~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ Modul 1 ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
1. Which of the following can be done to allow the users on the 10.0.0.0 network to communicate with the Web
Server shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
* Configure the Miami router to use NAT.
Configure the Web Server with a private address.
* Configure the Miami router to use PAT.
Change the Internet link IP address of 128.56.0.0 to a private address.
Configure the Tampa router to use PAT.
2. Given the accompanying graphic, which statement would be applied to the S0 interface when configuring
NAT on the Tampa router?
ip nat inside
* ip nat outside
ip pat inside
ip pat outside
3. Given the accompanying graphic, which addresses could be assigned to traffic leaving S0 as a result of the
statement ip nat pool Tampa 179.9.8.96 179.9.8.111 netmask 255.255.255.240? (Choose two.)
10.0.0.125
179.9.8.95
* 179.9.8.98
* 179.9.8.101
179.9.8.112
4. Given the accompanying graphic, which command would establish a group of 32 IP addresses that could be
used to hide inside addresses from the Internet?
ip nat pool Raleigh 10.0.0.32 10.0.0.63 netmask 255.255.255.224
ip nat pool Raleigh 10.0.0.32 10.0.0.63 netmask 255.255.255.240
* ip nat pool Raleigh 171.11.10.32 171.11.10.63 netmask 255.255.255.224
ip nat pool Raleigh 171.11.10.32 171.11.10.63 netmask 255.255.255.240
5. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a
Cisco 806 broadband router?
defines which addresses are allowed out of the router
defines which addresses are allowed into the router
* defines which addresses can be translated
defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
6. Given the accompanying debug output from a Cisco router, what kind of address is 10.10.10.3 with the IP
identification number of 29855?
* inside local
inside global
outside local
outside global
7. The Raleigh router shown in the diagram is configured with PAT. Which of the following must be changed if
the private network is migrated to a 10.0.0.0 network? (Choose two.)
* E0 interface address
S0 interface address
* the access-list statement
the NAT outside interface
the NAT inside interface
8. Given the accompanying diagram, which commands are necessary to implement PAT on the Raleigh router?
(Choose four.)
* access-list 10 permit 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 10 permit 171.11.0.0 0.0.255.255
ip nat inside source static 192.168.10.1 171.11.0.0
* ip nat inside source list 10 interface S0 overload
* ip nat outside
* ip nat inside
9. Which of the following traffic types are supported by Cisco IOS NAT? (Choose two.)
Routing table updates
* ICMP
* FTP
BOOTP
SNMP
10. A company was issued 207.48.12.8/29 as its registered address from its ISP. Which of the following is a
solution that will allow Internet access to 300 employees simultaneously?
VLSM to further subnet the registered address and create more IP addresses
normal subnetting on the Class C network and address the host
* RFC 1918 and port address translation
this is an impossible scenario because there are not enough addresses
11. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?
PAT uses the word "overload" at the end of the access-list statement to share a single registered address.
Static NAT allows an unregistered address to map to multiple registered addresses.
Dynamic NAT allows hosts to receive the same global address each time external access is required.
* PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.
12. What is the purpose of the DHCPDECLINE message?
If the DHCP client received multiple DHCPOFFERs, it uses the DHCPDECLINE to refuse the offers it does
not use.
If the DHCP server sends an IP configuration update that the DHCP client does not need, it uses the
DHCPDECLINE to refuse the information.
The DHCP server uses the DHCPDECLINE message to refuse a DHCP client's request for IP configuration
information.
* If the DHCP client detects that the address supplied by the DHCP server is in use on the network, it uses the
DHCPDECLINE to refuse the offer.
13. A network administrator needs to configure a router to offer DHCP services. Assuming the router is
operating with factory defaults and the IOS supports DHCP, what must be done to start the DHCP service?
Use the global configuration command service dhcp.
Use the privileged command service dhcp start.
Use the start service dhcp command during the setup processes.
* Do nothing. The DHCP service is enabled by default during start up.
14. Users are complaining that they cannot attach to network resources. A technician has confirmed that clients
are not properly receiving IP configuration information through the DHCP process. The network administrator
wants to watch the DHCP process while the technician tries to release and renew addresses on the clients.
Which command would the network administrator use to monitor the process of address allocation?
show ip dhcp server statistics
show ip dhcp binding
* debug ip dhcp server events
debug ip dhcp binding
15. Refer to the graphic. Which command would allow the router to forward DHCP broadcasts from Host A to
the DHCP server?
