AP Biology A: Ch 1, 52, 53 Test
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Cells are ____.
A) only found in pairs, because single cells cannot exist independently
B) characteristic of eukaryotic but not prokaryotic organisms
C) limited in size to 200 and 500 micrometers in diameter
D) characteristic of prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms
2) A localized group of organisms that belong to the same species is called a ____.
A) family
B) ecosystem
C) population
D) community
3) Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains. What are the domains?
A) Archaea and Monera
B) Bacteria and Protista
C) Bacteria and Archaea
D) Bacteria and Eukarya
4) Which of these provides evidence of the common ancestry of all life?
A) structure of the nucleus
B) structure of chloroplasts
C) structure of cilia
D) near universality of the genetic code
5) The phylogenetic tree below ____.
A) includes unicellular and some forms of multicellular life, but not complex animals
and plants
B) depicts the three major domains of life
C) includes noncellular life-forms
D) includes unicellular but not multicellular life
6) You find yourself standing next to a beautiful rose bush. Which of the following do you and the rose
have in common?
A) You both are multicellular.
B) You are both prokaryotic.
C) You both lack a membrane-bound nucleus.
D) You and the rose have nothing in common.
The following experiment is used for the corresponding question(s).
A researcher discovered a species of moth that lays its eggs on oak trees. Eggs are laid at two distinct
times of the year: early in spring when the oak trees are flowering and in midsummer when flowering is
past. Caterpillars from eggs that hatch in spring feed on oak flowers and look like oak flowers. But
caterpillars that hatch in summer feed on oak leaves and look like oak twigs.
How does the same population of moths produce such different-looking caterpillars on the same trees?
To answer this question, the biologist caught many female moths from the same population and
collected their eggs. He put at least one egg from each female into eight identical cups. The eggs
hatched, and at least two larvae from each female were maintained in one of the four temperature and
light conditions listed below.
In each of the four environments, one of the caterpillars was fed oak flowers, the other oak leaves.
Thus, there were a total of eight treatment groups (4 environments  2 diets).
7) Refer to the accompanying figure. Which one of the following is NOT a plausible hypothesis to explain
the differences in caterpillar appearance observed in this population?
A) The longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twig-like
caterpillars.
B) Differences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars.
C) Differences in air pressure, due to differences in elevation, trigger the development
of different types of caterpillars.
D) The cooler temperatures of spring trigger the development of flowerlike
caterpillars.
8) Refer to the accompanying figure. In every case, caterpillars that feed on oak flowers look like oak
flowers. In every case, caterpillars that were raised on oak leaves looked like twigs. These results
support which of the following hypotheses?
A) The longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twig-like
caterpillars.
B) The differences are genetic. A female will either produce all flowerlike caterpillars
or all twig-like caterpillars.
C) Differences in air pressure, due to elevation, trigger the development of different
types of caterpillars.
D) Differences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars.
9) Recall the caterpillar experiment in which caterpillars born in the spring looked like flowers, and
caterpillars born in the summer looked like twigs. What is the most likely evolutionary advantage for
this difference in body shape?
A) Development into the adult moth form is faster for caterpillars shaped like twigs
than like flowers.
B) Looking like their food sources allows the caterpillars to move through their
environment more efficiently.
C) Looking like their food source will increase the caterpillars' feeding efficiency; this
would increase their growth rate and survival rate.
D) Looking like their food source lets the caterpillars blend into their surroundings,
reducing predation.
10) A friend of yours calls to say that his car would not start this morning. He asks for your help. You say
that you think the battery must be dead. If so, then jump-starting the car from a good battery will solve
the problem. In doing so, you are ____.
A) testing a theory for why the car will not start
B) stating a hypothesis and using that hypothesis to make a testable prediction
C) making observations to inspire a theory for why the car will not start
D) comparing multiple hypotheses for why the car will not start
11) Agrobacterium infects plants and causes them to form tumors. You are asked to determine how long a
plant must be exposed to these bacteria to become infected. Which of the following experiments will
provide the best data to address that question?
A) Measure the number of tumors formed on a plant when exposed to various
concentrations of Agrobacterium.
B) Determine the survival rate of Agrobacterium when exposed to different
concentrations of an antibiotic.
C) Measure the number of tumors formed on plants, which are exposed to
Agrobacterium for different lengths of time.
D) Measure the concentration of Agrobacterium in different soil environments where
the plants grow.
Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s).
In 1668, Francesco Redi performed a series of experiments on spontaneous generation (Living things
coming from non-living things). He began by putting similar pieces of meat into eight identical jars.
