HAAP Final Exam
1. What are the reasons for using an otoblock when taking an ear impression?
a. To ensure that impression material does not encroach on the eardrum
b. It can be used to help remove material if the impression should break
c. It assures a complete canal cross section
d. All of the above
2. Why do we use vents, in addition to providing pressure relief?
a. To enhance natural low frequencies
b. For high frequency reduction
c. For low frequency reduction
d. To allow the middle ear to breathe
3. Which would be most appropriate for a patient/client with a profound hearing loss?
a. BTEs, acrylic earmolds with short canal and #16 tubing
b. BTEs, soft earmolds, #13 thick wall tubing
c. Bilateral full shell ITEs
d. RICs with vented acrylic earmolds
4. A 54-year-old male patient/client with normal hearing through 1KHz followed by a precipitous
drop in thresholds would do best with
a. Non-occluding earmolds
b. Skeleton earmolds with Select-A-Vent
c. ITC instruments
d. A compression circuit
5. Which venting configuration is preferred because it does not affect high frequencies?
a. Diagonal
b. External
c. Parallel
d. Through the cavity
6. High frequencies can be enhanced by
a. A horn bore
b. A belled canal
c. Larger I.D. tubing
d. All of the above
7. Which is NOT a required step in taking an ear impression?
a. Inspect ear with otolight
b. Lubricate the otoblock
c. Brace the patient/client’s head to prevent movement
d. Keep the tip in the material until impression is complete
8. The otoblock must be
a. Placed at the first bend of the canal
b. The same diameter as the aperture
c. Square in the canal; not skewed
d. Placed using the otoscope
9. Why must impression material be mixed until it is a consistent color?
a. So it can cure properly
b. So it looks good
c. So it will flow through the syringe easily
d. So the lab can use it more easily
10. Limiting the output of a hearing aid becomes necessary when
a. The low frequencies are not well understood
b. The frequency range becomes wider
c. Harmonic distortion increases
d. The patient/client’s tolerance decreases
11. A T-coil in a hearing aid allows the patient/client to hear
a. Over the telephone along with room conversation
b. Over the telephone but excluding room conversation
c. Better in noisy listening environments
d. Over the telephone on all telephones
12. When selecting a hearing aid, the most important electroacoustic characteristic is the
a. Output sound pressure level
b. Average gain
c. Frequency response
d. Battery life
13. When fitting binaural instruments, you can generally expect to need about _______ less gain than
if you were fitting a monaural instrument.
a. 0 dB
b. 3-5 dB
c. 8-10 dB
d. 11-13 dB
14. The output sound pressure level should
a. Often be between 120 and 130 dB
b. For tolerance problems, be less than 120 dB
c. Never exceed the patient/client’s UCL
d. All of the above
15. Fitting formulas
a. Provide exact fitting information
b. Are complicated in most instances
c. Provide a good starting point for the fitting
d. Are relatively recent in origin
16. A stroke victim is most likely to be able to handle which of these hearing aid styles?
a. RIC
b. BTE
c. ITE
d. CIC
17. Style selection should ideally be decided by
a. The fitter, the patient/client and the family
b. The fitter alone
c. The patient/client alone
d. The audiogram alone
18. You are fitting a new BTE. The instrument and shell mold have been properly inserted and the
volume is adjusted to a comfortable listening level. The patient/client complains that her own
voice has an echo, but says that yours is OK. What is the first adjustment you would try?
