1
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Review questions for first Trends in Biotechnology classroom test.
•
The real test will be much shorter
The fundamental unit of life is the ______.
A) organism
B) organ system
C) organ
D) tissue
E) cell
3 Which type of microscope has a useful magnification limit of about 1,000X?
A) light microscope
B) transmission electron microscope
C) scanning electron microscope
D) scanning-probe microscope
4 ______ is the ability to distinguish between two adjacent points.
A) Magnification
B) Resolving power
C) Ionization
D) Emulsification
E) Multiplication
5 Electrons have a shorter wavelength than visible light and therefore will have a lower
resolving power.
A) True
B) False
8 Multicellular organisms are composed of many cells.
A) True
B) False
9
The cell theory states that all living things are made of atoms.
A) True
B) False
11
The ______ membrane separates the contents of the cell from the surrounding
environment.
A) plasma
B) nuclear
C) Golgi
D) mitochondrial
E) lysosomal
14
A threadlike material called chromatin is located within the ______.
A) nucleus
B) nucleolus
C) mitochondria
D) lysosome
E) Golgi apparatus
19
At the time of cell division, rodlike structures called chromatin will form within the
nucleus.
A) True
B) False
MATCH the number with the letter.
1. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
2. Aristotle
3. Francesco Redi
4. John Needham
5. Louis Pasteur
6. Robert Brown
7. Robert Hooke
A. Suggested that living organisms could develop from non-living matter.
B. First person to suggest the rejection of idea of living organism developing form nonliving matter, but not all scientists accepted his results.
C. Suggested that some microorganisms could develop from non-living material, if these
microbes were small enough.
D. Ended the idea of living material from non-living material by using better designed lab
equipment, and gave rise to today’s cell theory.
E. First person to observe cells under a microscope (invented microscope).
F. Worked a lot at designing the early compound light microscopes and expanded cell
theory; first person to observe living cells.
G. First person to observe nucleus inside cell.
III. MATCHING.
1. anaphase
2. cell cycle
3. cell division
4. DNA replication
5. interphase
6. metaphase
7. prophase
8. reproductive
9. somatic
10. telophase
A. an intermediate stage of division when chromosomes pairs align along the equatorial
plane of the cell spindle
B. an intermediate stage of division when chromosome pairs move along spindle fibres to
opposite ends of the cell
C. complete duration or life-span of a cell
D. consists of 6 phases, beginning with final interphase and ending with cytokinesis
E. major portion of the life cycle of a cell
F. occurs inside nucleus during final part of interphase in preparation for mitosis
G. the early stage of division during which chromosomes condense and become visible
H. the final stage of mitosis or meiosis during which the chromosomes of daughter cells
are grouped in two new nuclei
I. type of cell that reproduces asexually by meiosis, resulting in four new “halfcells” that
contain half the number of chromosomes as the original cell
J. type of cell that reproduces asexually by mitosis, resulting in two new cells that are
exact duplicates of the original cell
Use this diagram to label the numbered diagram.
Match the numbers with the names.
Chemicals of life
60
______ are lipids containing phosphorus that are very important in cell
membranes.
A) Glycerol
B) Fatty acids
C) Triglycerides
D) Steroids
E) Phospholipids
63
Fats do not mix with water because they are polar molecules.
A) True
B) False
66
The polar portion of the phospholipid molecule (head) is soluble in water,
whereas the two hydrocarbon chains (tails) are not.
A) True
B) False
68
Proteins are polymers of ______.
A) amino acids
B) nucleotides
C) glycerol and fatty acid
D) monosaccharides
E) disaccharides
71
The bond that occurs between the acid group of one amino acid and the amino
group of another amino acid is termed a (an) ______ bond.
A) hydrogen
B) weak
C) peptide
D) ionic
E) covalent
73
Which of the following types of organic molecules have their monomers joined by
a peptide bond?
A) proteins
B) lipids
C) carbohydrates
D) nucleic acids
E) salts
82
What are the components of a nucleotide?
A) glucose, cholesterol, triglyceride
B) amino acid, fatty acid, phosphate
C) phosphate, glucose, fatty acid
D) phosphate, hexose sugar, nitrogen-containing base
E) phosphate, pentose sugar, nitrogen-containing base
83
When nucleotide monomers join together, the ______ polymer is formed.