* ip helper-address
dhcp helper-address
dhcp relay-agent
dhcp-relay
16. What is the default lease time for addresses assigned to clients through Easy IP?
* twenty-four hours
forty-eight hours
one week
two weeks
17. In addition to assigning addresses from predefined pools, which other services can a DHCP server offer?
(Choose three.)
* DNS server addresses
* domain names
global IP assignments
NAT translations
* WINS server addresses
18. Which configuration parameters are provided by the dynamic allocation process of DHCP? (Choose three.)
* Gateway address
* DNS server
DHCP Server
* Subnet mask
Key server
ARP server
19. Which of the following are broadcasts sent by a client to a DHCP server? (Choose two.)
* DHCPDISCOVER
DHCPRELEASE
DHCPACK
* DHCPREQUEST
DHCPOFFER
20. Which configuration information might a DHCPOFFER include? (Choose three.)
* IP address
* DNS server address
DHCP binding
* Lease time
DHCP database
21. What is the default number of pings issued by a DHCP server to a pool address before sending the
DHCPOFFER to a client?
one
* two
three
four
five
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ Modul 2 ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
1. Which term describes the cabling that connects the customer site to the nearest exchange of the WAN service
provider?
CPE
CO
* local loop
DCE
DTE
2. Which of the following is commonly used as Data Terminal Equipment?
ISDN
modem
* router
CSU/DSU
3. On which of the following are most Layer 2 WAN encapsulations based?
IP
PPP
* HDLC
SLIP
HSSI
CSU
4. Which of the following describes a packet-switched network using connection-oriented data transfer?
(Choose two.)
* Each packet carries an identifier.
Each packet carries full addressing information.
Each switch in the route must evaluate the addressing information to determine where to send the packet.
* Each switch determines where to send the packet by examining tables in memory.
The addressing information is used to set switches along the route of data transfer to create a continuous
copper circuit.
5. A U.S. company requires a WAN connection used only to transfer sales data from individual stores to the
home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. The required bandwidth for this connection is
estimated to be less than 38 kbps. Which type of connection requires the least investment for this company?
ATM
ISDN
* analog dialup
T1 Leased Line
6. A company requires a WAN connection that will carry 64 kbps and allow fast call setup time. The
connection does not need to carry video. What is the best choice for this company?
ATM
* ISDN BRI
X.25
analog dialup
7. Which of the following connections will provide the equivalent of a T1/E1 connection and is intended for
large businesses?
BRI
* PRI
DLCI
PSTN
POTS
8. A large company already has a T1 leased line but this connection is inadequate at peak business hours.
Furthermore, they would like a backup WAN connection in case their leased line temporarily fails. What type
of WAN connection is commonly used in this situation?
X.25
DSL
* ISDN
cable modem
56 kbps
9. A European company needs a low cost, dialup WAN connection to validate transactions for point-of-sale
card readers. Which connection type is commonly used for this situation?
ATM
* X.25
Frame Relay
Leased lines
10. Which statements are correct regarding ATM connections? (Choose two.)
uses only PVCs
* is useful for video transfers
* has data rates beyond 155 Mbps
cells have 32 byte payload and a 5 byte overhead
mandates single virtual circuits on a single leased line connection
11. Which of the statements regarding DSL are correct? (Choose three.)
DSL provides a consistent bandwidth of 2.154 Mbps.
DSL connections provide a fast dialup to establish a WAN connection.
* DSL connects the local loop to a digital subscriber line access multiplexer.
* DSL bandwidth varies and can exceed the bandwidth of a T1/E1 leased line.
* For DSL to function properly, the local loop must be less than 5.5 kilometers (3.5 miles).
DSL is a popular choice for enterprises that need to connect home users to the local network due to strong
security.
12. Which statement is true regarding WAN technologies?
Most WANS use only one technology throughout the infrastructure such as ISDN, Frame Relay or ATM.
Data transfer speeds on the WAN are typically faster than the speeds on a LAN.
* WANs operate at the lower three layers of the OSI model.
WANs are unable to support the transfer of voice or video traffic.
