TEST BANK to Accompany
Functional Behavioral Assessment, Diagnosis, and Treatment,
Second Edition
The correct response is bold letter font—make sure to remove before
submitting test to students
Chapter 1: 83 items in the pool
1. An examination of temporally ordered environmental events conducted in order to reveal the
purpose of a behavior is called ______________.
A. psychology
B. an incomplete analysis of human behavior
C. experimental analysis of behavior
D. a functional behavior-analytic approach to understanding human behavior
2. In a functional behavior-analytic approach, ________behavior is viewed as serving an
environmental function.
A. operant
B. overt
C. private
D. some
3. A functional behavior-analytic viewpoint examines the role of _________________
A. how people interact with each other
B. genetics in the formation of behavior
C. both the psychological and biological factors that control behavior
D. both the social and physical context. It deals with events that are both observable to
us and measurable
4. You change child behavior by _____________
A. changing the behavior of the adults who deal with that child.
B. using extinction
C. completing a Functional Behavior Analysis
D. providing the appropriate medication
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5. In a functional behavior-analytic approach, behavior is viewed as functional (i.e., purposeful) for
certain antecedent contexts because ____________
A. it is purposeful
B. it is a more parsimonious explanation than intra-psychic events
C. experimental data supports this conclusion
D. of the contingency involved.
6. A contingency is the temporal relationship between behavior and ____________
A. genetics
B. positive discipline
C. a consequence
D. an eliciting stimulus
7. When Oskar wants to go out, he complains. Such behavior is not instrumental in getting him
outside. The complaining behavior becomes ____ likely in subsequent afternoons when Oskar
wants to go outside..
A. conditionally
B. more
C. equally
D. less
8. There are two types of maintaining contingencies for problem (or other) behavior: ___________
and ____________ reinforcement contingencies.
A. internal, external
B. positive, negative
C. intrinsic, extrinsic
D. good, bad
9. Positive reinforcement contingencies involve behaviors that produce an environmental event, that
subsequently ____________ the level of occurrence of that behavior under the same or similar
conditions.
A. decreases
B. changes
C. modulates
D. increases
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10. The operation of positive reinforcement involves a behavior that produces an event (activity,
object) that subsequently _________ of that behavior in the future (under certain motivational
contexts).
A. strengthens the occurrence
B. weakens the occurrence
C. changes the occurrence
D. effects the occurrence
11. The two requirements for identifying a contingency as one involving positive reinforcement are:
(1) that the level of the behavior is at ___________ than the level without the contingent relation,
and (2) that the contingency is one of a behavior ___________
A. lower or decreased levels
B. higher or increased levels
C. producing an environmental event
D. B and C
E. A and C
12. An understanding of negative reinforcement operations is _________ the design of effective
treatments,
A. unnecessary to
B. nice to know in
C. critical to
D. superfluous to
13. If you serve individuals who more often engage in behavior problems during task demands,
compliance situations, instructional conditions, or chores and /work, an understanding of
____________ is critical to the analysis of such behaviors function and the design of effective
treatments.
A. negative reinforcement
B. positive punishment
C. mental illness
D. parenting styles
14. In negative reinforcement, the effect of the behavior is to ___________ the presentation of, an
aversive event.
A. cause
B. initiate
C. terminate or postpone
D. Predict
15. Aversive events are ________ to the individual.
A. unconditioned
B. important
C. delivered
D. relative
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16. The subsequent effect of a negative reinforcement contingency on behavior is one of __________
its probability under the same or similar conditions in the future.
A. decreasing
B. changing
C. controlling
D. increasing
17. According to the text, all behaviors that are maintained as a result of negative reinforcement are
called ___________
A. access behavior
B. escape behaviors
C. inappropriate
D. socially mediated
18. Escape behaviors result in the aversive event being ________________
A. terminated or avoided
B. applied
C. reinforced
D. socially mediated
19. The form or topography of the behavior _______ dictate what environmental function exists.
A. will usually
B. will always
C. will never
D. does not usually
20. The same topography of behavior exhibited by a given child _________ environmental effects,
that is, consequences that maintain such behaviors.
A. always produces the same
B. never produces the same
C. never produces different
D. can produce different
21. ___________ situations involve issuing a request or directive to engage in some behavior
A. Positive reinforcement
B. Compliance
C. Rule governed
D. Neutral reinforcement
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22. When oppositional behavior occurs in compliance situations
A. it is generally related to poor parenting
B. it can be analyzed in terms of function
C. it is a sign of underlying mental illness
D. punishment is usually needed
23. In some cases, noncompliance takes an innocuous form, such as the individual simply not
attending to the person issuing the command. Such a lack of response is maintained by
___________.
A. direct reinforcement
B. indirect reinforcement
C. positive reinforcement
D. negative reinforcement
24. There are two ways to access positive reinforcers: ___________
A. Directly and through social mediation.
B. Direct and inter-directly
C. Socially mediated and indirectly
D. All of the above
25. Escape behaviors can function to produce termination of an aversive event in two ways:
___________
A. Direct and inter-directly
B. Directly and through social mediation
C. Socially mediated and indirectly
D. None of the above
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26. The two types of reinforcement are; ___________
A. Direct reinforcement and Inter-direct Reinforcement
B. Wanted reinforcement and Unwanted Reinforcement
C. Positive reinforcement and Negative Reinforcement
D. Appropriate reinforcement and Inappropriate Reinforcement
27. With a ________ behavior, the client’s behavior immediately produces access to positive
reinforcement In other words; the behavior produces the positive reinforce without social
mediation of such.
A. direct access
B. indirect access
C. socially mediated access
D. negative access
28. There are four ways reinforcement can be produced: _________________
A. Direct access, Direct escape, Socially mediated access, socially mediated escape
B. Direct, Socially mediated, Positive, Negative
C. Direct access, direct escape, indirect access, indirect escape
D. Tangible access, Social access, demand escape, sensory access
29. An individual is hungry and therefore goes to the refrigerator, opens the door, selects an apple,
and eats it. This chain of behaviors involved in getting the apple directly produced the
reinforcer—the ingestion of the apple. We would not say that the individual exhibits those
behaviors because of the attention someone gives to him, regardless of whether such attention is
positive, negative, or neutral. Attention is a tangential consequent event. Getting the apple is the
desired reinforcer. This is an example of a _________behavior.
A. direct escape
B. direct access
C. socially mediated access
D. socially mediated escape
30. Putting the key in the car and turning it produces the desired result (car starting). Lying down on
the bed, when one is tired, is a chain of behaviors that produces rest. These are examples of
_____________ behavior.
A. socially mediated escape
B. socially mediated access
C. direct access
D. direct escape
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31. Singing in the car or shower is most likely maintained by _____________
A. direct escape
B. socially mediated access
C. socially mediated escape
D. direct access
32. Behaviors that produce the desired positive reinforcer through the efforts of someone else are
labeled ______________.
A. direct escape
B. socially mediated access
C. socially mediated escape
D. direct access
33. Behaviors that achieve their effect through the behavior being mediated by someone else are
called ______________.
A. Direct
B. Socially mediated
C. Positive
D. Negative
34. Socially mediated access only occurs through some form of vocal request.
A. True
B. False
35. A client with schizophrenia mutters about people stealing her money. Subsequently, after meeting
with the facility administrator, she gets a few dollars to spend on candy and soda in the vending
machines. This statement is maintained by ___________
A. Socially mediated escape
B. Direct access
C. Socially mediated access
D. Direct escape
36. Behavior can also produce direct termination of existing environmental events. This is a behavior
maintained by ______________
A. Socially mediated escape
B. Direct access
C. Socially mediated access
D. Direct escape
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37. Escape behaviors can often achieve their effect of removing or postponing an aversive condition
through the behavior of someone else. This is a behavior maintained by ______________
A. Socially mediated escape
B. Direct access
C. Socially mediated access
D. Direct escape
38. __________ effects can also explain why care providers, parents, and staff respond to their child
or client’s behavior in the manner they do. Why doesn’t the parent see that they are enabling the
child’s misbehaviors?” Analysis of behavioral function is not just for explaining why clients do
what they do.
A. Social constructs
B. Negative reinforcement
C. Poor training
D. Positive parenting
39. What can function as a reinforcer for one person may not function as a reinforcer for another
person.
A. True
B. False
40. Keller and Schoenfeld (1950) first used the term __________ to refer to the process by which
reinforcers become effective.