A) protein
B) carbohydrate
C) lipid
D) nucleic acid
E) cholesterol
http://www.questionpapers.net.in/question_papers/biology/biotechnology_1.html
3. The molecular formulae of deoxyribose sugar and ribose sugar are
(A) C5 H10 O4 and C5H10O6
(B) C5 H10 O4 and C5H10O5
(C) C5 H10 O5 and C5H10O4
(D) C5 H10 O5 and C6H10O4
Answer: (B)
4. The nitrogen bases which pair with two hydrogen bonds are
(A) Adenine and thymine
(B) Adenine and Cytosine
(C) Cytosine and guanine
(D) Cytosine and adenine
Answer: (A)
5. DNA differs from RNA in
(A) Presence of deoxyribose sugar
(B) Presence of thymine base
(C) Property of replication
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
6. DNA molecules makes a complete turn after every
(A) 20 Å
(B) 34 Å
(B) 3.4 Å
(D) 10 base pairs
Answer: (D)
7. The distance between two successive nitrogenous base pairs is
(A) 34 Å
(B) 36 Å
(C) 20 Å
(D) 3.4 Å
Answer: (D)
8. In nucleoside, nitrogen base is attached to pentose sugar at
(A) Carbon – 1 of pentose sugar
(B) Carbon – 2 of pentose sugar
(C) Carbon – 4 of pentose sugar
(D) Carbon – 5 of pentose sugar
Answer: (A)
9. If the strand of DNA has 35 nucleotide how many phosphodiester bonds would exist
(A) 34
(B) 35
(C) 24
(D) 70
1. __________ is the commercial use of living organisms or their components to improve
animal and human health, agriculture, and the environment.
a.
Bioconversion
b.
c.
d.
Biotechnology
DNA fingerprinting
Bioremediation
2. __________ is the breakdown of organic compounds by cells or organisms in the
absence of oxygen to generate ATP.
a.
Complementation
b.
Fermentation
c.
Electroporation
d.
Dehalogenation
3. __________ in the stomach worked with the natural bacteria in milk to cause the casein
to precipitate and form curds, which were subsequently dried.
a.
Chromatids
b.
Enzymes
c.
Amino Acids
d.
Crustaceans
9. The renowned French Chemist __________ eventually established that yeast and other
microbes are directly linked to fermentation.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Louis Pasteur
Anton van Leeuwenhoek
Shen Nan
CGIAR
13. __________ is added to fruit juice to improve taste.
a.
Lysine
b.
Methionine
c.
Cysteine
d.
Alanine
14. __________ is used in Japan to make bread a more complete protein.
a.
Cysteine
b.
Alanine
c.
Lysine
d.
Methionine
15. __________ prevents rancidity in various foods.
a.
Tryptophan
b.
Methionine
c.
Alanine
d.
Cysteine
The following questions from http://highered.mcgrawhill.com/sites/0073031208/student_view0/chapter13/multiple_choice.html
1
Advantages to using the garden pea for Mendel's experiments included all listed below
except
A)
true-breeding varieties were scarce.
B)
he could expect to observe segregation of traits among the offspring.
C)
they have relatively short generation time.
D)
sex organs of the pea are enclosed within the flower.
2
Pea plants can
3
A)
self-pollinate, but are not self-compatible
B)
self-fertilize
C)
only cross-fertilize
D)
reproduce without pollination
In Mendel's F2 generation, one out of four plants had white flowers because
A)
the trait is sex-linked
B)
both parents were heterozygous purple
C)
one parent was homozygous recessive
D)
both parents were heterozygous white
6
In the F2 generation, the 3:1 ratio is really a disguised
A)
1:2:1
B)
2:1:1
C)
1:1:2
D)
4:0
E)
4:1
7
The ratio often referred to the Mendelian ratio is
A)
1:3:3:1
B)
9:7
C)
1:3:1
D)
1:1
E)
3:1
8
When Mendel crossed pure-breeding purple and white flowered pea plants, the dominant
to recessive ratio in the F1 generation was
A)
3:1
B)
4:0
C)
4:1
D)
4:0
E)
9:3:3:1
9
On which of the following chromosomes are sex-linked traits carried?
