2nd SCW TEST
1.
What is the responsibility of the Commanding Officer as applied
to safety?
a. Ensures that everyone is held accountable
for safety violations.
b. Ensures that everyone on the job site uses
appropriate safety equipment.
c. Ultimately responsible for all safety matters
within the Command.
d. Ultimately responsible for all safety investigations
within the Command.
2.
What is the responsibility of the Executive Officer as applied to
safety?
a.
b.
c.
d.
3.
What is responsibility of the Safety Officer?
a.
b.
c.
d.
4.
be responsible for all safety issues within the Command.
serve as an advisor to the CO on safety issues.
conduct all safety lectures within the command.
act as the chairman of the Safety Council.
Implement safety policies.
Conduct all safety training.
Wear appropriate safety attire at all times.
All of the above.
What is the purpose of a Mishap Investigation?
a.
b.
c.
d.
6.
To
To
To
To
What is the responsibility of all hands as applied to safety?
a.
b.
c.
d.
5.
Chairman of the Safety Policy Committee.
Chairman of the Safety Policy Council.
An advisor to the CO on safety issues.
Writes all command safety instructions.
To establish cause so NJP proceedings can be initiated.
To establish the cause of the mishap and prevent reoccurrence.
To create a paper trail for the Safety Officer.
To inform the Naval Safety Center of the mishap so it can be
prevented.
What is characteristic of a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)?
a. It is used for reordering HAZMAT by the Supply Department.
b. It containing safety information on a product or chemical.
c. They are required to be on file in all shops and on all
projects.
d. To identify what items are safe to inhale.
7.
State when single hearing protective devices are required.
a.
b.
c.
d.
8.
When
When
When
Only
noise levels are between 84 and 103 dB.
noise levels are greater than 104 dB.
noise levels are between 61 and 85 dB.
when equipment has a sign stating it’s required.
When are personnel required to enter into a hearing conservation
program?
a. When their workspace exposes them to noise levels greater
than 104 decibels.
b. When their workspace exposes them to noise levels greater
than 84 decibels.
c. When they regularly use or operate heavy equipment.
d. When assigned to shops which have excessively noisy equipment
installed.
9.
When are ground fault circuit interrupters (GFCI) required?
a.
b.
c.
d.
10.
What type of respirators are available for use by the NCF?
a.
b.
c.
d.
11.
Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus.
Air purifying respirator.
Supplied air respirators.
All of the above.
What are the minimum requirements for respirator use?
a.
b.
c.
d.
12.
When using all electrical power tools and extension cords.
On all office equipment and computer LANs.
On all power tools that don’t have a monthly inspection tag.
On all 120/208 volt, single phase, 15&20 amp outlets.
Know how to identify respiratory hazards.
Know how to properly care for the respirator.
Have a proper fit test and donning procedure.
All of the above.
What is the main purpose of the Navy Recreation, Athletics,
and Home Safety Program?
a. To prevent active duty personnel from playing sports related
activities that might interfere with their navy duties.
b. To enhance the command safety training program.
c. To prevent any recreational, athletic, or home accidents.
d. To protect personnel from accidental death or injury, which
occur in the home and during recreational activities.
13.
When are steel-toed boots required to be worn?
a.
b.
c.
d.
14.
In all shops.
All projects.
Both a & b are correct.
When working on a construction site (except Admin personnel).
What is the importance of the Command Asbestos Policy?
a.
b.
c.
d.
15.
How many levels of application are there for ORM?
a.
b.
c.
d.
16.
SMEAC.
BAMCIS.
ADDRAC.
KOCOA.
A risk assessment code (RAC) of 1 is considered _______________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
20.
Save time when planning a mission.
Complete tasks with fewer personnel.
Maintain readiness and effectiveness.
Track trends associated with training mishaps.
The 5 steps of ORM planning are similar to what other acronym we
commonly use?
a.
b.
c.
d.
19.
Unit Commanders.
Brigade Commanders.
Project Managers.
Lowest level.