Four jars were left open to the air, and four were sealed. He then did the same experiment with one
variation: Instead of sealing four of the jars completely, he covered them with gauze (the gauze
excluded the flies while allowing the meat to be exposed to air). In both experiments, he monitored the
jars and recorded whether or not maggots (young flies) appeared in the meat.
12) Refer to the paragraph on Redi's experiments. In both experiments, flies appeared in all of the open jars
and only in the open jars. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A) The experiment supports the hypothesis that spontaneous generation occurs in
rotting meat.
B) The experiment was inconclusive because Redi used only one kind of meat.
C) The experiment was inconclusive because it did not run long enough.
D) The experiment supports the hypothesis that maggots arise only from eggs laid by
adult flies.
13) Which of the following is the best description of a control for an experiment?
A) Only the experimental group is tested or measured.
B) The control group is exposed to only one variable rather than several.
C) The control group is identical to the experimental group except for the independent
variable.
D) The control group is kept in an unchanging environment.
14) Which level of ecological study focuses the most on abiotic factors?
A) community ecology
B) ecosystem ecology
C) speciation ecology
D) population ecology
15)
Based on the data in the figure above, which of the following statements are correct?
I) Area 1 would be considered a desert because of its high average temperature.
II) Area 1 has more average precipitation than Area 2.
III) Area 2 would be considered a desert because of its low average precipitation.
IV) Area 2 has a larger annual temperature variation.
A) only II, III, and IV
B) only II and IV
C) only I and III
D) only I, II, and IV
16) In the figure above, which number would designate the biome with the highest variation in annual
precipitation?
A) 2
B) 1
C) 4
D) 3
17) In deep water, which of the following abiotic factors would most limit productivity?
A) light availability
B) temperature
C) solute concentration
18) A certain species of pine tree survives only in scattered locations at elevations above 2800 meters in the
western United States. To understand why this tree grows only in these specific places, an ecologist
should ____.
A) collect data on temperature, wind, and precipitation at several of these locations for
a year
B) investigate the various biotic and abiotic factors that are unique to high altitude
C) analyze the soils found in the vicinity of these trees, looking for unique chemicals
that may support their growth
D) study the anatomy and physiology of this species
19) In the figure above, which of the following survivorship curves most applies to humans living in
developed countries?
A) curve A
B) curve A or curve B
C) curve C
D) curve B
20)
In the figure above, which of the following survivorship curves applies to most plant species?
A) curve C
B) curve A
C) All 3 curves
D) curve B
21) Using the table above, determine which age class year would hurt the population growth most if it were
wiped out by disease.
A) age class year 2
B) age class year 3
C) age class year 1
D) age class year 4
22) Suppose researchers marked 800 turtles and later were able to trap a total of 300 individuals in that
population, of which 150 were marked. What is the estimate for total population size?
A) 1600
B) 2100
C) 200
D) 1050
23) Which of the following assumptions have to be made regarding the mark-recapture estimate of
population size?
I) Marked and unmarked individuals have the same probability of being trapped.
II) The marked individuals have thoroughly mixed with the population after being marked.
III) No individuals have entered or left the population by immigration or emigration, and no individuals
have been added by birth or eliminated by death during the course of the estimate.
A) I, II, and III
B) I and II only
C) II only
D) I only
24) To measure the population of lake trout in a 250-hectare lake, 400 individual trout were netted and
marked with a fin clip, then returned to the lake. The next week, the lake was netted again, and out of
the 200 lake trout that were caught, 50 had fin clips. Using the mark-recapture estimate, the lake trout
population size could be closest to which of the following?
A)
B)
C)
D)
200
1,600
400
80,000
25) A population is correctly defined as having which of the following characteristics?
I) inhabiting the same general area
II) belonging to the same species
III) possessing a constant and uniform density and dispersion
A) I and II only
B) II and III only
C) III only
D) I, II, and III
26) An ecologist recorded twelve white-tailed deer, Odocoileus virginianus, per square kilometer in one
woodlot and twenty per square kilometer in another woodlot. What was the ecologist comparing?
A) density
B) dispersion
C) carrying capacity
D) range
27) Uniform spacing patterns in plants such as the creosote bush are most often associated with ____.
A) the random distribution of seeds
B) the concentration of nutrients within the population's range
C) competitive interaction between individuals of the same population
D) patterns of high humidity
28) In July 2008, the United States had a population of approximately 302,000,000 people. How many
Americans were there in July 2009, if the estimated 2008 birth rate was 0.018 and the death rate was
0.009?
A) 2,700,000
B) 303,000,000
C) 304,700,000
D) 400 million
29)
In the figure above, which of the lines represents the highest per-capita rate increase (r)?
A) line B
B) line D
C) line A
D) line C
30) A population of ground squirrels has an annual per capita birth rate of 0.06 and an annual per capita
death rate of 0.02. Calculate an estimate of the total number of individuals added to (or lost from) a
population of 1000 individuals in one year.
