FINAL PREPARATION
1. If a scuba diver's lungs have a normal capacity of 4.9 L at sea level (1.0 atm), what would be the volume
of her lungs if the pressure at a depth of 50 ft is 975 mmHg?
A) 0.26 L
B) 477 L
C) 6.3 L
D) 3.8 L
2. To what volume will a sample of gas expand if it is heated from 50.0 o C and 2.33 L to 500.0°C?
A) 5.58 L
B) 9.74 L
C) 10.3 L
D) 17.9 L
E) 4.38 L
3. Which of the following is not a physical change?
A) Dissolving kool-aid B) Boiling water
C) Frying an egg
D) Liquefying oxygen
4. Which of the following statements about isotopes is TRUE?
A) Isotopes of the same element differ only in the number of electrons they contain.
B) An isotope of an atom with a larger number of neutrons is larger than an isotope of the same atom
that contains fewer neutrons.
C) Isotopes of the same element have the same mass.
D) Isotopes of the same element don't usually have the same properties.
E) Some elements have 3 or more naturally occurring isotopes.
5. How many Li atoms are contained in 97.9 g of Li?
A) 5.90 1025 Li atoms
B) 7.09 1021 Li atoms
D) 4.27 1022 Li atoms
E) 4.18 1024 Li atoms
6. Which of the following elements has a filled valence shell?
A) Ne
B) P
C) Se
C) 8.49 1024 Li atoms
D) O
E) None of these
7. The element Silicon has how many electrons in each of its energy levels?
A) 2, 8, 4
B) 2, 6, 4
C) 3, 5, 7
8. Which of the following are examples of a chemical change?
A) Copper building materials develop a green patina over time.
C) Both a and b are examples of chemical change.
E) All of the above are examples of chemical change.
D) 2, 8, 6
B) a match burns
C) ethanol evaporates
9. A student performs an experiment to determine the density of a sugar solution. She obtains the
following results: 4.71 g/mL, 4.73 g/mL, 4.67 g/mL, 4.69 g/mL. If the actual value for the density of
the sugar solution is 4.00 g/mL, which statement below best describes her results?
A) Her results are precise, but not accurate.
B) Her results are accurate, but not precise.
C) Her results are both precise and accurate
D) Her results are neither precise nor accurate.
E) More information is needed.
10. Which of the following is cis-2,3-dichloro-2-butene?
A)
B)
C)
11. What element is defined by the following information?
p+ = 11 n° = 12
e- = 11
D)
A) sodium
B) vanadium
C) magnesium
D) titanium
12. Adding one proton to the nucleus of an atom:
A) converts it to an atom of a different element
B) increases its atomic mass by one unit, but does not change its atomic number
C) increases its atomic number by one unit but does not change its atomic mass
D) does not change either its atomic number or its atomic mass
13. Which of the following compounds is the enantiomer (mirror image) of:
A)
B)
C)
D)
14. Which of the following alkenes shows cis-trans isomerism?
A) 1,1-difluorobutene
B) 1-pentene
C) 2-methyl-2-octene
D) 3-octene
15. Place the following elements in order of increasing electronegativity.
K
Cs
P
A) P < K < Cs
B) K < P < Cs
C) Cs < P < K
D) Cs < K < P
E) P < Cs < K
16. Determine the electron geometry (eg), molecular geometry (mg)and polarity of N2O (N central).
A) eg=linear, mg=linear, nonpolar
B) eg=tetrahedral, mg=linear, nonpolar
C) eg=tetrahedral, mg=bent, polar
D) eg= linear, mg=linear, polar
E) eg=trigonal planar, mg=bent, polar
17. How many of the following molecules have a triple bond between two atoms?
C2Cl2
CO2
O3
HCN
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
18. Determine the identity of the isotope resulting from the emission of a beta particle from
A)
90
38
Sr
B)
90
39

C) 
89
39
D) Kr
85
36
E) 4
89
38
Sr
E) Se
87
34
19. Which of the following statements are TRUE?
A) Gamma rays have the lowest ionizing power of any radioactivity.
B) Alpha radiation has the highest penetrating power of any radioactivity.
C) Beta emitters will do more damage than alpha emitters within the body.
D) Beta radiation has the highest ionizing power of any radioactivity.
E) None of the above are true.