Which of the following is a goal of ORM?
a.
b.
c.
d.
18.
2
3
4
5
ORM should be used at what leadership level?
a.
b.
c.
d.
17.
To control exposure to asbestos.
To eliminate asbestos exposure.
To make personnel aware of asbestos hazards.
To prevent personnel from working in any area that
appears to have asbestos.
Extremely high.
Extremely low.
Low.
Not Applicable.
ORM supports mission accomplishment and troop welfare.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
21.
What is the definition of first aid?
a. Emergency care given to a sick or injured person.
b. Emergency care that takes the place of medical care.
c. Asistance given to an injured person.
d. All of above.
22.
What is the purpose of first aid?
a.
b.
c.
d.
23.
What is the ratio of chest compressions to breaths for 1 person CPR?
a.
b.
c.
d.
24.
Seeping.
In a steady stream.
Spurting in pulses.
The wound should not bleed.
Elevate the feet 6 to 12 inches.
Elevate the head 6 to 12 inches.
Elevate the legs to 45 degrees.
Keep the victim flat.
Supporting carry.
Fireman’s carry.
Pack-strap carry.
Saddle-back carry.
Which of the following conditions defines shock?
a.
b.
c.
d.
28.
1.
2.
3.
4.
What method is the easiest for one person to lift and carry
a casualty?
a.
b.
c.
d.
27.
to
to
to
to
If a victim shows signs of shock and the injuries permit,
which of the following actions should you take?
a.
b.
c.
d.
26.
15
15
15
15
If an artery is cut, how will blood exit the wound?
a.
b.
c.
d.
25.
To save lives.
To provide resistance to infection.
To prevent further injury.
All of the above.
Blood circulation is seriously disturbed.
Too much carbon dioxide in the blood.
Circulatory interference resulting from internal injuries.
Too little oxygen in the blood.
A victim in shock often feels _________,his skin is _______,and
feels cold and _______?
a.
b.
c.
d.
29.
Two major problems of injuries, which include broken skin,
are_________ and ________?
a.
b.
c.
d.
30.
where
where
where
where
the blood pressure drops low enough to stop bleeding.
the artery is protected on all sides by bone and muscle.
the artery is close to the skin surface and over a bone.
an artery is near the wound.
8
9
11
13
Heat exhaustion
Heat stroke.
Sun stroke.
Sun poisoning.
What type of weather causes the most severe cold injuries?
a.
b.
c.
d.
34.
point
place
place
point
What heat exposure injury results from a loss of excessive amounts of salt
and water?
a.
b.
c.
d.
33.
A
A
A
A
How many pressure points, are on each side of the body,
which may be used to control bleeding.
a.
b.
c.
d.
32.
Serious bleeding and loss of function.
Infection and disfigurement.
Loss of function and appearance.
Infection and serious blood loss.
What is a pressure point?
a.
b.
c.
d.
31.
Weak, Bluish, Dry.
Strong, Bluish, Moist.
Weak, Pale, Moist.
Strong, Pale, Dry.
Cold,
Cold,
Cold,
Cold,
dry,
wet,
dry,
wet,
and
and
and
and
calm.
windy.
windy.
calm.
It is best to make your preliminary investigation of the victim
in the same position that you found them.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
35.
Which of the following is not a method of purifying water?
a. Boiling.
b. Iodine tablets.
c. Super-chlorinate.
d. Chlorinate.
36.
How often should you clean any weapon?
a.
b.
c.
d.
37.
What is the shooting positions when qualifying with the M16A2E3 rifle?
a.
b.
c.
d.
38.
2212
1100
1300
1500
meters.
meters.
meters.
meters.
2
3
4
5
Before firing and prior to each barrel change.
After firing.
After each cleaning.
Before firing and after each barrel change.
How many different types of grenades are there in use in the NCF?
a.
b.
c.
d.
43.
40mm grenade launcher.
60mm grenade launcher.
203mm grenade launcher.
The grenadier attachment.
