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DRAFT
Preventive Medicine 2012
Maintenance of Certification (MOC) Questions
Please note: Questions are subject to change. This
question packet is intended for reference only. Session
quizzes and requests must be completed online at
http://www.acpm.org/?page=PM2012MOC
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INSTITUTE: ACPM BOARD REVIEW COURSE
1. Name an important theory or theoretical framework which contributes to a scientific
foundation for coaching competencies.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Self-motivation theory
Trans-cognitive model
Motivational counseling
Social cognitive theory
2. Name a key factor which predicts lasting behavior change
A) Introjected regulation
B) Physician recommendation
C) Autonomous motivation
D) Number of attempts followed by relapse
3. Name an important aim of a physician/patient discussion of lifestyle change
A) Physician describes benefits of a healthy lifestyle
B) Physician expresses warm and genuine empathy about patient’s situation
C) Patient describes all of his/her barriers to change
D) Physician asks patient to explain why s/he is not developing new healthy habits
4. Name a strategy to help a patient improve resilience
A) Elicit information about what’s positive and meaningful in a patient’s life
B) Start visit by telling patient about your concerns about his/her health to get his/her
attention
C) Ask patient about his/her weaknesses to be overcome
D) Give patient a formula of specific habits that you think will work best
5. Name a skill which will improve your rapport, connection, and influence with a
patient
A)
B)
C)
D)
Describe what your successful patients do to stay engaged in healthy habits
Listen without thinking about what you’ll say next or any other matter
Find ways to motivate your patient to stop unhealthy habits
Give your patients realistic goals to work on.
6.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which of the following is most suggestive of a unilateral L4/5 lumbar disc herniation?
Saddle anaesthesia
Quadriceps weakness
Diminished ankle jerk
Weakness on heel walking
7. Occupational allergic contact dermatitis
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a.
b.
c.
d.
Is a Type I (IgE-mediated) hypersensitivity reaction
Demonstrates sharply-demarcated borders at the site of contact
Is likely to affect the majority of workers using a suspected substance
In many cases may persist despite removal from the workplace
8. Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin is most likely to arise from work as a:
a. Lead battery reclaimer
b. Roofer
c. Doctor
d. Photographic printer
9. A healthy 30-year-old chemical worker is sent to the hospital in respiratory distress after an
ammonia spill. He recovers from the acute injury but six months later still has intermittent
wheezing on exposure to cigarette smoke and work in the cold. His disorder is most
consistent with:
a. Inhalation fever
b. Reactive airways dysfunction syndrome
c. Occupational asthma
d. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
10. Match the neurotoxic disorder with the occupational etiology: (each answer may be used
more than once, or not at all)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Parkinsonism
Peripheral neuropathy
Encephalopathy
Trigeminal neuralgia
Ataxia
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Trichloroethylene
Arsenic
Manganese
Methylmercury
Lead
11. Which of the following statements on occupational noise-induced hearing loss (NIHL) is true
:
a. Symptoms are recognizable when average pure-tone thresholds reach 20 dB
b. Adequate protection for almost all workers is achieved by adherence to the OSHA PEL of 90
dB / 8 hour time-weighted average day
c. Findings of NIHL are reversible when detected early by screening audiometry
d. Speech clarity, rather than volume, is affected first
12.
a.
b.
c.
d.
13.
Which pairing is correct?
Lead :: peripheral neuropathy sensory > motor
Arsine :: hyperpigmentation and squamous cell CA
Cadmium :: osteomalacia
Chromium :: intersitial lung disease
Which of the following is NOT true as it pertains to individual health risk
appraisals?
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a.
b.
c.
d.
Intent is to determine both healthy and unhealthy behavioral practices
Considers only those behavioral risks that are modifiable
Can provide a baseline against which to monitor change
Identifies areas for health behavior improvement
14. Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System (BRFSS) is intended to assess both
behavioral risk factors and:.
a. Use of preventive health services
b. Socioeconomic indicators
c. Occupational risk
15.
The fundamental assumption of the Health Belief Model is that people
______________,
a. Fear of disease
b. Seek consensual validation
c. Require normative influence
16.
and that their actions to promote change are a product of
_______________________
a. degree of fear
b. anger
c. rejection
d. reliability of physician expertise
17.
and ______________________.
a. perceived barriers to action
b. Psychosomatic disorders
c. Self-awareness
18.
In the Theory of Reasoned Action, the most important determinant of behavior
is:
a. Fear
b. Stress
c. Classical conditioning
d. Behavioral intent
19.
The Theory of Planned Behavior is an extension of the Theory of Reasoned
Action. The authors extended the theory to add _________________ to account
for factors outside of one’s personal control that might influence intention to
change.
a. Perceived behavioral control
b. Prosocial behavior
c. Belief-bias effect
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20.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Rothman’s typology entwines which three concepts to address how communities
organize to identify health issues and prepare a plan to mobilize to address these
issues?
Locality development
Social planning
Social action
All of the above
21.
Due to the high concordance of symptoms between major depressive disorder
and those of a variety of chronic health conditions, the most popular inventories
tend to over-diagnose depression by how much?
___________________________.
a. Approximately 300%
b. 50%
c. 10%
d. 100%
22.
___________percent of adults with a diagnosed mental health disorder, and an
even smaller proportion of children, will receive any mental health services in a
given year.
a. 100%
b. 70%
c. Less than 50%
d. This data is unavailable
23.
Over _______ % of US adults will meet the diagnostic criteria for a DSM disorder
during their lifetime.
a. 46%
b. Less than 5%
c. 80%
d. 10%
24.
A major risk factor for carpal tunnel syndrome is:
a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Keyboarding
c. Forceful repetitive hand work
d. Male gender
INSTITUTE 2: PUBLIC HEALTH/MEDIA
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1. You’re trying to get the local TV news to cover a public health story. Which of the
following is most likely to be true?
a. If the advertisers aren’t interested, the news probably won’t cover it.
b. The news team will consider whether their viewers will want to watch the story.
c. A press release from the health department is usually enough to get a story on the
news.
d. TV news is a bad venue for public health stories, because they are usually too
complicated for viewers to understand.
2. Which of the following statements about health news is correct?
a. A “health reporter” is required to have a strong background in medical science.
b. News reports about medical studies often confuse association and causality.
c. Most readers/viewers will have at least a basic understanding of statistics.
d. Most health news stories are reviewed by an MD or RN before publication.
3. Based on the 2003 National Assessment of Adult Literacy, what percentage of
Americans have “proficient” health literacy (with skills including reading complex texts,
making complex inferences, synthesizing information from multiple sources)?
a. 12%
b. 25%
c. 37%
d. 55%
4. Reporters have different preferences about how they want to be contacted. In
general, however, which of the following is most likely to be effective?
a. Mail a formal press release to all local news outlets.
b. Call all the local news outlets and leave a message in the general assignment mailbox.
c. Keep track of which reporters cover this type of story, and either make a call or send
them the information via email.
d. Keep track of which reporters cover this type of story, and send them the information
via fax.
5. You are working on a local campaign called “Heart Health Month” and hope that
media coverage will help spread the word. Which of the following approaches fits best
with how news is reported?
a. Describe the concept of Heart Health Month, highlight the importance of healthy
habits, and ask the reporter to write an article about what people need to know.
b. Send “swag” from the campaign (T-shirts, bumper stickers) to the news office.
c. Offer several ideas, such as a list of 5 heart-healthy foods plus a patient who used
those foods to help lower his risk; an on-air Q&A with expert cardiologists; details of a
fun “kickoff” event.
d. Wait until the campaign is underway, then make a press kit to show how well it is
going.
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6. You have an article coming out in a major journal, and you’re invited (for the first
time!) to speak on a radio program. The interview will last 10 minutes. How should you
prepare?
a. Ten minutes, great! I’ll prepare a 10-minute talk, the audience will love it.
b. There might be other scientists listening. I’d better practice explaining all the details
of what we did.
c. I wonder what the reporter will want to know? I’ll ask for the main topics of interest
and think of some brief, simple statements.
d. It can’t be that different from a Q&A at a conference. I’ll just wing it.
7. Which of the following is NOT correct regarding serving as a medical expert for a
media program?
a. Reporters often keep a list of experts who are good on television and readily
available.
b. Reporters will sometimes ask you about issues outside your area of expertise.
c. You can be an expert even if you have not published a peer-reviewed article on the
topic.
d. The “experts” are always the top people in the fields they are discussing.