20. The half-life of bromine-74 is 25 min. How much of a 4.0 mg sample is still active after 75 min?
A) 0.50 mg
B) 1.0 mg
C) 2.0 mg
D) 0.25 mg
E) none of these
21. Name the following compound.
A) 2,2-diethylpenatane
D) 3-ethyl-3-methyl-1-hexene
B) 2,2-diethylpentene
E) 4-ethyl-4-methylhexane
C) 4-ethyl-4-methyl-5-hexene
B) 3-butyl-3-propyl-4-pentyne
E) 3-ethyl-3-butyl-1-hexyne
C) 3-ethyl-3-propyl-1-heptyne
22. Name the following compound.
A) 3-butyl-3-propyl-1-pentyne
D) 5-ethyl-5-propyl-6-heptyne
23. Which of the following compounds exhibit optical isomerism?
A) CH3 -CH 2 -CH3
B) CH3 -CH 2 -CHBr-CH3
D) CH3 -CH 2 -CH 2 Br
C) CH3 -CHCl-CH3
E) CH3 -CH2 -CBr2 -CH3
24. Which of the following compounds is a carboxylic acid?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
25. How many of the carbons in the following structure are chiral?
A) 3
B) 0
C) 2
D) 1
E) 4 or more
26. What is the relationship between the following molecules?
A) They are identical.
B) They are isomers of each other.
27. Name this alcohol.
28. What is the IUPAC name for this compound?
A)
B)
C)
D)
butanol
1-butanol
2-butanol
3-butanol
C) They are different molecules, not isomers
A) 2-methylpropanone
B) 2-methyl-3-butanone
C) 3-methylbutanone
D) 3-methyl-2-butanone
29. Which disaccharide is composed of two D-glucose molecules connected through an -1,4 glycosidic linkage?
A) lactose
B) fructose
C) sucrose
D) maltose
30. Structures A and B have which form of the newly created chiral carbon: the -form or the -form?
A) They are both -form
B) They are both -form
C) Structure A is an -form and structure B is a -form
D) Structure B is an -form and structure A is a -form
31. Which of the following describes an oxidation?
A) loss of electrons or loss of oxygen
C) loss of electrons or gain of hydrogen
E) gain of electrons or loss of H
B) loss of electrons or gain of oxygen
D) gain of electrons or gain of oxygen
32. Oil does not dissolve in water because
A) oil is polar
D) water is saturated
B) oil is nonpolar
E) oil is hydrated
33. How many equivalents are present in 5.0 moles of Al
A) 15 Eq
B) 1.3 Eq
C) water is nonpolar
3+?
C) 5.0 Eq
D) 0.67 Eq
E) 3.0 Eq
34. What is the concentration, in (m/m)%, of a solution prepared from 50.0 g NaCl and 150.0 g of water?
A)
0.250%
B) 33.3%
C) 40.0%
D) 25.0%
E) 3.00%
35. What volume (mL) of a 15% (m/v) NaOH solution contains 120 g NaOH?
A)
18 mL
B) 0.13 mL
C) 13 mL
D) 120 mL
E) 8.0 x 102 mL
36. In the process known as osmosis, __________ moves through a semipermeable membrane into an area of __________
concentration.
A) solute; lower solute
D) solvent; higher solute
B) solute; higher solute
E) None of these
C) solvent; lower solute
37. A solution that has an osmotic pressure (concentration) less than that of red blood cells is called
A) saturated
B) hypertonic
38. A red blood cell will undergo crenation in
A) water
B) 0.5% NaCl
C) isotonic
C) 3%
glucose
D) hypotonic
E) unsaturated
D) 5%
glucose
E) 7% NaCl
39. What is the molarity of a solution that contains 17 g of NH3 in 0.50 L of solution?
A) 34 M
B) 2.0 M
C) 0.50 M
D) 0.029 M
E) 1.0 M
40. What is the molarity of a solution that contains 3.25 moles of NaNO3 in 250. mL of solution?
A)
3.25 M
B) 6.50 M
C) 0.0130
M
D) 13.0 M
E) 2.60 M
41. What is the molarity of a KCl solution made by diluting 75.0 mL of a 0.200 M solution to a final volume of 100.
mL?