When should the headspace on the M2HB.50 cal be checked?
a.
b.
c.
d.
42.
prone.
kneeling.
prone.
offhand.
How many personnel make up a M60 gun team?
a.
b.
c.
d.
41.
and
and
and
and
What is the maximum effective range of the M60 machine gun?
a.
b.
c.
d.
40.
Standing, sitting,
Standing, sitting,
Sitting, kneeling,
Sitting, kneeling,
Which grenade launcher attaches to the M16A2E3 rifle?
a.
b.
c.
d.
39.
After every use.
After every range and BZO.
Monthly.
After each use plus monthly.
3
5
6
9
The M67 is what type of grenade?
a. Chemical.
b. Incendiary.
c. Illumination.
d. Fragmentation.
44.
The safety pin on the MK1 Illumination grenade can be replaced
after being pulled.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
45.
The M57 firing device is used with:
a.
b.
c.
d.
46.
What do all grenades used in the (NCF) have in common?
a.
b.
c.
d.
47.
have a body,
all have the
have nothing
have a body,
filler, fuse and composition 2.
same filler.
in common.
filler and fuse.
1500
6800
1830
3725
meters.
meters.
meters.
meters.
How many safeties, other than the gunner, does the
M2HB .50 cal machine guns have?
a.
b.
c.
d.
49.
They
They
They
They
The maximum effective range of the M2HB machine gun is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
48.
Grenades.
The 80mm mortar.
The M18A1.
None of the above.
One.
Two.
Three.
None.
What are the methods of firing the M224 60mm mortar?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Conventional.
Hand held.
Both a & b.
Shoulder fired.
50.
What type of ammunition has a red or orange tip?
51.
a. Dummy.
b. Tracer.
c. Armor piercing.
d. Ball.
The MK19 Mod 3 is an _____________________.
a. Air-cooled grenade launcher.
b. Air-cooled, blowback operated, belt fed,
fully automatic machine-gun.
c. Air cooled, recoil operated, belt fed,
fully automatic machine-gun.
d. Air cooled, gas operated, semi or full automatic
grenade launcher.
52.
Which of the following items is NOT normally attached on
the web belt of the 782 gear?
a.
b.
c.
d.
53.
Which of the following is the simplest fighting position.
a.
b.
c.
d.
54.
Man made features.
All relief features.
Roads.
Water.
How many patrol planning and preparation steps are there?
a.
b.
c.
d.
58.
3
4
5
6
What does the reddish brown color signify on a military map?
a.
b.
c.
d.
57.
Attack the enemy and do not stop for any reason.
Lay on the ground and freeze.
Get out of the light stop and freeze when you get tired.
Move out of the light as quickly and quietly as possible.
How many basic colors are used on a military map?
a.
b.
c.
d.
56.
Hasty individual position.
Improved one man fighting position.
Improved two man fighting position.
None of the above.
Which action should you take if caught at night in the light
of a ground flare while on a security patrol?
a.
b.
c.
d.
55.
Ammo pouches.
Canteen.
MCU-2/P.
Suspenders.
6
8
10
12
The objective of defense is to hold ground already occupied,
and keep it clear of the enemy.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
59.
What is the first priority of work upon completion of a
security sweep?
a.
b.
c.
d.
60.
Which of the following is not a part of a battalions AOR?
a.
b.
c.
d.
61.
Your name, rank,
Name, rank, date
You are required
Your name, rank,
birth.
social security number and title.
of birth and unit.
to give nothing at all.
social security number and date of
What is the seventh general order of a sentry?
a.
b.
c.
d.
65.
350m.
150m.
400m.
300m.
If you are a prisoner of war, what information do you give to
your captors?
a.
b.
c.
d.
64.
Fire Team Leader.
Rifleman 1
Squad Leader.
Platoon Commander.
What is the maximum range of the M203 Grenade launcher?
a.
b.
c.
d.
63.
Security area.
Bivouac area.
Forward defense area.
Reserve area.
Who is responsible for the discipline, appearance, and
training of a squad?
a.
b.
c.
d.