8. You are asked to take part in a TV news story about a local epidemic. Which of the
following is most likely to be true?
a. As the medical expert, you will be asked to review the story before it is shown on
television.
b. The news team will consider it unethical to ask for your help in finding patients to tell
their stories.
c. You will have only a brief time to speak and get your message across.
d. You do not have to worry about “sound bites,” because it is considered unethical to
edit or shorten a statement from a medical expert.
9. While responding to questions in online, radio and television interviews, it’s
important to use the following techniques:
a. Speak rapidly to get as much information in as possible in the brief answer period.
b. Use lots of statistics to demonstrate your grasp of public health.
c. Answer the questions provocatively and rhetorically with more questions.
d. Speak slowly and minimize the use of statistics.
10. The use of metaphors in conveying public health messages and images is:
a. An ineffective but widely used technique.
b. An effective but largely underused technique.
c. An ineffective but largely underused technique.
d. An effective but widely used technique.
11. Reviewing video- and audiotapes of past media interviews:
a. Is a bad idea and waste of time because what’s done can’t be changed.
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b. Is a good idea because it helps determine which reporters are ethical enough to work
with again.
c. Is a bad idea because, if an answer is taken out of context or a source is misquoted, it
can harden one’s resolve not to work with media in the future.
d. Is a good idea because there are lessons to be carried forward about one’s
effectiveness in conveying public health messages.
12. When being interviewed for live electronic media, it’s important to grab the viewer’s
attention by:
a. wearing brightly-colored clothing, patterned ties and large dangling earrings.
b. speaking loudly, rapidly and voluminously.
c. addressing the interviewer by first name and pausing briefly before answering
questions.
d. talking over other panelists for the most airtime.
INSTITUTE 3: POPULATION MEDICINE ETHICS
1. In developing a Code of Ethics it is important to:
a. Get it done quickly once initiated.
b. Have final approval of the governing body of the organization.
c. Be very detailed so all possible circumstances are covered by the code.
d. Reach out to the group being governed by the Code for group acceptance
after iterative contacts.
2. The principle of the ACPM Code of Ethics that states, “PM physicians will respect the
law” means:
a. In all circumstances and no matter the consequences.
b. Legal concerns dictate ethical concerns and moral behavior.
c. Casuistry requires consideration of consequences within constraints of the
law.
d. Legislation always takes into account issues of justice.
3. Conflicts that may need identifying and disclosing include all of the following:
a. Financial relationships
b. Personal commitments
c. Limitations of care because of personal conscience
d. All of the above.
4. Privacy and confidentiality:
a. ...is more important for individuals than corporations.
b. …in some ways is as important for individuals and corporations.
c. …is more important for corporations than individuals.
d. …none of the above.
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5. Professionalism in medicine is as important whether practicing on individuals or on
populations. Which of the following statement about professionalism is true:
a. The physician’s interests should be weighed equally with the individual or the
population.
b. Maintaining competence in clinical medicine is more important than in
population medicine because the consequences may be worse if I make a
mistake for a patient than for a community.
c. Public trust in a personal physician is more important than public trust in a
public health physician.
d. Commitment to improving access to care is necessary whether in private or
public health care.
6. The ACPM Code of Ethics includes a principle that population medicine physicians
should act as health role models. Implications for this principle include:
a. Overweight PM physicians (BMI >25) will lose membership in ACPM when
renewal occurs.
b. PM physicians should strive to exhibit good health behaviors in order to
show others in the community that they believe it is important to “do as I say
and as I do.”
c. During the summer and when weather permits PM physicians must ride their
bicycles around town instead of using motorized transportation.
d. No dessert unless you finish your vegetables.
7. Which of the following is incorrect? A duty to care for a community during a public
health threat may be suspended if…
a. …you are pregnant.
b. …you would be under heightened personal risk.
c. …your children are grown and no longer dependent.
d. …you feel it is against your religion to provide care in the face of danger.
8. Accountability for Reasonableness (A4R) is an example of what kind of ethical
framework?
a. Principlism
b. Utilitarianism
c. Deontological
d. Process-oriented
9. The “rule of rescue” approach to solving ethical problems does NOT conflict with
which of the following:
a. Preventive medicine
b. A values based approach
c. Giving priority to acute care medicine
d. Utilitarianism
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10. Which of the following is the most common complaint among preventive medicine
physicians?
a. A lack of agency with respect to decision-making in ethical decision-making.
b. Political considerations force unpleasant resolutions to ethical problems.
c. Being troubled by ethical dilemmas at work.
d. None of the above are common.
11. Which of the following refers to the field of ethical inquiry that deals with what one
should or ought to do?
a. Normative ethics
b. Metaethics
c. Applied Ethics
d. Realism
12. Which one of the following approaches to ethics is theoretically most difficult to
apply to population- oriented medicine?
a. Virtue ethics
b. Deontological ethics
c. Human rights ethics
d. Teleological ethics
13. According to the data presented in this session, public health physicians were least
likely to identify with which of the following as an over-arching ethical goal of public
health?
a. Maximizing aggregate well-being
b. Ensuring fairness and equity
c. Meeting professional standards
d. Adhering to laws and legislated norms
INSTITUTE 4: NUTRITION PRESCRIPTIONS
1.
Hypertension is due to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Increased oxidative stress
Increased inflammation
Autoimmune dysfunction
All the above
2.
A.
B.
C.
The endothelium produces a vasodilating substance called:
Angiotensin II
Endothelin
Nitric Oxide
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D.
Superoxide anion
3.
Increasing dietary intake of the following LOWERS blood pressure EXCEPT:
Potassium
Omega 3 fatty acids
Magnesium
Sodium
4.
Hypertension treatment should:
Increase Nitric Oxide and increase Angiotensin II
Increase Nitric Oxide and reduce Angiotensin II
Reduce Nitric Oxide and reduce Angiotensin II
Reduce Nitric Oxide and increase Angiotensin II
5.
High renin hypertension is associated with:
6. Which of the following will reduce blood pressure?
Hydrolyzed Whey Protein
Lycopene
Co-enzyme Q10
Potassium
All the above
7. Which statement about olive oil is INCORRECT?
It contains oleic acid which has one double bond in the cis configuration.
The melting point of 95 Degrees F makes it suitable for deep-frying.
Phytonutrients confer a green hue, most visible in the first press (extra virgin).
Oleic acid is an omega-9, monounsaturated fat.
8. Which statement about polyunsaturated fatty acids is INCORRECT?
A. Flax oil is high in essential fatty acids
B. Fish oil is high in essential fatty acids
C. Supplemental fish oil can interfere with the metabolism of omega-6 fats
D. Diabetes alters metabolism of dietary polyunsaturated fats such as flax oil
9. Which statement about medium chain triglycerides is INCORRECT?
A. Are saturated fats found in tropical nut oils.
B. Are absorbed from the intestinal tract more readily than longer fats.
C. May cause irritable bowel symptoms when taken in excess.
D. May have beneficial effects on gastrointestinal microflora.
E. Are too heat-sensitive to be used for cooking
10. Which statement about laboratory testing is INCORRECT?
A. Analyze the fatty acid content of red blood cell membranes.
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B. Are a direct measure of diet alone.
C. Can identify high intake of trans fats.
D. Some identify build-up of very long chain fatty acids.
E. Can detect excessive fish oil supplementation.
11. Intestinal permeability is increased by all of the following except:
A) Probiotics
B) IgG food sensitivities or latent and fully expressed celiac disease
C) Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth
D) NSAIDS
12. Normalization of intestinal permeability may benefit all these conditions except:
A) Autoimmune disorders
B) Obesity
C) Hypothyroidism (non autoimmune)
D) Mood disorders
13. Repairing gut function is accomplished by:
A) Use of probiotics and prebiotics
B) Food allergy and sensitivity elimination diets
C) Use of digestive enzymes
D) Treatment of dysbiosis with medication or herbs
E) All of the above
INSTITUTE 5: COST EFFECTIVENESS ANALYSIS
PENDING
INSTITUTE 6: HOW TO BE AN EFFECTIVE POLICY ADVOCATE
1. When meeting with a lawmaker, it’s important to:
A. Submit copies of all pertinent scientific papers related to the topic to the
lawmaker.
B. Threaten, cajole, brow-beat, and otherwise strong-arm the lawmaker until they
submit.
C. Concentrate on communicating the scientific evidence related to the topic.
D. Be brief, sum-up key points on one sheet, be ready to rebut opposition
arguments, and bring effected constituents to share their stories.