A. Direct Reinforcement
B. Conditioned Reinforcement
C. Unconditioned reinforcement
D. Establishing Operations (EO)
41. Dr. Jack Michael at Western Michigan University proposed a precise terminology which
designated the role of _________variables as: (a) an antecedent variable, and (b) separate from
the role of a discriminative stimulus.
A. controlling
B. motivating
C. conditioned
D. all
42. Motivating Operations are environmental events that effect an organisms behavior by altering the
reinforcing or punishing __________ of some environmental change and the __________ that
have in the past been associated with the occurrence of those consequences.
A. characteristics, behaviors
B. effectiveness, occurrence of the behaviors
C. eliciting stimulus control, occurrence of the behaviors
D. none of the above
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43. Motivating Operations can be divided into two distinct operations : ______________
A. Conditioned and conditionable
B. Establishing and Abolishing
C. Direct and Socially Mediated
D. Positive establishing and Negative establishing
44. Establishing Operations refer to the process by which the value of a particular outcome is
_______
A. increased
B. decreased
C. established
D. abolished
45. Abolishing Operations refer to the process by which the value of a particular outcome is
_________.
A. increased
B. decreased
C. established
D. abolished
46. Motivating operations effect the current rate of behavior by increasing or decreasing the
______of the outcome associated with that behavior.
A. availability
B. value
C. salience
D. quality
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47. Behavior that is functional in obtaining food is ________ likely when you have not eaten for
several hours.
A. less
B. equally
C. not
D. more
48. Behavior that is functional in obtaining food is ________ likely right after a 5 five-course meal.
A. less
B. equally
C. very
D. more
49. The SD is a stimulus associated with the _______ of an outcome.
A. value
B. availability
C. quality
D. desirability
50. The Sdelta is a stimulus associated with the outcome ___________.
A. availability
B. quality
C. not being available
D. quantity
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51. The simplest ___________ are a resolution of the conditions that established the value of a
particular environmental change.
A. establishing operations
B. abolishing operations
C. stimulus changes
D. reinforcers
52. Consider the graduate student who has been sleep deprived:, sleep deprivation operates as an ___
for sleep, and consumption of caffeine or other stimulants operates as an ___ for sleep.
A. AO, EO
B. EO, AO
C. SD , Sdelta
D. SD , AO
53. There are two general types of Motivating Operations:__________
A. positive and negative
B. conditioned and unconditioned
C. direct and indirect
D. direct and socially mediated
54. _______ are related to the genetically selected items/ or events that are needed for basic survival
of the individual and the species.
A. Unconditioned Motivating Operations
B. Conditioned Motivating Operations
C. Controlling stimuli
D. Positive reinforcers
55. ____________ do not require any learning history to establish the reinforcing value of a
particular outcome.
A. Conditioned Motivating Operations
B. Positive reinforcers
C. Negative reinforcers
D. Unconditioned Motivating Operations
56. A UMO is an ___________
A. Unidentified Motivating Operation
B. Unconditioned Motivating Operation
C. Unconditioned Matching Operation
D. Unintentional Matching Operation
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57. __________ have been identified for sleep, thirst, sexual stimulation, breathing, activity,
temperature regulation, and pain/tissue damage.
A. Biological correlates
B. Specific neuro-receptors
C. Unconditioned Motivating Operations
D. Specific neurotransmitters
58. _____________ acquire their reinforcing value as a result of the individual’s unique conditioning
history.
A. Unconditioned Motivating Operations
B. Drives
C. Requirements
D. Conditioned Motivating Operations
59. ___________ appear to acquire value via stimulus-stimulus pairing with UMOs’s or with other
CMOs’s.
A. Unconditioned Motivating Operations
B. Conditioned Motivating Operations
C. Drives
D. Discriminative Stimuli
60. Conditioned Motivating Operations appear to acquire value via stimulus-stimulus pairing with
___________
A. Drives
B. Unconditioned Motivation Operations or other Conditioned Motivating Operations
C. Discriminative Stimuli
D. Reinforcers
61. The three sub subtypes of Conditioned Motivating Operations have been labeled:
__________________
A. Conditioned, Unconditioned, Direct
B. Transitive, Commutative, reflexive
C. Surrogate, Reciprocal, Transformative
D. Surrogate, Transitive, Reflexive
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62. A stimulus that acquires it’s effect as an MO by being reliably paired with the occurrence of
another UMO or CMO and has the same value-altering and behavior-altering effects affects as the
MO with which it was paired. This type of MO is called a ____________________.
A. Transitive Conditioned Motivating Operation
B. Surrogate Conditioned Motivating Operation
C. Reflexive Conditioned Motivating Operation
D. Commutative Conditioned Motivating Operation
63. Reading an outdoor thermometer that indicates the temperature is minus 20 degrees can act as a
_______ establishing the value of warm clothes by being associated with the UMO of being cold.
A. Transitive Conditioned Motivating Operation
B. Surrogate Conditioned Motivating Operation
C. Reflexive Conditioned Motivating Operation
D. Commutative Conditioned Motivating Operation
64. Transitive Conditioned Motivating Operation is a stimulus that acquires its reinforcing value by
being paired with an item or event that is needed to access to another ____________.
A. Positive reinforcer
B. Negative reinforcer
C. Transformative Conditioned Motivating Operation
D. Unconditioned Motivation Operations or Conditioned Motivating Operations
65. ___________ is a stimulus that acquires its reinforcing value by being paired with an item or
event that is needed to access to another CMO or UMO.
A. Transitive Conditioned Motivating Operation
B. Surrogate Conditioned Motivating Operation
C. Reflexive Conditioned Motivating Operation
D. Commutative Conditioned Motivating Operation
66. If the value of food has been established and you only have access to food in a can, this condition
will also establish the value of a can opener. This is an example of a ___________
A. Transitive Conditioned Motivating Operation
B. Surrogate Conditioned Motivating Operation
C. Reflexive Conditioned Motivating Operation
D. Commutative Conditioned Motivating Operation
67. If the value of food has been established and the only food you have access to is in a locked
cabinet, this condition will increase the value of the key and also increase the value of interaction
with any person that has the key. This is an example of a _________
A. Transitive Conditioned Motivating Operation
B. Surrogate Conditioned Motivating Operation
C. Reflexive Conditioned Motivating Operation
D. Commutative Conditioned Motivating Operation
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68. A stimulus that acquires it’s reinforcing value by systematically preceding avoidable worsening
and establishes the value of it’s own termination as effective reinforcement is called a ________.
A. Transitive Conditioned Motivating Operation
B. Surrogate Conditioned Motivating Operation
C. Reflexive Conditioned Motivating Operation
D. Commutative Conditioned Motivating Operation
69. Some students find lengthy tasks aversive. The delivery of a task demand for a lengthy task may
establish its removal as a reinforcer. If task demands reliably precede or “warn” of any type of
worsening situation, then any behavior that removes the warning signal (task demand) will be
strengthened. This is an example of a ______________
A. Transitive Conditioned Motivating Operation
B. Surrogate Conditioned Motivating Operation
C. Reflexive Conditioned Motivating Operation
D. Commutative Conditioned Motivating Operation
70. What is the point at which food will operate as an effective reinforcer in humans?
A. 2 hours after the person has eaten
B. 4 hours after the person has eaten
C. Food deprivation is relative to the individual under consideration and dependent on
level of activity
D. 6 to 12 hours after the person has eaten
71. The variables that determine when food will be effective as a reinforcer for a particular person are
_________ with a high degree of accuracy.
A. quantifiable and can be determined
B. too idiosyncratic to determine
C. unable to be determined
D. not the purview of behavior analysis
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72. The Sdelta is a stimulus associated with an outcome _______ for a given behavior.
A. not being available
B. being available
C. not being valuable
D. being more valuable
73. The SD is a stimulus associated with an outcome ______ for a given behavior.
A. not being available
B. being available
C. not being valuable
D. being more valuable
74. The Open/Closed sign on the restaurant is a ____ stimulus if the value of food has not been
established.
A. Discriminative
B. Delta
C. warning
D. neutral
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75. One could argue that seeing the Open sign at a restaurant acts as conditioned reinforcement for
looking at the sign, but only if the ___________
A. value of food has been established
B. sign has visual stimuli that are independently reinforcing to the person
C. person has not eaten in that restaurant in the past
76. If in the presence of this stimulus a particular environmental change more or less valuable the
stimulus is a ___________
A. discriminative stimulus
B. delta stimulus
C. neutral stimulus
D. motivating operation
77. If in the presence of this stimulus is a particular environmental change is more or less available
the stimulus is a ____________.