62.
Crew served weapons.
Security.
Fields of fire.
Surprise.
Take charge of my post and all government property in view.
To quit my post only when properly relieved.
To talk to no one except in the line of duty.
To give the alarm in case of fire or disorder.
When camouflaging, you should camouflage against both ground
and air observation.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
66.
The weapons platoon commander is usually whom?
a.
b.
c.
d.
67.
How many fighting positions are used in a defense?
a.
b.
c.
d.
68.
2.5 to 10
14 to 22
4 to 7
Limited by the length of wire.
12
24
29
25
What is the least secure means of communication?
a.
b.
c.
d.
72.
miles.
miles.
miles.
to 1000 miles (with a diepole antenna)
By “stacking” the SB-22/PT switchboard and utilizing the
operator pack how many lines can be served?
a.
b.
c.
d.
71.
10
14
22
Up
The TA-312/PT telephone has a range of how many miles?
a.
b.
c.
d.
70.
1
2
3
4
What is the maximum range of the AN/PRC 119A radio?
a.
b.
c.
d.
69.
Master Chief Petty Officer.
Chief Petty Officer.
First Class Petty Officer.
Lieutenant Commander.
Radio.
Communication wire.
Messenger.
Hand and arm signals.
When transmitting from your station to another, the receiving
station comes back to you with a response of: BEADWINDOW-03.
What would your response be?
a. I say again.
b. Do not answer.
c. Roger out.
d. Change to alternate frequency.
73.
To expedite radio traffic, you use a word or phrase that has
been assigned a specific meaning for radio and telephone
transmission purposes. This word is known as an_____________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
74.
What term is used to identify a security breech of EEFI,
(Essential, Elements of Friendly Information), over a clear circuit?
a.
b.
c.
d.
75.
Gingerbread.
Roger.
Wilco.
Beadwindow.
What are the four prowords normally used in handling radio
messages, and what order would they be from fastest too slowest?
a.
b.
c.
d.
76.
Password.
Proword.
Challenge
Authentication.
Priority, Immediate, Routine and Flash.
Immediate, Priority, Flash and Routine.
Flash, Immediate, Priority and Routine.
Routine, Flash, Immediate and Priority.
A KL-43 is used to load encrypted frequencies.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
77.
The piece of gear used to operate an AN\PRC 119 from a
remote location is?
a.
b.
c.
d.
78.
Atropine is a substance used for:
a.
b.
c.
d.
79.
AN 104.
KL 5000.
ANGRA 39.
VRC 90.
Reversing nerve damage, paralysis, and death.
Decontamination of chemical agents.
Reversal of the effects of nerve agents.
Preventing convulsions.
Chemical agents are used to produce death, injury and
temporary incapacitating or irritating effects.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
80.
Which of the following are anti-personnel agents?
a.
b.
c.
d.
81.
What is a NAAK, Mark 1?
a.
b.
c.
d.
82.
Anti Convulsion Kit.
A CBR survey kit.
A nerve agent antidote kit.
An incapacitating agent kit.
Which of the following is the standard field protective mask?
a.
b.
c.
d.
83.
Casualty agents.
Non-lethal incapacitating agents.
Harassing agents.
All of the above.
The
The
The
The
MK-5.
MCU-2P.
M16A1.
MCP-U2.
What should all Seabees know about a biological attack?
a. It is normally difficult to recognize or detect.
b. It may be used to supplement other types of attacks.
c. It may be used to cause either delayed death or
incapacitation for strategic purposes.
d. All of the above.
84.
How many MOPP levels are there in NMCB-74’s Tactical SOP?
a.
b.
c.
d.
85.
2
3
5
6
MOPP is a flexible system of protection against chemical
agents used to facilitate mission accomplishment in chemical warfare.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
86.
87.
How many personnel are required to run an efficient
Personnel Decontamination Station?
a. 6
b. 9
c. 11
d. 13
How long will the MKIII Chemical Protective Overgarment,
provide protection after exposure to CB agents? (without liquid)
a. 6 hours.
b. 6 days.
c. 14 hours.
d. 14 days.