A)
13
B)
18
C)
Y
D)
15
E)
X
11
In Mendel's F2 generation of the purple and white flower crossing, the dominant to
recessive ratio was
A)
1:3:1
B)
3:1
C)
1:1
D)
9:7
E)
9:3:3:1
15
A individual who has two of the same allele is said to be
A)
homozygous
B)
heteromologous
C)
homologous
D)
heterozygous
E)
diplozygous
16
Which of the following represents a dihybrid?
A)
WWSs
B)
WwSS
C)
WwSs
D)
WWss
E)
wwSs
17
Where two alternatives for a trait are tall and short, and tall is dominant, the genotype of a
heterozygous individual would be expressed
A)
sS
B)
ss
C)
SS
D)
Ss
E)
tall
19
The appearance resulting from a given gene combination is referred to as the
A)
genotype
B)
phenotype
C)
phototype
D)
alleleotype
E)
stereotype
22
The two alternatives for a trait are red and white and red is dominant. However, white is
the most common trait. What is the genotype of a homozygous dominant individual?
A)
RR
B)
rr
C)
WW
D)
ww
E)
red
24
A genetic disorder caused by a dominant allele is
A)
sickle-cell anemia
B)
PKU
C)
Tay-Sachs disease
D)
hemophilia (royal)
E)
Huntington's disease
27
In garden peas, height is determined by a single gene with tall being dominate to short. If
two heterozygous plants are crossed, what proportion of the tall progeny will be
homozygous dominant?
A)
3/4
B)
2/3
C)
1/2
D)
1/3
E)
1/4
28
In the cross MMnn x mmNN, what proportion of the resulting F1 would be homozygous
dominant for both genes?
A)
none
B)
1/16
C)
3/16
D)
9/16
E)
all
31
The model for the dihybrid cross of heterozygotes predicts a phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1.
A)
True
B)
False
35
A trait caused by a recessive autosomal allele will result in a pedigree that shows affected
individuals having at least one affected parent.
A)
True
B)
False
Morgan and Drosophila
When Thomas Hunt Morgan crossed his red-eyed F1 generation flies to each other, the
F2 generation included both red- and white-eyed flies. Remarkably, all the white-eyed flies
were male. What was the explanation for this result?
a) The gene involved is on the Y chromosome
b) Other male-specific factors influence eye color in flies
c) The gene involved is on an autosome
d) The gene involved is on the X chromosome
Thomas Hunt Morgan's choice of Drosophila melanogaster has been proven to be useful
even today. Which of the following has/have continued to make it a most useful species?
I. its four pairs of chromosomes
II. a very large number of visible as well as biochemically mutant phenotypes
III. easy and inexpensive maintenance
IV. short generation time and large number of offspring
A) I and IV only
B) II and III only
C) I, II, and III only
D) II, III, and IV only
E) I, II, III, IV, and V
Pedigrees
17
Pedigrees for human genetic traits are important because:
A)
Humans tend to have small numbers of offspring.
B)
Matings between humans cannot be established by experimenters.
C)
individuals.
Knowledge about family history can help determine probabilities for
D)
All of the above.
E)
None of the above.
18
Laurie met her husband Jim at a support group for families dealing with PKU
(phenylketonurea), a recessive genetic disorder. Laurie and Jim both have one sister who
is affected with PKU and no other family history of the disorder. They come to you as a
genetic counselor to ask what their risk is of having an affected child. What do you tell
them?
A)
They must both be heterozygotes so their risk of having an affected child is
¼.
B)
They might both be heterozygotes so they should get tested to see if they
carry the disease allele or not.
C)
Since neither one of them is affected, they are not at risk of having an
affected child.
D)
genotypes.
You can't give them any firm answers because you don't know their
19
Which of the following statements about a pedigree would be most definitive in
determining a recessive pattern of inheritance?
A)
Two affected individuals have three affected children.
B)
Two unaffected individuals have one affected and two unaffected children.
C)
There are four instances where at least one affected parent has an
affected child.
D)
Two known heterozygotes have two affected and one unaffected child.