A)
0.267 M
B) 0.150 M
42. Aldehydes and ketones may be reduced to
A)
acids
B) alkanes
C) 0.200 M
D) 6.67 M
E) 0.100 M
C) ethers
D) alcohols
E) esters
43. What is the IUPAC name for this compound?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Methylcyclohexanone
2,5-dimethylcyclohexanone
1,4-dimethyl-2-cyclohexanone
cyclohexyl methyl ketone
1,4-dimethyl-3-cyclohexanone
44. Channel proteins (integral) in cell membranes serve what function?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
They add strength and rigidity to the membrane
They provide pathways for water and ions to move through cell membranes
They form the bilayer portion of the membrane
They allow nonpolar substances to move through the membrane
They prevent interactions between the nonpolar tails of the phospholipids which gives the
membrane its fluidity
45. Amylose is a form of starch which has
A) only β-1,4-bonds between glucose units
C) carbon-carbon bonds joining glucose units
B) only α-1,4-links bonds glucose units
D) both α-1,4-and β-1,4-bonds between glucose
units
46. Which part of a soap is responsible for its ability to dissolve fats and oily dirt?
A) the hydrophilic end
D) the carbonyl group
B) the hydrophobic end
E) the carboxylate
C) the ionized oxygen
47. Choose the polyunsaturated triglyceride from the compounds below
B)
A)
D)
C)
E)
48. Margarine containing partially hydrogenated soybean oil is solid because
A) it contains only saturated fats
C) it contains only cis double bonds
E) it contains only trans fatty acids
B) it contains only polyunsaturated fatty acids
D) some of its double bonds have been converted to single
bonds
49. In the fluid-mosaic model that describes cell membranes
A) there are three layers of Phospholipid molecules
B) two layers of Phospholipid molecules have their nonpolar sections oriented to the inside of the
membrane
C) two layers of Phospholipid molecules have their nonpolar sections along the outer surface of the
membrane
D) A single row of Phospholipid molecules forms a barrier between the inside and outside of the cell
E) two layers of proteins separate the contents inside a cell from the surrounding fluids
50. Phospholipids can interact both with other lipids and water because they contain both __________ and __________
A) single bonds; double bonds
C) glycerol; waxes
E) saturated fatty acids; unsaturated fatty
acids
B) polar regions; nonpolar regions
D) bile salts; cholesterol
51. What is the product of the following reaction?
H
O
C
HO
H
H
OH
HO
H
H
+
Benedict’s reagent
--------->
OH
CH 2OH
H
O
COOH
C
H
H
H
OH
HO
H
A.
HO
H
HO
H
H
OH
CH 2OH
B.
CH 2OH
H
H
H
OH
H
OH
H
HO
OH
H
C.
CH 2OH
CH 2OH
HO
H
H
HO
OH
CH 2OH
H
D.
H
OH
H
OH
CH 2OH
52. Using the balanced equation below, calculate the number of moles of oxygen gas that can be produced from 30.
g of hydrogen peroxide ( H2O2).
2 H2O2  2 H2O + O2
A) 0.50 mol
B) 0.88 mol
C) 1.0 mol
D) 2.0 mols
E) 0.44ole
53. The activation energy of a chemical reaction is the energy that
A) must be removed from the mixture
C) initiates the reaction
B) must be released from the mixture
D) activates the catalyst
E) is the difference in the energies of the starting materials and products
53. The equilibrium constant for the production of carbon dioxide from carbon monoxide and oxygen
is Kc = 2x1011. This means that the reaction mixture at equilibrium is likely to consist of
