Quiz #1: Chapter 1 – Human Anatomy
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals
1) When comparing the medial epicondyle of the humerus to the lateral epicondyle of the humerus,
which of the following statements is correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The medial epicondyle is more toward the front of the body than the lateral epicondyle
The medial epicondyle is more toward the back of the body than the lateral epicondyle
The medial epicondyle is more toward the midline of the body than the lateral epicondyle
The medial epicondyle is more away from the midline of the body than the lateral epicondyle
Explanation
c. The medial epicondyle is more toward the midline of the body than the lateral epicondyle
The term “medial” means “toward the midline of the body,” while the term “lateral” means “away from
the midline of the body.”
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 2
2) Which of the following is NOT one of four types of tissue found in the human body?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Muscular
Nervous
Epithelial
Vascular
Explanation
d. Vascular
The four primary types of tissue are muscular, nervous, connective, and epithelial.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 3
3) Which of the four components of blood carries hormones, food materials, ions, and gases throughout
the body?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Plasma
Red blood cells
White blood cells
Platelets
Explanation
a. Plasma
The liquid component of blood, called plasma, is responsible for carrying hormones, plasma proteins,
food materials (e.g., carbohydrates, amino acids, lipids), ions (e.g., sodium, chloride, bicarbonate), and
gases (e.g., oxygen, nitrogen, carbon dioxide) throughout the body.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 3–4
4) When blood is flowing through the heart, where does it go after passing through the tricuspid valve?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Right atrium
Left atrium
Right ventricle
Left ventricle
Explanation
c. Right ventricle
Blood passes through the tricuspid valve on its way from the right atrium to the right ventricle.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 6
5) The average person’s breathing rate through the nose is equal to 20 to 30 liters per minute while at
rest.
a. True
b. False
Explanation
b. False
Humans normally breathe approximately 5 to 6 liters of air per minute through the nose when at rest,
but use the mouth as the primary passageway for air when ventilation is increased to approximately 20
to 30 liters per minute during exercise.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 8
6) Which of the following movements takes place in the frontal plane?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Depression of the scapulae
Flexion at the elbow
Extension at the hip
Supination at the wrist
Explanation
a. Depression of the scapulae
The movements that take place in the frontal plane are as follows:
 Abduction
 Adduction
 Elevation
 Depression
 Inversion
 Eversion
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 21
7) Which of the following statements about flexibility is CORRECT?
a.
b.
c.
d.
As people age, flexibility naturally increases due to decreased collagen levels.
Males are generally more flexible than females.
Collagen is made up of proteins that limit motion and resist stretch.
The build-up of scar tissue after injury often increases flexibility.
Explanation
c. Collage is made up proteins that limit motion and resist stretch.
Structures containing large amounts of collagen tend to limit motion and resist stretch. Thus, collagen
fibers are the main constituents of tissues such as ligaments and tendons that are subjected to a pulling
force. Regarding the other options, flexibility decreases with aging, females are generally more flexible
than males, and scar tissue limits flexibility.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 30 & 32
8) Which pair of shoulder muscles is BEST strengthened by shoulder shrugs performed with resistance?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Rhomboid major and rhomboid minor
Pectoralis minor and serratus anterior
Levator scapulae and trapezius
Teres major and latissimus dorsi
Explanation
c. Levator scapulae and trapezius
These two muscles that act at the shoulder girdle to elevate the scapula are effectively targeted by
shoulder shrugs.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 35 & 38
9) The birddog is an effective exercise for which of the following muscles that act at the trunk?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Multifidi
Erector spinae
Rectus abdominis
Transverse abdominis
Explanation
a. Multifidi
The multifidi, which contribute to spinal stability during trunk extension, rotation, and side-bending, are
effectively targeted by the birddog.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 43
10) Which category of hip muscles is primarily responsible for hip adduction?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Anterior muscles
Posterior muscles
Medial muscles
Lateral muscles
Explanation
c. Medial muscles
The medial hip muscles (i.e., those hip muscles closer to the midline of the body), including the
pectineus, adductor brevis, adductor longus, gracilis, and adductor magnus, are primarily responsible for
hip adduction.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 44
Quiz #2: Chapter 2 – Exercise Physiology
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals
1) Which of the following is NOT a benefit of regular physical activity?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Decreased anxiety and depression
Improved lipid profile
Improved glucose control
Increased diastolic blood pressure
Explanation
d. Increased diastolic blood pressure
Some of the benefits of regular exercise include improved cardiovascular function, lowered systolic and
diastolic blood pressure, decreased body weight and fat mass, improved lipid profile, improved glucose
control, decreased anxiety and depression, enhanced feelings of well-being, decreased incidence of
several cancers (e.g., colon, breast, prostate), and decreased incidence of osteoporosis.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 67–68
2) Cardiac output is defined as the amount of blood pumped during each heart beat.
a. True
b. False
Explanation
b. False
The amount of blood pumped during each heartbeat is called the stroke volume. Cardiac output is the
product of stroke volume and heart rate, and therefore is defined as the amount of blood pumped per
minute.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 70
3) Very little of the __________ a person consumes is used for energy production.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Fat
Carbohydrate
Protein
Fiber
Explanation
c. Protein
Of the three macronutrients, relatively little protein is used for energy production except in extreme
cases of caloric restriction. Protein is principally used in the growth and repair of tissue or is excreted.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 71–72
4) Which of the primary energy systems supplies enough energy for no more than 10 seconds of all-out
exertion?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Phosphagen system
Anaerobic glycolysis
Aerobic glycolysis
Beta oxidation
Explanation
a. Phosphagen
The total amount of ATP and creatine phosphate (CP) stored in muscle is very small, and thus the
amount of energy available for muscular contraction is extremely limited. There is probably enough
energy available from the phosphagens for only about 10 seconds of all-out exertion, if there were not
continual resynthesis of ATP.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 72
5) Low-intensity exercise is the best way to lose weight because it burns a higher percentage of fat than
exercise at a higher intensity.
a. True
b. False
Explanation
b. False
During high-intensity exercise, the total number of calories burned is much higher than during lowintensity exercise, and negates the higher percentage coming from fat. During low-intensity bouts, a
higher percentage of calories is coming from fat, but the total number of fat calories is less than during
high-intensity workouts. It is important to remember that the total number of calories burned is what
determines weight loss, regardless of the source of those calories.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 76
6) At what stage of an exercise bout are phosphagen stores being replenished, remaining lactate being
removed from the blood, and the metabolic rate decreasing?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Immediately after the commencement of exercise
As the body approaches steady state
During steady-state training
After the cessation of exercise
Explanation
d. After the cessation of exercise
The energy produced after the cessation of exercise (excess postexercise oxygen consumption – EPOC) is
used to replenish the depleted phosphagens, to eliminate accumulated lactate if it has not already been
cleared from the blood, and to restore other homeostatic conditions (e.g., thermoregulation, tissue
resynthesis). As the body returns to normal temperature, the metabolic rate will return to normal.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 79
7) Which of the following is an adaptation specifically seen with regular weightbearing exercise?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Increase in respiratory capacity
Improved cardiac output efficiency
Increase in bone density
Improved lean body mass
Explanation
c. Increase in bone density
The concept of the SAID principle is that the body will adapt to the specific challenges imposed upon it,
as long as the program progressively overloads the system being trained. Studies have shown that
weightbearing exercise promotes improved bone density, which is a key factor in the prevention of
osteoporosis, particularly in women.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 81–82
8) Which hormone promotes triglyceride breakdown to aid in maintaining blood glucose?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Vasopressin
Cortisol
Norepinephrine
Estrogen
Explanation
b. Cortisol
Cortisol is a glucocorticoid and plays a major role in maintaining blood glucose during prolonged exercise
by promoting protein and triglyceride breakdown. Cortisol is also a major stress hormone and is
elevated when the body is under too much stress, either from too much exercise or inadequate
regeneration.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 84
9) Replacing body fluid as it is lost is an important guideline to follow whether exercising in the heat or
in the cold.
a. True
b. False
Explanation
a. True
Replacing body fluids as they are lost is important when exercising in either the heat or the cold. In the
cold, fluid loss may not be as obvious as when exercising in the heat. However, when exercising in cold
air, large amounts of water are lost from the body during respiration.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 86 & 89
10) Which of the following is NOT one of the primary symptoms of altitude sickness?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Shortness of breath
Profuse sweating
Headache
Nausea
Explanation
b. Profuse sweating
While shortness of breath, headache, and nausea (along with lightheadedness) are all symptoms of
altitude sickness, profuse sweating is one of the primary symptoms of heat exhaustion.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 87 & 89
Quiz #3: Chapter 3 – Fundamentals of Applied Kinesiology
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals
1) Which of Newton’s laws of motion is described as follows? A body at rest will stay at rest and a body
in motion will stay in motion (with the same direction and velocity) unless acted upon by an external
force.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Law of gravity
Law of reaction
Law of inertia
Law of acceleration
Explanation
c. Law of inertia
Newton’s first law of motion, known as the law of inertia, states that a body at rest will stay at rest and
that a body in motion will stay in motion (with the same direction and velocity) unless acted upon by an
external force. In addition, a body’s inertial characteristics are proportional to its mass, which is why it is
harder to start (or stop) moving a heavy object than a lighter one.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 106
2) Which of the following is an example of a multiplanar movement from the anatomical position?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Depression of the scapulae
Pronation of the forearm
Dorsiflexion of the ankle
Opposition of the thumb
Explanation
d. Opposition of the thumb
Opposition of the thumb is a movement unique to primates and humans that follows a semicircle
toward the little finger. Each of the other movements is uniplanar.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 109
3) Assuming a client is lifting the same amount of weight, he or she can create more resistance by
moving the weight closer to the working joint.
a. True
b. False
Explanation
b. False
To create more resistance with the same amount of weight, move the weight farther from the working
joint. To lessen the resistance as fatigue occurs, move the weight closer to the working joint.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 112
4) A muscle with which of the following muscle arrangements has the LOWEST force production, but the
HIGHEST speed of contraction?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Unipennate
Bipennate
Multipennate
Longitudinal
Explanation
d. Longitudinal
Penniform muscles, which include unipennate, bipennate, and multipennate muscles, are designed for
higher force production than longitudinal muscles. Longitudinal muscles are long and thin and have
parallel fibers that run in the same direction as the length of the muscle. This type of fiber arrangement
allows for speed of contraction.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 112–113
5) Static balance exercises often involve _______________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Widening the base of support
Narrowing the base of support
Shifting the line of gravity outside the base of support
Shifting the line of gravity through rotary motion
Explanation
b. Narrowing the base of support
To work on static balance with a client or class participant, the fitness professional can make the
individual’s base of support narrower to stimulate adaptation to the imposed demand. Widening the
base of support lessens the balance challenge.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 115–116
6) What muscles are strengthened when a client performs side-lying leg lifts with the lower leg?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Adductors
Abductors
Internal rotators
External rotators
Explanation
a. Adductors
During side-lying leg lifts (lower leg), the adductors work concentrically in the upward phase and
eccentrically in the downward phase.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 121
7) The soleus, gastrocnemius, and plantaris are located in which compartment of the lower leg?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Anterior tibial compartment
Posterior tibial compartment
Deep posterior compartment
Superficial posterior compartment
Explanation
d. Superficial posterior compartment
The soleus, gastrocnemius, and popliteus are all located in the superficial posterior compartment of the
lower leg and serve as primary plantarflexors of the ankle joint.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 123
8) When evaluating a new client’s posture, a personal trainer notices a long outward curve of the
thoracic spine with an accentuated lumbar curve and a backward shift of the upper trunk. What postural
deviation does this client have?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Kyphosis
Lordosis
Flat back
Sway back
Explanation
d. Sway back
Sway-back posture is a long outward curve of the thoracic spine with an accentuated lumbar curve and a
backward shift of the upper trunk. It is often accompanied by rounded shoulders, a sunken chest, and a
forward-tilted head. If an individual has this postural abnormality and cannot actively assume a neutralspine posture, the fitness professional should refer him or her to a physician.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 128
9) Which of the following muscles plays a vital role (with the mulitfidi) in providing feedback to the
central nervous system about spinal joint position before dynamic forces in the extremities destabilize
the spine?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Transverse abdominis
Rectus abdominis
Internal obliques
External obliques
Explanation
a. Transverse abdominis
Coactivation of the transverse abdominis and multifidi muscles occur before any movements of the
limbs. Specifically, these two muscles are activated an average of 30 milliseconds before shoulder
movement and 110 milliseconds before leg movement. What is the importance of this temporal pattern
of trunk muscle recruitment? The transverse abdominis and multifidi muscles are thought to play a vital
role in providing feedback about spinal joint position, and thus forewarn the central nervous system
about impending dynamic forces to be created in the extremities that may destabilize the spine.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 133
10) “Shoulder girdle” is the formal term for the _______________.
a. S/C joint
b. A/C joint
c. S/T articulation
d. G/H joint
Explanation
c. S/T articulation
Shoulder girdle is the formal term for scapulothoracic (S/T) articulation, which consists of the muscles
and fascia connecting the scapula to the thorax.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 134
Quiz #4: Chapter 4 – Nutrition
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals
1) Carbohydrates, which are the body’s preferred energy source, contain how many kilocalories per
gram?
a.
b.
c.
d.