A. discriminative stimulus
B. delta stimulus
C. neutral stimulus
D. motivating operation
78. Consider the following example. A squirrel is engaged in eating when a predator approaches. The
squirrel stops eating and runs up a tree to avoid the predator. The presence of the predator is a
__________.
A. Neutral Stimulus
B. Establishing Operation
C. Discriminative Stimulus
D. Delta Stimulus
79. A person deprived of food for 24 hours will be much _____ likely to engage in behavior that is
associated with food than if that person has just finished eating a full meal.
A. more
B. less
80. As the value of the Establishing Operation EO increases, the frequency, duration, and intensity of
behaviors associated with _____ that EO will also ______.
A. reinforcing, establish
B. abolishing, increase
C. punishing, decrease
D. abolishing, decrease
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81. As the value of the EO increases, the response latency following onset of the SD will ______.
A. increase
B. stay the same
C. decrease
82. The ____ the value of the EO the more rapid, frequent, and intense the behavior associated with
that EO.
A. higher
B. lower
C. more salient
D. less salient
83. There are 2 two ways to assure that a reinforcer is at its maximal value.
A. wait for naturally occurring environmental changes that establish the value of a particular
outcome.
B. contrive a situation that increases the value of some outcome as a reinforcer.
C. provide small samples of the reinforcer at regularly scheduled intervals
D. A and B
E. A and C
Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC
Chapter 2: 79 test items in pool
1. Which of the following is not a question you should ask when determining if you should conduct
a functional assessment
A. Does the individual’s behavior pose a danger to himself or others?
B. Does the behavior affect the client’s welfare in the current environment?
C. Will the results of the assessment meet publication standards
D. Does the behavior pose a health or safety hazard to the individual client or others?
E. Does the behavior prevent the individual from accessing less restrictive environments
in either the school, home, or community settings?
2. Which of the following is not a question you may want to consider when determining if the
problem behaviors are jeopardizing the individual’s current or future inclusion in mainstream
environments?
A. Is there some variation on the behavioral standards, in the environment or are they
strictly enforced?
B. What specific behaviors are comprised in the problem? On the surface, would such
behaviors pose a problem for current (or future) educational work or residential
mainstream environments? Is the problem behavior inappropriate in mainstream
environments of people or children of similar age to the client?
C. What are the standards of social behavior that the current (or future) environment has
in place? Are they in writing or are they implied?
D. What ramifications does the problem behavior incur for the client? Do they restrict
the client’s access to activities, events, and people that are of some reinforcing value
in the current environment? For example, is the client often prevented from accessing
community events because of her behavior when in the community?
E. All of the above
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3. In a functional behavioral assessment, the critical first step is to ____________.
A. assure that you have a DSM diagnosis first
B. assure that funds are available to complete the assessment
C. assure that all medical conditions have been treated
D. define the presenting problem
4. “John Smith, a 3rd grade mainstreamed student with anger issues, is reported by his teacher to be
uncontrollable and incorrigible!” Based on this information you can begin baseline data
collection.
A. True
B. False
5. Unobservable behaviors, personality characteristics, or traits _________ the primary criterion for
measurement of behaviors in a functional behavioral assessment.
A. quite often are
B. for mental health clients are
C. are
D. do not constitute
6. Your first task is to take the unobservable entities often provided by the referral agent and define
them into discrete, observable, and measurable behaviors. This is called________.
A. preliminary definition generation
B. pinpointing a target behavior
C. a function based definition
D. an optional activity
7. The pinpointing of observable target behaviors can be obtained by one of two methods: (1)
_______ and (2). __________
A. using DSM symptom descriptions
B. behavioral interviewing
C. B and D
D. direct observation (by you)
E. B and A
8. Very often, initial data gathering is gained through ____________.
A. indirect observation
B. a behavioral interview of others who are directly involved with the client.
C. a review of medical records
D. an interview of the individual’s psychiatrist
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9. Hyperactivity constitutes a measurable and pinpointed behavior
A. True
B. False
10. Oppositional trait constitutes a measurable and pinpointed behavior
A. True
B. False
11. Laziness constitutes a measurable and pinpointed behavior
A. True
B. False
12. Uncaring constitutes a measurable and pinpointed behavior
A. True
B. False
13. Unappreciative constitutes a measurable and pinpointed behavior
A. True
B. False
14. Disturbed attitude constitutes a measurable and pinpointed behavior
A. True
B. False
15. Under-socialized constitutes a measurable and pinpointed behavior
A. True
B. False
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16. Emotional lability constitutes a measurable and pinpointed behavior
A. True
B. False
17. Impulsivity constitutes a measurable and pinpointed behavior
A. True
B. False
18. Anger constitutes a measurable and pinpointed behavior
A. True
B. False
19. Schizophrenia constitutes a measurable and pinpointed behavior
A. True
B. False
20. Why is it important to pinpoint ambiguous terms?
A. Garbage in, garbage out
B. Ambiguous terms lead to unreliability in data collection
C. Ambiguous terms can lead to misdiagnosis
D. Clear definitions are needed for billing purposes
21. The “Incident method” is used to ________.
A. report low frequency data
B. pinpoint behavioral definitions
C. determine the most effective intervention
D. investigate unusual incidents
22. If a referral source indicated that a child was incorrigible you would ask the referral source to
identify previous events or incidents that were representative of the child’s “incorrigibility.” This
would be an example of __________
A. gestalt interviewing methods
B. indirect observation methods
C. direct observation
D. the incident method
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23. A second effective method to help pinpoint observable behaviors is to schedule time to observe
the client when _________.
A. they are most relaxed
B. the behavior of interest is highly likely
C. it is most convenient for the program
D. you have an open appointment time
24. If the behavior problem(s) is highly frequent, so that one can view a number of occurrences in a
short (30–60 minute) session _________ would be the best method to develop an initial definition
of the problem behavior.
A. a trigger analysis
B. direct observation
C. behavioral interviewing
D. the incident method
25. Methods of measuring and quantifying the level of behavior include the following: _________
A. frequency of occurrence, duration and interval recording methods.
B. direct observation, indirect observation and staff report
C. frequency counts and indirect observation
D. partial interviews and duration
26. Collecting data prior to conducting an intervention has been termed __________
A. a priori data collection
B. the incident method
C. precursor data collection
D. baseline assessment.
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27. Frequency counts require that someone ________ a behavior occurs
A. count (and record) the number of times
B. observes that
C. provides a verbal report that
D. calculate the average rate at which
28. Frequency is the ______ measure of behavior.
A. least common
B. most common
C. best
D. worst
29. Duration measurement requires that one measure _______________.
A. the length of time a behavior occurs
B. every time the behavior occurs
C. the average length of the target behavior
D. the percentage of time the behavior occurs
30. Duration measures require: __________
A. elaborate timing mechanisms to record time to the hundredth of a second
B. a timepiece of some kind (e.g., stopwatch, second hand on a watch)
C. procedures that are too complicated to be used in applied settings
D. at least two observers to assure accuracy
31. Duration measures are _______used in classrooms, residential settings, and or community and
work environments.
A. frequently
B. not frequently
C. rarely
D. never
32. Duration measures are preferred when the target behavior _______________
A. at very high rates
B. at very low rates
C. when stimulus control issues are suspected
D. occurs for varying lengths of time
33. ___________ is very popular with test items or situations where a client is given a certain number
of opportunities to do something.
A. Duration
B. Frequency
C. Percentage of occurrence
D. Percentage of intervals
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34. ___________ is also utilized in interval recording systems.
A. Percentage of occurrence
B. Duration
C. Magnitude
D. Indirect observation
35. A clients social worker reports that the client is de-compensating. You should ___________
A. begin collecting baseline data
B. talk with the psychiatrist about changing medications
C. begin an intervention
D. pinpoint the definition of de-compensating
36. In some cases where the behavior occurs more than several times an hour you can have the
person collect data on
A. total duration of the target behavior
B. total frequency per day
C. average number of occurrences per hour
D. a limited sample of the total length of time.
37. ____________ is appreciated in applied settings, and ___________ is often punished by
personnel failing to follow through on your requests and avoiding you in future circumstances.