2. Which issue goal should you work on when competing priorities exist?
A. The issue that will be most deeply and strongly felt by your membership?
B. The issue that will be the easiest to win?
C. The issue that will be most important to other members of your coalition?
D. Some other factor not identified above?
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3. In building coalitions, you should spend most of your time recruiting:
A. The “rabid third” of the population that will do anything for the cause.
B. The “middle third of the population that supports you but is not motivated to
help out.
C. The “anti-third” of the population that is opposed to your issue.
D. All of the above.
4. In preparing for a press conference, you should send media advisories to the media:
A. two months before the event.
B. two weeks before the event.
C. two days before the event.
D. only on the day of the event.
5. Why do lawmakers read the editorial section of the newspaper.
A. To see what editorial board members think
B. To see who wrote letters-to-the-editor and to see what topic areas were covered
C. To gauge public opinion on a variety of public policy topics
D. All of the above
6. Which of the following is an example of an “issue goal” used in strategic organizing?
A. Eliminate the effects of global warming on coastal communities
B. Ban smoking in all workplaces and public places
C. Educate all physicians to recognize depression in their patient
D. All of the above
7. Framing when it comes to the media:
A. Is when you cut out a news article and put it in a frame
B. Defines the boundaries of a story; what is & is not relevant
C. Highlights who/what is responsible for a problem
D. Both B and C
8. The most limiting factor associated with building a coalition:
A. Time to build relationships
B. Finding interested individuals to join
C. Investigating your targets
D. Finding the donations to give to your targeted lawmakers
9. When talking strategic coalition building, “targeting” generally refers to:
A. Recruiting coalition members
B. Identifying the policy makers who can “give you what you want”
C. Picking the right issue to organize around
D. None of the above
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10. Which of the following are reasons why you should try to recruit faith-based
organizations into any coalition?
A. Faith groups are hierarchical. Get the pastor, Rabbi, Imam, etc committed and
they can help you get the members on board.
B. Faith groups meet often (some even weekly) and allow for easier organizing
C. Members have a moral reason for taking action and contain many communityminded leaders.
D. All of the above
11. A single overriding communication objective (SOCO) refers to:
A. Your organization’s mission statement
B. Your one sentence framing of your message used for communicating with the
media
C. What you want to tell your Coalition about your activities
D. None of the above
12. The following is/are allowable advocacy activities for public servants:
A. Writing op-eds for the local newspaper on bills before the legislature
B. Writing letters-to-the-editor expressing your opinion on a bill and identifying
yourself as a public servant
C. Publishing an ad in the newspaper supporting a public health issue/legislative
issue
D. Lobbying directly for the passage of a bill
E. Could be all of the above depending on local laws, customs, and political
environment
13. If you want media at your next event, the most important thing you can do is:
A. Write an exciting media advisory
B. Follow up with reporters and assignment desks after sending a media advisory
C. Properly frame your event and have visuals and interesting personal stories to
tell your story.
D. Both B and C
KBS LECTURER
PENDING
PLENARY 1: FOOD AS MEDICINE
1. Food influences gene expression through all the following mechanisms except:
A) histone regulation
B) post-translational modification of protein function
C) up-regulation of gene expression
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D) regulation of appetite
2. Cruciferous vegetables upregulate enzymes involved in:
A) cytokine pathways
B) methylation
C) glutathione transferases
D) acetylation
3. Nutrigenomics is the study of:
A) how food is changes gene transmission
B) how vitamins down regulate oxidative stress
C) how non-nutritive and non-nutritive components in food modify gene expression
D) how macronutrients alter nucleotides in the genome
4. Omega 3 fats alter gene expression through
A) reducing delta 6 desaturase activity
B) up-regulating PPAR nuclear family of receptors that reduce inflammation, increase
fatty oxidation and improve insulin sensitivity
C) altering cell membrane function
D) up-regulating NfkappaB activity
SESSION 1: THE IMPACT OF MACROECONOMICS
1. Secondary prevention activities in underserved community settings are funded
through the many mechanisms. Which statement below is true?
A. Most funding for community based services comes from the patients or clients paying
directly for services they receive.
B. Clinics in underserved settings obtain most of their operating funds from charitable
Foundations.
C. Clinics providing these services are primarily funded by local and federal government
funds.
D. In Massachusetts, healthcare delivery in underserved areas is completely funded
through State resources.
2. The healthcare industry is undergoing significant change as a result of market and
federal government forces, among others. According to the presentations at this
session, which of the following statements is or are false.
A. The proportion of States’ healthcare expenditures supplied by federal funding will
remain steady, allowing state officials some stability as other resource factors come into
play.
B. The federal government’s role in healthcare financing is simple for anyone to
understand.
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C. The rate of growth in the federal government’s deficit spending is not generally
considered to have a short-term impact on healthcare expenditures.
D. All of the above.
E. B and C only
3. Which of the following policy advocacy strategies has been historically successful for
professional organizations? Choose the best answer.
A. Graffiti on elected officials’ official vehicles with clever slogans and memorable
phrases.
B. Meeting with elected officials or their staff while representing a trade or professional
group with clear objectives.
C. Constructing a newsworthy scandal and finding a member of the press willing to
publish allegations.
D. Soliciting members of the professional group to contact their elected officials with a
common message and clear requests.
E. B and D
4. Select the best answer that describes the percentage of overall US national
healthcare that was funded directly by Federal and State Governments for 2009:
A. Federal Government funded 10% and State governments funded 20%
B. Federal Government funded 27% and State governments funded 16%
C. Federal Government funded 5% and State governments funded 11%
D. Federal Government funded 81% and State governments funded 24%
E. Federal Government funded 9% and State governments funded 6%
5. Select the true statement about US national health care expenditures.
A. Government funding accounts for more than double the amount accounted for by
businesses.
B. Over the past 5 years, federal government healthcare spending has decreased as a
proportion of the overall federal budget.
C. Over the past 5 years, total healthcare expenditures as a percentage of gross
domestic product has remained stable at about 15%.
D. Federal government funding of health care is generally not considered a fiscal
problem because for every dollar spent, two dollars are saved in averted costs.
E. Effective advocacy by professional medical organizations is impossible because policy
makers don’t trust members of professional organizations.
6. Advocates for the Prevention and Public Health Fund created under the Affordable
Care Act argue that increased investment in preventing injury and disease is essential
because:
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A. 70% of deaths and nearly 75% of health care expenditures are driven by chronic
disease, such as stroke, diabetes, and cancer.
B. More than 40% of the population has more than one chronic health condition, and
research shows significant return on investment for a variety of prevention
interventions.
C. For every dollar spent on health care in the United States today, only about four cents
goes toward public health and prevention.
D. All of the above.
E. A and C only.
SESSION 2: FOOD SAFETY
1. Methods used to control or stop foodborne illness outbreaks include:
A) Remove contaminated food from distribution and sale.
B) Exclude food workers from food preparation activities
C) Proper medical treatment of cases affected by outbreak agent
D) Quarantine cases
E) All of the above
F) A, B, and C only
2. Steps in an outbreak investigation may include;
A) Verify diagnosis
B) Make time, person, place associations
C) Alert the media
D) Contact local health care providers for cases including emergency rooms,
acute care centers, poison control data, hospital infection control staff and
syndromic surveillance systems
E) All of the above
F) A, B, and D only
3. The most common bacterial cause of foodborne outbreaks reported to the CDC in
2008 was due to various subtypes of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
E. Coli
Clostridium
Vibrio
Salmonella
Staphylococcus
4. Among the food sources implicated in large scale outbreaks were all except the
following;
A. Carrots
B. Spinach
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C. Strawberries
D. Ice Cream
E. Ground Beef
5. Organic foods have not been implicated in food safety investigations:
A. T
B. F
6.