2 kcal/g
4 kcal/g
7 kcal/g
9 kcal/g
Explanation
b. 4 kcal/g
Made up of chains of sugar molecules, carbohydrates contain about 4 kcal/g. Proteins also contain 4
kcal/g, while fat contains 9 kcal/g and alcohol contains 7 kcal/g.
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 160
2) Contributing to cell membrane function, making bile acids essential for fat absorption, metabolizing
fat-soluble vitamins, and making vitamin D are all functions of which nutrient?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Protein
Carbohydrate
Cholesterol
Omega-3 fatty acids
Explanation
c. Cholesterol
Cholesterol, a fat-like, waxy, rigid four-ring structure, plays an important role in cell membrane function.
It also helps to make bile acids (which are important for fat absorption), metabolize fat-soluble vitamins
(A, D, E, and K), and make vitamin D and some hormones such as estrogen and testosterone.
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 162
3) Which of the following MUST be consumed in the diet?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Vitamin K
Biotin
Vitamin D
Folate
Explanation
d. Folate
Vitamins must be consumed through food with only three exceptions: vitamin K and biotin can also be
produced by normal intestinal flora (bacteria that live in the intestines and are critical for normal
gastrointestinal function), and vitamin D can be self-produced with sun exposure.
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 162
4) A client who just found out she is pregnant asks what foods to eat to increase her intake of folic acid.
What would be the BEST response?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Green leafy vegetables, organ meats, dried peas, beans, and lentils
Citrus fruits, berries, and vegetables
Green leafy vegetables, fruit, dairy, and grain products
Milk, liver, eggs, and peanuts
Explanation
a. Green leafy vegetables, organ meats, dried peas, beans, and lentils
These foods are the best sources of folate, or folic acid. Citrus fruits, berries, and vegetables are good
sources of vitamin C; green leafy vegetables, fruit, dairy, and grain products are good sources of vitamin
K; and milk, liver, eggs, and peanuts are good sources of choline.
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 164
5) Which of the following minerals has a recommended dietary allowance (RDA) that is more than twice
as high for women than it is for men?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Zinc
Iron
Phosphorus
Copper
Explanation
b. Iron
The RDA for iron for women is 18 mg, while it is only 8 mg for men. Iron plays an essential role in
hemoglobin formation, improves blood quality, and increases resistance to stress and disease.
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 165
6) A client must achieve a 1,000-calorie deficit per day in order to lose 1 lb per week.
a. True
b. False
Explanation
b. False
3,500 calories = 1 lb. Therefore, a 1,000 calorie per day deficit will lead to a loss of 2 lb per week. The
Dietary Guidelines recommend that those trying to lose weight aim for a 500-calorie deficit per day,
achieved through decreased caloric intake and/or increased physical activity. Over the course of a week,
the 3,500 calorie deficit should lead to a loss of 1 pound. For optimal long-term success and overall
health, gradual weight loss of no more than 1 to 2 pounds per week is best.
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 174
7) Which of the following is NOT among the 10 insights gleaned from the experiences of the National
Weight Control Registry?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Eat breakfast
Be mindful
Avoid the scale
Be optimistic
Explanation
c. Avoid the scale
While it is not advisable to become obsessive about weight to the nearest 0.01 pounds, people who
maintain their weight loss keep tabs on the scale, weighing themselves at least once per week.
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 176
8) In most cases, athletic performance will improve when the individual is on a low-fat diet where fat
intake is below 15% of total calories.
a. True
b. False
Explanation
b. False
The American Dietetic Association recommends that athletes consume a comparable proportion of food
from fat as the general population—that is, 20 to 25% of total calories. There is no evidence of a
performance benefit from a very low-fat diet (<15% of total calories) or from a high-fat diet (>30% of
total calories).
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 182
9) A client with which of the following conditions should receive comprehensive nutrition counseling
before beginning an exercise program?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Osteoporosis
Hyponatremia
Hypertension
Diabetes
Explanation
d. Diabetes
It is especially important for people with diabetes to balance nutrition intake with exercise and insulin or
other medications in order to maintain a regular blood sugar level throughout the day. All individuals
with diabetes who have not already had a comprehensive nutrition consultation prior to beginning an
exercise program should be referred to a registered dietitian for an evaluation and nutrition education.
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 188
10) A client who is also a high school soccer player is interested in using the glycemic index to guide him
as he “refuels” after practices and matches. Which of the following would be the BEST snack choice?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Dried fruit
Rye bread
Oatmeal
Strawberries
Explanation
a. Dried fruit
High-GI carbohydrates, including dried fruit, are best for refueling. Rye bread is a medium-GI
carbohydrates, while oatmeal and strawberries are low-GI carbohydrates.
ACE Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 179
Quiz #5: Chapter 5 – Physiology of Training
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals
1) The sinoatrial node (SA node), which is sometimes called the pacemaker of the heart, is located in
which chamber of the heart?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Right atrium
Right ventricle
Left atrium
Left ventricle
Explanation
a. Right atrium
The SA node is located on the posterior wall of the right atrium, while the atrioventricular node (AV
node) is located on the floor of that same chamber.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 214
2) Which of the following is NOT a method the body uses to preserve blood volume during steady-state
exercise?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Increasing heart rate
Increasing stroke volume
Increasing vasoconstriction in non-working muscles
Releasing vasopressin and aldosterone
Explanation
b. Increasing stroke volume
The following changes take place to preserve blood volume:
 A progressive increase in heart rate at steady-state exercise to maintain cardiac output and
offset the small decrease in stroke volume associated with the fluid loss
 A compensation in blood pressure via further vasocontriction in the non-exercising regions to
maintain peripheral resistance and blood pressure
 A release of hormones—antidiuretic hormone, or vasopressin, and aldosterone—to help reduce
water and sodium losses from the body
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 216
3) Tidal volume decreases after an exerciser crosses the second ventilatory threshold (VT2).
a. True
b. False
Explanation
a. True
During submaximal exercise (before reaching VT2), ventilation increases linearly with oxygen
consumption and carbon dioxide production. This occurs primarily through an increase in tidal volume
(i.e., the volume of air inhaled and exhaled per breath). At higher or near-maximal intensities, the
frequency of breathing becomes more pronounced and minute ventilation rises disproportionately to
the increases in oxygen consumption. Tidal volume decreases as breathing rate increases.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 217
4) What hormone dilates the respiratory passages and reduces digestive activity and bladder emptying
during physical activity?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Insulin
Norepinephrine
Epinephrine
Cortisol
Explanation
c. Epinephrine
In addition to its effects on the cardiovascular and metabolic systems, epinephrine dilates the
respiratory passages to aid in moving air into and out of the lungs, and reduces digestive activity and
bladder emptying during exercise.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 218
5) Which slow-acting hormone stimulates the mobilization of free fatty acids from adipose tissue,
mobilizes glucose synthesis in the liver, and decreases the rate of glucose utilization in the cells?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Growth hormone
Glucagon
Insulin
Cortisol
Explanation
d. Cortisol
Cortisol is a glucocorticoid released from the adrenal cortex that stimulates free fatty acid (FFA)
mobilization from adipose tissue, mobilizes glucose synthesis in the liver (i.e., gluconeogenesis), and
decreases the rate of glucose utilization by the cells. Its effect is slow, however, allowing other fastacting hormones such as epinephrine and glucagon to primarily deal with glucose and FFA mobilization.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 219
6) What is the only macronutrient whose stored energy generates adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
anaerobically?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Protein
Fat
Cholesterol
Carbohydrate
Explanation
d. Carbohydrate
Carbohydrate serves as the major food fuel for the metabolic production of adenosine triphosphate
(ATP), which is a chemical compound required for all cellular work. Importantly, carbohydrate is the only
macronutrient whose stored energy generates ATP anaerobically. This is crucial during maximal exercise
that requires rapid energy release above levels supplied by aerobic metabolism.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 220
7) Which mechanism of thermoregulation is the major contributor during exercise?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Convection
Radiation
Evaporation
Excretion
Explanation
c. Evaporation
Though evaporation accounts for only 20% of thermoregulation while at rest, it accounts for
approximately 80% of thermoregulation during exercise.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 225
8) What is the primary advantage of the increase in blood volume that results from chronic
cardiorespiratory exercise?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Decreased cardiac stress
Improved VO2max
Enhanced oxygen delivery to working muscles
Reduced work environment for the heart
Explanation
c. Enhanced oxygen delivery to working muscles
A physical-performance advantage of reduced blood viscosity, which is direct result of the increased
blood volume, is that it enhances oxygen delivery to the active skeletal muscles, because the blood
flows more easily through the vessels, including the capillaries. The other three choices are associated
with increases in heart size and volume.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 227
9) During what phase of the general adaptation syndrome will a client see progressive increases in
muscle size and strength?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Shock phase
Adaptation phase
Alarm phase
Exhaustion phase
Explanation
b. Adaptation phase
The adaptation phase, or resistance phase, generally begins around weeks four through six and
represents major muscular adaptations (biochemical, mechanical, and structural). This phase is
characterized by progressive increases in muscle size and strength.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 232
10) An individual is using a resistance band to perform very short-duration (less than 2 seconds per
stretch) hamstring stretches in sets of eight repetitions. What flexibility-training technique is this person
using?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Ballistic stretching
Dynamic stretching
Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation
Active isolated stretching
Explanation
d. Active isolated stretching
Active isolated stretching follows a design similar to a traditional strength-training workout. Instead of
holding stretches for 15 to 30 seconds at a point of resistance (i.e., mild discomfort), stretches are never
held for more than two seconds. The stretch is then released, the body segment returned to the starting
position, and the stretch is repeated for several repetitions.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 243
Quiz #6: Chapter 1 – Role and Scope of Practice for the Personal Trainer
ACE’s Personal Trainer Manual, 4th Edition
1) Most health benefits occur with at least __________ a week of moderate-intensity physical activity,
such as brisk walking. Additional benefits occur with more physical activity.
a.
b.
c.
d.
60 minutes
75 minutes
150 minutes
180 minutes
Explanation
c. 150 minutes
Most health benefits occur with at least 150 minutes a week of moderate-intensity physical activity,
such as
brisk walking. Additional benefits occur with more physical activity.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, Chapter 1, p. 4
2) Which of the following accounts for the unique position that personal trainers hold in the allied
healthcare continuum?
a. They are able to provide detailed dietary planning to combat chronic illnesses
b. They are at the top of the allied healthcare pyramid due to the extended time they spend with
clients
c. They are able to show clients how to exercise effectively while following physicians’ general
recommendations
d. They are licensed professionals who can prescribe specific exercise programs
Explanation
c. They are able to show clients how to exercise effectively while following physicians’ general
recommendations
While other members of the allied healthcare continuum might also give patients or clients guidelines
for general exercise (e.g., “try to walk up to 30 minutes per day, most days of the week”), few of them
actually teach clients how to exercise effectively. This is where personal trainers hold a unique position
in the allied healthcare continuum.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, Chapter 1, p. 6
3) What is the primary purpose of a fitness certification?
a.
b.
c.
d.