A. Flexibility, inflexibility
B. Formality, informality
C. Simplicity, complexity
38. A possibility to collect baseline data when a continuous measure may not be feasible is to conduct
a ___________ (Rolider, 2003; Rolider & Axelrod, 2000).
A. brief observation
B. staff interview
C. trigger analysis
D. time series analysis
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39. In using trigger analysis to collect behavioral data, you present the antecedent condition that you
suspect is the __________ for the problem behavior. If you present this antecedent condition ten
10 times over a 1-week period, you can determine what percentage of time the problem behavior
occurs.
A. Sdelta
B. AO
C. RO
D. EO
40. A trigger analysis is particularly suited in examining the rate of ______________ problem
behaviors.
A. relatively frequent
B. dangerous
C. life threatening
D. relatively infrequent
41. In order to conduct the trigger analysis of low-rate problem behaviors, you may have to present
aversive stimuli or deprive access to a reinforcer prior to the presentation of the trigger. This is
termed ______________________
A. pre-session exposure to the motivating operation.
B. priming
C. punishment
D. pre-session deprivation
42. ___________ is the measurement of the target behavior in its current natural state prior to the
proposed intervention
A. Trigger analysis
B. Functional assessment
C. Pinpointing
D. Baseline data
43. Baseline data presents the level of the target behavior _________ the intervention
A. during
B. while implementing
C. prior to
D. following
44. Baseline data reflects the level of behavior under ____________, whereby such a level of
behavior would be predicted in the future should the baseline conditions remain in effect.
A. the current conditions
B. varying conditions
C. predictable conditions
D. controlled conditions
Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC
45. How long should one collect baseline data?
A. At least three sessions
B. For one week.
C. Six sessions
D. As long as necessary for a reliable pattern to emerge
46. If the baseline data is trending up or down, _________ to continue collecting baseline data until
some stability is achieved.
A. it is not necessary
B. you may want
C. it is essential
D. only researchers need
47. Selecting a hypothesis regarding the maintenance of the behavior does not mean that you have
identified the original factor in the genesis of the behavior!
A. True
B. False
48. (1) Behavioral interviewing, (2) scatter plot data, (3) A-B-C descriptive analysis method, (4)
analogue assessment, and (5) in-situ hypothesis test, are all methods of _____________
A. conducting a functional analysis
B. conducting a functional behavioral assessment
C. collecting data
D. conducting a descriptive assessment
49. Behavioral interviews can be useful in uncovering the maintaining contingency(ies), given
________.
A. a very knowledgeable staff person
B. a socially mediated behavior
C. the right questions
D. that no medical issues are involved
50. In conducting a behavioral interview, you interview _____________
A. counselors
B. psychiatric professionals
C. medical professionals
D. people that frequently see the behavior
51. In collecting interview information on why a problem behavior is occurring, you examine the
relationship between the behavior and ___________
A. the behavior of the care giver
B. psychiatric symptoms
C. any biological determinants of the behavior
D. some consequent event
Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC
52. Having direct line personnel describe the conditions surrounding the behavior has been termed
_____________
A. Functional analysis
B. behavioral interviewing
C. indirect observation
D. A-B-C descriptive analysis method
53. In an A-B-C descriptive analysis system, direct line personnel observe the client. There are
usually three columns for the data collection: The first column is reserved for a description of the
_________. The client’s ________is delineated in the middle column. The final column provides
a description of the ___________ of the behavior
A. staff’s behavior, response, effects
B. antecedent conditions, behavior, consequence(s)
C. target behavior, verbal report, consequences
D. alterations to the environment, behavior, contingencies delivered
54. The A-B-C method differs from behavioral interviewing in that it requires teachers, facility staff,
or parents to_____________.
A. be precise in the description of the target behavior
B. report data at least once per week
C. collect data in real time
D. pinpoint the behavior prior to recording baseline data
55. The A-B-C descriptive analysis method can serve as a good complement to _________ data.
A. trigger analysis
B. functional analysis
C. duration
D. behavioral interview
56. In a ___________, the probability of the contingency is specified for two sets of behavior classes:
(1) the target problem behavior and (2) other behaviors.
A. trigger analysis
B. contingency space analysis
C. functional analysis
D. partial interval data
57. The antecedent condition contains two variables, MOs and discriminative stimuli. Behavioral
descriptions of the antecedent condition often lack a depiction of the_____.
A. discriminative stimuli
B. motivating operation
C. medical conditions
D. mental health diagnosis
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58. In cases of behavior maintained by direct or socially mediated access, the ______ is not seen but
has to be inferred.
A. SD
B. Sdelta
C. MO
D. consequence
59. One problem with descriptive analysis is the over-selection of ________ as the maintaining
contingency.
A. Tangible reinforcers
B. social attention
C. escape
D. direct access
60. The utility of a trigger analysis as a behavioral assessment method is the ability to collect data on
_________ target problem behaviors.
A. infrequent
B. frequent
C. dangerous
D. life threatening
61. _______________ requires the presentation of the hypothesized motivating operation and SD in
the real life context, with the persons who normally are involved with the client. The occurrence
(or absence) of the target problem behavior is then noted (or its absence).
A. Descriptive analysis
B. An Analogue functional analysis
C. A Trigger Analysis
D. A descriptive assessment
62. The data of interest in a Trigger Analysis is ____________
A. frequency of the target behavior
B. the ratio of occurrences over the total number of times the MO/SD condition was
presented.
C. the duration of the target behavior
D. the ratio of occurrence of the target and replacement behaviors
Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC
63. ___________ involves an experimental analysis of the function of the behavior under contrived
test conditions.
A. Functional Analysis
B. Functional assessment
C. Descriptive analysis
D. Treatment trials
64. Analogue assessment utilizes a quick switching of hypothesized variables to determine the effect
on the child’s behavior, similar to conducting a __________.
A. scientific experiment
B. trigger analysis
C. behavioral intervention
D. direct observation
65. ___________ allows you to “test” potential hypotheses regarding why the behavior is occurring,
in terms of controlling variables.
A. Behavioral interviewing
B. Descriptive assessment
C. Functional Assessment
D. Functional Analysis
66. Iwata and colleagues developed four test conditions under which self-injury rates would be
evaluated: (1) ________, (2) _________, (3) ________, and (4) ____________.
A. control, tangible, socially mediated escape, direct escape
B. attention, demand, alone, play
C. sensory access, sensory escape, tangible, play
D. tangible, noise, alone, attention
67. In the ________ condition, contingent on self-injurious behavior, the therapist would make a
statement such as “don’t do that” and touch the child lightly on the arm or shoulder.
A. demand
B. attention
C. play
D. alone
E. Sensory
68. In the ________ condition, the therapist would ask the subject to complete self-care or
educational tasks every 30 seconds. The task or demand would be removed for a 30-second
period contingent on self-injurious behavior.
A. demand
B. attention
C. play
D. alone
E. sensory
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69. In the _______ condition, the client was placed in the therapy room, with no toys or other
materials. This condition tested the possibility of sensory reinforcement for behavior.
A. demand
B. attention
C. play
D. alone
E. sensory
70. In the _________ condition the client is provided non-contingent access to pleasurable activities.
A. demand
B. attention
C. play
D. alone
E. sensory
71. The Iwata and colleagues (1982) protocol, involving the quick switching of four test conditions
provides ___________ of the problem behavior’s function
A. reasonable explanation
B. experimental proof
C. a description
D. little direct information
72. Analogue assessment can also focus on testing ___________ a problem behavior’s function.
A. medical contributions to
B. how mental illness effects
C. a specific hypothesis about
D. ecological variables that remove
73. Suppose you hypothesize that the child’s disruptive behavior is serving an escape from
instruction function due to lengthy seat work assignments. The analogue test would involve
switching between two conditions: (1) ___________and (2) ____________
A. sessions involving a short assignment, sessions involving a difficult assignment(s),
B. sessions involving an in class assignment, sessions involving out of class assignment(s),
C. sessions involving a hard assignment, sessions involving an easy assignment(s),
D. sessions involving a short assignment, sessions involving a lengthy assignment(s),
74. In ___________ a comparison is made between the rates of problem behavior during the
functional treatment and the rates of behavior during the baseline (i.e., treatment not
implemented).
A. an Analog Functional Analysis
B. a trigger analysis
C. a functional assessment
D. an in-situ hypothesis test
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75. The personnel conducting the in the in-situ hypothesis test implement the data collection for the
two conditions for__________,
A. once per week
B. only a brief period of the day
C. at least one hour per day
D. across the entire day
76. Which of these is not an advantage of an in-situ hypothesis test?
A. It is a direct assessment of the target behavior in the setting of interest, with all relevant
contextual variables present.
