Indian Institute of Technology Guwahati Solution to Tutorial Sheet

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Indian Institute of Technology Guwahati
Solution to Tutorial Sheet-2
July-Nov 2015 semester
MA 521, Modern Algebra
Instructor: Shyamashree Upadhyay
Ans 1:
Since 0(π‘Ž) = 12 & 0(𝑏) = 22, therefore
| < π‘Ž > | = 12 &| < 𝑏 > | = 22
Now < π‘Ž >∩< 𝑏 > is a subgroup of both < π‘Ž > and < 𝑏 >
Therefore,0(< π‘Ž >∩< 𝑏 >) must divide | < π‘Ž > | = 12 as well as
| < 𝑏 > | = 22 [Lagrange’s theorem ]
The only common divisors of 12 & 22 are 1 and 2.
Since < π‘Ž >∩< 𝑏 >≠ {𝑒}, therefore it follows that
0(< π‘Ž >∩< 𝑏 >) = 2
Ans 2:
If π‘Ž + 𝑖𝑏 and 𝑐 + 𝑖𝑑 ∈ 𝐻, then (π‘Ž + 𝑖𝑏)(𝑐 + 𝑖𝑑)−1 = (π‘Žπ‘ + 𝑏𝑑) + 𝑖(𝑏𝑐 − π‘Žπ‘‘)
π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘(π‘Žπ‘ + 𝑏𝑑)2 + (𝑏𝑐 − π‘Žπ‘‘)2 = 1,
So that 𝐻 is a subgroup. 𝐻 is the unit circle in the complex plane ( geometrically).
Ans 3:
𝐻 is not a subgroup
1
2
[
0
0
0
] = [ 2 1 ] is not in 𝐻
2
0
2
Ans 4:
Let 𝑆 = {π‘₯ ∈⊄∗| π‘₯ 𝑛 = 1}
Then 𝑆 = {π‘π‘œπ‘ 
2πœ‹π‘˜
𝑛
+ 𝑖 sin
2πœ‹π‘˜
|0
𝑛
≤ π‘˜ < 𝑛}[ Easy to check!]
Now let
π‘Ž and 𝑏 belong to 𝑆, say
2πœ‹π‘˜
2πœ‹π‘˜
+ 𝑖 sin 𝑛
𝑛
2πœ‹π‘š
2πœ‹π‘š
cos 𝑛 + 𝑖 sin 𝑛 for some integers π‘˜, π‘š
2πœ‹(𝑛−π‘š)
2∏(𝑛−π‘š)
+ 𝑖 sin
[Easy to check!]
𝑛
𝑛
π‘Ž = cos
and 𝑏 =
Then 𝑏 −1 = cos
such that 0 ≤ π‘˜, π‘š < 𝑛.
And
π‘Žπ‘ −1 = cos
2πœ‹
(π‘˜
𝑛
+ 𝑛 − π‘š) + 𝑖 sin
2πœ‹
(π‘˜
𝑛
+ 𝑛 − π‘š)
Let 𝑃&𝑄 be the quotient and remainder upon dividing π‘˜ + 𝑛 − π‘š by 𝑛
It is then easy to check that cos
2πœ‹
(π‘˜
𝑛
+ 𝑛 − π‘š) = cos
2∏𝑄
𝑛
and sin
2πœ‹
(π‘˜
𝑛
+ 𝑛 − π‘š)sin
2πœ‹π‘„
𝑛
Where 0 ≤ 𝑄 < 𝑛.
Hence π‘Žπ‘ ∈ 𝑆 for any π‘Ž, 𝑏 ∈ 𝑆. (proved)
Therefore, by one-step subgroup test, 𝑆 is π‘Ž subgroup of ⊄⋆
−1
Ans 5:
∁(π‘Ž) = {π‘₯ ∈ 𝐺|π‘₯π‘Ž = π‘Žπ‘₯}
Let π‘₯, 𝑦 ∈ ∁(π‘Ž)
Then π‘₯π‘Ž = π‘Žπ‘₯ and π‘¦π‘Ž = π‘Žπ‘¦
Since π‘¦π‘Ž = π‘Žπ‘¦, we have π‘Ž = 𝑦 −1 π‘Žπ‘¦ ⟹ π‘Žπ‘¦ −1 = 𝑦 −1 π‘Ž
Now π‘₯𝑦 −1 π‘Ž = π‘₯(π‘Žπ‘¦ −1 ) = (π‘₯π‘Ž)𝑦 −1 = π‘Žπ‘₯𝑦 −1 (proved)
Hence π‘₯𝑦 −1 ∈ ∁(π‘Ž)∀π‘₯, 𝑦 ∈ ∁(π‘Ž)
Therefore, by one-step subgroup test,∁(π‘Ž) is a subgroup of 𝐺.