To protect the public from harm
To prove mastery of the profession
To increase one’s earning potential
To provide hands-on experience
Explanation
a. To protect the public from harm
The primary purpose of a certification is to protect the public from harm by assessing if the professional
can perform the job in a safe and effective manner.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 7
4) Which of the following is NOT part of the definition of “scope of practice”?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The legal range of services that professionals in a given filed can provide
The code of ethics that must be adhered to while in the workplace
The setting in which the services can be provided
Guidelines or parameters that must be followed
Explanation
b. The code of ethics that must be adhered to while in the workplace
A scope of practice defines the legal range of services that professionals in a given field can provide, the
settings in which those services can be provided, and the guidelines or parameters that must be
followed.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 7
5) According the general scope of practice for fitness professionals, personal trainers can rehabilitate
clients who are recovering from musculoskeletal injuries.
a. True
b. False
Explanation
b. False
Personal trainers can design exercise programs once clients have been released from rehabilitation, but
they cannot “rehabilitate” clients after injury.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 8
6) As a general rule, ACE recommends that candidates allow __________ of study time to adequately
prepare for the ACE Personal Trainer Certification Exam.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 to 3 months
3 to 6 months
6 to 9 months
9 to 12 months
Explanation
b. 3 to 6 months
As a general rule, ACE recommends that candidates allow three to six months of study time to
adequately prepare for the ACE Personal Trainer Certification Exam.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 10
7) Diagnosing the cause of a client’s lordosis posture and prescribing an exercise program to treat it is
within a personal trainer’s scope of practice.
a. True
b. False
Explanation
b. False
Fitness professionals must never “diagnose” a client’s condition or “prescribe” any treatment.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 11
8) To renew certification for a new two-year cycle, ACE-certified Professionals must complete a
minimum of _____ hours of continuing education credits and maintain a current certificate in
________________ and, if living in North America, automated external defibrillation.
a.
b.
c.
d.
10; cardiopulmonary resuscitation
20; risk management
20; cardiopulmonary resuscitation
30; risk management
Explanation
c. 20; cardiopulmonary resuscitation
ACE certifications are valid for two years from the date earned, expiring on the last day of the month. To
renew certification for a new two-year cycle, ACE-certified Professionals must complete a minimum of
20 hours of continuing education credits and maintain a current certificate in cardiopulmonary
resuscitation and, if living in North America, automated external defibrillation.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 12
9) What should a personal trainer do if a client insists on using dietary supplements despite the trainer’s
assurance that his or her fitness goals can be met without them?
a. Refer the client to the health club’s sales team
b. Refer the client to a registered dietitian or physician
c. Check that the facility’s insurance policy covers the sale of these products
d. Stop training the client until he or she agrees to stop using these products
Explanation
b. Refer the client to a registered dietitian or physician
The personal trainer can help the client understand that fitness goals can be reached without
supplements and that supplements can have negative and potentially harmful side effects. If a client
insists on using dietary supplements, the personal trainer should refer the client to a qualified physician
or registered dietitian for guidance.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 14
10) Which of the following is an appropriate response to a client who mentions being sore following a
weekend tennis tournament?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Recommending the use of over-the-counter anti-inflammatory medications
Recommending the use of a creatine supplement prior to his or her next tournament
Providing deep tissue massage to help relieve the soreness
Discussing the proper technique for icing the affected areas
Explanation
d. Discussing the proper technique for icing the affected area
Discussing the proper technique for icing the affected area is the appropriate response. The other
options all fall outside the ACE scope of practice.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 15
Quiz #7: Chapter 2 – Principles of Adherence and Motivation
ACE’s Personal Trainer Manual, 4th Edition
1) Adherence is defined as the psychological drive that gives behavior direction and purpose.
a. True
b. False
Explanation
b. False
For the purposes of a fitness professional, exercise adherence refers to voluntary and active
involvement in an exercise program. Motivation is defined as the psychological drive that gives behavior
direction and purpose.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 26
2) More than ____% of people who start a new program will drop out within the first six months.
a.
b.
c.
d.
25
50
60
75
Explanation
b. 50
More than 50% of people who start a new program will drop out within the first six months.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 26–27
3) Which of the following is NOT one of the three primary categories of potential determinants for
physical activity?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Personal attributes
Physical attributes
Environmental factors
Physical-activity factors
Explanation
b. Physical attributes
The potential determinants for physical activity can be broken down into three categories:
• Personal attributes
• Environmental factors
• Physical-activity factors
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 27
4) General trends reveal that members of which of the following populations are MOST LIKELY to be
performing higher levels of physical activity in unsupervised settings?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Older adults
Men
Those with fewer years of education
Those in a lower socioeconomic bracket
Explanation
b. Men
Men demonstrate higher and more consistent activity adherence than women. Lower levels of physical
activity participation are seen with increasing age, fewer years of education, and low income.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 27
5) What is arguably the most important and influential personal attribute variable when predicting
adherence to physical activity?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Activity history
Obesity level
Cardiovascular disease status
Social support network
Explanation
a. Activity history
Activity history is arguably the most important and influential personal attribute variable. In supervised
exercise programs, past program participation is the most reliable predictor of current participation.
This relationship between past participation and current participation is consistent across gender,
obesity, and coronary heart disease status.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 27–28
6) ________________ is the most common excuse for not exercising and for dropping out of an exercise
program.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Perceived lack of time
Lack of access to facilities
Lack of social support
Lack of improvement
Explanation
a. Perceived lack of time
Perceived lack of time is the most common excuse for not exercising and for dropping out of an exercise
program. The perception of not having enough time to exercise is likely a reflection of not being
interested in or enjoying the activity, or not being committed to the activity program.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 28
7) Which of the following individuals is MOST LIKELY to adhere to a supervised physical-activity
program?
a. A highly motivator beginner who elects to begin a vigorous-intensity exercise program
b. An individual who perceives his health to be poor and had been encouraged by his doctor to
exercise
c. An obese man who is motivated by a fear of adverse health conditions that are common in his
family
d. A middle-aged man who has prehypertension but believes he has personal control over his
health
Explanation
d. A middle-aged man who has prehypertension but believes he has personal control over his health
A belief in personal control over health outcomes is a consistent predictor of unsupervised exercise
activity participation among healthy adults. Regarding the other options, the drop-out rate in vigorousintensity exercise programs is almost twice as high as in moderate-intensity activity programs; those
who perceive their health to be poor are unlikely to start or adhere to an activity program; and obese
individuals are typically less active than normal-weight individuals, and are less likely to adhere to
supervised exercise programs.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 27–29
8) Which of the following terms is defined as the belief in one’s own capabilities to successfully engage
in a behavior?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Intrinsic motivation
Self-efficacy
Extrinsic motivation
Locus of control
Explanation
b. Self-efficacy
Self-efficacy is defined as the belief in one’s own capabilities to successfully engage in a behavior.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 30
9) When developing SMART goals, which of the following types of goals should be AVOIDED?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Long-term goals
Outcome goals
Negative goals
Performance goals
Explanation
c. Negative goals
Setting negative goals puts the focus on the behavior that should be avoided, not the behavior to be
achieved. It is important that the client is thinking about achievement, not avoidance.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 33
10) What is the most important tool when dealing with a client who is at risk for relapse?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Enhancing the client’s assertiveness
Developing a system of social support
Planning ahead and being prepared
Signing behavioral contracts
Explanation
c. Planning ahead and being prepared
The most important tool in dealing with a relapse is planning ahead and being prepared. Personal
trainers should educate their clients about the potential occurrence of a relapse and prepare them in
advance, so that they are able to get back on track with their activity programs soon after experiencing a
relapse.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 34
Quiz #8: Chapter 3 – Communication and Teaching Techniques
ACE’s Personal Trainer Manual, 4th Edition
1) Which of the following presents the four stages of the client–trainer relationship in their proper
order?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Investigation, planning, action, rapport
Rapport, investigation, planning, action
Rapport, planning, investigation, action
Planning, rapport, investigation, action
Explanation
b. Rapport, investigation, planning, action
The four stages of the client–trainer relationship, in their proper order, are rapport, investigation,
planning, and action. The rapport stage involves setting a foundation of mutual understanding and trust;
the investigation stage involves reviewing the client's health and fitness data and history; the planning
stage involves designing an exercise program in partnership with the client; and the action stage is when
the client begins exercising.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 40
2) A loud, tense voice communicates confidence and professionalism when speaking to a new client.
a. True
b. False
Explanation
b. False
A loud, tense voice tends to make people nervous. Personal trainers should try to develop a voice that is
firm and confident to communicate professionalism.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 42
3) Which of the following body positions may be interpreted by a client as aggressiveness on the part of
the trainer?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Standing with an open body position
Seated while leaning slightly forward
Standing with hands on hips
Seated behind a desk with legs crossed
Explanation
c. Standing with hands on hips
An open, well-balanced, erect body position communicates confidence, while a rigid, hands-on-hips
stance may be interpreted as aggressive.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 42
4) What personality style does a client have if he scores high on the sociability scale and low on the
dominance scale?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Deliberator
Director
Collaborator
Expressor
Explanation
c. Collaborator
Collaborators are high on the sociability scale and low on the dominance scale. They tend to be
emotionally open, relationship oriented, and favor relationships over results.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 43
5) When working with a client whose personality style is classified as “expressor,” which of the following
approaches would be the BEST option for a personal trainer?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Offer incentives and rewards; stimulate the client’s thoughts and provoke ideas
Be clear, concise, and business-like; appeal to the need for action and problem-solving
Be candid, open and patient, personally interested and supportive, and goal oriented
Provide consistent, accurate follow-ups; supply information to supply the need for detail
Explanation
a. Offer incentives and rewards; stimulate the client’s thoughts and provoke ideas
Offering incentives and rewards, stimulating the client’s thoughts, and provoking ideas are effective
techniques when working with “expressors.” The other techniques listed are more effective when
working with other common personality styles.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 43
6) A personal trainer who is seeking clarification from a client by trying to restate the main points and
feelings in a client’s communication is using which method of effective listening?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Encouraging
Paraphrasing
Reflecting
Summarizing
Explanation
c. Reflecting
The personal trainer can use the listening technique of reflecting to demonstrate understanding or seek
clarification by trying to restate the main points and feelings in the client’s communication. The client
can correct a conclusion if it is wrong, or explore the reflection in more depth if it is correct. Reflections
should help to move the conversation in productive directions as well as indicate effective listening.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 47
7) “I will perform a full-body resistance-training workout twice every week” is an example of which type
of goal?
a.
b.
c.
d.
SMART goal
Process goal
Product goal
Time-bound goal
Explanation
b. Process goal
A process goal is something that the client does, as opposed to something he or she achieves. Process
goals are easy to track and provide short-term successes.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 48
8) Motivational interviewing is most commonly done during which stage of the client–trainer
relationship?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Rapport
Investigation
Planning
Action
Explanation
c. Planning
Motivational interviewing refers to a method of speaking with people in a way that motivates them to
make a decision to change their behavior. Motivational interviewing may help clients feel the need to
become more active and make a decision to start exercising.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 50–51
9) The three components of properly phrased feedback are BEST presented in what order?
a. Correct errors; provide reinforcement for what was done well; motivate clients to continue
practicing and improving
b. Provide reinforcement for what was done well; correct errors; motivate clients to continue
practicing and improving
c. Motivate clients to continue practicing and improving; provide reinforcement for what was done
well; correct errors
d. Correct errors; motivate clients to continue practicing and improving; provide reinforcement for
what was done well
Explanation
b. Provide reinforcement for what was done well; correct errors; motivate clients to continue practicing
and improving
Feedback should do three things:
• Provide reinforcement for what was done well
• Correct errors
• Motivate clients to continue practicing and improving
The correcting of errors, which may be seen as the more “negative” point, should be sandwiched
between reinforcement and motivation.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 54
10) Clients who are beginning the basics of a particular movement and are ready for specific feedback
are in which stage of motor learning?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Cognitive
Associative
Autonomous
Affective
Explanation
b. Associative
In the associative stage of learning, clients begin to master the basics and are ready for more specific
feedback that will help them refine the motor skill.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 58
Quiz #9: Chapter 4 – Basics of Behavior Change and Health Psychology
ACE’s Personal Trainer Manual, 4th Edition
1) Which behavioral theory model is based on a prediction that people engage in a health behavior
depending on the perceived threat they feel regarding a health problem?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Transtheoretical model of behavioral change
Health belief model
Self-efficacy model
Stages-of-change model
Explanation
b) Health belief model
The health belief model predicts that people will engage in a health behavior (e.g., exercise) based on
the perceived threat they feel regarding a health problem and the pros and cons of adopting the
behavior.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 64
2) What is the most influential source of self-efficacy information?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Past performance experience
Imaginal experience
Vicarious experience
Emotional state
Explanation
a) Past performance experience
Past performance experience is the most influential source of self-efficacy information. Personal trainers
should ask clients about their previous experiences with exercise, fitness facilities, and personal trainers.