B. It requires little technical expertise to conduct
C. If treatment fidelity is obtained, an effective treatment is discovered, leaving only the
requirement to develop staff monitoring for extended periods of application.
D. The staff, parents, and teachers who implemented the test probably need less convincing
that an effective treatment will be worth the time because they “had a hand” in the test.
77. A performance discrepancy analysis involves a comparison of the rates of a client’s problem
behavior with ___________.
A. the acceptable level (or rate) of that behavior.
B. published research regarding the acceptable rates of the behavior
C. the level of behavior the staff would prefer to see
D. normative data obtained from child development texts
78. In utilizing a __________ method, one first identifies same-aged peers or persons who are judged
to be non-problematic with respect to the behavior. Measure the rate of behavior in this criterion
group and compare the rate of behavior of the criterion group with the rate of behavior of the
client.
A. pinpointing
B. behavioral interviewing
C. ABC analysis
D. normative comparison
79. A review of __________ implemented should be conducted prior to the design of the
intervention strategy.
A. financial obligations
B. staff perceptions of the individual
C. previous treatments
D. medical treatments
Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC
Chapter 3: 65 test items in pool
1. There are ________ major categories in the behavioral diagnostic system,
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. six
2. Each major diagnostic category delineates a specific maintaining contingency with respect to two
parameters: (a) the ___________ contingency and (b) the method by which the contingency is
produced by the behavior.
A. hypothesized
B. type of reinforcement
C. positive reinforcement
D. negative reinforcement
3. Problem behaviors producing positive reinforcement are termed _________ behaviors and
behaviors producing negative reinforcement are termed __________ behaviors.
A. access, escape
B. positive, negative
C. escape, access
D. wanted, unwanted
4. One of the characteristics of a function-based diagnostic classification system is ____________
A. diagnosis of child characteristics, not behavior problem characteristics
B. diagnosis of behavior problem characteristics, not child characteristics
C. a high correlation of correspondence between DSM diagnostic categories and function
based diagnostic categories
D. inclusion of traditional psychiatric diagnostic categories
5. One of the characteristics of a function-based diagnostic classification system is ____________
A. prescriptive treatment derived from DSM diagnostic categories
B. diagnostic classification based on observed treatment effects
C. diagnostic categories that are independent of treatment procedures
D. prescriptive differential treatment derived from a differential diagnosis
6. One of the characteristics of a function-based diagnostic classification system is ____________
A. Assessment data collected to provide information only on rate of behavior
B. Assessment data is not collected prior to making a diagnosis
C. Assessment data is collected on DSM symptoms that are hypothesized to be controlling
the target behavior
D. Assessment data collected to provide information on context variables, not just rate
of behavior
Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC
7. One of the characteristics of a function-based diagnostic classification system is ____________
A. Diagnosis phase concludes with assessment phase, in which a function-based category is
selected
B. DSM diagnosis generates a hypothesis that drives the assessment phase
C. Assessment phase concludes with diagnosis phase, in which a function-based
category is selected
D. Assessment phase concludes with the selection of a function based treatment
8. A function-based diagnostic classification system examines the contextual nature of the problem
behavior. This ____________with the current psychiatric approach to diagnosing client behavior
(e. g., DSM5).
A. is equivalent
B. sharply contrasts
C. is consistent
D. comports
9. In a function based diagnostic system topographically similar behaviors/symptoms can have a
different diagnostic classification
A. true
B. false
10. In a function based diagnostic system topographically dis-similar behaviors/symptoms wiil
always have a different diagnostic classification
A. true
B. false
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11. In a function-based diagnostic classification system, the form of the behavior (in most cases) does
not dictate a particular____________..
A. intervention
B. symptom
C. diagnosis
D. function
12. In contrast to symptoms or target behaviors being the key to diagnosing the child, a functionbased diagnostic approach will assess the _____________ of the client’s behaviors to make a
differential diagnosis
A. environmental function
B. underlying symptoms
C. positive intent
D. negative byproducts
13. Classifying problem behaviors according to environmental function ________ make a difference
in the design of a functional behavioral treatment. In contrast, differential diagnosis using the
traditional psychiatric Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders _____________
prove fruitful in determining functional behavioral treatments based on syndromes of behaviors.
A. does not, does
B. does, does not
C. will not, will
D. could, may
14. Behavioral Assessment is driven by the need to determine the ___________ that are present when
the problem behavior occurs, that is, the social and physical environmental context.
A. biological conditions
B. extraneous variables
C. abolishing operations
D. environmental factors
15. A function-based diagnostic classification system provides for a more guided and deliberate
approach to ________________.
A. DSM diagnosis
B. hypothesis generation
C. functional analysis
D. behavioral treatment selection
Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC
16. The only technical skill needed in behavioral interventions is to pinpoint the referred problem in
observable terms and follow it with an effective consequence.
A. True
B. False
17. Problem behaviors that serve a positive reinforcement function are termed ________ behaviors.
Problem behaviors that serve a negative reinforcement function are termed ________ behaviors.
A. access, escape
B. escape, access
C. positive, negative
D. negative, positive
18. __________ can be produced either by social mediation or directly.
A. Peer approval
B. Reinforcers
C. Attention
D. Discriminative stimuli
19. Diagnostic code (1.0)
A. Direct access
B. Socially mediated access
C. Direct escape
D. Socially mediated escape
20. Diagnostic code (2.0)
A. Direct access
B. Socially mediated access
C. Direct escape
D. Socially mediated escape
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21. Diagnostic code (3.0)
A. Direct access
B. Socially mediated access
C. Direct escape
D. Socially mediated escape
22. Diagnostic code (4.0)
A. Direct access
B. Socially mediated access
C. Direct escape
D. Socially mediated escape
23. Diagnostic code 1.1
A. DA—direct chain to tangible reinforcers
B. DA—immediate sensory stimuli:
C. SMA—tangible reinforcers
D. SMA—peer attention
24. Diagnostic code 1.2:
A. DA—direct chain to tangible reinforcers
B. DA—immediate sensory stimuli:
C. SMA—tangible reinforcers
D. SMA—peer attention
25. Diagnostic code 2.1
A. SMA—tangible reinforcers
B. SMA—peer attention
C. SMA—adult/staff attention
D. DA—immediate sensory stimuli:
26. Diagnostic code 2.2
A. SMA—tangible reinforcers
B. SMA—peer attention
C. SMA—adult/staff attention
D. DE—relatively lengthy tasks/chores
27. Diagnostic code 2.3
A. SMA—tangible reinforcers
B. SMA—peer attention
C. SMA—adult/staff attention
D. DE—relatively difficult tasks/chores
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28. Diagnostic code 3.1
A. DE—relatively lengthy tasks/chores
B. DE—relatively difficult tasks/chores
C. DE—Unpleasant social situations
D. DE—aversive physical stimuli/events
29. Diagnostic code 3.2
A. DE—relatively lengthy tasks/chores
B. DE—relatively difficult tasks/chores
C. DE—Unpleasant social situations
D. DE—aversive physical stimuli/events
30. Diagnostic code 3.3
A. DE—relatively lengthy tasks/chores
B. DE—relatively difficult tasks/chores
C. DE—Unpleasant social situations
D. DE—aversive physical stimuli/events
31. Diagnostic code 3.4
A. DE—relatively lengthy tasks/chores
B. DE—relatively difficult tasks/chores
C. DE—Unpleasant social situations
D. DE—aversive physical stimuli/events
32. Diagnostic code 4.1
A. SME—relatively difficult tasks/chores
B. SME—unpleasant social situations
C. SME—aversive physical stimuli/event
D. SME—relatively lengthy tasks/chores
33. Diagnostic code 4.2
A. SME—relatively difficult tasks/chores
B. SME—unpleasant social situations
C. SME—aversive physical stimuli/event
D. SME—relatively lengthy tasks/chores
34. Diagnostic code 4.3
A. SME—relatively difficult tasks/chores
B. SME—unpleasant social situations
C. SME—aversive physical stimuli/event
D. SME—relatively lengthy tasks/chores
Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC
35. Diagnostic code 4.4
A. SME—relatively difficult tasks/chores
B. SME—unpleasant social situations
C. SME—aversive physical stimuli/event
D. SME—relatively lengthy tasks/chores
36. In the diagnostic system, all direct access functions involve stereotypic behaviors that produce
sensory reinforcement as the maintaining contingency
A. True
B. False
37. No social consequences are apparent.
A. Socially mediated reinforcement
B. Direct reinforcement
C. Socially mediated escape
38. Problem behavior does not decrease when social contingencies are withdrawn.
A. Socially mediated reinforcement
B. Socially mediated escape
C. Direct escape
39. Problem behavior decreases when sensory effects of behavior are attenuated.
A. Socially mediated reinforcement
B. Direct reinforcement
C. Socially mediated escape
D. Direct escape
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40. Addictive behaviors, such as smoking and drinking, may be maintained as a result of a direct
reinforcement function ___________.