Ans 6:
The center Z(𝐺) of a group 𝐺 is defined as
Z(𝐺) = {π‘₯ ∈ 𝐺|π‘₯π‘Ž = π‘Žπ‘₯∀π‘Ž ∈ 𝐺}
Proof of the fact that 𝒡(𝐺) ≤ 𝐺 is similar to the proof in 𝑄5
Ans 7:
(𝐒)
0
∁ ([
1
π‘Ž
= {[
𝑐
π‘Ž
= {[
𝑐
1
π‘Ž 𝑏
π‘Ž 𝑏 0
]) = {[
] ∈ 𝐺𝐿(2,1𝑅) |[
][
0
𝑐 𝑑
𝑐 𝑑 1
𝑏
𝑏 π‘Ž
𝑐 𝑑
] ∈ 𝐺𝐿 (2,1𝑅 | [
]=[
]}
𝑑
𝑑 𝑐
π‘Ž 𝑏
𝑏
] ∈ 𝐺𝐿(2,1𝑅)|𝑏 = 𝑐, π‘Ž = 𝑑}
𝑑
1
0 1 π‘Ž
]=[
][
0
1 0 𝑐
𝑏
]}
𝑑
(ii)
π‘₯ 𝑦 π‘Ž 𝑏
π‘₯ 𝑦
𝑏
π‘Ž 𝑏 π‘₯ 𝑦
] ∈ 𝐺𝐿(2, 𝑅)| [
][
]=[
][
]∀[
] ∈ 𝐺𝐿(2,1𝑅)}
𝑒 𝑣 𝑐 𝑑
𝑒 𝑣
𝑑
𝑐 𝑑 𝑒 𝑣
π‘Žπ‘₯ + 𝑏𝑒 π‘Žπ‘¦ + 𝑏𝑣
π‘₯ 𝑦
π‘Žπ‘₯ + 𝑐𝑦 𝑏π‘₯ + 𝑑𝑦
π‘Ž 𝑏
= {[
] ∈ 𝐺𝐿(2, 𝑅)| [
]=[
]∀[
] ∈ 𝐺𝐿(2,1𝑅)}
𝑒
𝑣
𝑐π‘₯
+
𝑑𝑒
𝑐𝑦
+
𝑑𝑣
𝑐 𝑑
π‘Žπ‘’ + 𝑐𝑣 𝑏𝑒 + 𝑑𝑣
Now π‘Žπ‘₯ + 𝑏𝑒 = π‘Žπ‘₯ + 𝑐𝑦 ⟹ 𝑏𝑒 = 𝑐𝑦
π‘₯ 𝑦
Since our choice of [
] ∈ 𝐺𝐿(2,1𝑅)is arbitrary, we see that 𝑏𝑒 = 𝑐𝑦 must hold true for any choice of
𝑒 𝑣
π‘₯ 𝑦
[
]
𝑒 𝑣
π‘₯ 𝑦
1 1
Let us take [
]=[
]
𝑒 𝑣
0 1
Then 𝑏𝑒 = 𝑐𝑦 ⟹ 0 = 𝑐
π‘₯ 𝑦
1 0
Similarly, taking [
]=[
], we get 𝑏 = 0
𝑒 𝑣
1 1
Together ,we get 𝑏 = 𝑐 = 0
π‘Ž
𝑍(𝐺) = {[
𝑐
π‘₯ 𝑦
Now since our choice of [
] ∈ 𝐺𝐿(2, 𝑅) is arbitrary, therefore π‘Žπ‘¦ + 𝑏𝑣 = 𝑏π‘₯ + 𝑑𝑦 and 𝑏 = 𝑐 = 0
𝑒 𝑣
together give π‘Ž = 𝑑
π‘Ž 0
Therefore Z(𝐺) = {(
) |π‘Ž ∈ 1𝑅, π‘Ž ≠ 0}
0 π‘Ž
It is easy to check that for any 𝐢 ∈ 𝐺𝐿(2, 𝑅),and for any π‘Ž ≠ 0
π‘Ž 0
1 0
π‘Ž 0
𝐢(
) = π‘ŽπΆ (
) = π‘Ž(
) 𝐢 (Proved)
0 π‘Ž
0 1
0 π‘Ž
Ans 8:
Let π‘š = π‘œ(π‘₯ −1 π‘Žπ‘₯)
Then π‘š is the smallest positive integer such that (π‘₯ −1 π‘Žπ‘₯)π‘š = 𝑒
That is, π‘₯ −1 π‘Žπ‘š π‘₯ = 𝑒
Clearly, (π‘₯ −1 π‘Žπ‘₯)10 = 𝑒 ⟹ π‘œ(π‘₯ −1 π‘Žπ‘₯) divides 10
So, π‘š = 10 is one possibility of π‘œ(π‘₯ −1 π‘Žπ‘₯)
If π‘š < 10, then π‘₯ −1 π‘Žπ‘š π‘₯ = 𝑒 ⟹ π‘Žπ‘š = 𝑒, which is a contradiction since π‘œ(π‘Ž) = 10
Hence π‘š = 10.