These previous experiences will strongly influence self-efficacy.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 66
3) People with low self-efficacy are more likely to choose non-challenging tasks that are easy to
accomplish.
a. True
b. False
Explanation
a) True
People with low self-efficacy will be more likely to choose non-challenging tasks that are nonthreatening and easy to accomplish. They will display minimal effort to protect themselves in the face of
a challenge—since failing when not working hard will be a lesser blow to their self-efficacy than failing
when doing their best—and, if faced with too many setbacks, they are likely to lose faith, give up, and
drop out of the program.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 67
4) A prospective client tells you that he has been going for 2-mile walks a couple of times each week for
the past two months, and that he joined the gym because he is finally ready to adopt a more structured
workout regimen. What is this individual’s stage of change?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Contemplation
Preparation
Action
Maintenance
Explanation
b) Preparation
The preparation stage is marked by some physical activity, as individuals are mentally and physically
preparing to adopt an activity program. Activity during the preparation stage may be a sporadic walk, or
even a periodic visit to the gym, but it is inconsistent. People in the preparation stage are ready to adopt
and live an active lifestyle.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 67
5) Which of the following intervention strategies would be LEAST APPROPRIATE when working with
someone in the precontemplation stage?
a. Make inactivity a relevant issue
b. Provide information about the risks of being inactive and the benefits of being active
c. Provide information from multiple sources (e.g., news, posters, pamphlets, general healthpromotion material)
d. Introduce different types of exercise activities to find something the individual enjoys
Explanation
d) Introduce different types of exercise activities to find something the individual enjoys
This intervention is most appropriate for someone in the preparation stage.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 69
6) ________________ involves the number of pros and cons perceived about adopting and/or
maintaining an activity program.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Processes of change
Self-efficacy
Operant conditioning
Decisional balance
Explanation
d. Decisional balance
One of the four components of the transtheoretical model, decisional balance refers to the number of
pros and cons that an individual perceives about adopting and/or maintaining an activity program.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 69
7) Which of the following occurs when a positive stimulus that once followed a behavior is removed and
the likelihood that the behavior will reoccur is decreased?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Positive reinforcement
Negative reinforcement
Extinction
Punishment
Explanation
c) Extinction
Extinction occurs when a positive stimulus that once followed a behavior is removed and the likelihood
that the behavior will reoccur is decreased.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 73
8) A client leaves a gym bag on the front seat of his car each morning as a reminder to work out on his
way home from work. What behavior-change strategy is he using?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Stimulus control
Observational learning
Shaping
Operant conditioning
Explanation
a) Stimulus control
Stimulus control refers to making adjustments to the environment to increase the likelihood of healthy
behaviors. Simple and effective stimulus-control strategies may include choosing a gym that is in the
direct route between home and work; keeping a gym bag in the car that contains all the required items
for a workout; having workout clothes, socks, and shoes laid out for early morning workouts; and writing
down workout times as part of a weekly schedule.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 74
9) When should behavior contracts and written agreements be revised or updated?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Whenever the client has a relapse into inactivity
After the client finishes his final purchased workout
Never; they should be permanent documents
When goals are met or programs are modified
Explanation
d) When goals are met or programs are modified
It is important that a written agreement is reviewed and adjusted at all program-modification points.
Similarly, the behavior contract must be revised and updated as goals are met and programs are
modified.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 74
10) After several months of working with a client, a personal trainer notes that the client’s self-efficacy
and ability levels have improved. How should this affect the amount of external feedback the trainer
provides to the client?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The trainer should increase the amount of external feedback
The amount of feedback should not change
The trainer should taper the amount of external feedback
The trainer should immediately stop providing external feedback
Explanation
c) The trainer should taper the amount of external feedback
As self-efficacy and ability build, trainers should taper off the amount of external feedback they provide,
encouraging the clients to start providing feedback for themselves. Clients must learn to reinforce their
own behaviors by providing internal encouragement, error correction, and even punishment.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 75
Quiz #10: Chapter 5 – Introduction to the ACE Integrated Fitness Training Model
ACE’s Personal Trainer Manual, 4th Edition
1) The following list presents the four phases of the functional movement and resistance training
component of the ACE IFT Model in their proper order.
• Stability and mobility training
• Movement training
• Load training
• Performance training
a. True
b. False
Explanation
a. True
The proper order of the four phases of the functional movement and resistance training component of
the ACE IFT Model is as follows: stability and mobility training, movement training, load training, and
performance training.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 86
2) During what phase of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT
Model is the application of external resistance to functional movement patterns a primary focus?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Stability and mobility training
Movement training
Load training
Performance training
Explanation
c) Load training
The focus of phase 3, or load training, is on applying external resistances, or loads, to functional
movement patterns. Phase 3 applies the traditional resistance-training methodology for endurance,
hypertrophy (or strength-endurance), and strength to the client’s particular goals.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 88
3) A client who is in the load-training phase of functional movement and resistance training will be
working in the anaerobic-endurance training phase of cardiorespiratory training.
a. True
b. False
Explanation
a. False
While these two phases both represent phase 3 of their respective training components, it is important
to understand that each client will progress from one phase to the next according to his or her unique
needs, goals, and available time to commit to training. Many clients will be at different phases of the
two training components based on their current health and fitness levels.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 86
4) It is essential that personal trainers conduct assessments of muscular strength and endurance before
a new client begins a stability and mobility training program.
a. True
b. False
Explanation
b) False
No assessments of muscular strength or endurance are required prior to designing and implementing an
exercise program during this phase. Assessments that should be conducted early in this phase include
basic assessments of posture, balance, movement, and range of motion of the ankle, hip, shoulder
complex, and thoracic and lumbar spine.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 89
5) During which phase of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT
Model should assessments of muscular strength and endurance be introduced?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Phase 1
Phase 2
Phase 3
Phase 4
Explanation
c) Phase 3
During phase 3, or load training, assessments of muscular strength and endurance are introduced to
facilitate program design and quantify progress.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 90
6) No assessments are recommended during the aerobic-base training phase of cardiorespiratory
training.
a. True
b. False
Explanation
a) True
No assessments are recommended during the aerobic-base training phase, since many of the clients
who start in this phase will be unfit and may have difficulty completing an assessment of this nature.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 93
7) What is a PRIMARY goal of introducing interval training during phase 2 of a client’s cardiorespiratory
training program?
a.
b.
c.
d.
To improve aerobic endurance by raising the intensity of exercise
To add variety to the program to avoid boredom
To help the client exercise at intensities beyond the first ventilatory threshold
To increase the client’s adherence to the program by improving his or her mood state
Explanation
a) To improve aerobic endurance by raising the intensity of exercise
The goal of interval training will be to improve aerobic endurance by raising the intensity of exercise
performed at VT1, and to improve the client’s ability to utilize fat as a fuel source.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 93
8) A client who is in phase 3 of the cardiorespiratory training component of the ACE IFT Model is
beginning to utilize the three-zone training model based on ventilatory threshold. Approximately what
percentage of his time should be spent training between VT1 and VT2?
a.
b.
c.
d.
>80%
70–80%
10–20%
<10%
Explanation
d) <10%
The full cardiorespiratory exercise program should be composed of:
• Zone 1 (at or below VT1): 70–80% of training time
• Zone 2 (between VT1 and VT2): <10% of training time
• Zone 3 (at or above VT2): 10–20% of training time
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 94
9) Clients working in the anaerobic-power training phase of the ACE IFT Model generally have goals
related to _____________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Long-duration, moderate-intensity events requiring great endurance
Long-duration events of a nearly constant speed and intensity
Short-duration, high-intensity efforts during longer endurance events
Short-duration, high-intensity events requiring explosive power but little endurance
Explanation
c. Short-duration, high-intensity efforts during longer endurance events
Clients working in this phase of cardiorespiratory training will be training for competition and have
specific goals that relate to short-duration, high-intensity efforts during longer endurance events, such
as speeding up to stay with a pack in road cycling.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 95
10) What is the most important goal when working with special-population clientele?
a. To provide them with initial positive experiences that promote adherence through easily
achieved initial successes
b. To move them through the various phases of the ACE IFT Model with the ultimate goal of
improving fitness and performance
c. To reach the stage of resistance training during which external loads are introduced, as this will
improve their performance of activities of daily living
d. To teach them the importance of daily exercise and continuing with their programs even during
times of illness or discomfort
Explanation
a. To provide them with initial positive experiences that promote adherence through easily achieved
initial successes
The most important goal with all clients is to provide them with initial positive experiences that promote
adherence through easily achieved initial successes.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 95
Quiz #11: Chapter 6 – Building Rapport and the Initial Investigation Stage
ACE’s Personal Trainer Manual, 4th Edition
1) The first objective when meeting a prospective client is to gather information on the client’s goals and
objectives.
a. True
b. False
Explanation
b) False
The first objective when meeting a prospective client is to first build a foundation for a personal
relationship with the individual; gathering information on the client’s goals and objectives is secondary.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 100
2) Which of the following is NOT one of the primary purposes of a pre-participation screening?
a. Identifying the absence or presence of known disease
b. Identifying the individual’s stage of behavioral change
c. Identifying individuals with medical contraindications who should be excluded from exercise or
physical activity
d. Identifying those individuals with medical conditions who should participate in medically
supervised programs
Explanation
b) Identifying the individual’s stage of behavioral change
The purposes of the pre-participation screening include the following:
 Identifying the presence or absence of known cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic
disease, or signs or symptoms suggestive of cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic
disease
 Identifying individuals with medical contraindications (health conditions and risk factors) who
should be excluded from exercise or physical activity until those conditions have been corrected
or are under control
 Detecting at-risk individuals who should first undergo medical evaluation and clinical exercise
testing before initiating an exercise program
 Identifying those individuals with medical conditions who should participate in medically
supervised programs
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 105
3) Which of these follow-up actions would be most appropriate for an individual who answers “yes” to
the following questions on the PAR-Q?
“Is your doctor currently prescribing drugs (for example, water pills) for your blood pressure or
heart c condition?”
“In the past month, have you had chest pain when you were not doing physical activity?”
a.
b.
c.
d.