a. Add a filter to the coupler
b. Reduce the low-frequency response
c. Reduce the gain
d. Shorten the canal on the earmold
19. A hearing aid can be likened to a portable
a. Citizen’s Band unit
b. Public address system
c. Radio
d. Telephone pick-up
20. Harmonic distortion is a result of __________________ the hearing aid amplifier.
a. Undershooting
b. Breaking
c. Modifying
d. Overloading
21. The amplifier
a. Provides gain
b. Provides a platform on which the rest of the instrument sits
c. Converts acoustic energy into electrical energy
d. Converts electrical energy into acoustic energy
22. The receiver is
a. A transistor
b. A link to the microphone
c. An output transducer
d. Always very powerful
23. Amplifiers
a. Amplify into infinity
b. Never have resistors and transistors together
c. Are primarily Class C
d. Consist of capacitors, resistors and transistors
24. Linear amplification refers to
a. The electrical signal going straight into the ear
b. A 1:1 ratio between the amplifier and the receiver
c. A 1:1 ratio between input and output
d. A compression circuit
25. Compression circuits in hearing aids are used to control
a. Low frequencies
b. Maximum OSPL
c. Usable frequency range
d. Acoustic feedback
26. Today’s hearing instruments contain largely ____________ amplifiers
a. Digital
b. Analog
c. Class A
d. Phase shifting
27. Which of the following is a transducer?
a. Volume control
b. Capacitor
c. Microphone
d. Integrated circuit
28. The three major elements in the use of electricity are
a. Current, voltage, resistance
b. Current, sound pressure, resistance
c. Current, power, resistance
d. Power, voltage, battery drain
29. The function of a microphone is to
a. Amplify the acoustic signal
b. Pick up electro-magnetic signals
c. Convert electrical energy into acoustic energy
d. Convert acoustic energy into electrical energy
30. Acoustic gain is measured in
a. Dynes/cm2
b. Hertz
c. Decibels SPL
d. Decibels HL
31. The integrated circuit was first introduced in hearing aids about
a. 1962
b. 1964
c. 1968
d. 1970
32. Transistors were first used in hearing aids in
a. 1945
b. 1952
c. 1957
d. 1963
33. What are the three main parts of a hearing aid?
a. Microphone, battery, ear hook
b. Volume control, amplifier, battery
c. Microphone, amplifier, receiver
d. Receiver, earmold, T-coil
34. The maximum output of a hearing aid is called the
a. Maximum gain
b. Frequency response
c. Saturation hearing level
d. None of the above
35. What frequencies are used to calculate HF-Average Full-On Gain?
a. 500, 1500, 2000 Hz
b. 500, 100, 2000 Hz
c. 1000, 1600, 2500 Hz
d. 1000, 2000, 5000 Hz
36. The best tool to determine threshold levels is
a. the tympanogram
b. the audiogram
c. tuning forks
d. the acoustic reflex
37. In exploring for puretone thresholds use
a. the descending method
b. the ascending method
c. the modified ascending-descending method
d. a continuous tone
38. Bone conduction does not
a. bypass the external ear
b. bypass the middle ear
c. bypass the inner ear
d. both B and C
39. The vertical axis of an audiogram represents
a. the frequency of the test tone in dB HL
b. the frequency of the test tone in Hz
c. the level of the test tone is Hz
d. the level of the test tone in dB HL
40. Generally bone conduction oscillators do not produce more than
a. 40 dB HL
b. 50 dB HL
c. 70 dB HL
d. 90 dB HL
41. SL means
a. sound level
b. speech level
c. sensation level
d. sound pressure level
42. The decrease in energy of sound intensity as it travels from one ear to the other is called
a. binaural fusion
b. the occlusion effect
c. interaural attenuation
d. tone decay
43. An audiometer is an electronic instrument that generates tones of different
a. Hz and dB SPL
b. frequency and intensity
c. phase and duration
d. Timbre and intensity
44. The ____________________ on an audiometer is used to present tones in either continuous or
pulsed bursts.
a. monitor
b. interrupter button/switch
c. attenuator dial
d. output button/switch
45. Bracketing refers to
a.
b.
c.
d.
descending in 10 dB steps, and ascending to 5 dB steps
descending in 15 dB steps, and ascending to 10 dB steps
descending in 5 dB steps, and ascending to 10 dB steps
descending in 5 dB steps, and ascending in 5 dB steps
46. When giving instructions during testing, it is important to
a. make sure the client can understand the test instructions
b. provide test stimulus examples, if needed
c. keep from rushing the client
d. all of the above
47. If an air conducted signal is presented through earphones at a loud enough level
a. it may be entirely reflected as thermal energy
b. it may produce a false positive response
c. it may change to a bone conducted signal transmitting through the mastoid process
d. it may block high frequency transmission
48. 750 Hz and 1500 Hz should be tested when there is
a. a 15 dB HL difference between adjoining octaves
b. a 20 dB HL difference between adjoining octaves
c. a 40 dB HL difference between adjoining octaves
d. none of the above
49. Good test conditions include
a. a quiet environment
b. thorough client instructions
c. a properly calibrated audiometer
d. all of the above
50. The difference between an equal loudness contour graph and an audiogram is that
a. one uses Hertz, while the other uses decibels
b. one is referenced to Hertz, while the other is referenced to sones
c. one is referenced to absolute sound pressure levels, while the other is referenced to
normal hearing levels
d. all of the above
51. If there is a difference of 15 to 20 dB HL or more between 500 Hz and 1000 Hz or between 1000
Hz and 2000 Hz, the PTA is computed by
a. selecting the 2 frequencies that show that the most loss, adding these thresholds and
dividing by 2
b. selecting the 2 frequencies that show the least loss, adding these thresholds and dividing
by 2
c. selecting the mid octaves of 750 Hz and 1500 Hz, adding these thresholds and dividing
by 2
d. selecting either adjoining octaves 500 Hz and 1000 Hz or 1000 Hz and 2000 Hz, adding
these thresholds with the mid octave of either 750 Hz or 1500 Hz, and dividing by 3
52. The horizontal axis of an audiogram represents the
a.