New tools that are helping to detect food borne disease outbreaks include:
A. PulseNet that uses a system of laboratories to perform pulsed-field gel
electrophoresis
B. CUSUM Outbreak Detection Algorithm (CODA)
C. Enhanced communication between local, state and national authorities
D. None of the Above
E. All of the Above
SESSION 3: FOCUS ON PRIVATE SECTOR PM
1. Which of the following does not reflect a realistic career opportunity in private
sector preventive medicine?
a. Health care related research position
b. Corporate employee health and wellness director
c. Preventive Medicine physician for US Navy
d. Pharmacoethics
e. Chief of Medical Staff, large non-profit hospital organization
2. What types of preventive medicine and/or public health skill sets might be used
through internal or external expert consultants by private sector corporations?
a. Public health and disaster preparedness
b. Application of clinical treatment guidelines for medical claims reviews
c. Disease prevention and health promotion strategies, including HRAs and
biometric screening
d. Travel medicine and other immunization programs
e. All of the above
3. Which of the following are components of private sector job search strategy?
a. Avoid recruiters
b. Use social networking sites
c. Seek senior positions
d. Do not apply to HR sites because they don't
4. What is an example of some of the factors leading to the increased attention on
Preventive Medicine?
a. limited resources,
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b. endemic obesity
c. growing chronic disease burden
d. attempts at measures to control health care costs
SESSION 5: TEACHING EVIDENCE-BASED
1. The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force recommends that clinicians discuss the
following preventive services with adult men and women except for:
a. Aspirin for prevention of cardiovascular disease
b. HIV screening
c. Lipid disorders
d. Physical Activity
2. The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force provides a letter benefit linked to each
recommendation that reflects the magnitude of the net benefit and the strength
of the evidence supporting the specific preventive service. Which of the
following grades conveys that there is not enough evidence to determine net
benefit?
a. I
b. D
c. C
d. B
3. Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education (ACGME) requirements for
Preventive Medicine (PM) went into effect July 1, 2011 and requires PM residents to
have direct patient care during each year of residency for a minimum of how many
months?
a) 3 months
b) 2 months
c) 4 months
d) 6 months
e) 1 month
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4. Which of the following is most likely to pose a major challenge for Preventive
Medicine residents in completing their ACGME direct patient care requirement?
a) There are no clinics where preventive medicine is practiced.
b) Preventive care/lifestyle medicine is not reimbursable because there are no CPT
(Current Procedural Terminology) codes for such services.
c) Counseling patients about lifestyle interventions and behavior change is never
effective.
d) There is a lack of physician preceptors who are adequately trained in lifestyle
medicine and currently practicing clinically.
e) Delivering and integrating preventive care services across a health care system leads
to worse patient outcomes.
SESSION 6: REDUCING THE OBESITY EPIDEMIC
1. Among 2-5 year-olds, what percentage are overweight?
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%
2. Which of the following recommendations can be effective for pediatric weight
control?
a. reduce consumption of juice and sweetened beverages
b. limit screen time to less than two hours per day
c. prescribe a low calorie, low fat diet
d. a and b
3. If a child is overweight at age 10 and has at least one parent who is also overweight,
their likelihood of remaining overweight as an adult is:
a. 33%
b. 50%
c. 67%
d. 80%
4. Which demographic group has the highest prevalence of severe (morbid) obesity
among adults?
a. Hispanic women
b. Black women
c. Hispanic men
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d. Black men
5. Manipulation of which dietary factor has the most significant effect on body weight?
a. carbohydrate
b. protein
c. calories
d. fiber
6. Which of the following office practices has the LEAST effect on reducing
stigmatization of obesity?
a. wide-based and sturdy seating in the waiting room
b. placing the scale in a private location
c. using large gowns when examining the patient
d. having a flexible tape measure for waist circumference
SESSION 7: CORRECTIONAL HEALTH
1) Which of the following screening parameters is a component of the Bureau of
Prisons Preventive Health Care Program?
a. Universal screening for hepatitis B viral infection
b. Universal screening for gonorrhea
c. Chlamydia screening for women < 25 years of age
d. CBC at intake
2) Which of the following is NOT a component of the Bureau of Prisons Preventive
Health Care Program?
a. Annual tuberculin skin test
b. Annual seasonal influenza vaccination
c. PSA for men over 50
d. Screening for diabetes for hypertensive inmates
3) Who is responsible for implementing preventive medicine in the correctional
setting?
a. Nurses
b. Physicians
c. Administrators
d. All of the above
4) Which of the following is NOT available to most inmates in the Federal Bureau of
Prisons?
a. Free weights
b. Tobacco free environment
c. Aerobic exercise equipment
d. Heart healthy food selections at the cafeteria
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5) Which of the following is the most critical for implementing preventive health
care in the correctional setting
a. Electronic medical record
b. Team approach
c. Adequate budget
d. Policy mandating inmate participation
6) What pose risks of communicable diseases in correctional institutions?
a. Introduction of pathogens by correctional officers
b. Inmates with a high prevalence of chronic communicable diseases
c. Crowded living environment
d. All of the above
7) Medicine is focused on treatment for a patient, while public health is focused on
a. Prevention in a population
b. Clinical services in primary care
c. Risk factors for survival
8) Which of the following could be incorporated into primary care?
a. Acute outbreak management
b. Clinical preventive services
c. Both
SESSION 8: PH CHALLENGES IN IRAQ
1. The organization responsible for directing and administering the Polio Eradication
Campaign in Afghanistan is:
A. World Health Organization
B. United Nations High Commission on Refugees
C. International Committee of the Red Cross
D. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
2. In the Polio Eradication Campaign, the most important role played by military forces
in Afghanistan is:
A. Helping administer vaccine
B. Directing vaccinators to villages that need polio vaccination
C. Having situational awareness of when campaigns are ongoing and respecting the
program’s neutrality
D. Advertising and announcing the dates of upcoming vaccination campaigns
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3. The lead agency for civilian health sector reconstruction and development (HSRD) in
southern Afghanistan is:
A. International Committee of the Red Cross
B. International Security and Assistance Forces
C. World Health Organization
D. The Afghan government and Ministry of Public Health
4. In non-emergency situations, direct patient care provided by agencies other than the
host nation (choose one):
A. Instills confidence in the population that their government can provide adequate
health services
B. Increases health service provision to the population in the short-term, but may
decrease it in the long-term
C. Usually provides adequate diagnostic referral and follow-up
D. Does not foster dependency or future expectation of services
5) The greatest single barrier to the successful application of preventive medicine in the
NATO/ISAF setting is:
a) A lack of diplomacy on the part of public health officers.
b) An inability to move across the asymmetric battlefield.
c) A lack of understanding on the part of NATO/ISAF Military commanders that public
health is not strictly a national prerogative.
d) A lack of public health expertise among the various NATO/ISAF national militaries.
6) The greatest threat to the maintenance of combat power among NATO/ISAF troops
is:
a) Rabid feral dogs.
b) Malaria.
c) Congo-Crimean Hemorrhagic Fever.
d) Upper respiratory tract infections.
7) During 2011, the greatest single hazard to public health practitioners in NATO/ISAF
was:
a) Air travel across the asymmetric battlefield to deliver services.
b) Taliban Rocket or Mortar attacks on Forward Operating Bases.
c) Taliban sleeper agents posing as Afghan National Army or Police Personnel.
d) Motor vehicle accidents on Forward Operating Bases.
8) What bacteria were cultured from food samples implicated in the Iraqi restaurant
case?
A) Listeria monocytogenes
B) Eschericia coli
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) all of the above
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9. Prevalence of rabies among feral dogs and cats captured and tested in Iraq was:
A)
B)
C)
D)
1 in 4
1 in 50
1 in 100
1 in 500
SESSION 9: ENVIRONMENTAL EFFECTS ON CHILDREN HEALTH
1. Which of the following is not a disease strongly associated with toxic exposures in the
environment to children?
A) asthma
B) failure to thrive
C) lead poisoning
D) developmental disabilities
2. What are the costs in 2008 that were attributable to diseases strongly associated
with toxic exposures in the environment to children?
A) $54.9 billion
B) $68.2 billion
C) $76.6 billion
D) $108.8 billion
3. What condition remains the strongest driver of costs attributable to diseases strongly
associated with toxic exposures in the environment to children?
A) asthma
B) childhood cancer
C) lead poisoning
D) developmental disabilities
4. What policy measures would not produce reductions in toxic environmental
exposures that produce diseases in childhood?
A) universal health insurance
B) regulations on coal-fired power plants
C) funding for lead hazard control programs
D) toxic substances control act reform
5. Which of the following exposures has not been attributable as a risk factor for
attention deficit hyperactivity?
A) pesticides
B) ethylmercury
C) lead
D) tobacco smoke
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6. Which of the following is associated with ground-level ozone or fine particulate
matter exposure?
A. increased asthma emergency department visits and hospitalizations
B. increased asthma medication use
C. increased bronchiolitis hospitalizations
D. increased missed school days
E. all of the above
7. The increasing costs of bronchiolitis hospitalization observed as the length of time
infants were exposed to fine particulate matter – which remained statistically significant
when controlling for multiple potential confounders -- could suggest which of the
following?
A. a coincidental finding and bronchiolitis is unlikely truly associated with fine
particulate matter
B. a preliminary finding that not only magnitude of fine particulate matter but
alo duration of exposure are relevant to health effects.2.