Slowly and progressively start becoming more physically active
Take part in a fitness appraisal before beginning exercise
Talk with a doctor before beginning to exercise or undergoing a fitness appraisal
Delay becoming much more physically active until feeling better
Explanation
c) Talk with a doctor before beginning to exercise or undergoing a fitness appraisal
If a person answers “yes” to one or more questions on the PAR-Q, he or she should talk with a doctor by
phone or in person BEFORE starting to become much more physically active or BEFORE having a fitness
appraisal. He or she should also tell the doctor about the PAR-Q and which questions were answered
YES.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 106
4) Which of the following is considered a positive risk factor for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Body mass index of 28 kg/m2
HDL cholesterol of 66 mg/dL
Serum cholesterol of 195 mg/dL
Systolic blood pressure of 143 mmHg
Explanation
d) Systolic blood pressure of 143 mmHg
Systolic blood pressure > 140 mmHg and/or diastolic blood pressure > 90 mmHg, confirmed by
measurements on at least two separate occasions, is considered to be a positive risk factor for
atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 108
5) For which of the following clients would a medical exam and graded exercise test be recommended
before training begins?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Low-risk client wanting to perform moderate exercise
Low-risk client wanting to perform vigorous exercise
Moderate-risk client wanting to perform moderate exercise
High-risk client wanting to perform moderate exercise
Explanation
d) High-risk client wanting to perform moderate exercise
A medical exam and GXT before exercise are recommended for moderate-risk clients engaged in
vigorous exercise and high-risk clients engaged in moderate or vigorous exercise.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 109
6) Which of the following documents represents a client’s voluntary abandonment of the right to file a
lawsuit against the personal trainer?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Informed consent form
Release of liability waiver
Behavioral contract
Medical release form
Explanation
b) Release of liability waiver
This document is used to release a personal trainer from liability for injuries resulting from a supervised
exercise program, and represents a client’s voluntary abandonment of the right to file a lawsuit.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 110
7) After how long a period of inactivity following an injury does disuse atrophy in the muscles
surrounding the injury begin?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Two hours
Two days
Two weeks
Two months
Explanation
b. Two days
Disuse atrophy of the muscles surrounding an injury may begin after just two days of inactivity.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 117
8) Which of these medications causes a dose-related decrease in a person’s resting, exercise, and
maximal heart rates?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Beta blockers
Antihistamines
Antidepressants
Diuretics
Explanation
a) Beta blockers
Beta blockers inhibit the effects of catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine) throughout the
body and reduce resting, exercise, and maximal heart rates.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 120
9) Which medication has no primary affect on heart rate, but can cause dangerous cardiac arrhythmias
due to water and electrolyte imbalances?
a.
b.
c.
d.
ACE inhibitors
Calcium channel blockers
Diuretics
Bronchodilators
Explanation
c) Diuretics
Diuretics are medications that increase the excretion of water and electrolytes through the kidneys.
They have no primary effect on the heart rate, but they can cause water and electrolyte imbalances,
which may lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 121
10) Which of the following must be included as part of every client’s pre-participation screening?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Body-composition testing
Movement screens
Static posture assessment
Health-risk appraisal
Explanation
d) Health-risk appraisal
Regardless of the assessments selected and how the assessment timelines are structured, trainers
should remember that a health-risk appraisal must be included as a pre-participation screen.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 121–122
11) Which of the following is NOT cause to immediately stop a cardiorespiratory exercise test?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Leg cramping
Complaints of severe fatigue
Nausea and lightheadedness
Heavy breathing due to intense exercise
Explanation
d) Heavy breathing due to intense exercise
While shortness of breath, wheezing, and difficult or labored breathing are on the list of symptoms that
call for an immediate end to an exercise test, heavy breathing due to the intensity of the exercise is not.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 122
12) Which of the following is NOT a reason that the average resting heart rate for women is higher than
that of men?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Smaller heart chamber size
Lower sympathetic drive
Lower blood volume
Lower hemoglobin levels
Explanation
b) Lower sympathetic drive
The higher values found in the female RHR are attributed in part to:
• Smaller heart chamber size
• Lower blood volume circulating less oxygen throughout the body
• Lower hemoglobin levels in women
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 125
13) _______________ represents the pressure that is exerted on the artery walls as blood remains in
the arteries during the filling phase of the cardiac cycle.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Resting blood pressure
Maximal blood pressure
Systolic blood pressure
Diastolic blood pressure
Explanation
d) Diastolic blood pressure
Diastolic blood pressure represents the pressure that is exerted on the artery walls as blood remains in
the arteries during the filling phase of the cardiac cycle, or between beats when the heart relaxes. It is
the minimum pressure that exists within one cardiac cycle.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 125
14) A client’s blood-pressure reading is 124/78 mmHg. How should the personal trainer classify this
client?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Normal
Prehypertension
Stage 1 hypertension
Stage 2 hypertension
Explanation
b) Prehypertension
Individuals are classified as prehypertensive when systolic blood pressure is 120–139 mmHg or diastolic
blood pressure is 80–89 mmHg.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 128
15) Which of the following statements about the ratings of perceived exertion scale is CORRECT?
a. When using ratings of perceived exertion, men tend to underestimate exertion, while women
tend to overestimate exertion.
b. When using the 0–10 scale, an RPE of 6 corresponds to a heart rate of 60 bpm
c. When using the 6–20 scale, an RPE of 11 is considered “somewhat hard”
d. Most deconditioned individuals find using the RPE scale to be very easy and intuitive
Explanation
a. When using ratings of perceived exertion, men tend to underestimate exertion, while women tend to
overestimate exertion. Regarding the other choices, the 0–10 RPE scale does not directly correspond
with heart rate, an RPE of 11 on the 6–20 scale is considered “fairly light,” and most deconditioned
individuals find using the RPE scale difficult, as they find any level of exercise to be fairly hard.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 129
Quiz #12: Chapter 7 – Functional Assessments: Posture, Movement, Core,
Balance, and Flexibility
ACE’s Personal Trainer Manual, 4th Edition
1) Which of the following is a non-correctible factor related to postural deviations?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Side dominance
Structural deviations
Lack of joint stability
Lack of joint mobility
Explanation
b. Structural deviations
The non-correctible factors related to postural deviations are as follows:
• Congenital conditions (e.g., scoliosis)
• Some pathologies (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis)
• Structural deviations (e.g., tibial or femoral torsion, femoral anteversion)
• Certain types of trauma (e.g., surgery, injury, amputations)
The other choices are correctible factors.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 136
2) When designing an exercise program for a beginning exerciser, it is best to focus on enhancing
muscular strength before shifting the focus to improving the client’s posture.
a. True
b. False
Explanation
b. False
Given the propensity many individuals have toward poor posture, an initial focus of trainers should be to
restore stability and mobility within the body and attempt to “straighten the body before strengthening
it.”
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 137
3) Barring structural differences in the skeletal system, a pronated ankle ________________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Forces internal rotation of the tibia and slightly less internal rotation of the femur
Causes a lengthening of the calf muscles and limits ankle dorsiflexion
Has little effect on the rest of the body’s kinetic chain
Moves the calcaneus into inversion, lifting the inside of the heel slightly off the ground
Explanation
a. Forces internal rotation of the tibia and slightly less internal rotation of the femur
Ankle pronation forces internal rotation at the knee and places additional stresses on some knee
ligaments and the integrity of the joint itself. Additionally, as pronation tends to move the calcaneus into
eversion, this may actually lift the outside of the heel slightly off the ground (moving the ankle into
plantarflexion). In turn, this may tighten the calf muscles and potentially limit ankle dorsiflexion.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 140
4) The coupling relationship between tight __________ and __________ is defined as the lower-cross
syndrome.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Rectus abdominis; hamstrings
Hip flexors; erector spinae
Rectus abdominis; erector spinae
Hip flexors; hamstrings
Explanation
b. Hip flexors; erector spinae
Tight or overdominant hip flexors are generally coupled with tight erector spinae muscles, producing an
anterior pelvic tilt. This coupling relationship between tight hip flexors and erector spinae is defined as
the lower-cross syndrome. A posterior pelvic tilt is caused by tightness in the rectus abdominis and
hamstrings.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 142
5) Which pelvic tilt screen may be invalid if the individual exhibits well-developed gluteal muscles?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The relationship of the ASIS and PSIS
The appearance of lordosis in the lumbar spine
The alignment of the pubic bone to the ASIS
The degree of flexion or hyperextension in the knees
Explanation
b. The appearance of lordosis in the lumbar spine
This technique may be invalid if an individual exhibits well-developed gluteal muscles, which will create
a larger space and a perception of increased lordosis.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 143
6) An elevated shoulder may present with an overdeveloped or tight upper trapezius muscle.
a. True
b. False
Explanation
a. True
An elevated shoulder may present with an overdeveloped or tight upper trapezius muscle, while a
depressed shoulder may present with more forward rounding of the scapula.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 144–145
7) When performing a shoulder screen and observing the client from a posterior view, a trainer notices
an outward protrusion of the vertebral borders, but not the inferior angles, of the scapulae. What
deviation is most likely being observed?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Scapular protraction
Kyphosis
Sway-back posture
Winged scapulae
Explanation
a. Scapular protraction
Noticeable protrusion of the vertebral (medial) border outward is termed “scapular protraction,” while
noticeable protrusion of the inferior angle and vertebral (medial) border outward is termed “winged
scapulae.”
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 145
8) What is the objective of conducting clearing tests prior to the performance of movement screens?
a.
b.
c.
d.
To determine the client’s health and fitness level
To identify any movements that exacerbate pain
To identify clients who are unable to perform basic movements without losing balance
To address any static postural deviations prior to introducing movement
Explanation
b. To identify any movements that exacerbate pain
Prior to administering any movement screens, trainers should screen their clients for any potential
contraindications associated with pain by using basic clearing tests. The objective when conducting
clearing tests is to ensure that pain is not exacerbated by movement. Any client who exhibits pain during
a clearing test should be referred to his or her physician and should not perform additional assessments
for that part of the body.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 150
9) During the hurdle step screen, you observe that the client exhibits an anterior tilt with a forward
torso lean. What muscles should you suspect of being underactive or weak?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Stance-leg hip flexors
Gluteus medius and maximus
Hip adducts and tensor fascia latae
Rectus abdominis and hip extensors
Explanation
d. Rectus abdominis and hip extensors
If a client exhibits an anterior tilt with a forward torso lean, he or she likely has overactive or tight
stance-leg hip flexors and underactive or weak rectus abdominis and hip extensors.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 154
10) During the Thomas Test, you observe that when the client holds the back and sacrum flat, the back
of the lowered thigh touches the table, but the knee does not flex to 80 degrees. What muscle(s) should
you suspect of being tight?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Rectus femoris
Iliopsoas
Primary hip flexors
Hamstrings
Explanation
a. Rectus femoris
When a client is unable to flex the knee to 80 degrees, a personal trainer should suspect tightness in the
rectus femoris, which does not allow the knee to bend.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 161
11) In your notes regarding a client performing the external and internal shoulder rotation tests, you
recorded that the client displayed potential tightness in the infraspinatus and teres major. What might
you have observed during the test that led to that conclusion?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Client externally rotated the forearms 90 degrees to touch the mat
Client displayed discrepancies between arms when externally rotating the forearms
Client internally rotated the forearms 70 degrees toward the mat
Client displayed discrepancies between arms when internally rotating the forearms
Explanation
d. Client displayed discrepancies between arms when internally rotating the forearms
If a client displays an inability to internally rotate the forearm 70 degrees, or shows discrepancies
between the limbs, there are two possible reasons: potential tightness in the lateral rotators of the arm
(i.e., infraspinatus and teres minor) or the joint capsule and ligaments may be tight and limit rotation.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 165
12) Which of the following is NOT a reason to stop a client while he or she is performing the sharpened
Romberg test?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The client’s feet move on the floor
The client’s eyes open
The client exceeds 30 seconds with good postural control
The client’s arms move from the folded position
Explanation
c. The client exceeds 30 seconds with good postural control
During the sharpened Romberg test, the trainer should continue to time the client’s performance until
one of the following occurs: the client loses postural control and balance, the client’s feet move on the
floor, the client’s eyes open, the client’s arms move from the folded position, or the client exceeds 60
seconds with good postural control.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 167
13) A male client performs the stork-stand balance test and is able to hold the position for 46 seconds.
How would you rate this client’s performance?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Excellent
Good
Fair
Poor
Explanation
b. Good
A male client who is able to hold the stork-stand position for 41 to 50 seconds is categorized as “good.”
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 168
14) Apley’s scratch test is usually performed in conjunction with which of the following pairs of tests?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sharpened Romberg test and stork-stand balance test
Thomas test and passive straight-leg raise test
Shoulder flexion-extension test and internal-external rotation test of the humerus
Blood pressure cuff test and muscle-length test
Explanation
c. Shoulder flexion-extension test and internal-external rotation test of the humerus
Apley’s scratch test involves multiple and simultaneous movements of the scapulothoracic and
glenohumeral joints in all three planes. This represents a challenge in evaluating shoulder movement
and identifying movement limitations. To identify the source of the limitation, trainers can first perform
various isolated movements in single planes to locate potentially problematic movements.