13. Why is it important to identify the type of traffic that will be carried on the WAN links before choosing a
WAN technology?
to determine the routing protocol to be used on the WAN link
to determine the WAN topology
* to determine the requirements for latency and jitter
to determine the type of signaling protocol to be used on the WAN link
14. Depending on the company size and geographical layout, there might be many end points on the company
WAN. Why is it important to identify all the end points of the WAN before choosing a WAN design?
to determine the routing protocol to be used on the WAN link
* to determine the WAN topology
to determine the requirements for latency and jitter
to determine the signaling protocol to be used on the WAN link
15. Which of the following is true of WANs?
Shared network WAN technologies such as Frame Relay and ATM are more expensive but offer less latency
and jitter than dedicated lines.
ISDN is suitable for large enterprises.
* The more network devices that data has to pass through across the WAN, the more latency and less reliability
the network will experience.
WANs typically incorporate only one technology such as ISDN, Frame Relay, or ATM.
16. A new international company needs to have a design for WAN connectivity. The company will have at least
five offices in every state in the United States and Mexico. Some states will have as many as 20 offices. The
branch offices will require constant contact with the services of the main office. Which design model is best for
WAN connectivity in this situation?
a mesh network of all branch WANs
a simple star topology connecting all branch LANs to a central router with multiple interfaces
a one layer design using Frame Relay links between LANs
* a three layer hierarchical topology interconnecting branch LANs within an area, the area LANs within a
region, and connecting the regions to form the core of the WAN
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ Modul 3 ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
1. How did Cisco alter the HDLC encapsulation to allow a single link to carry multiple protocols?
split the transmissions into multiple channels each carrying a single protocol
identified the protocol in the FCS field
compressed the datagrams differently for each protocol
* added a type field to identify the protocol
2. A technician has used Telnet to gain remote access to a router that has no connectivity on its serial interface.
Which command should be issued to determine if the serial cable is connected properly?
* show controllers
show processes
show run
show status
3. A two router network is running PPP over the serial interfaces that connect them. The enable password on
the Denim router is "gateway". The Denim router also has a locally configured authentication password for the
Plaid router which is "fortress". Which command must be executed on the Plaid router to allow Denim to
authenticate to the Plaid router using CHAP?
Plaid(config)# enable secret gateway
Plaid(config)# enable secret fortress
Plaid(config)# username Plaid password fortress
* Plaid(config)# username Denim password fortress
Plaid(config)# hostname Plaid secret password gateway
Plaid(config)# hostname Plaid secret password fortress
4. Which authentication protocol can be spoofed to allow playback attacks?
MD5
CHAP
* PAP
NCP
5. How is the MD5 function valuable in authentication? (Choose two.)
* uses a one-way hash function
authentication occurs more rapidly
* challenges are unique
the remote router assumes control of frequency of challenge
the remote router assumes control of timing of challenge
6. Which command specifies a link quality over a PPP link?
ppp link 50
ppp link quality 60
ppp percentage 80
* ppp quality 90
7. Refer to the output of the show interface Serial0/0 command in the graphic. How many NCPs have been
established?
1
*2
3
4
8. Which of the following is an advantage of using time-division multiplexing (TDM) for transmitting data?
(Choose two.)
It allows a single source to transmit over multiple data channels.
* Multiple sources can transmit over a single channel.
* Original data streams must be reconstructed at the destination.
TDM relies on Layer 3 protocols to operate.
9. Which of the following describes the High-Level Data Link Control protocol? (Choose three.)
* HDLC provides flow and error control.
Standard HDLC supports multiple protocols on a single link.
* HDLC uses sequencing and acknowledgements.
HDLC is defined as the default encapsulation on Cisco LAN interfaces.
* Cisco implemented a proprietary version of HDLC.
10. A technician is testing the functionality of a recently installed router. The technician is unable to ping the
serial interface of a remote router. The technician executes the show interface serial 0/0 command on the local
router and receives the following output:
Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down(disabled)
What are possible causes for this command output? (Choose two.)
interface missing the no shutdown command
clockrate command missing
* CSU/DSU failed
* interface shutdown due to high error rate
cable missing
11. When troubleshooting the Serial 0/0 interface of a router, a technician issues the show controllers command.
The following was the output of the command:
Interface is Serial0/0, electrical interface is UNKNOWN.
What can be concluded about the Serial 0/0 interface? (Choose three.)
* Serial0/0 is down, line protocol is down
Serial0/0 is down, line protocol is up
Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down
The interface is neither DCE or DTE.
* The interface hardware may be faulty.