88.
The automatic chemical agent alarm can be used to detect
blister agents arriving in an area from an upwind chemical attack.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
89.
Who is responsible for the operation of the Mount-Out Control
Center (MOCC)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
90.
9
13
18
36
What is the maximum height cargo can be loaded on a 463L pallet?
a.
b.
c.
d.
94.
Green, yellow and red.
Red, white and blue.
Black, brown and white.
Green, red and blue.
How many 463L pallets will fit onboard a C-141 Starlifter aircraft?
a.
b.
c.
d.
93.
NAVSUP PUB 485.
NAVFAC PUB 314.
CBPAC/CBLANT INST 4400.3A.
NAVSUP PUB 505.
What are the three-color classifications used in determining
convoy road routes?
a.
b.
c.
d.
92.
Commanding Officer.
Executive Officer.
Operations Officer.
Alfa Company Commander.
What manual governs the handling of hazardous cargo for air,
land and sea movements?
a.
b.
c.
d.
91.
The
The
The
The
48
72
88
96
inches.
inches.
inches.
inches.
Which formula is used to determine the center of balance of
a vehicle?
a. (W1 x D1) + (W2 x D2)
GVW
b. (GW) divided by 2
c. (W1 + D1)_x_(W2_+_D2)
GVW
d. (W1 x D1) x (W2 x (D2)
GVW
95.
Which of the following best describes class III materials?
a.
b.
c.
d.
96.
Which of the following best describes class VIII materials?
a.
b.
c.
d.
97.
Rations.
Petroleum’s, Oils and Lubricants.
Medical Supplies.
Ammunition.
Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Advance
Officer?
a.
b.
c.
d.
99.
Rations.
Petroleum’s, Oils and Lubricants.
Medical Supplies.
Ammunition.
Which of the following best describes class V materials?
a.
b.
c.
d.
98.
Petroleums, Oils and Lubricants.
Rations.
Medical Supplies.
Ammunition.
Post traffic control personnel.
Reconnoiter the route of march.
Be the first vehicle in the column.
Select alternate routes.
A yellow road route indicates that hostile activity is imminent.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
100.
Minor property is valued between?
a.
b.
c.
d.
101.
$1.00 and $50.00.
$1.00 and $100.00.
$300.00 and $1,000.00.
$300.00 and $5,000.00.
Plant property has a useful life of how long?
a.
b.
c.
d.
6
2
1
3
months to 1 year.
or more years.
to 2 years.
to 6 months.
102.
Every construction project is required to have a Bill of Material (BM).
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
103.
What is the NAVSUP 1220-2 used for?
a.
b.
c.
d.
104.
What form is used to keep camouflage utility uniform records?
a.
b.
c.
d.
105.
NAVSUP 1149.
SF 364.
DD 1348-1A.
SF 91.
Commanding Officer.
Supply Officer.
2nd/3rd Naval Construction Brigade.
20th/31st NCR.
What dollar value of tool loss requires a DD 200(survey)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
109.
DD 200.
DD 214.
1250-1.
1250-2.
An NMCB’s OPTAR is issued by what authority?
a.
b.
c.
d.
108.
4400/3.
4400/5.
4400/6.
4400/7.
What form would be used to receive or release an item?
a.
b.
c.
d.
107.
COMCBPAC/COMCBLANT
COMCBPAC/COMCBLANT
COMCBPAC/COMCBLANT
COMCBPAC/COMCBLANT
What form would you use to order an item by part numbered?
a.
b.
c.
d.
106.
Delete an item from an allowance list.
Add an item to an allowance list.
Increase/decrease allowance quantities.
Single line item Release/Receipt document.
Line item over $35.
Total loss over $100.
Both a & b.
All lost tools require survey.
If an item experiences 2 or more hits within a year, it
qualifies for the Selected Item Management (SIM) program.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
110.