Consequently, the scratch test is completed in conjunction with the shoulder flexion-extension test and
the internal-external rotation test of the humerus.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 162
15) Which of the following joint movements from the anatomical position has an average range of
motion of 0 degrees in healthy adults?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Lumbar rotation
Elbow extension
Subtalar inversion
Hip extension
Explanation
b. Elbow extension
While elbow flexion has an average range of motion of 145 degrees, extension is not possible at the
elbow.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 158
Quiz #13: Chapter 8 – Physiological Assessments
ACE’s Personal Trainer Manual, 4th Edition
1) During a treadmill test, a client complains of leg cramping but feels that she will be able to finish the
test. What is the MOST appropriate course of action?
a. Monitor her progress closely and stop the test if her pain worsens
b. Allow her to complete the test, as treadmill tests measure cardiorespiratory fitness, not
muscular endurance
c. Stop the test immediately and possibly refer the client to her primary healthcare professional
d. Have her rest for a few minutes and rehydrate before continuing the test from the stopping
point
Explanation
c. Stop the test immediately and possibly refer the client to her primary healthcare professional
During the administration of any exercise test involving exertion, trainers must always be aware of
identifiable signs or symptoms that merit immediate test termination and possible referral to a qualified
healthcare professional. These symptoms include:
• Onset of angina, chest pain, or angina-like symptoms
• Significant drop (>10 mmHg) in systolic blood pressure (SBP) despite an increase in exercise
intensity
• Excessive rise in blood pressure (BP): SBP >250 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure (DBP) >115
mmHg
• Excess fatigue, shortness of breath, or wheezing (does not include heavy breathing due to
intense exercise)
• Signs of poor perfusion: lightheadedness, pallor (pale skin), cyanosis (bluish coloration,
especially around the mouth), nausea, or cold and clammy skin
• Increased nervous system symptoms (e.g., ataxia, dizziness, confusion, syncope)
• Leg cramping or claudication
• Subject requests to stop
• Physical or verbal manifestations of severe fatigue
• Failure of testing equipment
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 174
2) Which of the following is NOT one of three sites used when performing skinfold measurements on a
male client?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Chest
Thigh
Abdomen
Triceps
Explanation
d. Triceps
For men, the three skinfold sites are the chest, thigh, and abdomen. The triceps, thigh, and suprailium
are the three skinfold sites for women.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 178
3) After performing skinfold measurements with a male client, his body-fat percentage is calculated to
be 26%. How would you rank this client in terms of body-fat percentage?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Athlete
Fitness
Average
Obese
Explanation
d. Obese
In males, a body-fat percentage of 25% or higher is considered obese.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 184
4) _______________ provides an objective ratio describing the relationship between body weight and
height.
a.
b.
c.
d.
BMI
DEXA
MRI
NIR
Explanation
a. BMI
BMI, or body mass index, is an anthropometric measure that provides an objective ratio describing the
relationship between body weight and height. The other three options are forms of body-composition
assessment.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 185
5) Which of these assessments measures a client’s anaerobic capacity?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which of these assessments measures a client’s anaerobic capacity?
Vertical jump test
Kneeling overhead toss
300-yard shuttle run
Explanation
d. 300-yard shuttle run
This test assesses anaerobic capacity or the highest rate of sustainable power over a predetermined
distance. The other three tests assess a client’s anaerobic power, which involves a single repetition or
event and represents the maximal amount of power the body can generate.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 235
6) What is the waist-to-hip ratio threshold at which a female client’s health is considered at risk?
a.
b.
c.
d.
0.79
0.82
0.86
0.95
Explanation
c. 0.86
A female client’s health is considered at risk when her WHR is at or above 0.86. For men, that threshold
is 0.95.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 188
7) Measuring VO2max in a laboratory involves the collection and analysis of _______________ during
maximal exercise.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Blood oxygen levels
Exhaled air
Core temperature
Caloric expenditure
Explanation
b. Exhaled air
VO2max, an excellent measure of cardiorespiratory efficiency, is an estimation of the body’s ability to
use oxygen for energy, and is closely related to the functional capacity of the heart. Measuring VO2max
in a laboratory involves the collection and analysis of exhaled air during maximal exercise.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 189
8) A personal trainer can accurately estimate VO2max from a client’s heart-rate response to exercise.
a. True
b. False
Explanation
a. True
Research demonstrates that as workload increases, so do heart rate and oxygen uptake. In fact, heart
rate and oxygen uptake exhibit a fairly linear relationship to workload. This relationship allows the
personal trainer to accurately estimate VO2max from the heart-rate response to exercise with fairly
good accuracy.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 189
9) If an activity requires a functional capacity of 6 METs, what is the total oxygen consumption of
someone performing that activity?
a. 0.6 mL/kg/min
b. 6 mL/kg/min
c. 10.5 mL/kg/min
d. 21 mL/kg/min
Explanation
d. 21 mL/kg/min
1 MET is equal to 3.5 mL/kg/min, so 6 METs = 6 x 3.5 mL/kg/min = 21 mL/kg/min
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 191
10) Which of the following types of physiological assessment is contraindicated for a client with asthma?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Cycle ergometer test
Treadmill test
Ventilatory threshold test
Step test
Explanation
c. Ventilatory threshold test
This type of testing is not recommended for:
• Individuals with certain breathing problems [asthma or other chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease (COPD)]
• Individuals prone to panic/anxiety attacks, as the labored breathing may create discomfort or
precipitate an attack
• Those recovering from a recent respiratory infection
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 202
11) The end-point of the VT2 threshold test is determined by the client’s ability to recite the Pledge of
Allegiance, or another memorized group of phrases.
a. True
b. False
Explanation
b. False
The end-point of the talk test for VT1 (not the VT2 threshold test) is determined by the client’s ability to
recite the Pledge of Allegiance, or another memorized group of phrases.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 202
12) Individuals who are short in stature may not be good candidates for which type of testing?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Cycle ergometer tests
Treadmill tests
Ventilatory threshold tests
Step tests
Explanation
d. Step tests
Individuals who are short in stature are not good candidates for step testing, as they may have trouble
with the step height, especially during the McArdle step test.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 208
13) Which of the three tests included in McGill’s torso muscular endurance test battery is a timed test
involving a static, isometric contraction of the anterior muscles, stabilizing the spine until the individual
exhibits fatigue and can no longer hold the assumed position?
a. Trunk flexor endurance test
b. Trunk lateral endurance test
c. Trunk extensor endurance test
Explanation
a. Trunk flexor endurance test
The flexor endurance test is the first in the battery of three tests that assesses muscular endurance of
the deep core muscles. It is a timed test involving a static, isometric contraction of the anterior muscles,
stabilizing the spine until the individual exhibits fatigue and can no longer hold the assumed position.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 217
14) A male client who weighs 190 pounds has a one-repetition maximum of 225 pounds on the bench
press exercise. His relative strength for this exercise is __________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
225 pounds
0.84
35 pounds
1.18
Explanation
d. 1.18
Relative strength is the maximum force a person is able to exert in relation to his or her body weight and
is calculated using the formula: Relative strength = Absolute strength/Body weight, where Absolute
strength is defined as the one-repetition maximum. In this case, Relative strength = 225 pounds/190
pounds = 1.18
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 221
15) A competitive soccer player, whose sport requires an ability to accelerate, decelerate, change
direction, and then accelerate again, is interested in completing an assessment to serve as a baseline
against which he can measure future improvements. Which test will BEST measure these sports skills?
a.
b.
c.
d.
300-yard shuttle run
40-yard dash
Pro agility test
Margaria-Kalamen stair climb
Explanation
c. Pro agility test
The pro agility test quickly and simply measures an individual’s ability to accelerate, decelerate, change
direction, and then accelerate again. In fact, the National Football League and USA Women’s Soccer
Team use this assessment as part of their battery of tests.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 237
Quiz #14: Chapter 9 – Functional Programming for Stability-Mobility and
Movement
ACE’s Personal Trainer Manual, 4th Edition
1) Which of the following joints favors stability over mobility?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Ankle
Knee
Thoracic spine
Glenohumeral
Explanation
b. Knee
In terms of mobility and stability of joints along the kinetic chain, the knee favors stability over mobility,
while the other three options favor mobility.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 247
2) Which of the following muscles exerts an upward pull on the anterior, inferior surface of the pelvis in
an effort to maintain a neutral pelvic position?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Erector spinae
Hamstrings
Rectus abdominis
Hip flexors
Explanation
c. Rectus abdominis
Maintenance of a neutral pelvic position is achieved via opposing force-couples between four major
muscle groups that all have attachments on the pelvis. The rectus abdominis pulls upward on the
anterior, inferior pelvis, while the hip flexors pull downward on the anterior, superior pelvis. On the
posterior surface, the hamstrings pull downward on the posterior, inferior pelvis, while the erector
spinae pull upward on the posterior, superior pelvis.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 250
3) When trying to meet the objective of the stability and mobility training phase by reestablishing
appropriate levels of stability and mobility through the kinetic chain, a personal trainer should begin by
targeting which region of the body?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Lumbar spine
Thoracic spine
Hips
Shoulders
Explanation
a. Lumbar spine
The process begins by targeting an important proximal region of the body, the lumbar spine, which
encompasses the body’s center of mass and the core. As this region is primarily stable, programming
should begin by first promoting stability of the lumbar region through the action and function of the
core. Once an individual demonstrates the ability to stabilize this region, the program should then
progress to the more distal segments.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 251
4) After proximal stability is established in the lumbar spine, the focus of the stability and mobility
training phase shifts to establishing _______________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Static balance
Mobility and stability in the distal extremities
Stability of the scapulothoracic spine
Mobility of the pelvis and thoracic spine
Explanation
d. Mobility of the pelvis and thoracic spine
A programming sequence that promotes stability and mobility within the body will adhere to the basic
principle that proximal stability facilitates distal mobility. With this in mind, the next step after
establishing stability in the lumbar spine is to address mobility of the pelvis and thoracic spine.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 252
5) Which stretching technique is MOST appropriate for deconditioned clients to perform DURING a
workout?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Dynamic stretching
Active isolated stretching
Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation
Myofascial release
Explanation
b. Active isolated stretching
Active isolated stretching is the best choice for deconditioned clients during a workout. Dynamic
stretching is only appropriate for conditioned clients and athletes, while myofascial release and
proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation are more suitable during the warm-up and cool-down.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 253
6) Which stretching technique involves holding each stretch to the point of tension for 15 to 60
seconds?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Dynamic stretching
Static stretching
Active isolated stretching
Ballistic stretching
Explanation
b. Static stretching
Static stretches should be taken to the point of tension, with clients performing a minimum of four
repetitions and holding each repetition for 15 to 60 seconds.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 253
7) A skilled performance athlete who has established good flexibility would like to address functional
flexibility during his pre-exercise stretching routine. What two types of stretching would be the BEST
choices for this client?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Active isolated stretching and dynamic stretching
Dynamic stretching and ballistic stretching
Static stretching and proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation
Myofascial release and active isolated stretching
Explanation
b. Dynamic stretching and ballistic stretching
Dynamic and ballistic stretches are appropriate during a pre-exercise stretching routine for athletes
interested in improving their functional flexibility.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 253
8) Which of the following muscles is part of the outer layer of the core?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Multifidi
Diaphragm
Quadratus lumborum
Latissimus dorsi
Explanation
d. Latissimus dorsi
The outermost layer consists of larger, more powerful muscles that span many vertebrae and are
primarily responsible for generating gross movement and forces within the trunk. Muscles in this region
include the rectus abdominis, erector spinae, external and internal obliques, iliopsoas, and latissimus
dorsi.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 255
9) The strengthening of weakened muscles should begin with the performance of two to four repetitions
of isometric muscle contractions, each held for five to 10 seconds at less than 50% of maximal voluntary
contraction in a supported, isolated environment.
a. True
b. False
Explanation
a. True
The strengthening of weakened muscles follows a progression model beginning with two to four
repetitions of isometric muscle contractions, each held for five to 10 seconds at less than 50% of MVC in
a supported, more isolated environment. The next progression is to dynamic, controlled ROM exercises
incorporating one to three sets of 12 to 15 repetitions.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 254
10) A key role of the serratus anterior is to move the thorax toward a more fixed, stable scapulae.