A. true
B. false
41. Many ritualistic (stereotypic) behaviors appear to produce ____________. Such behaviors often
occur independent of the reaction from the social environment.
A. Socially mediated reinforcement
B. Direct reinforcement
C. Socially mediated escape
42. Diagnostic code (2.1)
A. SMA: —peer attention
B. SMA: —adult/staff attention
C. SMA: —tangible reinforcers;,
D. SMA: —other.
43. Diagnostic code (2.2)
A. SMA: —peer attention
B. SMA: —adult/staff attention
C. SMA: —tangible reinforcers;,
D. SMA: —other.
44. Diagnostic code (2.3)
A. SMA: —peer attention
B. SMA: —adult/staff attention
C. SMA: —tangible reinforcers;,
D. SMA: —other
45. Are certain childhood mental disorders more likely to be diagnosed as social mediated functions?
A. Yes
B. No
Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC
46. Diagnostic Category (3.1)
A. DE—relatively difficult task, chore, instruction
B. DE—relatively lengthy task, chore, instruction
C. DE—unpleasant social situations
D. DE—aversive physical stimuli.
47. Diagnostic Category (3.2)
A. DE—relatively difficult task, chore, instruction
B. DE—relatively lengthy task, chore, instruction
C. DE—unpleasant social situations
D. DE—aversive physical stimuli.
48. Diagnostic Category (3.3)
A. DE—relatively difficult task, chore, instruction
B. DE—relatively lengthy task, chore, instruction
C. DE—unpleasant social situations
D. DE—aversive physical stimuli.
49. Diagnostic Category (3.4)
A. DE—relatively difficult task, chore, instruction
B. DE—relatively lengthy task, chore, instruction
C. DE—unpleasant social situations
D. DE—aversive physical stimuli.
50. Complete your work—get more! Fail to complete your work—get less!
A. Negative contingency
B. The weird contingency
C. The usual contingency
D. The Wacky Contingency
51. In school settings, a child’s engagement with the instructional task is aversive to him/her,
primarily because s/she is not capable of performing the task accurately and/or fluently. Children
who are given academic tasks that are way above their current level face this on a daily
basis.___________________
A. The Wacky Contingency
B. SME: relatively lengthy task
C. DE—Aversive Physical Stimuli
D. Instructional Mismatch
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52. Diagnostic Category (4.1)
A. SME—escape from difficult tasks or chores
B. SME—aversive physical stimuli
C. SME—escape of relatively long tasks or chores
D. SME—escape of unpleasant social situations
53. Diagnostic Category (4.2)
A. SME—escape from difficult tasks or chores
B. SME—aversive physical stimuli
C. SME—escape of relatively long tasks or chores
D. SME—escape of unpleasant social situations
54. Diagnostic Category (4.3)
A. SME—escape from difficult tasks or chores
B. SME—aversive physical stimuli
C. SME—escape of relatively long tasks or chores
D. SME—escape of unpleasant social situations
55. Diagnostic Category (4.4)
A. SME—escape from difficult tasks or chores
B. SME—aversive physical stimuli
C. SME—escape of relatively long tasks or chores
D. SME—escape of unpleasant social situations
56. ________________ problem behaviors remove or avoid aversive events or conditions indirectly,
through the mediation of another person’s behavior
A. Direct escape
B. Socially mediated access
C. Direct access
D. Socially mediated escape
57. ___________ behaviors remove or avoid aversive events directly.
A. Direct escape
B. Socially mediated access
C. Direct access
D. Socially mediated escape
58. ____________ problem behaviors produce a positive reinforcer indirectly, through the behavior
of another person.
A. Direct escape
B. Socially mediated access
C. Direct access
D. Socially mediated escape
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59. ____________ behaviors are maintained at high levels because they directly access the positive
reinforcer(s).
A. Direct escape
B. Socially mediated access
C. Direct access
D. Socially mediated escape
60. Within each major category, there are _____________ reflecting the same functional
relationships as the major category.
A. sub diagnosis
B. additional diagnosis
C. subcategories
D. 2 subcategories
61. The function-based diagnostic classification system can be used to determine the specific
__________ for the problem behavior.
A. diagnosis
B. functional treatment strategy
C. underlying psychiatric cause
D. environmental cause
62. Diagnostic code (1.0)
A. DA
B. SMA
C. DE
D. SME
63. Diagnostic code (2.0)
A. DA
B. SMA
C. DE
D. SME
64. Diagnostic code (3.0)
A. DA
B. SMA
C. DE
D. SME
65. Diagnostic code (4.0)
A. DA
B. SMA
C. DE
D. SME
Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC
Chapter 4: 77 test items in the pool
1. When treating problem behaviors, one must decrease the target unacceptable behaviors while
selecting for specific reinforcement, an alternate desirable behavior(s), termed a ___________,
for specific reinforcement.
A. alternate behavior
B. functionally equivalent skill
C. preferred behavior
D. replacement behavior
2. The selected replacement behavior must be capable of producing __________ the problem
behavior in the identified contexts
A. the same function as
B. conditions that are incompatible with
C. conditions that prevent the occurrence of
D. the same reinforcer(s) as
3. Once the “replacement” behavior is developed in the client’s repertoire, it will only replace the
problem behavior if the replacement behavior____________, while the target problem behavior is
___________ in achieving the desired result.
A. occurs, ineffective
B. achieves reinforcement, nonfunctional
C. is recognized by staff, ignored and ineffective
D. ineffective, effective
4. Disable One Function, _________ Another!
A. Enable
B. Identify
C. Extinguish
D. Magnify
5. Too often, naive attempts at developing a replacement behavior involve simply specifying that
some _______ should replace the target behavior.
A. functional behavior
B. selected behavior
C. random behavior
D. equivalent behavior
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6. To accomplish the successful transition from a currently functional target problem behavior
becoming nonfunctional and a currently nonfunctional appropriate behavior becoming functional,
_________ over the maintaining contingencies is required!
A. absolute control
B. instructional control
C. direct control
D. social control
7. In summary, the behavior analyst needs to produce two changes in the client/ or child’s
environment.
1._________ Eliminate or disable current function
2._________ Enable and enhance desired environmental function
A. Replacement behavior; Target behavior
B. Target behavior; Replacement behavior
C. Functional behavior; Alternate behavior
D. Equivalent behavior; Target behavior
8. There are _____ replacement behavior options when treating a target problem behavior that is
maintained by direct access to positive reinforcement.
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. six
9. All four options require the ______________as a component to address client attempts to engage
in the prohibited target behavior, or actually engaging in the behavior when unauthorized.
A. chain interruption strategy
B. extinction strategy
C. replacement behavior strategy
D. functional interruption strategy
10. ______________________: Identify an alternate, more acceptable form of behavior (one that is
not as inappropriate and/or dangerous) that directly produces the same specific reinforcer.
A. Alternate Direct Access Form option
B. Access mand (request) option
C. Omission Training option (DRO)
D. Premack Contingency option
E. Chain interruption
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11. ______________: Identify a requesting behavior that would allow staff to mediate such a request
or choice by providing the client with a more appropriate setting (area) in which to engage in the
problem behavior.
A. Alternate Direct Access Form option
B. Access mand (request) option
C. Omission Training option (DRO)
D. Premack Contingency option
E. Chain interruption
12. ____________: Identify a length of time that you want the individual not to perform the target
direct access behavior, that is, the nonoccurrence of behavior for a set time period, contingent
upon which provides access to the specific reinforcer.
A. Alternate Direct Access Form option
B. Access mand (request) option
C. Omission Training option (DRO)
D. Premack Contingency option
E. Chain interruption
13. ____________: (engagement in lower probability behaviors as the contingency for access to a
specific reinforcer): Identify a regimen of tasks which, when completed, allows the client to
access the specific reinforcer.