Ans 9:
Let 𝑝 be an odd prime. Let 𝐺 be a group with exactly 𝑝 elements of order 𝑝. let g be one of
those elements. Then the cyclic subgroup generated by 𝑔 has 𝑝 − 1 generators, nameles, 𝑔, 𝑔2 ,
. . . 𝑔𝑝−1 each of which has order 𝑝.
Thus there exists one more element in 𝐺 of order 𝑝, say π‘₯, such the π‘₯ is not a power of 𝑔
But then π‘₯ , π‘₯ 2 , . . . . π‘₯ 𝑝−1 all have order 𝑝, and all generate the same subgroup < π‘₯ >
Observe that the sets {𝑔, 𝑔2 , . . . , 𝑔𝑝−1 } and {π‘₯, π‘₯ 2 , . . . , π‘₯ 𝑝−1 } are disjoint
So, 𝐺 must have at least 2 𝑝 − 2 many elements of order 𝑝.
Since 𝑝 is an odd prime. 2 𝑝 − 2 > 𝑝, a contradiction.
Ans 10:
Let 𝑔 ∈ 𝐺 be such that 𝑔 ≠ 𝑒. since 𝐺 is finite, π‘œ(𝑔) = 𝑛 > 1. Let $p$ be a prime factor of n and
let n=mp. Observe that o(π‘”π‘š ) = 𝑝. (proved).
Ans 11:
It may not be true that π‘œ(π‘Ž) = π‘œ(𝑏)
Because let 𝐺 = 𝑍2 = {0 ,1}
Let π‘Ž = 0, 𝑏 = 1
2
Then π‘Ž = 0, 𝑏 2 = 0
So, π‘œ(π‘Ž2 ) = π‘œ(𝑏 2 ) = 1
But π‘œ(π‘Ž) = 1 ≠ 2 = π‘œ(𝑏).
Ans 12.
In view of the two-step subgroup test, we only need to show that π‘Ž−1 ∈ 𝑆 whenever π‘Ž ∈ 𝑆.
If π‘Ž = 𝑒, then π‘Ž−1 = π‘Ž and we are done
If π‘Ž ≠ 𝑒, then consider the sequence π‘Ž, π‘Ž2 , π‘Ž3 ,. . . . .
Since 𝑆 is finite and closed under the group multiplication, we get that all positive powers of π‘Ž
are in 𝑆 and not all of these positive powers of π‘Ž are distinct.
Say π‘Žπ‘– = π‘Ž 𝑗 for some 𝑖 > 𝑗
Then π‘Žπ‘–−𝑗 = 𝑒
Since π‘Ž ≠ 𝑒, we have 𝑖 − 𝑗 > 1.
Thus π‘Žπ‘–−𝑗 = π‘Ž. π‘Žπ‘–−𝑗−1 = 𝑒
Therefore, π‘Žπ‘–−𝑗−1 = π‘Ž−1
But 𝑖 − 𝑗 − 1 ≥ 1 ⟹ π‘Žπ‘–−𝑗−1 ∈ 𝑆 and we are done.
Ans 13:
(i)
Easy to prove
(ii)
Let 𝐺 = 𝒁, 𝐻 = 2𝐙, 𝐾 = 3𝐙
Then 𝐻 ∪ 𝐾 is not a subgroup of 𝐺 because
3,2 ∈ 𝐻 ∪ 𝐾 but 5=2+3 ∉ 𝐻 ∪ 𝐾
(iii)
β‹ˆ
Let π‘Ž, 𝑏 ∈ ⋃ 𝐻𝑖 . Then π‘Ž ∈ 𝐻𝑛 for some 𝑛 and 𝑏 ∈ π»π‘š for some π‘š
𝑖=1
Let 𝑁 = max (𝑛 , π‘š)
Since 𝐻1 ⊆ 𝐻3 ⊆ . . . . . is a chain , it now follows π‘Ž , 𝑏 ∈ 𝐻𝑁
Now 𝐻𝑁 is a subgroup ⟹ π‘Žπ‘ −1 ∈ 𝐻𝑁
β‹ˆ
π‘Žπ‘
−1
∈ ⋃ 𝐻𝑖
𝑖=1
Hence by one − step subgroup test, we are done
END
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