* The cabling may be improperly connected.
12. ISDN BRI service uses two B channels to send data, voice, and video. If the first channel becomes saturated,
the second channel can be configured to forward packets. Which command will allow ISDN to load balance
across both links?
Router(config-if)# ppp quality 2
Router(config-if)# ip variance
Router(config-if)# ip maximum-paths 2
* Router(config-if)# ppp multilink
13. Which of the following describe functions of the Point-to-Point protocol with regards to the OSI model?
(Choose three.)
PPP uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices.
PPP operates at all layers of the OSI model.
* PPP uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression.
* PPP provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols.
PPP uses Network Control Protocols (NCP) to test and maintain connectivity between devices.
* PPP can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces.
14. PPP uses several protocols for communication. Which of the following are options that the LCP protocol in
the PPP architecture can provide? (Choose two.)
* testing the quality of the link
routing packets between devices
assigning individual station addresses
configuring network layer protocols
* negotiating authentication options
15. Several tasks must occur before a link between two routers can pass data using PPP. Which of the following
are required to establish and maintain a PPP session between two routers?
configure each host with a PPP address
configure authentication between the two routers
* send LCP and NCP frames to negotiate configuration parameters
send hostname and password information between the two routers
16. Which of the following is a reason for using such protocols as PAP and CHAP?
to establish a PPP session
to provide error checking on a WAN link
* to restrict access to networks connected by serial and ISDN links
to provide a backup hostname and privilege mode password on the router
17. Which of the following describes the CHAP protocol? (Choose three.)
* exchanges a random challenge number during the session to verfiy identity
sends authentication password to verify identity
* prevents transmission of login information in plain text
* disconnects the PPP session if authentication fails
initiates a two-way handshake
18. Which command was used to display the partial output shown in the graphic?
show ppp traffic
show lcp traffic
* debug ppp negotiation
debug ppp authentication
19. What can be concluded from the output shown in the graphic? (Choose three.)
A two-way handshake is occuring.
* The LCPs were already negotiated.
* The router can begin NCP negotiations.
The debug ppp negotiation command was executed.
* The debug ppp authentication command was executed.
20. Which advantage does the multilink option provide when using PPP?
* Data transmission has load balancing possibilities.
Interfaces can be configured using both HDLC and PPP.
More than one authentication method can be used.
More than one compression protocol can be configured.
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ Modul 4 ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
1. Which of the following correctly describes ISDN BRI? (Choose three.)
* two 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
* B channel is suitable for voice data
uses in-band signaling
* uses out-of-band signaling
offers the equivalent of a T1/E1 connection
twenty-three 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
2. A network administrator in Europe has been asked to provide the network with an ISDN WAN link. The
router available to provide the WAN connection is a non-modular Cisco router with an S/T interface. What
further equipment will be provided by the ISP for the ISDN connection?
Nothing. The router is already suitable.
BRI WAN interface card to install in the router
* an external NT1 to terminate the local loop
a TA/NT1 device to install on the router
3. What must be configured for an ISDN PRI connection? (Choose three.)
* ISDN switch type
Service Profile Identifier (SPID)
Dial-on-Demand Routing (DDR)
* PRI group time slot
* T1/E1 controller, framing type and line coding
4. A small company uses an ISDN WAN link to transfer e-mail to remote sites. What command would the
administrator use to determine if the ISDN link is up?
* show isdn status
show isdn active
show dialer
show interface bri0/0
debug isdn active
5. A network administrator is troubleshooting ISDN connectivity. The administrator suspects the problem lies
with the authentication protocol. What command should the administrator use to view the authentication
process between the router and the ISDN switch?
debug pap authentication
debug chap authentication
* debug ppp authentication
debug isdn authentication
6. The network administrator of XYZ company needs to configure a new ISDN router. After entering the
commands shown in the graphic, the administrator tries to access the Internet but the ISDN connection does not
open. If the service provider verifies that the problem is with XYZ's configuration, what is a possible cause of
the problem?
The dialer map is configured incorrectly.
The encapsulation type is configured incorrectly.
* The dialer group is configured incorrectly.
The ACL is configured incorrectly.
The isdn switch-type command needs to be configured globally.
7. Which of the following are true of ISDN routers configured with dialer profiles? (Choose two.)
They do not use ACL to define interesting traffic.
* Their B channels can be configured with different subnets and encapsulation types.