A) an equal mixture of products and reactants
C) mostly products
B) twice as much starting material as product
E) twice as much product as starting material
D) mostly starting materials
54. The structural formulas of amino acids are the same EXCEPT for the
A) carboxyl group
B) amino group
C) hydrogen bonding
D) alpha carbon
E) side (R) group
55. What is the [H3O+] in a solution with [OH⁻] = 1 x10-12 M?
A) 1 x 10-12
B) 1 x 102
C) 1 x 10-7
D) 1 x 10-8
E) 1 x 102
56. In the β-pleated sheet secondary structure of a protein, two or more amino acid sequences in separate
parts of the protein are held together
A)
in a coil, by hydrogen bonding
B) in a triple helix
C)
in random order, due to hydrophobic interactions
D) in a double helix
E)
in a zig-zag conformation, by hydrogen bonding
57. In the lock-and-key model of enzyme action, the enzyme active site is thought of as
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
a rigid, nonflexible shape that fits the substrate exactly
an area of the enzyme that can adjust to fit the substrate shape
a key-like shape that fits into a pocket of the substrate surface
a hydrophilic area on the enzyme surface
a lock that bars a noncompetitive inhibitor from reacting
58. The function of the enzyme-substrate complex is to provide an alternative reaction pathway that
A) lowers the energy of the products
B) changes the concentration of the substrate
C) lowers the energy of the substrate
D) decreases the activation energy for the reaction
E) changes the possible product formed
59. Which of the following does not represent a conjugate acid-base pair?
A) H3O+/H2O
B) HCN/CNC) HCl/Cl-
D) HC2H3O2/OH-
60. Consider the weak acid HCO3- whose pKa = 10.32, which form will predominate when the pH of the solution is
8.5?
A) HCO3B) CO3-2
C) H2CO3
D) None of these
61. What type of stabilizing interaction could there be between the side chains of glutamic acid and lysine?
A) Disulfide bonds
B) Hydrogen bonds
C) Hydrophobic interactions D) Salt bridges
62. What is the relationship of a metal atom to the right of another metal atom in the same period?
A. The atom to the right is usually the smaller in diameter.
B. The atom to the right is usually the smaller in atomic weight.
C. The atom to the right is usually the smaller in atomic number.
D. The atom to the right is more likely to have fewer isotopes.
63. Which is the correct name for this hydrocarbon?
A. 3-methylheptane.
B. 2-ethylhexane.
C. butylethylethane.
D. butylethylmethylmethane.
64. 1,1-dimethyl cyclopentane and 1,2-dimethyl cyclopentane are _____.
A. constitutional isomers
B. stereoisomers
C. the same
D. different conformations of the same compound
65. What is the correct name for the following structure?
A) Dichlorocyclopentane
C) Trans-1,2-dichlorocyclopentane
B) Cis-1,2-dichlorocyclopentane
D) Trans-dichlorocyclopentane
66. Which of the following blood types is considered to be the universal blood donor?
A) Type B
B) Type A
C) Type AB
D) Type O
67. Which one of the following is most soluble in hexane, C6H14?
A) CH3OH
B) CH3-O-CH3
C) CH3CH2OH
D) CH3CH2CH3
68. Balance the equation below and determine the number of moles of oxygen required to completely
burn 5.00 moles of propane.
____C3H8 + ____O2
____CO2 + ____H2O
A. 5.00
B. 10.0
C. 15.0
D. 25.0
69. What is mutarotation?
A. The conversion of a D-monosaccharide into an L-monosaccharide.
B. The conversion of α-D-galactose into β-D-galactose
C. The conversion of a pyranose into a furanose.
D. The conversion of an aldose into a ketose.
70. The I the L-isomer of a Fischer projection of a monosaccharide, the defining -OH group is written:
A) On the left of the top chiral carbon
B) On the right of the top chiral carbon
C) On the left of the middle chiral carbon
D) On the left of the bottom chiral carbon
71. When a hydrogen electron makes a transition from n = 3 to n = 1, which of the following statements is true?
I.
Energy is emitted.
II. Energy is absorbed.
III.The electron loses energy.
IV. The electron gains energy.
V. The electron cannot make this transition.
A) I, IV
B) I, III
C) II, III
D) II, IV
E) V
72. Arrange the terms solution, suspension, and colloid in order of increasing size of the dispersed
particles of solute.
A. solution < suspension < colloid
B. solution < colloid < suspension
C. suspension < solution < colloid
D. colloid < solution < suspension
73. A 1.00 L water sample is found to contain 1.71 x 10-5 g of mercury. What is the concentration of
mercury in parts per million?