A) 20 individuals added
B) 40 individuals added
C) 400 individuals added
D) 120 individuals added
31) Which of the following graphs illustrates the population growth curve of single bacterium growing in a
flask of ideal medium at optimum temperature over a two-hour period?
A)
B)
C)
D)
32)
In the figure above, which of the arrows represents the carrying capacity?
A) arrow A
B) Carrying capacity cannot be found in the figure because species under densitydependent control never reach carrying capacity.
C) arrow C
D) arrow B
33) As N approaches K for a certain population, which of the following is predicted by the logistic
equation?
A) The growth rate will not change.
B) The population will increase exponentially.
C) The growth rate will approach zero.
D) The carrying capacity of the environment will increase.
34) Which of the following causes populations to shift most quickly from an exponential to a logistic
population growth?
A) competition for resources
B) favorable climatic conditions
C) removal of predators
D) decreased death rate
35) Which of the following graphs best illustrates the growth curve of a small population of rodents that
has increased to a static carrying capacity?
A)
B)
C)
D)
36) According to the logistic growth equation,
A)
B)
C)
D)
,
the number of individuals added per unit time is greatest when N is close to zero.
the per capita growth rate (r) increases as N approaches K.
population growth is zero when N equals K.
the population grows exponentially when K is small.
37)
Looking at the data in the figure above, what can be said about survival and clutch size?
A) Large clutch size correlates with low survival.
B) Probability of survivorship does not correlate with clutch size.
C) Animals with low survival tend to have smaller clutch sizes.
D) Animals with high survival tend to have larger clutch sizes.
38)
Based on the figure above, which of the following statements correctly interprets the data?
A) As female density increases, survivorship decreases.
B) Clutch size is a density independent limiting factor
C) As female density increases, clutch size increases.
D) Clutch size decreases as female density increases.
39) Which of the following is characteristic of K-selected populations?
A) a high population growth rate
B) many offspring per reproductive episode
C) small offspring
D) offspring with good chances of survival
40)
Looking at the data in the figure above from the hare/lynx experiment, what conclusion can you draw?
I) Food is a factor in controlling hare population size.
II) Excluding lynx is a factor in controlling hare population size.
III) The effect of excluding predators and adding food in the same experiment is greater than the sum of
excluding lynx alone plus adding food alone.
A) I, II, and III
B) only III
C) only I
D) only II
41)
Infant mortality and life expectancy at birth in developed
and developing countries (data as of 2005).
What is a logical conclusion that can be drawn from the graphs above? Developed countries have ____.
A) lower infant mortality rates and lower life expectancy than developing countries
B) lower infant mortality rates and higher life expectancy than developing countries
C) higher infant mortality rates and lower life expectancy than developing countries
D) higher infant mortality rates and higher life expectancy than developing countries
The following questions refer to the figure below, which depicts the age structure of three populations.
42) Which population(s) appear(s) to show slow growth?
A) I
B) III
C) II and III
D) I and II
43) Which of the following is the best natural example of uniform distribution?
A) snails in an intertidal zone at low tide
B) territorial songbirds in a mature forest during mating season
C) mushrooms growing on the floor of an old growth forest
D) bees collecting pollen in a wildflower meadow
44) Imagine that you are managing a large game ranch. You know from historical accounts that a species of
deer used to live there, but they have been extirpated. After doing some research to determine what
might be an appropriately sized founding population, you reintroduce them. You then watch the
population increase for several generations, and graph the number of individuals (vertical axis) against
the number of generations (horizontal axis). With no natural predators impacting the population, the
graph will likely appear as ____.
A) an "S" that ends with a vertical line
B) an upside-down "U"
C) a "J," increasing with each generation
D) a diagonal line, getting higher with each generation
45)
Graph (b) in the figure above shows the normal fluctuations of a population of grouse. Assuming graph
(a) in the figure above is the result of some experimental treatment in the grouse population, what can
be concluded?
A) None of the other responses is true.
B) The experimental treatment did not affect population cycling in this species.
C) The experimental treatment exacerbated the population cycling.
D) The experimental treatment has most likely identified the cause of population
cycling.
46) Often the growth cycle of one population has an effect on the cycle of another. As moose populations
increase, for example, wolf populations also increase. Thus, if we are considering the logistic equation
for the wolf population,
,
which of the factors is influenced by the size of the moose population?
A) K
B) N
C) r
D) rN
AP Test Style
1) Scientists in Australia wanted to know the relationship between sea urchins, limpets, and the
distribution of seaweed. Both sea urchins and limpets are herbivores that graze on seaweed. What do
the data shown in this figure indicate about the pattern and distribution of seaweeds?