* Their BRI interfaces can belong to multiple dialer pools.
They use PPP only.
They can only use the CHAP authentication protocol.
8. Which of the following describes the use of a SPID? (Choose two.)
selects the ISDN switch type
* identifies the line configuration of the BRI service
* allows multiple ISDN devices to share the local loop
designates whether a device is a TE1 or TE2
allows ISDN broadcasts
9. Which of the following is considered out-of-band signaling?
using a frequency outside of the rated bandwidth for transmission
transmitting data over a control channel
* using a separate channel for control signals
transmitting control signals over a data channel
10. Why must routers be configured to specify the ISDN switch type?
* Switches use various implementations of Q.931.
The IOS of most routers lacks the ability to autosense the switch.
The switch must know what type of router it is communicating with.
The Layer 3 connection between the terminal equipment and the ISDN switch is not standardized.
11. Which command configures an ISDN interface to use a switch type which is different from that used on
other interfaces on the router?
Router(config)#switch-type switch-type
Router(config-if)#switch-type switch-type
Router(config)#isdn switch-type switch-type
* Router(config-if)#isdn switch-type switch-type
12. Which router command would be used to enter the mode for configuring a T1 PRI connection?
* Router(config)# controller t1 {slot/port}
Router(config)# interface pri t1 {slot/port}
Router(config)# interface pri {slot/port} t1
Router(config)# controller {slot/port} t1
13. Which command is used within an existing ISDN network to display current call information, including the
called number?
show isdn status
* show isdn active
show interfaces bri0/0
show ip interfaces
14. You have just taken delivery of a new US standard Cisco 2620 router that includes a BRI "U" interface?
Which of the following describes how this router will be connected in the ISDN network?
An external terminal adapter (TA) must be attached to the router for connectivity.
An NT1 must be connected to the router for connectivity.
* The router is a TE1 device and is ready to connect to the provider's network.
The router is a TE2 device and requires both a TA and NT1 for connectivity.
15. Which of the following protocols can be used to encapsulate data traffic sent from a router BRI interface?
(Choose two.)
Link Access Protocol - Data
* High-Level Data Link Control
Logical Link Control
Serial Data Link Control
* Point to Point protocol
Binary Synchronous Control protocol
16. Which of the following is essential for all ISDN BRI interface configurations?
* ISDN switch type
line encoding technique
line framing method
local directory number
service profile identifier
17. What is a reason why static routes are preferred over dynamic routes for DDR to operate on an ISDN
interface?
An ISDN interface will not allow dynamic routing updates that use broadcast technology.
A dynamic route will take precedence over a static route because of its lower administrative distance.
Dynamic routing can never be considered interesting traffic by default.
Dialer-list configuration does not support dynamic routing.
* Dynamic routes may cause the ISDN connection to dial constantly to transmit updates.
18. A network administrator is troubleshooting an ISDN connectivity problem. Users are complaining they
cannot connect to the Internet. The network administrator suspects the ISDN connection attempt is timing out
before a connection can be established. What command would the network administrator use to determine what
the "wait for carrier" timeout value is set to?
show isdn status
show isdn active
* show dialer
show interfaces bri0/0
debug isdn q931
show ISDN interfaces
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ Modul 5 ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
1. Which data link layer protocol is used to carry frames across a Frame Relay link?
HDLC
PPP
LAPD
* LAPF
Frame Relay
2. Which of the following statements are true about a basic Frame Relay WAN connection between a customer
and the service provider? (Choose two.)
* DTE devices such as routers and FRADs transmit user data.
DTE devices such as Frame Relay switches transport the data between DTE devices.
An Ethernet connection between the router and the frame relay switch allow access to the frame relay network.
* Serial connections between the customer and the frame relay network are used to transport data.
The Frame Relay WAN is a mesh of interconnected routers.
3. How does Frame Relay technology process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)
* Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.
FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.
* The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.
The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.
4. Which features make Frame Relay technology a cost-effective alternative to a mesh of dedicated leased
lines? (Choose three.)
* allows a single interface to support multiple PVCs
* minimizes the equipment required to be purchased by the customer
requires one router interface for each PVC
provides the customer with redundancy if a single interface goes down
* allows the customer to pay for the average bandwidth requirement rather than the maximum bandwidth
requirement
5. Which methods are used to minimize heavy traffic on a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
FRADs or routers set ECN bits to request that the Frame Relay switch reduce the flow of frames on the link.