A. 0.0171 ppm
B. 0.171 ppm
C. 1.71 ppm
D. 17.1 ppm
74. Triglycerides composed of glycerin and mostly polyunsaturated fatty acid residues are likely to be
_____ at room temperature.
A. solid fats
B. liquid oils
C. gases
D. none of these
75. Some molecules and ions are transported across a membrane via _____ which requires energy.
A. osmosis
B. diffusion
C. facilitate diffusion
D. active transport
76. In a lipid bilayer:
A) the hydrophilic heads of the molecules point towards each other
B) all the molecules are triglycerides
C) the hydrophobic heads point to the hydrophilic tails
D) the hydrophobic tails of the molecules point toward each other
77. What is the [H3O+] concentration of a solution that has a pH = 11.61?
A) 1.2 × 101 M
B) 1.0 × 10-14 M
C) 2.5 × 10-12 M
78. Each of the following can cause a protein to denature except:
A) heat
B) detergents
C) change in pH
D) 4.1 × 1011 M
D) enzyme treatment
79. Enzymes function as a catalyst by:
A) lowering the activation energy of a reaction C) changing the energetic involved in a reaction
B) changing the equilibrium constant
D) increasing the time it takes for a reaction to take place
80. Some enzymes require certain metal ions, such as Mg2+ or Zn2+, in order to have full activity. This component
is called a:
A) cofactor
B) coenzyme
C) regulator
D) substrate
82. Some enzyme requires a nonprotein organic component in order to have full activity. This nonprotein
component is called a:
A) cofactor
B) coenzyme
C) regulator
D) substrate
83. What factors can influence the speed of a reaction by an enzyme?
A) The weakening of bond energies in the reactants
C) The closeness of the reactants to each other in the active site
B) The orientation of the reactants
D) All of the above
84. The process of competitive inhibition can be overcome by:
A) increasing the pH
B) increasing the substrate concentration
C) decreasing the temperature
D) all of the above
85. Heavy metals such as Pb2+ or Hg2+ act as a(n) ________ inhibitor.
A) irreversible
B) reversible
C) noncompetitive
D) competitive
86. When a molecule binds to an enzyme at a site other than the active site and affects enzyme shape it is called
a(n):
A) noncompetitive inhibitor
B) competitive inhibitor
C) irreversible inhibitor
D) covalent modification
87. The point at which an enzyme reacts at its maximum activity is called a:
A) pH dependence
B) steady state
C) saturation point
88. A reversible inhibitor is one that:
A) binds permanently to the enzyme
C) denatures the enzyme
D) reaction maximum
B) binds temporarily to the enzyme
D) activates the enzyme
89. A feature that distinguishes ribose from deoxyribose is the absence of an OH at the:
A) 2'-carbon
B) 3'-carbon
C) 1'-carbon
D) 5'-carbon
90. Which of the following nitrogenous bases is found only in RNA?
A) Adenine
B) Thymine
C) Uracil
D) Cytosine
91. When adenine is connected to the deoxyribose sugar and a phosphate, its name becomes:
A) adenine
B) adenosine
C) adenosine monophosphate
D) none of these
92. The backbone in a nucleic acids strand is called:
A) glycosidic bond
B) phosphodiester backbone
C) sugar backbone
D) peptide backbone
93. The backbone of a nucleic acid strand consists of:
A) alternating nitrogen bases and phosphate groups linked by amide bonds
B) alternating sugar and nitrogen bases liked by peptide bonds
C) alternating sugar and phosphate groups linked by phosphate ester bonds
D) complimentary bases held together by hydrogen bonds
94. A correct set of complimentary base pairs in DNA are:
A) AU
B) TC
C) AT
D) GA
95. The tertiary structure of a DNA double strand is further twisted into what is called:
A) supercoiling
B) wrapping
C) twisting
D) chromosomes
96. What type of bonding holds the double strand of DNA together?
A) Covalent bonding
B) Ionic bonding
C) Hydrogen bonding
D) None of these
97. Consider the weak acid HCO3- whose pKa = 10.32, which form will predominate when the pH of the solution is
8.5? (Hint: determine the conjugate base of this weak acid first)
A) HCO3¯
B) CO32¯
C) H2CO3
D) All of these
98. A balloon is filled with helium gas. For the following questions, select the letter of the balloon diagram that
corresponds to the given change in conditions.
The temperature is changed from 50.°C to -150°C at constant pressure
A. Balloon A
B. Balloon B
C. Balloon C
99. At pH > 9, the zwitterion of glycine (pI=7) will have
A) a net positive charge
D) a net negative charge
B)
E)
D. Balloon A and B
Low solubility in water
An overall charge of zero
100. The optimum temperature for sucrose activity is 37 0C. The hydrolysis of sucrose is slowest at which
temperature in the choices below?
A) 0 0C
B) 10 0C
C) 200C
D) 45 0C
Formulas of Common Amino Acids