a. True
b. False
Explanation
b. False
During open kinetic chain (OKC) movements, a key role of the serratus anterior is to control movement
of the scapulae against a more fixed ribcage. During closed kinetic chain movements, however, where
the distal segment is more fixed, a key role of the serratus anterior is to move the thorax toward a more
fixed, stable scapulae.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 274
11) The center of mass is generally slightly lower in men due to their increased body mass and narrower
stance.
a. True
b. False
Explanation
b. False
The location of the center of mass varies in individuals by body shape, size, and gender, being slightly
higher in males due to greater quantities of musculature in the upper body.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 281
12) Which of the following techniques will reduce the balance challenge of an exercise?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Narrowing the base of support
Lowering the center of mass
Looking up and down during the exercise
Closing the eyes
Explanation
b. Lowering the center of mass
Lowering the center of mass will reduce the balance challenge of an exercise, while the other choices
will all increase the balance challenge.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 283
13) Standing on a single leg and taking a step mandates stability in each of the following regions EXCEPT
the __________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Stance leg
Hip
Torso
Raised leg
Explanation
d. Raised leg
Standing efficiently on a single leg mandates stability in the stance-leg, hip, and torso, while
simultaneously exhibiting mobility in the raised leg if stepping is involved.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 292
14) Which type of movement has the GREATEST need for thoracic mobility?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Pushing movements
Bend-and-lift movements
Rotational movements
Pulling movements
Explanation
c. Rotational movements
The need for thoracic mobility is greater during rotational movements than with pushing and pulling
movements, given the three-dimensional nature of the movement patterns. Performing these exercises
without thoracic mobility or lumbar stability may compromise the shoulders and hips, and increase the
likelihood for injury.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 304
15) Which of the following exercises BEST addresses the rotational movement pattern during the
movement-training phase?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Wood-chop
Unilateral row
Lunge
Hip hinge
Explanation
a. Wood-chop
The wood-chop is a rotational movement. The unilateral row is a pulling movement, the lunge is a
single-leg movement, and the hip hinge is a bend-and-lift movement.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 304–306
Quiz #15: Chapter 10 – Resistance Training: Programming and Progressions
ACE’s Personal Trainer Manual, 4th Edition
1) Which of the following terms is defined as the product of muscular strength and movement speed?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Muscular endurance
Muscular power
Absolute strength
Relative strength
Explanation
b. Muscular power
Muscular power is the product of muscular strength and movement speed. Assuming that an
individual’s movement speed remains the same, an increase in muscular strength is accompanied by a
proportional increase in muscular power.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 317
2) Which of the following is a skill-related parameter that might be addressed in a client’s exercise
program?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Balance
Flexibility
Body composition
Aerobic capacity
Explanation
a. Balance
The skill-related parameters are as follows: power, speed, balance, agility, coordination, and reactivity.
The other three options are health-related parameters.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 318
3) Training frequency is inversely related to both training __________ and training __________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Volume; type
Type; intensity
Volume; intensity
Type; duration
Explanation
c. Volume; intensity
Training frequency is inversely related to both training volume and training intensity. Less vigorous
exercise sessions produce less muscle microtrauma, require less time for tissue remodeling, and can be
performed more frequently. More vigorous exercise sessions produce more muscle microtrauma,
require more time for tissue remodeling, and must be performed less frequently for optimum results.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 318
4) A client’s resistance-training regimen involves performing four sets of each exercise, with each set
containing four repetitions. This training volume BEST addresses which training goal?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Muscular hypertrophy
Muscular endurance
Muscular strength
General muscle fitness
Explanation
c. Muscular strength
Muscular strength is addressed with any training regimen involving the performance of two to six sets of
six or fewer repetitions.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 321
5) What is the first progression made when utilizing the double-progressive training protocol?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Adding resistance in 5% increments
Adding repetitions to the set
Adding sets to the workout
Reducing the rest intervals
Explanation
b. Adding repetitions to the set
The double-progressive strength-training protocol may be used with any repetition range. The first
progression is adding repetitions, and the second progression is adding resistance in 5% increments.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 324
6) According the principle of reversibility, a client who stops performing resistance exercise will lose
strength at about __________ that it was gained
a.
b.
c.
d.
The same rate
Twice the rate
One-tenth the rate
One-half the rate
Explanation
d. One-half the rate
A client who stops performing resistance exercise will lose strength at about one-half the rate that it was
gained. For example, if an individual increased his or her leg press strength by 50% over a 10-week
training period, he or she would lose half of that strength gain after 10 weeks of no resistance exercise,
and all of his or her strength gain after 20 weeks without training.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 326
7) After progressing to the load-training phase of the ACE IFT Model, a client has mastered the stability
and mobility exercises from the previous phases and no longer needs to include them in each workout.
a. True
b. False
Explanation
b. False
Regardless of the specific objective of the load-training program, it is recommended that stability and
mobility exercises be included in the warm-up and cool-down activities.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 333
8) What aspect of muscular fitness is BEST addressed by a client adhering to the following regimen?
• Frequency: Provide at least 72 hours recovery time between exercises for the same muscle
groups
• Intensity: Between 70 and 80% of maximum resistance, reaching fatigue between 50 and 70
seconds
• Repetitions: Eight to 12
• Sets: Three to four sets with 30 to 60 seconds rest between successive training sets
• Type: A combination of multijoint and single-joint exercises using various techniques, including
breakdown training and assisted training
a.
b.
c.
d.
Muscular hypertrophy
Muscular strength
Muscular power
Muscular endurance
Explanation
a. Muscular hypertrophy
This workout program would best address muscular hypertrophy. Muscle hypertrophy training typically
involves lower weightloads and higher repetitions than muscular-strength training, but higher
weightloads and lower repetitions than muscular-endurance training. The recommended training
intensity for muscle hypertrophy is about 70 to 80% of maximum resistance (or a repetition range of
eight to 12).
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 338
9) A plyometric exercise program BEST addresses which aspect of muscular fitness?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Muscular hypertrophy
Muscular strength
Muscular power
Muscular endurance
Explanation
c. Muscular power
To improve the production of muscular force and power, plyometric exercise can be implemented.
Plyometric exercise incorporates quick, powerful movements and involves the stretch-shortening cycle
[an active stretch (eccentric contraction) of a muscle followed by an immediate shortening (concentric
contraction) of that same muscle].
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 343
10) Which of the following types of plyometric drills provides the highest intensity?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Multiple linear jumps
Jumps in place
Hops and bounds
Multidirectional jumps
Explanation
c. Hops and bounds
Hops and bounds are the most intense of the options listed. Hops involve taking off and landing with the
same foot, while bounds involve the process of alternating feet during the take-off and landing. Hops
and bounds emphasize horizontal speed and are performed repeatedly with no rest between actions.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 344 & 346
Quiz #16: Chapter 11 – Cardiorespiratory Training: Programming and
Progressions
ACE’s Personal Trainer Manual, 4th Edition
1) Most health benefits occur with at least __________ a week of moderate-intensity physical activity.
a.
b.
c.
d.
60 minutes
75 minutes
150 minutes
180 minutes
Explanation
c. 150 minutes
Many of the recommendations from the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans are derived
from the knowledge that most health benefits occur with at least 150 minutes a week of moderateintensity physical activity and that the benefits of physical activity far outweigh the possibility of adverse
outcomes.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 374
2) A client performs regular moderate- to vigorous-intensity activity at 85% of his maximum heart rate.
What is his fitness classification?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Poor/fair
Fair/average
Average/good
Good/excellent
Explanation
c. Average/good
An individual in this category will perform “habitual physical activity: Regular moderate-to-vigorous
Intensity” at 80–91% of maximum heart rate and 65–80% of %HRR/VO2max or VO2R.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 377
3) During the talk test, a client is able to speak, but not very comfortably. At approximately what
intensity is this client working?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Below VT1
Just above VT1
Just below VT2
Above VT2
Explanation
b. Just above VT1
Studies in a variety of populations have demonstrated that the talk test is a very good marker of VT1.
Typically, below the VT1, people will respond to any of a number of speech-provoking stimuli (normal
conversation, a structured interview, reciting a standard paragraph) by stating that they can speak
comfortably. Above VT1, but below a second metabolic marker called the second ventilatory threshold
(VT2), they will be able to speak, but not comfortably.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 382
4) In which zone of the three-zone training model is an individual exercising if he or she is working at a
heart rate equal to his or her second ventilatory threshold?
a. Zone 1
b. Zone 2
c. Zone 3
Explanation
c. Zone 3
Zone 3 reflects heart rates at or above VT2, while zone 1 reflects heart rates below VT1 and zone 2
reflects heart rates from VT1 to just below VT2.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 385
5) A client is performing 250 minutes of exercise each week and has a weekly caloric expenditure of
approximately 1,700 calories. What is this client’s physical fitness classification?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Poor-fair
Fair-average
Average-good
Good-excellent
Explanation
b. Fair-average
A client in the “fair-average” category will be exercising 30–90 minutes/day and 200–300 minutes/week,
and will be expending between 1,500 and 2,000 calories each week.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 386
6) Which exercise variable is it MOST appropriate for a personal trainer to manipulate in the early stages
of an exercise program?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Duration
Intensity
Frequency
Type
Explanation
a. Duration
Exercise duration is probably the most appropriate variable to manipulate initially, building the exercise
session by 10%, or five to 10 minutes every week or two over the first four to six weeks. Thereafter, and
once adherence is developed, trainers can implement progressions by increasing exercise frequency and
then exercise intensity.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 387
7) During which cardiorespiratory training phase of the ACE IFT Model should a client be working at an
RPE of 3 to 4?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Phase 1
Phase 2
Phase 3
Phase 4
Explanation
a. Phase 1
During phase 1, training should focus on steady-state exercise in zone 1, which can be gauged by the
client’s ability to talk (below talk test threshold) and/or work at an RPE of 3 to 4 (moderate to somewhat
hard).
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 394
8) During which cardiorespiratory training phase of the ACE IFT Model should a trainer administer the
VT2 threshold test to determine HR at VT2?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Phase 1
Phase 2
Phase 3
Phase 4
Explanation
c. Phase 3
During phase 3, the focus is on designing programs to help clients who have endurance performance
goals and/or are performing seven or more hours of cardiorespiratory exercise per week. This is the
most appropriate time to administer the VT2 threshold test to determine HR at VT2.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 394
9) Stop-and-go game-type activities are an appropriate choice for both youth and older adult exercisers.
a. True
b. False
Explanation
b. False
While youth often excel at and enjoy these activities, older adults are generally less tolerant of stop-andgo game-type activities (along with heavy training loads, rapid increases in training load, and singlemode exercise).
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 406
10) During which cardiorespiratory training phase of the ACE IFT Model should low zone 2 intervals be
introduced into a client’s program?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Phase 1
Phase 2
Phase 3
Phase 4
Explanation
b. Phase 2
This phase of cardiorespiratory training is dedicated to enhancing the client’s aerobic efficiency by
progressing the program through increased duration of sessions, increased frequency of sessions when
possible, and the introduction of zone 2 intervals.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 397
Quiz #17: Chapter 13 – Mind-Body Exercise
ACE’s Personal Trainer Manual, 4th Edition
1) Which form of mind-body exercise is BEST described as a form of moving meditation?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Nia
Yoga
Tai chi
Pilates
Explanation
c. Tai chi
Tai chi, the martial art derivative of qigong, is best described as a moving meditation.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 454
2) Which type of yoga program is BEST suited for individuals who are new to yoga?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Restorative yoga
Integral yoga
Bikram yoga
Ashtanga yoga
Explanation
a. Restorative yoga
This style of hatha yoga is perhaps most appropriate for those who are just embarking on a yoga
program because of the use of props and the elementary nature of the poses.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 459
3) Which type of yoga is also known as “power yoga”?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Anusara yoga
Ashtanga yoga
Viniyoga
Kripalu yoga
Explanation
b. Ashtanga yoga
The asanas in Ashtanga yoga are sequenced in groups of poses that range from moderate to very
difficult. The sequence pace and pose difficulty is what often characterizes Ashtanga as “power yoga.”