A) Both species influence seaweed distribution, but limpets have the primary
effect.
B) Seaweed distribution is determined by global sea temperatures, not predators.
C) Sea urchins have the greatest influence on seaweed distribution.
D) The influence on seaweed distribution is roughly equal in impact from both
limpets and sea urchins.
2) In this figure, notice that it indicates seaweed cover was greatest when both sea urchins and limpets
were removed. The data indicate that seaweed cover was greater than expected by the addition of just
the removal of limpets, or just the removal of urchins. Which of the proposals explain how the removal
of both limpets and urchins together could be greater than their individual affect on seaweed cover?
A) With their sea urchin competitors removed, limpet populations were able to
B)
C)
D)
increase causing an increased loss of seaweed cover.
Limpets are the primary consumers of seaweed, so the removal of sea urchins
allowed their population to consume a variety of algae and plants.
The data indicate that sea urchins are stimulated to eat more seaweed in the
presence of limpets.
With the loss of sea urchins, limpet populations also declined, as shown in the
graph as the difference between the green and blue lines.
3) A population of squirrels on an island has a carrying capacity of 350 individuals. If the maximum rate
of increase is 1.0 per individual per year and the population size is 275, determine the population
growth (Round to the nearest whole number).
A) 59 squirrels per year
B) -34 squirrels per year
C) 75 squirrels per year
D) 15 squirrels per year
4)
Age structure pyramids such as those shown in the accompanying figure show the percent of males and
females in age groups or cohorts. These can indicate potential societal issues that help us plan for the
future. Which statement most accurately describes potential societal problems that can be inferred by
the data shown here?
A) Italians are likely to face intense competition for educational and employment
opportunities.
B) In Afghanistan, young people will rapidly face a significant financial burden for
supporting the country’s increasing elderly population.
C) In the United States there will be a decreasing need for social services for the
elderly in the next 20 years and greater demand for more primary schools.
D) Afghanistan is likely to face intense competition for educational and employment
opportunities due to the large number of people entering reproductive age.
AP Biology A: Ch 1, 52, 53 Test
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
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D
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C
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C
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D
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B
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A
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C
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D
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D
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B
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C
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D
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C
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B
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Knowledge/Comprehension
A
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
B
PTS: 1
Knowledge/Comprehension
A
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
B
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Application/Analysis
A
PTS: 1
Knowledge/Comprehension
A
PTS: 1
Knowledge/Comprehension
C
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
A
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
A
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
B
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
A
PTS: 1
Knowledge/Comprehension
A
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
TOP:
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Section: 1.1
Section: 1.1
Section: 1.2
Section: 1.2
Section: 1.2
Section: 1.2
Section: 1.3
Section: 1.3
Section: 1.3
Section: 1.3
Section: 1.3
Section: 1.3
Section: 1.3
Section: 52.1
TOP: Section: 52.2
TOP: Section: 52.2
TOP: Section: 52.3
TOP: Section: 52.4
TOP: Section: 53.1
TOP: Section: 53.1
TOP: Section: 53.1
TOP: Section: 53.1
TOP: Section: 53.1
TOP: Section: 53.1
TOP: Section: 53.1
TOP: Section: 53.1
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Knowledge/Comprehension
Application/Analysis
Knowledge/Comprehension
Application/Analysis
Application/Analysis
Application/Analysis
Application/Analysis
Application/Analysis
Application/Analysis
Application/Analysis
Knowledge/Comprehension
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C
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
C
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C
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Knowledge/Comprehension
B
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
D
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
C
PTS: 1
Knowledge/Comprehension
C
PTS: 1
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A
PTS: 1
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D
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
C
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AP TEST STYLE
1) ANS:
TOP: Section: 53.1
TOP: Section: 53.2
TOP: Section: 53.2
TOP: Section: 53.2
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TOP: Section: 53.3
TOP: Section: 53.3
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TOP: Section: 53.3
TOP: Section: 53.3
TOP: Section: 53.4
TOP: Section: 53.4
TOP: Section: 53.4
TOP: Section: 53.5
TOP: Section: 53.6
TOP: Section: 53.6
TOP: Section: 53.1
TOP: Section: 53.3
TOP: Section: 53.5
TOP: Section: 53.5
C
PTS: 1
2) ANS:
TOP: Section: 52.4
BLM: Synthesis/Evaluation
TOP: Section: 52.4
BLM: Synthesis/Evaluation
TOP: Section: 53.3
BLM: Application/Analysis
TOP: Section: 53.6
BLM: Application/Analysis
A
PTS: 1
3) ANS:
A
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4) ANS:
D
PTS:
1