Final
Human Communication Studies 100
Monday-Wednesday, 1-2:15
Instructor: Paul Wright
Instructor’s Version
1. Which of the following descriptions fits all the criteria of group communication?
(a) Five students who meet each Wednesday through the semester in order to
study for biology exams
(b) Seven beauticians who unexpectedly congregate at the coffee shop for an hour
(c) A zookeeper who practices tasks with four chimpanzees each day for an hour
(d) Three business executives who have a conference call to determine next year’s
budget
(What is a group? 256-259)
2. Which of the following roles is a maintenance behavior?
(a) Information seeker
(b) Starter
(c) Energizer
(d) Harmonizer
(Table 8-2, 8-3, 266-269)
3. You are working on a class project and you and your team members decide that any
and all decisions must be approved unanimously to be implemented. This resolution
reflects which decision making pattern?
(a) Authoritarian
(b) Majority control
(c) Minority control
(d) Consensus
(Decision Making Methods, 273-275)
4. An all-channel communication network will be more efficient than a wheel network in:
(a) Providing the leader with more information than other members
(b) Solving simple, routine tasks
(c) Solving complex, ambiguous tasks
(d) Finding one member to serve as a clearinghouse for information
(Patterns of Interaction, 271-273)
5. “Role fixation” occurs when:
(a) A group member acts out a role regardless of whether that role is necessary
(b) Two or more members play the same role
(c) A group communicologist “fixes” a group’s ineffective communication patterns
(d) A member plays the same role repeatedly
(Role –Related Problems & Solutions, 270-271)
6. In the study of group communication, “power distance” refers to:
(a) The separation of power between the leader and the group members
(b) The difference in power between the most powerful and least powerful member
(c) The degree to which members accept a difference in power between group
members
(d) Each member’s perception of their distance from the group’s power center.
(Cultural Influences, 276-279)
7. The key to using reward/coercive power effectively is to:
(a) Follow group norms
(b) Make rewards & punishments clear in advance
(c) Enhance your attractiveness to other group members
(d) Be physically more imposing than any other group member
8. When a group brainstorms, it is most essential that:
(a) Leadership is strong
(b) No evaluation takes place
(c) Causes of the problem are considered
(d) Criteria for judging ideas are applied
(A Structured Problem Solving Approach, 291-297)
9. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of group problem solving?
(a) More commitment to solutions
(b) More resources to direct toward a solution
(c) More speed in finding a solution
(d) More accuracy in the problem solving process
(Advantages of Group Problem Solving, 284-285)
10. The quality that makes a participant want to remain in a group is called?
(a) Cohesiveness
(b) Force field analysis
(c) Shared norms
(d) Information power
(Maintaining Positive Relationships, 300-302)
11. The advantage of using a nominal group technique for problem solving is:
(a) It is faster than other methods
(b) It helps solve problems by groups who are not creative
(c) It lets others present ideas without being attacked
(d) It does not require a leader
12. Which of the following was among the top five traits associated with leaders
according to table 9-4 in your text?
(a) Maturity
(b) Friendliness
(c) Ethical conduct
(d) Physical energy
(Leadership & Power in Groups, 303-310)
13. Group membership, age, and income are examples of audience:
(a) Demographics
(b) Psychographics
(c) Traits
(d) Conditions
(Analyzing the Audience, 326-331)
14. “After listening to my speech the audience will support the idea of freedom of
speech.” This purpose statement is poorly written because it:
(a) Does not describe the results sought.
(b) Is not specific
(c) Is not realistic
(d) Is not interesting
(Defining Purpose, 322-324)
15. Those feelings of your audience that lie closest to the surface and that have the least
depth are labeled:
(a) Attitudes
(b) Beliefs
(c) Values
(d) Opinions
16. Which factor would NOT be critical to evaluating the worth of a particular web site?
(a) The domain name of the site (i.e., .com, .edu, .gov, .org)
(b) The search engine used to locate the site
(c) When the page was last updated
(d) The credentials of the page’s author
17. “Infotrac Academic Index” is a (an):
(a) University Card Catalogue System
(b) Communication Periodical
(c) On-Line Data Base
(d) Dewy Decimal System
(Internet Research, 333-336)
18. If your thesis were “Population control is essential in the Third World,” your best
choice for a pattern of organization would probably be:
(a) Time
(b) Topic
(c) Space
(d) Problem-solution
(Organizing Your Points in a Logical Order, 353-357)
19. The introduction of an informative speech should do all of the following except:
(a) Develop a thesis
(b) Foster audience identification
(c) Present a unified, restricted thesis
(d) Preview the main points
20. What type of supporting material is represented in the following excerpt from a
speech?
“Inflation is like a disease, it can be diagnosed accurately but gets worse and worse until
treatment is offered.”
(a) Description
(b) Definition
(c) Analogy
(d) Anecdote
(Types of Supporting Material, 364-367)
21. What is wrong with the use of the following statistic?
“Last year 9879 people died from heart disease in the United States.”
(a) No source is cited
(b) Nothing is wrong
(c) It is used alone
(d) It is not clearly related to an idea
22. The phrase “another important consideration” is an example of a:
(a) Review
(b) Preview
(c) Indication
(d) Transition
(Using Transitions, 357)
23. Which of the following is part of a good conclusion?
(a) An acknowledgement and refutation of your argument’s weaknesses
(b) A succinct review of main points
(c) An interesting final new point
(d) An acknowledgement of your supporters
(Beginning & Ending the Speech, 357-362)
24. A speaker who begins a speech by telling about his/her recent experiences with the
IRS and then parlays that information into a thesis about tax law is using a (an):
(a) Anecdote
(b) Quotation
(c) Reference to the occasion
(d) Reference to the audience
25. You just returned to class after a two-week break. Your teacher greets you by asking
you to report on your vacation. What type of speech will you give?