C. a definitive finding that fine particulate matter contributes to short term
respiratory effects
D. a definitive finding that fine particulate matter contributes to long term
respiratory effects
8. Reducing the average level of fine particulate matter by just one unit— or 7 percent
below the current annual standard—could save how about much annually in healthcare
costs?
A. $1 million
B. $5 million
C. $10 million
D. $15 million
9. Climate change is expected to affect air quality with potentially negative health
impacts on children. Which of the following ways is NOT an expected change?
A. increased wildfires in the Southwestern United States
B. increased extreme storms with resulting water damage and mold growth
C. increased tornadoes in the Midwestern United States
D. changing patterns of summer ozone smog
10)
What proportion of schools in Michigan were found to be located in the more
polluted parts of their school districts?
a. About a quarter of the schools
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b. About half of the schools
c. About two-thirds of the schools
d. Almost all schools
11) Although pollution burdens are most likely to be concentrated around schools
with the largest numbers of poor students and students of color, about what
proportion of white students in Michigan were found to attend schools in the
top decile of air pollution concentration in the state?
a. Almost none
b. Almost a third
c. Almost half
d. Well over half
12) Pollution may affect students’ academic performance because it:
a. may directly affect brain function
b. may have carcinogenic and respiratory effects that result in absences and
otherwise impair students’ ability to perform well
c. may have developmental effects
d. All of the above
13) Which of the following best describes state policies concerning environmental
quality and school siting?
a. Most states have some policies that take into account environmental
quality factors when siting new schools, but these policies are poorly
enforced.
b. About half of the states have some policies that take into account
environmental quality factors when siting new schools.
c. Only about a quarter of the states have some policies that take into
account environmental quality factors when siting new schools.
d. Most states have no policies that take into account environmental quality
factors when siting new schools
SESSION 11: PREVENTING CHRONIC DISEASE
1. Many studies have shown that there is an association between early life experiences
and chronic diseases in adulthood. Which of the following correctly describes the
findings?
a) The Barker study of birth records in the UK showed that low-birth weight girls
were at higher risk of mortality from coronary artery disease
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b) The Dutch Hunger Study showed that the grandchildren of women who were
nutritionally deprived during the first six months of pregnancy were at increased
risk of low birth weight
c) Animal studies demonstrate that poor maternal diet results in offspring with
strong cardiovascular function and long lifespan
d) The thrifty phenotype hypothesis states that prenatal malnutrition is associated
with decreased risk of diabetes
e) Adverse childhood experiences increase risk for multiple poor adult outcomes,
but the greatest increase in risk is for poor physical compared to mental health
outcomes
2. Which of the following micronutrients are proposed to affect fetal development?
a) Zinc
b) Folate
c) Vitamin B12
d) Antioxidants
e) All of the above
3. Which of the following biomarkers are associated with maternal diet?
a) Interleukin-6
b) Adiponectin
c) Risfastin
d) C-reactive
e) All of the above
4. Clinical preventive services in childhood may result in improved short or long term
health outcomes. For which of the following office based clinical preventive services in
childhood is the evidence for benefit during childhood sufficiently strong that the
service is recommended by the US Preventive Services Task Force?
a) Screening for visual impairment in young children
b) Screening for hip dysplasia in infants
c) Screening for depression in children 5-12 years old
d) Screening for scoliosis in adolescents
e) Screening for elevated blood lead levels in young children
5. Extrapolating data from observational studies to make recommendations about
preventive interventions may result in unexpected harms which are later uncovered by
experimental studies. In which of the following situations was this the case?
a) Screening infants for neuroblastoma
b) Post-menopausal hormone replacement therapy to prevent cardiovascular
disease
c) Lipid screening in childhood to prevent cardiovascular disease
d) Newborn hearing screening to improve speech and language outcomes
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SESSION 12: ASPIRIN SESSION
1. Based on the results of meta-analyses of randomized trials for primary prevention,
which of the following is most accurate:
i.
ii.
iii.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Aspirin use reduces the risk of myocardial infarction in men.
Aspirin reduces the risk of myocardial infarction in women.
Aspirin reduces the risk of stroke in men.
1 and 2
1 and 3
2 and 3
1, 2 and 3
2. A benefit for aspirin in reducing the risk of cancer has been shown in the following
types of studies:
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
v.
Observational studies
Randomized trials of aspirin for the prevention of colon polyps
Secondary analyses of randomized trials of aspirin for the prevention of
vascular disease
Randomized trials of aspirin with colorectal cancer as a primary endpoint
Randomized trials of aspirin with overall cancer as a primary endpoint
a. 1,2,3
b. 1,2,3,4
c. 1,2,3,4,6
3) All of the following should be included in a clinical discussion regarding aspirin use
EXCEPT:
a) Assessment of patient-specific risk for aspirin adverse outcomes.
b) Patient-specific stratification by overall risk of vascular adverse outcomes.
c) Determination of potential relative and absolute contraindications to aspirin use.
d) Assessment of aspirin resistance.
e) Assessment of patient's values and preferences regarding risks and benefits.
f) Concrete recommendations about aspirin use, including dose and frequency, if
appropriate.
SESSION 13: OBESITY POLICY
1. All of the following are components of the built environment except:
A) Advertisements
B) Sidewalks
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C) Supermarkets
D) Public Transportation Systems
E) All of the Above are components of the Built Environment
2. According to the presentation, which of the following are important contributors to
the increase in the rate of obesity in America over the past several decades?
A) Changing Human Genetics
B) Price of high calorie “less healthy” foods
C) Generalized decrease in “will power” among Americans
D) Increased availability of “less healthy” foods
E) Both B and D
3. True of False, Countries that make “opting in” the default choice to being an organ
donor have significantly higher rates of people who are organ donors than countries
that make the default to “opt out” of being a donor.
A) True
B) False
4. In what way or ways does the food environment contribute to the obesity problem?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Food is ubiquitous
Food is cheap
Food is calorie- dense
All of the above
5. What is a New York City solution that focuses on providing information?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Healthy Bodegas
Calorie Posting
A Tax on Sugar-Sweetened Beverages
Health Bucks
6. The New York City Standards for Food Purchased and Served do not allow the
following:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Beverages with less than 25 calories per 8 ounces
More than two servings of fruits and vegetables
Deep frying of foods
A range of 500-600 calories for breakfast
SESSION 14: CDC SESSION
1. In how many states does NVDRS currently operate?
a. 6
b. 12
c. 18
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d. 24
2. Approximately how many violence-related deaths occur in the United States every
year?
a. 10,000
b. 50,000
c. 70,000
d. 100,000
3. In the United States:
a. Suicides are more common than homicides
b. Homicides are more common than suicides
c. Suicides and homicides are equally common
4. The National Violent Death Reporting System (NVDRS) collects existing data from all
sources except:
a. death certificates
b. birth certificates
c. coroner/medical examiner reports
d. police reports
e. crime laboratories
MSS/RPS/YPS LECTURE
1) ACCORDING TO THE WORLD HEALTH ORGANIZATION (WHO), HEALTH IS DEFINED
AS—
A) THE ABSENCE OF DISEASE OR INFIRMITY
B) THE STATE OF COMPLETE PHYSICAL, MENTAL, AND SOCIAL WELL-BEING AND NOT
MERELY THE ABSENCE OF DISEASE OR INFIRMITY
C) IT IS NOT DEFINED BY THE WHO
D) THE STATE OF PHYSICAL WELL BEING ALONE
2) ACCORDING TO THE CENTERS FOR DISEASE CONTROL AND PREVENTION, THE TEN
GREAT
PUBLIC HEALTH ACHIEVEMENTS IN THE US FROM 1900-1999, INCLUDE:
A)
B)
C)
D)
AIR QUALITY
SAFER WORKPLACES
DRINKING WATER QUALITY
ALL OF THE ABOVE
3) THE STRATEGIC DIRECTIONS OF THE NATIONAL PREVENTION STRATEGY INCLUDE:
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A) HEALTHY AND SAFE COMMUNITY ENVIRONMENTS B) CLINICAL AND COMMUNITY
PREVENTIVE SERVICES C) EMPOWERED PEOPLE
D) ELIMINATION OF HEALTH DISPARITIES
E) ALL OF THE ABOVE
ACMQ PLEANRY 2: GLOBAL TRIGGER TOOL
PENDING
SESSION 16: HOW TO BUILD A SUSTAINABLE LIFESTYLE PROGRAM
1. We think of lifestyle interventions as diet and exercise, but other interventions that
can be successfully incorporated into a Lifestyle Medicine practice include:
A) Teaching patients effective stress management techniques
B) Education about transitioning to a plant-based diet
C) Helping patients to develop effective communication skills to improve their
relationships
D) All of the above
2. Which of the following statements is true?
A) The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (PPACA) mandates that health
insurance plans pay for clinical preventive services, but only those given A
recommendations from the United States Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF)
B) Most insurance plans do not cover nutrition education services for patients with
diabetes
C) Medicare will pay for Ornish and Pritikin style lifestyle intervention programs
D) You can only bill for lifestyle interventions that are provided by a nutritionist
3. Which of the following is NOT correct, regarding using a packaged curriculum for
lifestyle interventions?