What is definition of COSAL?
a.
b.
c.
d.
111.
Consolidated SEABEE Allowance list.
Coordinated Shipboard Allowance list.
Both a & b.
Complete Shipboard Allowance List.
CSR stands for Central Supply Room.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
112.
What is the main function of an Amphibious Construction Battalion
(PHIBCB)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
113.
117.
All horizontal construction.
All vertical construction.
Maintenance of all equipment.
Pallet Building/Line Companies.
What does EDVR stand for?
a.
b.
c.
d.
116.
Fleet Hospital support or NMCB augment.
Fix it and maintain it.
Support the self-help programs for Navy Personnel.
Maintenance and repair of stateside Naval facilities.
What is the main function of Charlie/Delta Company in a
Naval Mobile Construction Battalion (NMCB)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
115.
establish Seabee billets onboard ships.
provide amphibious construction support.
repair underwater facilities.
provide minor construction on the water front.
In today's Navy, what is the contingency function of a
Construction Battalion Unit (CBU)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
114.
To
To
To
To
Enlisted
Enlisted
Enlisted
Enlisted
Data Verification Report.
Distribution Vocational Requirements.
Data Volume Report.
Distribution and Verification Report
What is an EDVR?
a. A yearly statement of an activity's enlisted personnel account.
b. A quarterly statement of an activity's enlisted personnel account.
c. A semi-annual statement of an activity's enlisted personnel account.
d. A monthly statement of an activity's enlisted personnel account.
In which publication will you find the Personnel Readiness Capability
Program (PRCP)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
NAVFAC
NAVFAC
NAVFAC
NAVFAC
P-458.
P-459.
P-460.
P-461.
118.
What is the purpose of the PRCP?
a. To provide accurate, up to date, personnel information so
the NCF can accomplish its mission.
b. To be used as a management tool ONLY!
c. To provide accurate, up to date information to the Commander.
d. To create more paperwork for the training petty officer.
119.
What is the acronym used for the post, that controls the
embarkation operations?
a.
b.
c.
d.
120.
Which of the following departments is directly responsible for
all TOA weapons?
a.
b.
c.
d.
121.
Warehouse handling equipment.
Weight handling equipment.
Weight hauling equipment.
Weight hoist equipment.
What is BEEP?
a.
b.
c.
d.
124.
S-7
S-3
S-6
S-2
What is WHE?
a.
b.
c.
d.
123.
S-6
S-7
S-4
S-2
Which of the following departments is directly responsible for
maintenance of and training in communication?
a.
b.
c.
d.
122.
ACOC.
COC.
MOCC.
OPS.
Battalion
Battalion
Battalion
Battalion
early exit program.
equipment evaluation program.
equipment expectancy program.
equipment execution program.
What number would be found on a Government license containing
trucks, blazers, buses, HMMWV and passenger vehicles?
a.
b.
c.
d.
OF 346.
SF 91.
11260/2.
NAVFAC P-404.
125.
After checking out a vehicle out of dispatch, what type of
maintenance is performed by you prior to operating the vehicle?
a.
b.
c.
d.
126.
If involved in an accident, what should be filled out by the
operator prior to leaving the scene?
a.
b.
c.
d.
127.
DD Form 1348.
SF 368.
SF 91.
NAVSUP 1149.
Of the inspections done on camp facilities, which one does the
Battalion personnel not normally perform?
a.
b.
c.
d.
128.
Operator Maintenance.
First Echelon Maintenance.
Both a & b.
None of the above.
Controlled Inspection.
Annual Inspection Summary.
Operator Inspection.
None of the above.
What are the correct procedures for Rapid Runway Repair?
a. Clean/sweep runway, repair craters, position matting,
assemble matting and paint runway.
b. Identify craters, deliver stock pile and place fill,
clean/sweep runway, repair craters, position matting and
assemble matting, anchor matting and paint runway.
c. Identify craters, repair craters, deliver stock pile and
place select fill, clean/sweep runway, assemble matting, position
matting, anchor matting and paint runway.
d. Identify craters, deliver stock pile and place fill,
repair craters, position matting, assemble matting, anchor
matting, clean/sweep and paint runway.