Windowing is used to reduce the size of the frames sent across the link.
* The Frame Relay switch will drop packets that have the DE bit set.
* When a switch sees its queue increasing, it notifies DTEs to reduce the flow of traffic.
When congestion occurs, all frames are dropped until the congestion clears.
6. What does a DLCI of 1023 indicate about a frame?
The LMI type is ANSI.
The LMI type is IETF.
* The LMI type is Cisco.
The LMI type is Q933a.
The encapsulation is Cisco.
The encapsulation is IETF.
7. Which of the following allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a
Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
ARP
RARP
Proxy ARP
* Inverse ARP
* LMI status messages
ICMP
8. A ping is sent to address 192.168.50.10 from the Peanut router. Which DLCI will be used to send the ping?
* 110
115
220
225
9. What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network?
switched parallel circuit
* permanent virtual circuit
limited access circuit
ISDN circuit
Frame Relay circuit
10. Which bits are set in the data frames to request that a device reduce the flow of data sent to or from a Frame
Relay switch?
EIR bits
* ECN bits
CIR bits
DE bits
Window bits
11. Which commands were added to the configuration to produce the output shown in the graphic? (Choose
two.)
Router(config)# ip route 192.168.192.4 255.255.255.0 17 broadcast
Router(config-if)# frame-relay lmi-type cisco 17
* Router(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 192.168.192.4 17 broadcast
Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.192.4 255.255.255.0 DLCI 17 static
Router(config-if)# interface S0/0.1 point-to-point
* Router(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay cisco
12. Which of the following occurs when the command frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 22 is configured on the
router? (Choose two.)
DLCI 22 will replace the MAC address in the ARP table for entry 10.1.1.1
The remote circuit with DLCI 22 can receive a ping.
Inverse-ARP will be used to add an entry for 10.1.1.1 into the frame-relay map table using DLCI 22.
* Pings to 10.1.1.1 will be sent on the circuit labeled DLCI 22.
* The router will use DLCI 22 to forward data to 10.1.1.1.
13. When troubleshooting a frame-relay connection, an administrator entered the show interfaces s0/0
command and received the output shown in the graphic. The line protocol is down. Which of the following are
probable reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
The cable between the CSU/DSU and the router is disconnected.
The serial 0/0 interface is shutdown.
* The router is not configured for the same frame-relay PVC as the switch.
* The LMI type on the frame-relay switch is NOT ANSI.
The address of the frame-relay switch is not in the routing table.
14. When troubleshooting a frame relay connection, a technician entered the show frame-relay pvc command
shown in the graphic. What can be concluded from the output shown in the graphic? (Choose three.)
* The output in the debug frame-relay lmi command will indicate status 0x2 for DLCI 18.
* DLCI 16 was correctly programmed on the switch, but the remote router may be misconfigured.
* The frame relay switch is sending LMI status messages about DLCI 16 to the Singapore router.
Congestion has been experienced on DLCI 18.
Some packets have been set to be dropped if congestion is experienced on the PVC.
15. How is a permanent virtual circuit identified in a Frame Relay network that is carrying IP traffic?
* It is given a fixed locally significant identification number.
It is identified by the MAC address of the router interface.
Dynamic virtual channel identifiers are assigned to each frame transmitted across the network.
It is identifed by the MAC address of the switch port.
16. What is the purpose of the FCS field in a Frame Relay frame?
It serves to distinguish one frame from the next.
It is used to signal network congestion.
* It is used to detect if the frame has been corrupted and should be discarded.
It determines which VC should be used for transmission.
17. Why are full mesh topologies seldom found in large Frame Relay networks?
Additional hardware is required to achieve the mesh.
The additional virtual circuits slow the link access speeds.
* The required number of links becomes prohibitive.
Additional interfaces are required since each can only support 10 virtual circuits.
The speed of transmission slows in inverse proportion to the square of the number of links.
18. Why keepalive mechanism added as an extention to the Local Management Interface in a Frame Relay
network?
to identify which routers were experiencing congestion
* to verify the status of PVCs in the frame relay network
to dynamically map a MAC address to an IP address in a Frame Relay network
to signal to the router the status of the routing protocols configured in the Frame Relay network
19. Which of the following DLCIs are reserved?
16
127
255
* 1023
2048
20. Which statement identifies a reason for using point-to-point subinterfaces in Frame Relay networks?
* Subinterfaces overcome routing update and split-horizon issues that occur with multipoint logical interfaces
on a single physical interface.