a. Reduces operational costs
b. Requires more time than individual patient visits
c. Simplifies start-up and training requirements
d. Provides access to additional reimbursement options
4. How do the effects of outpatient lifestyle programs compare to those from intensive
residential lifestyle programs?
a. Produce similar reductions in multiple risk factors and biometrics
b. Produce greater reductions in multiple risk factors and biometrics
c. Outpatient programs do not produce much reduction in risk factors or biometric
measures
d. Outpatient programs cost much less and have a higher cost-benefit ratio
e. A & D
SESSION 17: HEALTH BEHAVIOR CONTAGIOUS?
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1. Every health topic can be viewed through the network perspective:
A) True
B) False
2. Random sampling is a valid and adequate way of measuring sociometric social
network concepts:
A) True
B) False
3. Which of the following social contacts does NOT have a significant influence on
weight gain?
A) family
B) significant others
C) neighbors
D) friends
4. Which of the following social influence factors is associated with intention to lose
weight?
A) number of social contacts trying to lose weight
B) acceptability, or approval, of weight loss within one’s social network
C) encouragement from others or sharing weight loss information
D) all of the above
5. Which of the following are plausible methods by which social networks may be
harnessed to promote weight loss?
A) modifying social norms within social networks
B) creating a new, weight control social network
C) promoting weight loss to a network member with social capital
D) all of the above
SESSION 18: STATE PERSPECTIVE ON US HEALTHCARE
PENDING
SESSION 20: IMMUNIZATION UPDATES
1.
Decreases in meningococcal disease in recent years are likely attributable to
which of the following:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Direct effect of vaccination in the target population
Herd immunity among unvaccinated persons
Unknown factors
Both A and C
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2.
Which of the following is not a current recommendation for meningococcal
vaccination:
A)
B)
C)
D)
12.
All adolescents aged 11 to 19 years
All children aged 2 to 10 years
Travelers to areas where meningococcal disease is epidemic or hyperendemic
A booster dose at age 16 years for healthy adolescents vaccinated at age 11 or
3.
The highest incidence of pertussis occurs in infants aged <1 year. The second
highest incidence age group is which of the following:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Children aged 1 through 6 years
Children aged 7 through 10 years
Adolescents aged 11 through 19 years
Adults aged >20 years
4.
Which of the following groups is recommended Tdap vaccination:
A)
B)
C)
D)
All healthcare workers who have not previously received Tdap
All adults who have not previously received Tdap
Pregnant women who have not previously received Tdap
All of the above
5.
Which of the following characterizes the burden of pertussis in the US:
A)
27,550 cases reported in 2010
B)
Waning of vaccine-associated immunity leading to increased disease
susceptibility
C)
Case-fatality rate approximately 1 per 1000 cases.
D)
All of the above
6. Parents of an 8-month-old infant bring their child into your office in the United States
for a routine visit. They note during the visit that they are planning to travel to South
Asia with their infant starting the following week, and ask, in addition to other advice
about travel, whether a dose of MMR vaccine is indicated. The child has no other
contraindications to receipt of the vaccine. Which of the following is the correct
answer?
A. Yes. Current recommendations call for vaccinating children at a younger age if
they are traveling abroad. Children 6-11 months-old should receive one dose of
vaccine.
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B. No. The child should follow the standard recommendations for the 2-dose series
of MMR vaccine, with the first dose at age 12-15 months and the second dose at
age 4-6 years.
C. No. Children don’t need a measles vaccine before they travel.
D. No, measles does not occur in Asia.
7. For the child in question #1, what are the recommendations for the MMR vaccine in
the future?
A. The child does not need any more doses of MMR vaccine since they got it at a
young age.
B. The child should follow the standard recommendations for the 2-dose series of
MMR vaccine, with the first dose at age 12-15 months and the second dose at
age 4-6 years regardless of the early first dose.
C. Only one more dose of MMR is needed prior to starting school.
D. Only one more dose of MMR is needed as long as it is 28 days after the first
dose.
8. A 40 year old female comes to your office with a fever, rash, and slight cough. She just
returned from a trip to France, and does not remember if she was vaccinated for
measles. You suspect measles. What should you do?
A. Tell your colleagues. This is the first case of measles you have seen.
B. Promptly isolate the patient to avoid disease transmission, immediately
report the suspect case to the health department, and obtain specimens for
confirmation of disease.
C. Send her to the hospital. You know that measles can be severe.
D. It can’t be measles, measles doesn’t occur in Europe.
9. Parents of an 18-month-old child bring their child into your office in the United States
for a routine well child visit. During the visit they tell you that they are planning a
summer vacation to Germany and heard that there were a lot of measles in Western
Europe. They ask if their child needs the MMR vaccine. You check her immunization
record and note that the child had received one dose of MMR vaccine at her 12 month
visit. Do you administer a second dose of MMR at this visit?
A. Yes. Current recommendations call for vaccinating children with two doses of
MMR, separated by at least 28 days before they travel abroad.
B. No. The child has already received one dose of MMR vaccine at age 12 months
and does not need another dose until age 4-6 years.
C. MMR vaccine is not necessary prior to travel to Western Europe.
D. A second dose of MMR is not necessary because it doesn’t improve the vaccine
efficacy against measles.
SESSION 21: BREAST FEEDING
1. Early and exclusive breastfeeding have the following health benefits:
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a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
Reduced risk of hospitalization for pneumonia
Reduced risk of childhood obesity
Reduced risk of maternal ovarian cancer
Reduced risk of maternal and child diabetes
A and b
A,b and d
All of the above
2. The Surgeon General’s Call to Action on Breastfeeding calls for
a. Work toward paid maternity leave for all employed mothers.
b. Mandatory pumping rooms in all federal buildings
c. Work toward unpaid maternity/paternity leave for all employed parents
3.
USPSTF recommends:
a.
interventions during pregnancy and after birth to promote and support
breastfeeding
b. system-level interventions with senior leadership support for breastfeeding.
c.
interventions to include both prenatal and postnatal components as most effective
at increasing breastfeeding duration
d. a and c
e. all of the above
4.
At the population level in the US, early and exclusive breastfeeding:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Significantly reduce the risk of SIDS
Could save $billions in health care costs in the US
Are associated with disparities in infant survival
A and b
All of the above
SESSION 22: HIV PREVENTION
1) A 32 year-old male presents to your office interested in becoming circumcised.
He heard that it could prevent him from contracting HIV. He is monogamous
with his female partner of 18 months, but he is uncertain whether she is. His HIV
test during this visit is negative. What should you advise him regarding HIV
circumcision and HIV prevention in general?
a. To encourage his partner to get HIV tested
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b. To abstain from sexual activity until the wound is completely healed after
circumcision as he may be more likely to become HIV infected during this
period
c. That male circumcision only provides partial protection and therefore
should be considered in conjunction with other prevention measures
such as mutual monogamy and correct and consistent condom use
d. That male circumcision will reduce sexual pleasure
e. A, B, and C
f. All of the above
2) The 32 year-old male returns to your office before becoming circumcised. He
brings his female partner of 18 months who recently tested HIV positive. She
notes that her CD4 count is 578 cells/mm3. She is not currently taking
antiretroviral medications. His HIV test during this visit is once again negative.
They indicate a desire to become pregnant. What should you advise them
regarding HIV prevention in this situation?
a. For her to consider starting antiretroviral medications as a way to
prevent transmitting HIV to her male partner
b. Screen both partners for sexually transmitted infections and treat if
present
c. For him to consider male circumcision as he initially planned
d. For them to consider in vitro fertilization
e. A, B, and C
f. All of the above
3) A 39 year-old male presents to your office asking you to prescribe a pill for HIV
prevention. He heard that by taking this pill as pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) it
could prevent him from getting HIV. He primarily engages in anal receptive
intercourse and reports six partners in the last 3 months; two of which were
anonymous. What would you do next?
a. Counsel to him to reduce his number of partners and encourage correct
and consistent condom use.
b. Screen him for signs and symptoms of acute HIV infection, test him for
HIV and document his negative HIV antibody test immediately before
starting PrEP medication.
c. Encourage him to be circumcised as a method of HIV prevention.
d. Screen for hepatitis B infection and vaccinate against hepatitis B if
susceptible before starting PrEP medication.