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 462
4) Which term, also the name of a type of yoga, is synonymous with what is also called “serpent power,”
or the coiled-up energy contained in the body?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Bikram
Kundalini
Kripalu
Anusara
Explanation
b. Kundalini
Also called the yoga of awareness, kundalini yoga’s principal purpose is to awaken the serpent power
(kundalini, or coiled-up energy) with postures, breath control, chanting, and meditation.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 462
5) Which form of tai chi is the most practiced in the West today?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Original Chen style
Chang style
Yang style
Wu style
Explanation
c. Yang style
Originated by Yang Luchan in the 1800s, the Yang form is the most widely practiced form in the West
today. The original Yang form consists of 108 movements (Yang Long Form); however, the Yang 24–
Short Form is a popular modification practiced today.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 466
6) An older adult client who is interested in trying mind-body exercise has decided that tai chi might be
the best fit for her needs and abilities. Which form of tai chi would you recommend?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Original Chen style
Chang style
Wu style
Sun style
Explanation
d. Sun style
Because the sun style involves a higher stance than other forms, it is often the easiest for older adults to
learn.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 466
7) Which contemporary form of mind-body exercise involves floor work and as well as work done on a
machine called a reformer?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Nia
Pilates
Alexander Technique
Feldenkrais Method
Explanation
b. Pilates
Pilates is based on the idea that there is a core set of postural muscles that help to keep the body
balanced and are essential to providing good support to the spine. This method is divided into two
modalities, floor/mat work and work on a Reformer, a piece of resistance equipment originally
developed by Joseph H. Pilates.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 466–467
8) Which contemporary form of mind-body exercise includes a moderate-level aerobic component that
fosters spontaneity?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Nia
Pilates
Alexander Technique
Feldenkrais Method
Explanation
a. Nia
Unlike other mind-body exercise programs, Nia also includes a moderate-level aerobic component to
address cardiorespiratory endurance. The aerobic segment is designed to foster creativity and
spontaneity rather than strict adherence to standard group movement patterns.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 468
9) One of the means of objectively assessing the success of a mind-body exercise program is to record
baseline and serial blood-pressure measurements.
a. True
b. False
Explanation
a. True
Baseline and serial resting blood pressure measurement is also an accepted outcome measure
responsive to four to six weeks of mind-body exercise—especially if the participant has a resting blood
pressure in the prehypertension or higher range (i.e., >120/80 mmHg).
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 469
10) __________ is the practice of voluntary breath control, consisting of conscious inhalation, retention,
and exhalation.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Asana
Sivananda
Viniyoga
Pranayama
Explanation
d. Pranayama
In the yogic and qigong traditions, breathing functions as an intermediary between the mind and body.
Pranayama (the practice of voluntary breath control, consisting of conscious inhalation, retention, and
exhalation) is often practiced in conjunction with meditation and yoga asanas but can stand by itself as
an important mind-body exercise method.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 463
Quiz #18: Chapter 14 – Exercise and Special Populations
ACE’s Personal Trainer Manual, 4th Edition
1) Which of the following is NOT a common manifestation of atherosclerosis?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Stroke
Arrhythmias
Angina
Heart attack
Explanation
b. Arrhythmias
Atherosclerosis is the underlying cause of cerebral and peripheral vascular diseases. Manifestations of
atherosclerosis include angina, heart attack, stroke, and intermittent claudication.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 481
2) During a workout, you notice that a client displays a sudden lack of coordination and balance and,
when asked, reports trouble seeing. What is the MOST likely cause of these symptoms?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Myocardial infarction
Claudication
Diabetes
Stroke
Explanation
d. Stroke
The warning signs of a stroke are as follows:
 Sudden numbness or weakness of the face, arms, or legs
 Sudden confusion or trouble speaking or understanding others
 Sudden trouble seeing in one or both eyes
 Sudden walking problems, dizziness, or loss of balance and coordination
 Sudden severe headache with no known cause
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 485
3) A client’s physician provides the following guideline regarding the intensity of exercise for a new
client: “An RPE of 11 to 16 (6 to 20 scale) is the preferred exercise intensity.” With which condition is
this client MOST likely coping?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Hypertension
Cancer
Type 2 diabetes
Fibromyalgia
Explanation
c. Type 2 diabetes
Individuals with type 2 diabetes can exercise at a moderate intensity of 11 to 16 on the 6 to 20 ratings of
perceived exertion (RPE) scale. The other three options all require a light to moderate intensity of 9 to
13 on the RPE scale.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 493
4) A male client brings a form from his primary care physician reporting the following test results:
 Waist circumference: 41 inches
 Triglycerides: 140 mg/dL
 HDL cholesterol: 38 mg/dL
 Blood pressure: 128/80 mmHg
 Fasting blood glucose: 93 mg/dL
This client currently has the metabolic syndrome.
a. True
b. False
Explanation
b. False
The metabolic syndrome is defined as the presence of three or more of the following components:
 Elevated waist circumference
 Men >40 inches (102 cm)
 Women >35 inches (88 cm)
 Elevated triglycerides
 >150 mg/dL
 Reduced HDL cholesterol
 Men <40 mg/dL
 Women <50 mg/dL
 Elevated blood pressure
 >130/85 mmHg
 Elevated fasting blood glucose
 >100 mg/dL
This client has only two of these components (elevated waist circumference and reduced HDL
cholesterol).
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 494
5) A client’s physician provides the following guideline regarding the mode of exercise for a new client:
“Swimming is the recommended mode of exercise; upper-body resistance-training exercises are not
appropriate.” With which of the following conditions is this client MOST likely coping?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Osteoporosis
Arthritis
Asthma
Fibromyalgia
Explanation
c. Asthma
Swimming may be particularly beneficial for individuals with asthma because it allows them to inhale
the moist air just above the surface of the water. For some clients with asthma, upper-body exercises
such as arm cranking, rowing, and cross-country skiing may not be appropriate because of the higher
ventilation demands.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 494
6) Weightbearing and resistance-training activities are MOST important for clients with which of the
following diseases or disorders?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Osteoporosis
Diabetes
Arthritis
Low-back pain
Explanation
a. Osteoporosis
For clients with osteoporosis, the mechanical stress associated with weightbearing or resistance-training
activities produces strain on bone tissue and stimulates bone deposition and resulting gains in bone
mass and strength.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 502
7) For clients with which of the following diseases or disorders is it MOST important to develop a
“regular” pattern of activity that does not result in post-activity malaise?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Low-back pain
Chronic fatigue syndrome
Fibromyalgia
Cancer
Explanation
b. Chronic fatigue syndrome
When working with clients with CFS, the goal is to develop a “regular” pattern of activity that does not
result in post-activity malaise. Low-intensity exercise is recommended.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 509
8) How often should low-back exercises be performed in order to yield the maximum benefit?
a.
b.
c.
d.
2–3 days/week
4–5 days/week
5–6 days/week
7 days/week
Explanation
d. 7 days/week
While there is a common belief that exercise sessions should be performed at least three times per
week, it appears that low-back exercises have the most beneficial effect when performed daily.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 511
9) When programming exercise to help a client reduce low-back pain, it is most important to focus on
muscular strength, as opposed to muscular endurance.
a. True
b. False
Explanation
b. False
Low-back exercises performed for maintenance of health need not emphasize strength; rather, more
repetitions of less-demanding exercises will assist in the enhancement of endurance and strength. Given
that endurance has more protective value than strength, strength gains should not be overemphasized
at the expense of endurance.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 511
10) Overweight or obese clients who are seeking to lose weight should perform a MINIMUM of _____
minutes of moderate-intensity exercise each week.
a.
b.
c.
d.
120
150
225
240
Explanation
b. 150
Individuals seeking weight loss should include exercise as a key component of their programs, and
overweight and obese adults should accumulate more than 150 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise
each week, and when possible, more than 225 minutes per week.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 511
Quiz #19: Chapter 15 – Common Musculoskeletal Injuries and Implications for
Exercise
ACE’s Personal Trainer Manual, 4th Edition
1) The most commonly reported knee injury involves damage to the __________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Anterior cruciate ligament
Medial collateral ligament
Patella
Menisci
Explanation
d. Menisci
The most commonly reported knee injury is damage to the menisci. The menisci have an important role
within the knee due to their multiple functions—shock absorption, stability, joint congruency,
lubrication, and proprioception.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 536
2) What type of injury can be classified as longitudinal, oblique, transverse, or compression?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Stress fractures
Sprains
Bursitis
Shin splints
Explanation
a. Stress fractures
Longitudinal, oblique, transverse, and compression are the four types of stress fractures, which often
occur in distance runners, track athletes, and court sport athletes (e.g., volleyball, basketball).
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 536
3) What is the first phase of healing after an injury occurs?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Remodeling phase
Inflammation phase
Proliferation phase
Fibroblastic phase
Explanation
b. Inflammation phase
The first phase of healing is the inflammatory phase, which can typically last for up to six days,
depending on the severity of the injury. The focus of this phase is to immobilize the injured area and
begin the healing process. Increased blood flow occurs to bring in oxygen and nutrients to rebuild the
damaged tissue.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 537
4) Which of the following is an ABSOLUTE contraindication to stretching?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Joint hypermobility
Pain in the affected area
Presence of osteoporosis
Joint swelling
Explanation
a. Joint hypermobility
The absolute contraindications to stretching are as follows:
 A fracture site that is healing
 Acute soft-tissue injury
 Post-surgical conditions
 Joint hypermobility
 An area of infection
The other three choices are all relative contraindications.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 538
5) Lateral epicondylitis is commonly known as __________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Golfer’s elbow
Jumper’s knee
Tennis elbow
Runner’s knee
Explanation
c. Tennis elbow
Lateral epicondylitis, which is commonly called “tennis elbow,” is defined as an overuse or repetitivetrauma injury of the wrist extensor muscle tendons near their origin on the lateral epicondyle of the
humerus.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 541
6) A client complains of pain in the wrist during sleep and numbness and loss of grip strength during
exercise. What injury is the MOST likely cause of these symptoms?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Greater trochanteric bursitis
Iliotibial band syndrome
Medial epicondylitis
Carpal tunnel syndrome
Explanation
d. Carpal tunnel syndrome
The symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome include:
 Night or early-morning pain or burning
 Loss of grip strength and dropping of objects
 Numbness or tingling in the palm, thumb, index, and middle fingers
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 542
7) A client comes to you with recommendations from her doctor regarding exercise with greater
trochanteric bursitis. One of the focuses or her training should be strengthening which of the following
muscle groups?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Hamstrings
Gluteals
Quadriceps
Iliotibial band complex
Explanation
b. Gluteals
When working with a client with greater trochanteric bursitis, strengthening the gluteals and deeper hip
rotator muscles is important to maintain adequate strength. Stretching of the iliotibial band complex,
hamstrings, and quadriceps should be the focus to ensure proper lower-extremity mobility.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 544
8) Which of the following injuries is primarily caused by training errors among athletes?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Patellofemoral pain syndrome
Infrapatellar tendinitis
Achilles tendinitis
Iliotibial band syndrome
Explanation
d. Iliotibial band syndrome
ITBS is common among active individuals 15 to 50 years of age and is primarily caused by training errors
in runners, cyclists, volleyball players, and weight lifters.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 545
9) A client reports feeling terrible pain in the heel during his first few steps each morning, which then
dissipates as he walks around the house. What is the MOST likely cause of this pain?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Plantar fasciitis
Achilles tendinitis
Ankle sprain
Infrapatellar tendinitis
Explanation
a. Plantar fasciitis
Typically, individuals with plantar fasciitis report pain on the plantar, medial heel at its calcaneal
attachment that worsens after rest but improves after 10 to 15 minutes of activity. In particular, clients
will commonly report excessive pain during the first few steps in the morning.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 553
10) When programming exercise for a client who is recovering from a lateral ankle sprain, it is important
to begin with side-to-side motions before progressing to straight-plane and then multidirectional
motions.
a. True
b. False
Explanation
a. False
It is recommended that personal trainers progress individuals with this injury first with straight-plane
motions such as forward running, then side-to-side motions such as sidestepping, and then
multidirectional motions such as carioca.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th ed., p. 551