b.
c.
d.
frequency of the test tone in dB HL
frequency of the test tone in Hz
loudness level of the test tone in HL
loudness level of the test tone in dB HL
53. The purpose of turning the subject before testing is
a.
b.
c.
d.
to avoid getting confused about which ear is which
to keep the subject from seeing how inept you are
to surprise the subject into telling the truth during the test
to keep the subject from seeing the results of the test and thereby influencing test
responses
54. The interaural attenuation value used at all frequencies for bone conduction puretone testing is
a. 0 dB HL
b. 20 dB HL
c. 40 dB HL
d. 60 dB HL
55. In bone conduction testing, ambient room noise will cause
a. high frequency thresholds to appear poorer
b. mid frequency thresholds to appear poorer
c. low frequency thresholds to appear poorer
d. all frequency thresholds to appear poorer
56. The proper way to place earphones on a client is
a. blue earphone on right ear, red earphone on left ear
b. red earphone on right ear, blue earphone on left ear
c. either color can go on either ear
d. dependent upon the calibration method used
57. A case history is taken prior to testing in order to
a. establish confidence
b. determine medical referrals
c. determine which tests are necessary
d. all of the above
58. 1000 Hz is tested twice because
a. To establish test/retest reliability
b. it is the most important speech frequency
c. it is the hardest tone to hear
d. both A and B
59. The internal adjustment of the audiometer to ANSI standards is called
a. attenuation
b. a biological check
c. calibration
d. loudness balance
60. The vertical axis of an audiogram represents
a. the frequency of the test tone in dB HL
b. the frequency of the test tone in Hz
c. the level of the test tone is Hz
d. the level of the test tone in dB HL
61. When masking the left ear in air conduction, the symbol used for threshold notation is
a. triangle
b. left bracket
c. right bracket
d. square
62. Effective masking indicates that the noise level of the masking sound had been adjusted to just
barely mask a pure tone if the two signals were presented in
a. the same ear
b. the opposite ears
c. a sound field
d. a free field
63. The symbol for a masked air conduction threshold on the right ear is a
a. square
b. triangle
c. bracket
d. arrowhead
64. Masking is used to
a.
b.
c.
d.
prevent cross hearing
eliminate small air/bone gaps
verify thresholds when large differences exist between ears
all of the above
65. Undermasking occurs most often in
a.
b.
c.
d.
air conduction testing
bone conduction testing
speech audiometry
sound field testing
66. Overmasking occurs most often in
a.
b.
c.
d.
air conduction
bone conduction testing
speech audiometry
sound field testing
67. The most effective masking for speech testing is
a.
b.
c.
d.
narrowband noise
noise shaped to resemble speech
a competing multitalker speech signal
white noise
68. Effective masking is reached by
a.
b.
c.
d.
plateau and bracketing
bracketing, threshold and plateau
threshold and bracketing
none of the above
69. The ear receiving the test stimuli during any masking procedure is referred to as the
a.
b.
c.
d.
test ear
non-test ear
non-competing ear
better ear
70. Narrowband noise is
a. actually a variation of white noise
b. produced by selective narrowband electronic active filtering
c. considered more effective for pure tone masking
d. all of the above
71. If the Weber test lateralizes to the left ear, and is identified as the lesser sensorineural loss, then
a.
b.
c.
d.
the left ear should be masked first
the right ear should be masked first
both ears should be masked, in either order
masking is not required in either ear
72. The level that effective masking begins is
a.
b.
c.
d.