(a) Extemporaneous
(b) Impromptu
(c) Manuscript
(d) Memorized
(Types of Delivery, 385-387)
26. When you picture yourself giving a successful speech before giving it you are using:
(a) Rationality
(b) A receiver-oriented approach
(c) Substitution
(d) Visualization
(Overcoming Stage Fright, 384)
27. Speeches that are read word for word from a prepared script are called”
(a) Memorized
(b) Extemporaneous
(c) Impromptu
(d) Manuscript
28. The most common mistake in articulation is (e.g., “participate” instead of
“participatory”):
(a) Substitution
(b) Deletion
(c) Addition
(d) Multiplication
(Auditory Aspects of Delivery, 390-392)
29. When we think we need to gain the admiration of everyone in the audience, we have
fallen victim to the fallacy of:
(a) Approval
(b) Affection
(c) Perfection
(d) Costanza
(Sources of Debilitative Stage Fright, 383-384)
30. “After listening to my speech the audience will be able to explain the problems with
punch card ballots.” This purpose sentence is:
(a) Good, because it tells what the audience will learn from the speech
(b) Good, because it is short
(c) Bad, because it does not tell what the speaker will do
(d) Bad because it is not adapted to the audience
(Techniques of Informative Speaking)
31. In a question and answer period, a speaker may respond to a question by saying, “If I
understand your question…I think you are asking…Am I correct?” This speaker
response is an example of:
(a) Defensive reaction
(b) Ingratiation
(c) Degratiation
(d) Paraphrasing
32. The ideal number of main points in an informative speech is:
(a) 1-2
(b) 3-5
(c) 4-6
(d) 5-7
(Use A Clear Organizational Structure, 405-406)
33. “What I’m about to say is important,” “Listen to this,” and “The key point here,” are
all examples of:
(a) Repetition
(b) Modifications
(c) Signposts
(d) Instructors
(Emphasizing Important Points, 404)
34. Which of the following speech titles does NOT represent an informative speech?
(a) “House breaking your iguana in five easy steps.”
(b) “The causes of male pattern baldness.”
(c) “What are the characteristics of an new age cult?”
(d) “Rick Dees: The worst DJ ever.”
(Types of informative speaking, 398-399)
35. Audience involvement with a speech by use of participation or volunteers will
generally have the effect of:
(a) Distracting your listeners
(b) Decreasing topic relevance
(c) Increasing audience comprehension
(d) Decreasing information hunger
(Generate Audience Involvement, 408-410)
36. According to Social Judgment Theory, effective persuasion is usually:
(a) Ethical
(b) Incremental
(c) Direct
(d) Dynamic
(Characteristics of persuasion, 418-421)
37. According to Social Judgment Theory, ego-involved people have very large latitudes
of rejection and very small latitudes of:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Non-commitment
Refusal
Dismissal
Denunciation
38. Another meaning of source credibility is:
(a) The education level of the authority
(b) The audience’s perceptions of the speaker
(c) The speaker’s honesty
(d) The speaker’s ethicalness
(Building Credibility, 437-439)
39. A politician who opens his speech with the phrase, “My fellow Americans,” is trying
to establish which of the following in relation to his audience:
(a) Emotional build up
(b) Sympathy
(c) Common ground
(d) Empathy
(Adapting to the audience, 434-437)
40. “You should invest in the stock market,” is a proposition of:
(a) Fact
(b) Policy
(c) Value
(d) Conviction
(Categorizing persuasion, 422-424).
41. When facing a hostile audience a speaker should use:
(a) Direct persuasion
(b) Indirect persuasion
(c) Redirect persuasion
(d) Bipolar directed persuasion
42. “Nearly all criminals shoplifted as children. Shoplifting leads to serious crime.” This
argument is an example of:
(a) Insufficient evidence
(b) An emotional appeal
(c) An evasive argument
(d) Incorrect causal reasoning
(Avoid fallacies, 432-434)
43. A “target” audience is one which:
(a) You have no hope in persuading
(b) Is the most similar (demographically) to you
(c) Shops at discount superstores
(d) You must persuade in order to reach your goal
44. If you are the interviewer and would like to maintain control over the interview, you
should probably use:
(a) Many open ended questions
(b) Many closed ended questions
(c) Many neutral questions
(d) Fewest number of questions possible
(Table 3, 455)
45. About how many more times does a successful job interviewee mention the name of
the company that might hire her/him than an unsuccessful interviewee?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
46. Successful job interviewees:
(a) Ask small number of questions about the position
(b) Use the technical jargon of the position
(c) Give vague responses to leading questions
(d) Use the interview to learn about the company
(Table 5, 463)
47. The average person thinks that the media does affect societal norms, values, and
beliefs, but doesn’t think that the media affects his or her own behaviors, ideals, and
attitudes.
(a) This statement is TRUE
(b) This statement is FALSE
48. The statement “People learn how to behave by observing the mass media,” reflects
the central tenant of which media effects theory?
(a) Social learning theory
(b) Flow theory
(c) Individual differences theory
(d) Cultivation theory
49. The statement “The media shapes how we view reality,” reflects the central tenant of
which media effects theory?
(a) Social learning theory
(b) Agenda setting theory
(c) Individual differences theory
(d) Cultivation theory
50. The statement “The media tell us not what to think, but rather what to think about,”
reflects the central tenant of which media effects theory?
(a) Social learning theory
(b) Agenda setting theory
(c) Individual differences theory
(d) Cultivation theory
(Theories of media effects, 474-475)