A. Alternate Direct Access Form option
B. Access mand (request) option
C. Omission Training option (DRO)
D. Premack Contingency option
E. Chain interruption
14. ______________: interrupting or blocking the performance of the behavior at its earliest onset. In
conjunction with the differential reinforcement of the identified replacement behavior,
A. Alternate Direct Access Form option
B. Access mand (request) option
C. Omission Training option (DRO)
D. Premack Contingency option
E. Chain interruption
15. A chain interruption strategy as a contingency is essential for __________ problem behaviors. In
order for the problem behavior to be ameliorated, it must be weakened in its ability (i.e., disabled)
to directly contact the sensory or tangible reinforcer.
A. Direct Access
B. Direct Escape
C. Socially Mediated Access
D. Socially Mediated Escape
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16. If the client is not prevented from engaging in the __________ behavior, then the desired sensory
or tangible reinforcer is contacted ad lib.
A. direct escape
B. direct access
C. socially meditated access
D. socially mediated escape
17. The replacement behavior option must successfully _________ sensory reinforcement, while the
target problem behavior is ______________ frequently. If staff can fulfill that requirement, the
replacement behavior option will increase in frequency while the DA problem behavior will
decrease.
A. avoid, reinforced
B. produce, reinforced
C. block, obstructed
D. access, obstructed
18. Concurrent with the ___________ strategy targeting the direct access problem behavior, a
strategy for ____________ an alternate replacement behavior needs to be designed
A. reinforcement, interrupting
B. teaching, teaching
C. chain interruption, increasing
D. chain development, teaching
19. In some cases, it is possible to identify an acceptable replacement behavior that varies slightly in
___________ from the problem behavior, but still produces directly the same desired result.
A. topography
B. function
C. diagnostic category
D. controlling stimuli
20. ________________: teach the individual to request permission to engage in the desired activity
A. Alternate Form Option
B. Access Mand Option
C. Omission Training Option
D. Chain Interruption Option
21. This option is particularly suited where the form of the behavior is not dangerous or unhealthy,
but is unacceptable in some context(s). Contingent upon a request, staff can then provide an
appropriate place for the student or client to engage in the behavior.
A. Extinction Option
B. Access Mand Option
C. Premack Contingency Option
D. Omission Training Option
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22. Suppose a client frequently runs out of her residential facility, and lacks safety skills involving
roads and cars. She leaves the facility simply to get outside. Such is not an unreasonable
behavior, because one can only stay inside for so long before wanting to have a change in
scenery. However, her unauthorized and spontaneous leaving the facility without staff
supervision is a definite serious problem, given her inability to navigate roads and cars safely.
What replacement behavior option would you select?
A. Omission Training Option
B. Chain interruption Option
C. Premack Contingency Option
D. Access Mand Option
23. If the client engages in the target behavior (runs outside), she will be brought back immediately
and required to wait a period of time, for example, 1–2 minutes, before being prompted to
perform requesting behavior. If she is caught running before getting outside, the same
contingency is in effect. This would be an example of ____________.
A. Extinction
B. Chain interruption
C. Time out
D. Required Relaxation
24. Omission training is also referred to as the _____________.
A. differential reinforcement of incompatible behavior (DRI)
B. differential reinforcement of lower rates of behavior (DRL)
C. differential reinforcement of higher rates of behavior (DRH)
D. differential reinforcement of other behavior (DRO)
25. In __________, the client is taught to forgo engaging in the target behavior that is producing
reinforcement for a designated amount of time. Fulfilling this requirement is the contingency for
authorized access to the sensory or tangible reinforcer.
A. differential reinforcement of incompatible behavior (DRI)
B. differential reinforcement of lower rates of behavior (DRL)
C. differential reinforcement of higher rates of behavior (DRH)
D. omission training (DRO)
26. Contingent upon ________ being obtained with small DRO intervals, the interval is gradually
increased. Therefore, the client learns to forego the reinforcer for longer periods of time in a
progressive manner.
A. success
B. reinforcers
C. praise
D. tokens
Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC
27. A chain interruption procedure is deployed contingent upon the behavior, with a _______ of the
full DRO interval.
A. interruption
B. termination
C. reduction of ten seconds
D. restarting
28. The omission training replacement behavior option _______ develop a specific “replacement”
behavior. Hence, it is often ____ considered by many as a replacement behavior option.
A. does, not
B. frequently helps, primarily
C. often will, not
D. does not, not
29. A replacement behavior ____ consist of a chain of behaviors that accesses reinforcement.
A. can
B. can not
30. The topography of such a chain of behaviors varies with each delivery of reinforcement, with one
common element: absence of the target behavior.
A. DRI
B. DRO
C. Chain interruption
D. DRH
31. A common question that comes up when discussing the development of a durable and
spontaneous requesting repertoire is, “Do you have to give the reinforcer every time it is
requested?” The response is, ________
A. no
B. yes
C. only if the rate of requesting is higher than the baseline rate
D. only if the rate of requesting is lower than the baseline rate
32. In this option, before a client can request a reinforcer and receive it, certain tasks have to be
completed.
A. Premack Contingency
B. Reverse Premack
C. DRI
D. DRH
Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC
33. The ________ could be tagged on to the requesting replacement behavior option to begin to
develop delay of gratification skills.
A. DRI option
B. Premack contingency
C. chain interruption strategy
D. Mand option
34. The ____________ requires some low probability behavior (e.g., completion of a task) to occur
prior to the client being allowed to request access to the high probability behavior, that is, the
desired sensory reinforcer.
A. reverse Premack contingency
B. DRC
C. Premack contingency
D. DRH
35. Similar to Omission training, the Premack Contingency option will eventually _________ of
accessing the reinforcer
A. reduce the frequency
B. increase the frequency
C. extinguish the behavior
D. develop a new way
36. In contrast to omission training, the _________ requires some performance on designated tasks as
the conditional event for reinforcement of the requesting behavior.
A. Premack contingency
B. DRL option
C. Mand option
D. Alternate form option
37. There are ______ replacement behavior options when treating a problem behavior that is
maintained by socially mediated access to positive reinforcement.
A. two
B. five
C. four
D. three
38. With all SMA problem behaviors, ____________ for the occurrence of the target behavior(s) is a
requisite for making the alternate behavior functional.
A. differential reinforcement
B. withdrawal of reinforcement (extinction)
C. social attention
D. chain interruption
Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC
39. _____________: Developing and/or strengthening a chain of behaviors that produce the desired
tangible reinforcer directly.
A. Direct Access to tangible reinforcer
B. Access mand (request) option
C. DRL group contingencies for peer attention
D. Omission Training Option (DRO)
40. __________: Identify a requesting behavior that would allow staff to mediate such a request or
choice by providing the client with the desired person’s attention or tangible reinforcer.
A. Direct Access to tangible reinforcer
B. Access mand (request) option
C. DRL group contingencies for peer attention
D. Omission Training option (DRO)
E. Premack Contingency option
41. _____________: Designating a lower rate of the target behavior, which is the criterion for
providing a powerful reinforcer to the group. The target rate may be for either the individual
client’s behavior or a group’s level of behavior or performance.
A. Direct Access to tangible reinforcer
B. Access mand (request) option
C. DRL group contingencies for peer attention
D. Omission Training option (DRO)
E. Premack Contingency option
42. ___________: Identify a length of time that you want the individual not to perform the target
behavior, that is, the nonoccurrence of target behavior for a set time period. Contingent upon the
client not engaging in the target behavior in the interval, access to the desired adult/ or staff
attention and/or tangible reinforcer is provided.
A. Direct Access to tangible reinforcer
B. Access mand (request) option
C. DRL group contingencies for peer attention
D. Omission Training option (DRO)
E. Premack Contingency option
43. _________________: Identify a regimen of tasks that, when completed, allows the client to
access the reinforcer.
A. Direct Access to tangible reinforcer
B. Access mand (request) option
C. DRL group contingencies for peer attention
D. Omission Training option (DRO)
E. Premack Contingency option
44. With socially mediated access problem behaviors, there is usually no need for _____________,
unless the problem behavior can be dangerous to the client or others.
A. a chain interruption strategy
B. an extinction strategy
C. a non-contingent reinforcement strategy
D. tangible reinforcement contingencies
Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC
45. Simply not providing the positive reinforcer contingent upon the problem behavior will be
sufficient to facilitate its demise.