20 dB HL
30 dB HL
40 dB HL
50 dB HL
73. The branch of physics dealing with sound is
a. Audiology
b. Otology
c. Acoustics
d. Optometry
74. What is required for sound?
a. Sound source
b. Force
c. Medium
d. Hearing mechanism
e. All of the above
75. Sound travels in
a. Transverse waves
b. Vacuums
c. Air only
d. Longitudinal waves
76. A cycle is made up of
a. One compression
b. One rarefaction
c. A and B
d. None of the above
77. A sine wave is
a. A mathematical computation
b. A graph of one compression and one rarefaction
c. A graph showing distortion in the signal
d. A signal that only a hearing aid can receive
78. The sound created by simple alterations of compression and rarefaction is called a
a. Difference tone
b. Aperiodic
c. Periodic
d. Pure tone
79. The frequency where a sound source vibrates easiest is
a. Resonance
b. Reflection
c. Reverberation
d. Absorption
80. Sound travels faster
a. At lower temperatures
b. At higher temperatures
c. Through vacuums
d. None of the above
81. What type of surfaces reflects more sound?
a. Flat and hard surfaces
b. Uneven or porous surfaces
c. Carpets, upholstery and draperies
d. Water or steel
82. A reflected sound which leaves a persistence of sound after the original sound stops is
a. A reverberation
b. An echo
c. Absorption
d. Resonance
83. Amplitude is
a. Measured in decibels
b. Psychologically perceived as loudness
c. Represented on the vertical axis of a sine wave
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
84. What does 0 dB SPL equal?
a. .0002 dynes/cm2
b. 10-16 watts/cm2
c. Audiometric zero
d. Patient’s threshold
e. All of the above
85. If two 30 dB SPL tones are presented at the same time, then how loud is the resulting sound?
a. 60 dB SPL
b. 36 dB SPL
c. 33 dB SPL
d. 0 dB because they cancel each other out
86. Loudness is measured in
a. Phons
b. Sones
c. Mels
d. A and B
e. A, B and C
87. A range of mels are?
a. phons
b. sones
c. critical bands
d. loudness
88. In impaired ears, widened critical bands reduce _____________
a. sounds
b. loudness
c. frequency resolution
d. reduced sound pressure
89. Widened critical bands make it hard to hear ________________
a. dynes
b. speech
c. noise
d. none of these
90. The lowest frequency component of speech is
a. Fundamental frequency
b. Harmonic
c. 120-250 Hz for men and 210-325 Hz for women
d. A and C
e. B and C
91. 21.What is the third harmonic if the fundamental frequency is 150 Hz?
a. 600 Hz
b. 450 Hz
c. 300 Hz
d. 153 Hz
92. Which sounds give clarity to speech?
a. Phonemes
b. Consonants
c. Vowels
d. All of the above
93. The _______________ is not a part of the external ear.
a.
b.
c.
d.
crus
helix
umbo
sebaceous gland
94. The narrowest point of the ear canal is the
a.
b.
c.
d.
promontory
second bend
annulus
isthmus
95. The tympanic membrane is approximately __________ times larger than the oval window.
a.
b.
c.
d.
3
10
17
20
96. The superior quadrant of the tympanic membrane refers to the ___________ portion.
a.
b.
c.
d.
bottom
front
top
rear
97. The structure that separates the scala tympani from the scala media is called
a.
b.
c.
d.
the basilar membrane
the spiral lamina
Reissner’s membrane
The epitympanic cavity
98. The anterior quadrant of the tympanic membrane refers to the ___________ portion.
a.
b.
c.
d.
bottom
front
top
rear
99. Electrical impulses that travel from the cochlea to the brain are called
a.
b.
c.
d.
100.
The external auditory meatus
a.
b.
c.
d.
101.
is 2ccs in volume
descends into the skull approximately 3 inches
enhances sound naturally between 3 KHz to 6 KHz
curves slightly upward, then slightly forward and downward
The semicircular canals are individually called
a.
b.
c.
d.
102.
the ampullae, saccule and utricle
the superior, posterior and lateral
the superior, inferior and posterior
the anterior, inferior and posterior
The end of the malleus forms the innermost tip of the cone of the eardrum called the
a.
b.
c.
d.
103.
incudo-stapedial joint
incus
umbo
annular ring
The average length of the external auditory meatus ranges from
a.
b.
c.
d.
104.