A point-to-point subinterface does not require an IP address and therefore saves address space.
Point-to-point subinterfaces provide greater reliability and reachability in Frame Relay networks by requiring a
mesh topology for network configurations.
Point-to-point subinterfaces increase the number of DLCIs that can be configured in a Frame Relay network.
21. Which of the following statements regarding multipoint subinterfaces are true? (Choose two.)
* A single multipoint subinterface is used to establish PVC connections to multiple physical interfaces on
remote routers.
Each multipoint link is in its own subnet.
* The physical interface does not have an IP address.
Split-horizon is disabled allowing routing updates to be re-transmitted on every subinterface.
Multipoint subinterfaces require the encapsulation frame-relay command to be issued individually for each
subinterface to operate correctly.
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ Modul 6 ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
1. Which of the following are examples of network management applications? (Choose two.)
Windows 2000 Professional
* Ciscoworks2000
* HP Openview
Red Hat Linux
Cisco ConfigMaker
2. Which statements are true regarding configuring SNMP? (Choose three.)
It is best to use the default read-only community strings in enterprise networks.
* It is not advisable to use the default read-write community string in an enterprise network.
* More than one read-only community string is supported.
* Authorized management stations can modify MIB objects with read-write access specified.
The maximum number of read-write strings supported is one.
3. Which statements describe the Windows 2000 operating system family? (Choose three.)
* .NET Server was designed to run enterprise level web and FTP services.
Active Directory services run on both Windows 2000 Professional and Windows 2000 Server.
* The entire family of Windows 2000 operating systems can operate as a file, print, FTP or web server.
Both Windows 2000 Professional and Server can support up to 256 simultaneous dialup sessions.
* .NET server was designed to compete with Linux and Unix.
4. For which platform was UNIX first marketed commercially?
workstations and servers
workstations
* network servers
large mainframe systems
5. Which features are supported by the Mac OS X system that make it a competitive choice for operating
systems? (Choose four.)
* protected memory
sixty-two bit addressing
* preemptive multitasking
open source operating system code
* symmetric multiprocessing
* Appletalk-to-Windows network connectivity
6. Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.)
* Linux
Windows 98
Windows ME
* Windows XP
* Windows 2000
7. How does SNMPv3 address the security shortcomings of SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c?
improved SMI features
support for centralized and distributed management
* secure access to MIBs
control of heterogeneous networks
8. Which means of communication does an SNMP network agent use to provide a network management station
with important but unsolicited information?
query
broadcast
ICMP ping
* trap
poll
9. An SNMPv1 agent would issue a GetResponse message to reply to which NMS requests? (Choose three.)
* GetRequest
GetBulkRequest
* GetNextRequest
* SetRequest
GetNextbulkRequest
10. Why are SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c community strings considered a security risk?
SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c encapsulations are not encrypted by default.
* SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c community strings are sent as cleartext.
SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c are limited to 32-bit counters.
SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c uses a connectionless protocol.
11. In the above illustration, which configuration commands can be used to specify the location of a managed
device and the main system contacts for the device? (Choose two.)
SanJose(config-if)# snmp-server SanJose
* Atlanta(config)# snmp-server contact JPSmith
Atlanta(config)# snmp contact JPSmith
* SanJose(config)# snmp-server location SanJose
Chicago#(config)# snmp chicago
12. How does RMON gather statistics on a segment?
analyzes traps on the segment
polls packets on the segment
* analyzes every frame on the segment
analyzes source and destination addresses
13. Which command would enable logging on all supported destinations?
Router(config)# logging 131.152.0.0
Router(config)# logging routerA
* Router(config)# logging on
Router(config)# logging enable
14. Which of the following is a collection of software which includes a GUI interface to allow the network
administrator to monitor and manage the network?
* network management application
network management agent
management information base
network management protocol
15. Which of the following describes the community strings used for SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c? (Choose two.)
* The community strings are sent using UDP.
The read only string on most devices is set to private.
The read/write string on most devices is set to public.
Only the NMA needs to be configured with the community strings.
* The community strings are sent across the network in cleartext.
16. Which of the following does SNMP use to hold information collected about the network?
network management station
network management database
* management information base
database information agent