A. Chain interruption
B. DRO
C. Extinction
D. Time out
46. _________ is defined as the removal of the functional reinforcer contingent upon the target
behavior occurring.
A. Negative reinforcement
B. Negative punishment
C. Chain interruption
D. Extinction
47. To implement extinction, one must be able to tolerate the occurrence of the ____________.
A. target behavior
B. staff complaints
C. differentially higher rates of behavior
D. replacement behavior
48. If the replacement behavior results in a greater and more frequent reinforcement schedule than the
target behavior, the change in client behavior _________ occur.
A. will not
B. should
C. is not expected to
D. should cause an increase in the target behavior to
49. ___________ :Making the occurrence of the target behavior serve as a “mand” for a nonpreferred regimen of tasks.
A. Premack Principle
B. Access Mand Option
C. Escape Mand Option
D. Reverse Premack Principle
50. The occurrence of a higher probability behavior (target behavior) is followed by the client
engaging in a behavior of lower probability, thus setting up a punishment contingency.
A. Reverse Premack Principle
B. Premack Principle
C. Escape Mand Option
D. Time out option
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51. A client with developmental disabilities would throw a tantrum and yell loudly when hungry, and
staff on an intermittent basis would provide food to him contingently. One treatment option
would be to __________________
A. use extinction
B. use chain interruption
C. teach him to make his own sandwich
D. use a Premack contingency
52. In this replacement behavior option, the desired reinforcer, whether it be adult attention or access
to a tangible reinforcer, is provided by staff upon an appropriate request.
A. Access Mand Option
B. Omission training option (DRO)
C. group-oriented contingency
D. Alternate direct escape form
53. The “Good Behavior Board Game” is an excellent example of a ____________ for a student’s
target behavior that is maintained by peer attention.
A. Omission training option (DRO)
B. Access Mand Option
C. group-oriented contingency
D. Tolerance training option
54. If the client goes without engaging in the target problem behavior, for a designated period of
time, the delivery of the desired reinforcing event occurs. The occurrence of the target behavior
only results in the postponement of the reinforcer
A. Tolerance training option
B. Omission training option
C. Access Mand Option
D. Premack contingency option
55. How Long Should the initial DRO Interval Be?
A. shorter than the baseline average interval of occurrence
B. shorter than the baseline average interval of nonoccurrence
C. longer than the baseline average interval of nonoccurrence
D. longer than the baseline average interval of occurrence
56. In this option, the desired reinforcer is produced following the client’s successful compliance to a
designated regimen of tasks or demands. In a school setting, getting free time would be
contingent on performing a certain number of tasks. During free time, the student would be
allowed to access desired events and activities.
A. Tolerance training option
B. Omission training option
C. Premack Contingency Option
D. Access Mand Option
Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC
57. To reduce the client’s constant desire for a given reinforcer, ______________ is well suited.
Requiring the performance of a less preferred event as a condition for access to reinforcement is a
strategy that will eventually “wean them off” of frequent access.
A. an access Mand Option
B. the omission training option
C. the tolerance training option
D. a Premack contingency
58. There are _______ replacement behavior options when treating a problem behavior that is
maintained by direct escape of negative reinforcement.
A. two
B. five
C. six
D. four
59. ______________: Identify an alternate acceptable behavior that also produces escape from the
aversive situation. Such a behavior should not be inappropriate and/or dangerous but does directly
and immediately produce escape from the aversive condition in a more socially desirable manner.
A. Alternate direct escape form
B. Escape mand
C. Tolerance training option
D. Premack Contingency option
60. _________________: The protesting or negotiating response is mediated by teacher, staff, or
others, by their removing or postponing the aversive condition from the client, or removing the
client from the aversive condition.
A. Alternate direct escape form
B. Escape mand
C. Tolerance training option
D. Premack Contingency option
61. _________________: Identify a length of time that you want the individual not to perform the
behavior, that is, s/he waits appropriately to be removed from the aversive event. The
nonoccurrence of the target behavior for the interval period provides for the child/ or client to
escape/ or avoid the aversive event
A. Alternate direct escape form
B. Escape mand
C. Tolerance training option
D. Premack Contingency option
Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC
62. ___________: Identify a regimen of tasks that, when completed, allows the client to escape the
aversive condition or situation.
A. Alternate direct escape form
B. Escape mand
C. Tolerance training option
D. Premack Contingency option
63. ___________: A more acceptable alternate form of escape behavior can be identified and
developed. Such a behavior must be just as capable of producing escape from the aversive
situation as the target problem behavior.
A. Alternate direct escape form
B. Escape mand
C. Tolerance training option
D. Premack Contingency option
64. _______________: The client’s ability to terminate or avoid an undesired social or instructional
condition can also be enhanced by developing two types of communicative skills many people
use: verbal protests and negotiating skills.
A. Alternate direct escape form
B. Escape mand
C. Tolerance training option
D. Premack Contingency option
65. ____________: Identify a length of time for the nonoccurrence of behavior. When this criterion is
met, you terminate the child or client’s involvement in the social or instructional situation.
A. Alternate direct escape form
B. Escape mand
C. Tolerance training option
D. Premack Contingency option
66. ____________: The completion of a designated number of tasks results in escape and avoidance
of further tasks for some period of time.
A. Alternate direct escape form
B. Escape mand
C. Tolerance training option
D. Premack Contingency option
67. There are _________ replacement behavior options when treating a problem behavior that is
maintained by socially mediated escape of negative reinforcement.
A. two
B. five
C. four
D. three
Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC
68. _____________: Identify an alternate acceptable behavior that also produces escape from the
aversive situation. Such a behavior should not be inappropriate and/or dangerous but does directly
and immediately produce escape from the aversive condition in a more socially desirable manner.
A. Alternate direct escape form
B. Escape mand
C. Tolerance Training option
D. Premack contingency option
69. ______________: The protesting or negotiating response is mediated by teacher, staff, or others,
by their removing or postponing the aversive condition from the client, or removing the client or
child from the aversive condition.
A. Alternate direct escape form
B. Escape mand
C. Tolerance Training option
D. Premack contingency option
70. Identify a length of time that you want the individual not to perform the behavior. The
nonoccurrence of the target behavior for a set time period provides escape/ or avoidance of the
aversive event (either by request or by direction of staff).
A. Alternate direct escape form
B. Escape mand
C. Tolerance Training option
D. Premack contingency option
71. _____________: Identify a regimen of tasks that, when completed, allows the client to escape the
aversive condition or situation.
A. Alternate direct escape form
B. Escape mand
C. Tolerance Training option
D. Premack contingency option
72. The durability of target behavior under a ________ can be used to assess possible extinction burst
effects with escape maintained behavior.
A. treatment trial
B. momentary extinction trial
C. analog functional analysis
D. trigger analysis
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73. In this assessment method, the therapist presents the aversive condition for a period of time, in a
brief session. In some cases, it might be necessary for the staff person who has stimulus control
over the behavior to be involved in the session, especially if the problem behavior has not
generalized to different people. During the session, the aversive condition is maintained while
the rate and/or duration of the problem behavior is recorded. The session would end with the final
withdrawal of the request and a change to another activity.
A. Extinction
B. Trigger analysis
C. Treatment trials
D. momentary extinction trial
74. ______________: This option can also be applied for escape behaviors that are socially mediated
(i.e., SME). The client or child is taught how to perform a series of acceptable behaviors that
result in direct termination of the aversive events.
A. Alternate Direct Escape Form
B. Escape Mand
C. Tolerance training
D. Premack Contingency
75. ______________: This option can also be applied for escape behaviors that are socially mediated
(i.e., SME). The two types of acceptable communicative responses to deal with aversive social
situations are protesting behaviors and negotiating skills.
A. Alternate Direct Escape Form
B. Escape Mand
C. Tolerance training
D. Premack Contingency
76. In___________, the task is terminated when a certain time interval passes in which no target
behaviors occur. Therefore, escape from the aversive condition is conditional upon “not doing the
behavior” for some designated period of time.
A. Alternate Direct Escape Form
B. Escape Mand
C. Tolerance training
D. Premack Contingency
77. The ____________ contingency can also be utilized for socially mediated escape behavior. The
completion of a designated number of tasks results in escape and avoidance of further tasks or
chores for some period of time.
A. Alternate Direct Escape Form
B. Escape Mand
C. Tolerance training
D. Premack Contingency
Copyright © 2011 Springer Publishing Company, LLC
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