½ inch to 1 inch
1 inch to 1 3/8 inches
1 ½ inches to 2 3/5 inches
2 inches to 2 ½ inches
The middle ear functions as a transducer of
a.
b.
c.
d.
105.
afferent fibers
efferent fibers
cilia
synaptic junctions
acoustic energy to mechanical energy
mechanical energy to hydraulic energy
hydraulic energy to electrochemical energy
both A and B
The basilar membrane is __________ and __________ at the oval window.
a.
b.
c.
d.
106.
broad/compliant
narrow/stiff
unattached/disarticulated
fixed/vascularized
The promontory is located
a.
b.
c.
d.
behind the pinna
in the epitympanic cavity
between the oval window and round window
above the pars flaccida
Reissner’s membrane separates the
107.
a.
b.
c.
d.
108.
scala media from the scala tympani
scala vestibule from the scala tympani
scala vestibule from the scala media
saccule from the utricle
The middle ear contains the
a.
b.
c.
d.
109.
tectorial membrane
sebaceous glands
tensor tympani
scaphoid fossa
The semicircular canals contain
a.
b.
c.
d.
110.
cortilymph
endolymph
perilymph
both B and C
The annular ring is part of the
a.
b.
c.
d.
111.
tympanic membrane
cochlea
ossicular chain
Eustachian tube
The external auditory meatus is not
a.
b.
c.
d.
112.
A part of the middle ear includes the
a.
b.
c.
d.
113.
primarily cartilaginous
2.3 cm to 2.9 cm in length
Free of sebaceous glands
S-shaped
epitympanic cavity
intertragal notch
scaphoid fossa
aperture
The afferent fibers
a. travel from the cochlea to the brain
b. travel from the brain to the cochlea
c. travel from the base to the apex of the cochlea
d. travel from the apex to the base of the cochlea
114.
Low frequencies are perceived at the _______________ of the cochlea.
a.
b.
c.
d.
115.
base
attic
apex
cupola
When sound strikes the tympanic membrane the frequency of the sound is
a.
b.
c.
d.
116.
doubled
halved
increased by one and one-half times
approximately the same
A part of the helix is
a.
b.
c.
d.
117.
the crus
the scala vestibule
the lobule
both A and C
Endolymph is
a.
b.
c.
d.
the fluid inside the cochlea that carries the vibrations of sound through the inner ear
protection to the membranous labyrinth from the bony labyrinth
secreted down from the ventricles of the brain
a fluid that generates ear wax in the auditory canal
118.
Standards for the measurement of hearing aid characteristics are published by
organization?
a. Veterans Administration
b. American Audiometric Society
c. American National Standards Institute
d. United Organization of Standards
119.
a.
b.
c.
d.
what
The maximum gain of a hearing aid is determined with the volume control set to
Full on
Reference test gain
Half on
Minimum
120.
Reference test gain is determined by adjusting the gain control so that the average of the
1000, 1600 and 2500 Hz gain values are equal to the HF average OSPL90 minus ___ dB.
a. 20
b. 17
c. 10
d. 45
121.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Attack and release times relate to
The test box signal
Distortion
Compression amplifiers
On-off switch characteristics
122.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which is not a coupler used in the test box?
HA-1
HA-2
CIC
HA-5
a.
b.
c.
d.
The hearing aid test box
Allows a comparison of an instrument’s performance with its specification
Is used directly to make adjustments on hearing aid circuits
Is difficult to use
Provides unrepeatable data
a.
b.
c.
d.
An air-bone gap signifies that the
Air conduction thresholds are worse than bone conduction thresholds
Air conduction thresholds are better than bone conduction thresholds
Loss is purely conductive
Loss is purely mixed
a.
b.
c.
d.
A pure conductive loss will show
All bone conduction thresholds within normal limits
All air conduction thresholds are better than bone conduction thresholds
Some bone conduction thresholds within normal limits
Both a and b
123.
124.
125.
126.
An audiogram with less loss at the high and low frequencies than in the middle
frequency region is classified as a
a. Flat curve
b. Rising curve
c. Reverse curve
d. Cookie bite
127.
a.
b.
c.
d.
128.
PTA will describe which of the following audiogram classification fairly
Fragmentary
Flat loss
Sudden drop
Marked falling
accurately?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Slope of loss can determine a successful fitting. A most favorable slope is
Flat, gradually falling or rising
Deep saucer shape
Sharp drop at a lower frequency
Irregular dips and peaks
Recruitment is most common in
a.
b.
c.
d.
conductive losses
central auditory processing disorders
cochlear losses
mixed losses
129.