129.
What is required before issuing project material?
a.
b.
c.
d.
130.
1348-1A.
1250-1.
1250-2.
1250-3.
How many personnel need to be trained at battalion level one
and two in order to satisfy the requirements of Rapid Runway Repair?
a.
b.
c.
d.
90
60
20
46
at
at
at
at
level
level
level
level
one,
one,
one,
one,
60
90
46
20
at
at
at
at
level
level
level
level
two.
two.
two.
two.
131.
Why is it important to have quality control and project safety plans
contained in the project package?
a. To ensure that all materials are used and safety lectures are given.
b. To ensure standards of construction are maintained and work is being
performed in a safe manner.
c. Quality Control prevents some discrepancies and all safety plans are
used as a basis for some of the daily safety lectures.
d. Safety plans are used as a guide to perform an activity safely and
Quality Control is used to match some of the requirements in the plans
and specifications.
132.
Construction Activity Summary Sheets (CASS) are used to identify all
material, personnel resources, equipment needed and all quality control
and safety requirements.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
133.
In the ABFC system, how many parts are contained in volume two?
a.
b.
c.
d.
134.
What does the acronym ABFC stand for?
a.
b.
c.
d.
135.
137.
Another Big Faraway Camp.
Advance Base Facilities and Components.
Advance Base Functional Components.
American Battalion Facilities and Components.
What is the minimum distance a garbage pit can be located from
messing facilities?
a.
b.
c.
d.
136.
2
3
4
5
100 yards.
50 yards.
35 yards.
30 yards.
What is the minimum distance a garbage pit can located from
water supplies?
a. 50 feet.
b. 50 yards.
c. 100 feet.
d. 100 yards.
Radio call signs would be listed in which portion of a
five-paragraph order?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Situation.
Mission.
Execution.
Command and signal.
138.
What minimum distance must a latrine be from water or messing?
a.
b.
c.
d.
139.
Normally, how long should a generator be allowed to warm up
before a load is applied?
a.
b.
c.
d.
140.
Petty Officer.
Commander.
Right Guide.
Clerk.
Front of the squad.
End of the squad.
By the squad leader.
By the platoon leader.
Who is considered the backbone of the fire team?
a.
b.
c.
d.
143.
Platoon
Platoon
Platoon
Company
The Grenadier should always be positioned near the ___________?
a.
b.
c.
d.
142.
5 minutes.
15 minutes.
30 minutes.
1 hour.
Distribution of ammunition to the platoon (s) is the
responsibility of the?
a.
b.
c.
d.
141.
50ft.
50yds.
100ft.
100yds.
Fire team leader.
Automatic rifleman.
Rifleman # 1.
Rifleman # 2.
The barriers and obstacles should be placed within hand
grenade range.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
144.
The fire plan sketch is prepared by the fire team leader and
submitted to the ___________ for approval?
a. Company commander.
b. Company chief.
c. Platoon commander.
d. Squad leader.
145.
When a challenge and password are prescribed, the challenge
is given by the sentry _______________?
a.
b.
c.
d.
146.
Who is ultimately responsibility for the security of the command
lies with the _____________?
a.
b.
c.
d.
147.
After the person has advanced to be recognized.
From a distance of at least ten yards.
Loudly to ensure it is heard.
After the password is given.
Security Officer.
Executive Officer.
Commanding Officer.
Intelligence Officer.
When deadly force is justified, firing warning shot is authorized.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
148.
The ammunition for the MK-19 40MM Machine Gun is interchangeable
with M203 ammunition.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
149.
The High Explosive (HE) round of ammunition for the MK-19
40 MM Machine Gun has a kill radius of ___________ meters?
a.
b.
c.
d.
150.
5
10
15
35
The M67 fragmentation grenade has a killing radius of ________ meters?
a.
b.
c.
d.
5
10
15
35