from single
family owner occupancy to eventual abandonment – is
a. blockbusting
b. filtering
c. gentrification
d. redlining
e. squatting
89. Various cities in North America have used all of the
following strategies to revitalize their central business
districts except
a. by creating pedestrian malls downtown, such as
Denver, Colorado, and Eugene, Oregon.
b. by building major urban renewal projects.
c. by building major sports facilities, such as Camden
Yards in Baltimore and Coors Field in Denver.
d. by building business parks.
e. by turning vacant industrial buildings and warehouses
into residential lofts.
90. In the last twenty years the most successful strategy to
revitalize central business districts and inner city
neighborhoods has been to
a. create festival market places.
b. build life style malls.
c. construct athletic complexes.
d. construct more residences downtown.
e. encourage more businesses to locate in the area
91. A process which results in the conversion of a lowincome neighborhood to middle- or upper-class housing is
a. blockbusting
b. filtering
c. gentrification
d. redlining
e. squatting
92. Who is likely to move into revitalized urban downtown
area neighborhoods?
a. White collar empty nesters.
b. Young urban professionals (yuppies).
c. Recent college graduates.
d. Double income no kids households (dinks).
e. All of the above
93. Which of following would be a negative social effect of
gentrification in cities?
a. Old homes would be converted with updated
materials and fixtures.
b. Older residents would receive new homes in
suburban areas.
c. Increased real estate prices and rents would force out
poor residents.
d. Construction companies would have projects in areas
of existing housing.
e. Older architecture would be preserved instead of
building new structures.
94. In many major metropolitan areas dying or abandoned
shopping malls can often be found
a. in edge cities.
b. outside of urban growth boundaries.
c. in the first ring of suburbs built in the 1950s and
1960s.
d. in the zone in transition.
e. at the intersection of major interstate highways.
95. A recent change in the density gradient of North
American cities has been
a. a decrease in the number of the people living in the
center
b. a reduction in the density differences across all zones
of the city
c. an increase in the extremes between inner and outer
areas
d. a decrease in the total number of people in the
suburban areas
e. both A and B
96. Many cities in North America have designed and set
aside areas where outdoor concerts, street performers,
ethnic events, farmers markets, and cart vendors come
together and act as a positive focal point economically
and socially for urban life. This recent trend is often
referred to as
a. an urban park.
b. a festival market place.
c. a service oriented center.
d. a lifestyle mall.
e. an urban interface zone.
97. The basic tenants of new urbanism include all of the
following except
a. a mix of land usages (residential, commercial, office)
b. transit based, rather than automobile based,
development
c. wide streets with cul-de-sacs.
d. a wide range of housing and types of employment
e. walkable neighborhoods
98. What is the process called when people move away from
the central business district due to dissatisfaction with
the urban policies and lifestyle?
a. Blockbusting
b. Redlining
c. Counterurbanization
d. Decentralization
e. Gentrification
99. The largest percentage of the US population lives in
a. CBDs
b. the zone in transition
c. nonmetropolitan areas
d. rural areas
e. suburban areas
100. (AP Exam) Which of the following was NOT a reason for
rapid suburbanization in the United States after the
Second World War?
a. Mass production of the automobile
b. Reduction in long-distance commuting
c. Expansion of home construction
d. Expansion of the interstate highway system
e. Availability of low down payment terms and longterm mortgages
101. (AP Exam) All of the following are reasons for the rise of
suburban development in the 1950s EXCEPT
a. the building of interstate highways
b. loans under the G.I. Bill of Rights
c. better public transportation
d. the desire for more space
e. prefab construction methods
102. Each of the following statements about suburbanization
is correct EXCEPT:
a. the high number of World War II soldier casualties
limited the demand for housing for a decade
b. the completion of the interstate highway system
made commuting to the workplace easier
c. industry was attracted to the suburbs by modern
plant facilities and plenty of parking spaces for
employees
d. service industries developed as a result of the
purchasing power and the available suburban labor
force
e. as people moved to the suburbs, regional shopping
centers replaced the CBD retail districts
103. What happened to inner city neighborhoods when
many industries shifted geographic location to the
suburbs after World War II?
a. Neighborhoods declined in population.
b. The housing stock deteriorate
c. Unemployment rates increased for inner city
residents.
d. Business services declined for inner city residents.
e. All of the above
104. People are attracted to suburbs in part because suburbs
are characterized by
a. the best accessibility to the central city
b. lower opportunity for home ownership
c. private land surrounding the house
d. more social heterogeneity
e. the availability of gentrified neighborhoods
105. Suburban developments suffer from
a. a lack of diversity.
b. social isolation.
c. a lack of green space
d. deteriorating schools.
e. A and B only.