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e. A, B, and D
f. All of the above
4) The same 39 year-old male returns to your office 3 months after starting
Truvada® as HIV pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP). He received a three month
supply during his last visit. He reports no side effects with the medication. He
notes having 2 partners in the last 3 months; both of which wore condoms
during anal intercourse. He asks for a refill of his medication. What would you do
next?
a. Provide him another 3 months of medication since he had protected
intercourse since his last HIV test.
b. Test him for HIV and document his negative HIV antibody test
immediately before providing additional PrEP medication.
c. Check his serum creatinine levels.
d. Assess his medication adherence and encourage 100% compliance.
e. A, B, and D
f. B, C, and D
g. All of the above
5) A 35 year-old female presents to your office with her male partner of 12 months.
Her male partner was just diagnosed with HIV. Her HIV test during this visit is
negative. Which of the following options has NOT been shown in clinical studies
to prevent male-to-female HIV transmission?
a. Tenofovir microbicide vaginal gel
b. Male circumcision
c. Antiretroviral medications as pre-exposure prophylaxis
d. Treatment of the HIV-infected partner regardless of CD4 count
e. All of the above have been found to effectively prevent male-to-female
HIV transmission
SESSION 23: SCIENTIFIC ABSTRACT SESSION
1. Which of the following is true regarding the effects of the fruit and vegetable
concentrate in this trial?
A. Pre-prandial endothelial function significantly decreased in the treatment group
compared to baseline values.
B. There were no significant changes in serum β-carotene or vitamin E levels in the
treatment group versus placebo.
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C. Flow-mediated dilation of the brachial artery did not significantly change in the
treatment group versus placebo.
D. Systolic blood pressure significantly decreased in the treatment group versus placebo.
2. Which of the following is NOT a reason why endothelial function was used as the
primary outcome measure in this trial?
A. Endothelial reactivity may be impaired in overweight adult males.
B. Other measures of cardiovascular health, such as serum lipids and inflammatory
markers, were not available.
D. Endothelial function improves in response to cardiovascular risk modification efforts.
C. Improvement in endothelial function has been correlated with decreased
cardiovascular risk.
3. Which atypical antipsychotic in the study has the greatest degree of weight gain?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Quetiapine
Aripiprazole
Risperadone
There is no difference in weight gain
4. Which atypical antipsychotic lead to the creates increase in blood glucose level?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Quetiapine
Aripiprazole
Risperadone
There is no difference in blood glucose levels.
5. What benefit do atypical antipsychotics have in comparison with typical (first
generation) antipsychotics with regard to potential side effects?
A) A decreased incidence of metabolic side effects.
B) Have no interactions on endocrine hormones
C) Substantially lower the incidence of extrapyramidal adverse effects and reduce the
risk of tardive dyskinesia
D) Have been available longer than typical antipsychotics and thus have better known
side effect profiles.
6. What accepted pharmacological treatments currently exist to deal with weight gain
due to antipsychotic medications?
A) Orlistat (Xenical)
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B) No accepted pharmacological treatments currently exist to deal with weight gain due
to antipsychotic medications
C) Atypical antipsychotics do not cause excess weight gain
D) Sibutramine (Meridia)
7. Which is not considered part of the metabolic syndrome?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Blood pressure: ≥ 140/90 mmHg
Central obesity
Dyslipidemia
Hypothyroidism
SESSION 24: UPDATE FROM THE TASK FORCE
1. Which one of the following is true regarding the focus of interventions reviewed by
the U.S. Clinical Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) and interventions reviewed by
the Community Preventive Services Task Force?
A) The Clinical Preventive Services Task Force evaluates evidence on effectiveness of
healthcare system strategies to motivate health care providers to deliver potentially
effective clinical interactions
B) Both Task Forces routinely examine the evidence on effectiveness of clinical
treatments for patients with acute and chronic illnesses.
C) Once the U.S. Clinical Preventive Services determines the effectiveness of a screening
or prevention interaction between healthcare providers and their patients, the
Community Preventive Services Task Force can examine the effectiveness of healthcare
system strategies to increase or improve the delivery of that interaction.
D) The Community Preventive Services Task Force examines the evidence on
effectiveness of clinical interactions between healthcare providers and their patients.
2. The Community Preventive Services Task Force examines the available evidence for
which of the following outcomes?
A) Effectiveness of the intervention; applicability of the evidence to important settings
and populations; additional benefits and harms of the intervention; barriers to adoption
or implementation of the intervention
B) Clinical effectiveness of medications
C) Clinical effectiveness of medical devices
3) Although all of these outcomes were examined in the Community Guide review of
team-based care, which one most directly contributed to the Task Force conclusion
regarding effectiveness?
A) Increase in medication adherence
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B) Increase in the proportion of patients with controlled blood pressure
C) Increase in satisfaction with care
D) Improved health-related quality of life
4. The Community Guide website (www.thecommunityguide.org) can be used to access
which of the following types of information?
A) Healthcare services in your community
B) Findings and recommendations of the Community Preventive Services Task Force
C) Systematic review results on the effectiveness of various clinical preventive services
5. Which of the following is meant to be demonstrated in the Community Guide in
Action success story series?
A) How others successfully utilized information found in the Community Guide
B) How healthcare providers successfully utilized the findings and recommendations of
the Clinical Preventive Services Task Force
C) How to successfully conduct a systematic review
SESSION 25: PRACTICING WHAT WE PREACH
1. Physician burn-out and poor mental well-being has been associated with all of the
following except:
A. Medical errors
B. Inadequate quality improvement activities
C. Lack of patient counseling about healthy lifestyles
D. Ineffective communication with patients
E. An open culture of discussing physician challenges and burn-out
2. Among practicing physicians, burn-out has been show to be as high as:
A. 45%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 75%
3. Categories of strategies for managing physician stress and burn-out include:
A. Reducing work-life conflict; decreasing interactions with patients; minimizing
time dedicated for self-care
B. Supportive relationships at home and at work; leading a healthy lifestyle;
meaningful interactions with patients; decreased academic duties
C. Supportive personal and co-worker relationships; minimizing time spent on
administrative tasks; decreasing work hours; and leading a healthy lifestyle
D. Supportive relationships at home and at work; organizational culture to
minimize discussion about burnout; leading a healthy lifestyle
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4. Compared with their peers, U.S. medical students' preventive screening rates are:
a. higher
b. average
c. lower
5. What are the two areas where US medical students' habits are not
excellent/markedly better than their same-age peers?
a.
b.
c.
d.
exercise
smoking
fruit / vegetable consumption
binge drinking
6. Exercise, tobacco, diet, weight, and alcohol account for what share of US mortality
rates?
a.
b.
c.
d.
20%
40%
60%
80%
7. In the US, which group of males have a longer life expectancy?
a. Physicians
b. Lawyers
c. All professionals
8. Which of the following statements is true of U.S. physicians:
a. Physicians are generally healthier than the rest of the population
b. Physician health is generally the same as the rest of the population
c. Physicians are generally not as healthy as the rest of the population
SESSION 26: SCIENTIFIC ABSTRACT SESSION
1. Incidence rate of degenerative disc disease in the US Military as a whole has
increased almost 2-fold between 2001 and 2010. The bulk of this increase is due to an
almost 3-fold increase in the incidence of degenerative disk disease in:
a. The Navy
b. The Army
c. The Air Force
d. The Marine Corps
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2. The vast majority (approximately 98%) of degenerative disease exacerbations among
the US Military Service Members in the deployed setting result in the Service Members
being:
a. Medically evacuated from theater
b. Treated in theater and returned to their assigned units
c. Discharged from Military service
3. Risk of all-cause medical evacuation from theater among the US Military Service
Members deploying with existing degenerative disc disease compared to those
deploying without degenerative disc disease is:
a. Approximately equal
b. Likely increased, but without reaching statistical significance in the cohort
evaluated in this study
c. Increased
d. Decreased
4. Which of the following statements about tobacco-dependence treatment methods
and their effectiveness is NOT correct:
A. The quit rate from unaided methods after an average of 10 months of follow-up
is about 7%
B. Between about 25% and 33% of smokers who use medicines and counseling can
achieve abstinence for 6 months.