130.
Ototoxic medications cause
a.
b.
c.
d.
damage to the spiral ganglia
Eustachian tube dysfunction
damage to the outer hair cells
damage to the stria vascularis
131.
Early otosclerosis can be confused with a _____________ hearing loss.
a.
b.
c.
d.
132.
conductive
sensorineural
mixed
central
A myringotomy is
a.
b.
c.
d.
an incision in the tympanic membrane
replacement of an ossicle
implantation of a cochlear implant
repair of a perforated tympanic membrane
133.
The name of the surgical procedure, done in the past, which bypasses the oval window is
called a
a.
b.
c.
d.
134.
Complete removal of the tympanic membrane and ossicular chain would result in
a.
b.
c.
d.
the oval window acting as a sonic mirror
diffraction preventing sound from traveling to the oval window
the external auditory meatus acting as a Helmholtz resonator
the sound pressure itself not being great enough to move the cochlear fluids
a.
b.
c.
d.
A person with a moderate sensorineural hearing loss will speak
In a normal voice
In a soft voice
In a louder voice
In a normal voice only in quiet environments
a.
b.
c.
d.
Impacted cerumen
Will not interfere with impression taking
Should be surgically removed
Will have little effect on audiometric tests
Is none of the above
135.
136.
137.
Congenital hearing losses can be caused by
a.
b.
c.
d.
138.
medications used by the mother
illness during pregnancy
inherited conditions
all of the above
Sensorineural hearing loss could be caused by
a.
b.
c.
d.
139.
stapedectomy
tympanoplasty
myringotomy
radical mastoidectomy
traumatic damage to the cochlea due to head injury
exposure of loud sounds
ototoxic medications
all of the above
A characteristic which is not part of a sensorineural hearing loss is
a.
b.
c.
d.
140.
recruitment
tinnitus
otitis media
vertigo
Reduced discrimination ability in the absence of significant threshold loss,
accompanying aging is called
a.
b.
c.
d.
141.
Meniere’s syndrome
presbycusis
phonemic regression
diplacusis
Otosclerosis is
a.
b.
c.
d.
142.
a bone disease
more common in women than in men
familial
all of the above
Presbycusis is
a.
b.
c.
d.
143.
Psychogenic deafness
An abnormally shaped ear canal
Hearing loss due to age and loss of nerve capacity
Both A & C
Noises in the head such as roaring, hissing, buzzing or ringing is called
a.
b.
c.
d.
recruitment
trauma
tinnitus
fatigue
Loudness recruitment may be caused by
a.
b.
c.
d.
damage to the outer hair cells
loud noise exposure
ototoxic medications
all of the above
144.
145.
The type of hearing loss which results in a person speaking in a softer than normal voice
is called
a.
b.
c.
d.
146.
conductive
sensorineural
mixed
central
Changes in the spiral ganglia and hair cells are quite marked in
a.
b.
c.
d.
conductive losses
psychogenic losses
sensorineural losses
functional losses
147.
An infection of the middle ear is called
a.
b.
c.
d.
148.
eczema
otosclerosis
serous otitis media
suppurative otitis media
The cause for suppurative otitis media could be
a.
b.
c.
d.
149.
a blocked Eustachian tube
glue ear
otosclerosis
otitis media
A small hole in the tympanic membrane can cause a loss of
a.
b.
c.
d.
0 dB HL
10 – 15 dB HL
20 – 25 dB HL
30 – 35 dB HL
150.
While speech discrimination in conductive hearing loss is generally excellent,
discrimination in sensorineural loss can best be described as
a.
b.
c.
d.
151.
excellent
good
fair to good
poor
Hearing loss from noise exposure is usually due to
a.
b.
c.
d.
152.
obstruction of the external canal
cochlear hair cell damage
overproduction of endolymph
labyrinthitis
A person with a mild hearing impairment
a.
b.
c.
d.
153.
may have difficulty hearing faint and/or distant speech
would understand conversational speech only if it were loud
may show articulation problems in their speech
do not rely on hearing as their primary avenue of communication
Subjective tinnitus
a.
b.
c.
d.
is an acoustic sensation for which there is no external source
is always described as ringing
can be heard softly from outside the person’s ear
is most often treated by medication