106. How are North American suburbs segregated?
a. according to land use
b. by social class
c. through the use of zoning ordinances
d. all of these
107. (AP Exam) Which of the following most closely
describes the leading trend in retailing in the United
States during the 1950s, 1970s, and 1990s?
a. 1950's: Downtown business district; 1970's: Shopping
mall; 1990's: "Big box" superstore
b. 1950's: Downtown business district; 1970's: "Big box"
superstore; 1990's: Shopping mall
c. 1950's: Shopping mall; 1970's: Downtown business
district; 1990's: "Big box" superstore
d. 1950's: "Big box" superstore; 1970's: Downtown
business district; 1990's: Shopping mall
e. 1950's: "Big box" superstore; 1970's: Shopping mall;
1990's: Downtown business district
108. Even though land use in North American Central
Business Districts (CBDs) is characterized by skyscrapers
and high-density uses, a sizable percentage of land is
still devoted to
a. recreation.
b. arts and entertainment.
c. museums.
d. industry.
e. automobiles.
109. Auto-centered cities emerged during the post World
War II era in
a. Eastern North America
b. Northwestern Europe
c. Central Japan.
d. Upper Midwest.
e. Southwestern United States.
110. Public transportation is better suited for commuting to
the CBD primarily because
a. it is less expensive
b. it is more space and energy efficient
c. commuters desire to use it
d. the population of the CBD has declined
111. Because so few people live in the CBD, urban areas are
characterized by a high degree of
a. blockbusting
b. commuting
c. threshold
d. skyscrapers
e. apartments
112. The US government has encouraged the use of cars in
part by
a. building interstate highways
b. charging high gasoline prices
c. constructing new subways
d. protecting prime agricultural land through legislation
e. eliminating tax breaks for home owners and giving
them to renters
113. Public transportation is more extensive in Western
European cities than in the US primarily because
a. Europeans can’t afford cars
b. European governments heavily subsidize this from of
transport
c. the overall density in urban areas is lower
d. the central cities contain few high rises
e. US cities have numerous pedestrian areas in the
central city
114. The major exception to the decline of the use of public
transport in American cities is
a. the automobile
b. buses
c. rapid transit (subways)
d. streetcars and trolleys
e. none of the above
115. The decline in density and the spread of cities
associated with the building of freeways in the second
half of the twentieth century has been pejoratively
(negatively) referred to as
a. suburbanization.
b. urban sprawl.
c. exurbanization.
d. new urbanism.
116. Sprawl is best described as the
a. change in density within an urban area from the
center to the periphery
b. development of new housing sites not contiguous to
the existing built up area
c. land maintained as open space surrounding an urban
area
d. period in the morning and evening with the heaviest
volumes of traffic
117. Urban sprawl is responsible for
a. loss of biodiversity.
b. loss of open space
c. increasing vehicle miles driven.
d. increasing auto emissions.
e. all of the above
118. Urban growth boundaries are most commonly
associated with the movement known as
a. smart growth.
b. new urbanism.
c. transit oriented development.
d. urban renewal.
e. low density development.
119. The UK has less urban sprawl than the U.S. in part
because British cities are surrounded by undeveloped
space known as
a. greenbelts
b. public housing
c. sprawl
d. squatter settlements
e. brownfields
120. Which of the following best describes "exurbia"?
a. Usually found in Europe and Asia
b. Generally located along freeways, on the outskirts of
major cities
c. Made up of small, isolated communities consisting
mostly of telecommuters
d. Usually designed by the Beautiful City tradition
e. Lies outside of urban zoning restrictions
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