C. In the USA, 90% of former smokers state they quit unaided.
D. Medicines and counseling have the same effectiveness and therefore only one
method.
5. An intensive tobacco dependence treatment includes the interventions below, Except
for:
A. Combination of medicines and counseling sessions tailored to risk category
B. Use of single or combinations of medications at the highest effective dose
C. A maximum of 4 counseling sessions of 10 minutes each
D. Involvement of multiple types of providers in treatment encounters
6. Recording the smoking status of patients as a vital sign at each visit in an electronic
medical record can provide the following information to the manager of a tobaccodependence treatment program, Except:
A. The list of the program’s patients and smoking status at various follow-up times
so that relapse prevention can be offered to successful quitter.
B. The program abstinence rates on a month-by-month basis.
C. The program’s “intent-to-treat” abstinence rates on long-term basis.
D. The list of the program’s patients and smoking status at various follow-up times
so that relapse treatment can be offered following a successful quit attempt.
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INSTITUTE: MENTAL HEALTH PROBLEMS
1. Compared to the general population, people with a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus
have an increased risk for development of:
A. Depression
B. Bipolar disorder
C. Anxiety
D. Schizophrenia
E. Dementia
2. Examples of mind-body interventions that could be useful in management of chronic
disease include:
A. Reflexology, iridology, aromatherapy
B. Nutritional supplementation, candling, heliotherapy
C. Meditation, autogenic training, imagery
D. Kinesiology, magnetic therapy, rolfing
3. Which of the following is true?
A. Mind-body intervention is another name for alternative medicine.
B. Integrative medicine is generally not evidence based.
C. Mind-body interventions can be used to change behavior.
D. Mind-body interventions do not tend to have a physiologic effect on the patient.
4. Common physical health issues among patient with mental health illness include:
A. Choking, reduced immunity to infections, diabetes insipidus
B. Unsteady gait, dehydration, tobacco dependence
C. Impaired cognition, cataracts, diarrhea
D. Weight gain related to psychiatric medications, constipation, falls
5. Health screening and preventive interventions can be challenging among patients
with mental illness due to all of the following except:
A. Tendency to present late with advanced signs and symptoms of preventable
disease
B. Lifestyle choices may put patients at increased risk of preventable disease
compared to the general population
C. Issues related to the patient’s capacity and consent abilities
D. Patient adherence to recommended screening and follow-up schedules
INSTITUTE: AEROSPACE MEDICINE
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1. Three potential mechanisms which reduce potential for acquiring airborne infections
in commercial aircraft include (pick the best answer):
a. Use of HEPA filters, regular between-trip aircraft cleaning, use of anti-bacterial
materials for aircraft interiors
b. Use of HEPA filters, low humidity, high rates of air exchange
c. Low humidity, high rates of air exchange, regular between-trip aircraft cleaning
d. Front to back air flow, use of anti-bacterial materials for aircraft interiors, use of HEPA
filters
2. The most likely transmission mode for infections acquired in flight is:
a. Airborne
b. Vector borne
c. Contact (droplet and/or direct)
d. Fecal-oral
3. Aircraft disinsection is important in preventing all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Malaria
b. West Nile Virus
c. Cholera
d. Yellow Fever
4. While traveling by air, what is the FiO2 of the atmosphere outside of the aircraft once
cruise altitude at 40,000 feet (12,192 m) is reached?
A) 25%
B) 21%
C) 19%
D) 10%
5. Boyle’s Law explains which of the following phenomena related to air travel?
A) Trapped gas within the abdomen may expand by as much as 25% at cruise altitude.
B) Bubbles are released into solution when a can of carbonated soda is opened during
the beverage service.
C) Thromboembolic disease is more likely in passengers traveling by air longer than 8
hours in a flight.
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D) If you have a short lay-over, your boarding gate will be on exact opposite side of the
airport.
6. According to the data presented by the speaker, the most common medical
emergency on an airliner in-flight is:
A: A panic attach exacerbated by alcohol use.
B: A simple faint.
C: Chest pain.
D: Generalized seizures.
7. US Airlines are required by the FAA to have a medical kit available for use by medical
volunteers. Required contents in that kit include:
A: Several forms of injectable epinephrine.
B: IV supplies
C: Sublingual nitroglycerin.
D: Blood pressure cuff.
E: All or the above.
8. An AED will be available on an airliner. It would appropriate to apply and AED to a
victim and push the analyze button in the follow circumstances:
A: To a person experiencing chest pain.
B: To a person who fainted, but is now awake.
C: To a person who is unconscious and not breathing.
D: All of the above.
9. The “1% Rule” (Best Answer):
a. Is a probability based approach to assessing risk for the occurrence of medically
significant events while in-flight.
b. Has been confirmed in a number of randomized controlled trials in aircrew.
c. Is equally applicable to single or multi-seat aircraft.
d. Describes the chances pilots will land aircraft safely in bad weather.
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MOC PART IV EXPERT PANEL
1. Self-assessment questions are part of which MOC component?
a. MOC Part 3
b. MOC Part 1
c. MOC Part 2a
d. MOC Part 2b
2. To determine your ABPM certification expiration date, the best place to check would
be:
a. The ABPM website
b. Your state medical board
c. The ACPM website
d. The ACCME website
3. Which MOC Part IV tool includes reviews from peers, supervisors and supervisees?
a. Report Card
b. Clinical Practice Evaluation
c. 360 degree Feedback
d. Portfolio
4. Where can I find MOC Part II eligible educational opportunities?
a. The ABPM Approved LLSA/MOC Activity Search Menu
b. These are not listed
c. The ACPM CME/MOC Center
d. Both A & C
PLENARY SESSION 3: BEHAVIORAL ECONOMICS
PENDING
SESSION 29: ENTREPRENEURISM: OPPORTUNITIES IN PM
1. Key questions for small business entrepreneurs include all EXCEPT:
a. What are the services and/or products I am going to sell?
b. Who are the potential buyers of my services and/or products?
c. How will I reach my potential customers and convince them of my value
proposition?
d. How will I build the capacity, staffing, or infrastructure to deliver what I sell?
e. Should I buy a boat or a vacation home first with my first million dollars?
2. The most likely source of disruptive innovations in any industry is:
a. Large, integrated market leaders that follow proven business models
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b.
c.
d.
e.
Anyone with an MBA and a consulting toolkit
Someone who can build a better “mousetrap” with all the bells and whistles
Industry incumbents that need to protect existing markets
Often found in providers of low-cost, low-quality, high-access services and/or
products
3. The path to entrepreneurial success:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Is always easy and straightforward
Follows a predictable path that can be replicated by anyone who follows it
Can be found on late-night telemarketing shows
Requires you to be ruthless and uncaring with people
May often bring you to the brink of failure
SESSION 30: ABPM
1. The requirements to sit for the ABPM certification examinations are:
A. A valid and unrestricted license to practice medicine in the US or Canada.
B. Completion of three years of ACGME-accredited residency training.
C. Full-time practice, teaching, research, or training during one of the three
years preceding application for the certification exam.
D. All of the above.
2. The duration of certificates issued by the American Board of Preventive Medicine is:
A. Three years
B. Five years
C. Seven years
D. Ten years
3. The deadline to apply for certification by the ABPM is:
A. April 1
B. May 1
C. June 1
D. July 1
4. In order to maintain certification by the American Board of Preventive Medicine a
diplomate must:
A. Maintain a current valid and unrestricted license to practice medicine in each
U.S. or Canadian jurisdiction in which he or she holds a license.
B. Complete Life-long Learning and Self-assessment continuing medical
education.
C. Pass a written examination.
D. Complete practice performance assessments and quality improvement
activities.
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E. All of the above.
5. Maintenance of Certification (MOC):
A. Is the process for assessment of continuing competencies of physicians and
recertification in all specialties recognized by the American Board of Medical
Specialties.
B. Is the same thing as “keeping your state medical license current.”
C. Is optional for board certified physicians who do not practice clinical
medicine.
D. Does not need to be completed prior to the diplomate’s certificate expiration
date as long as the diplomate has initiated the process.
6. MOC Part IV:
A. Consists of two or more cycles of practice assessment, identification
/implementation of quality improvement plan, targeted practice reassessment.
B. Must be completed after completion of MOC Parts I, II and IV.
C. Is twice in a ten year cycle for American Board of Preventive Medicine
(ABPM) diplomates to maintain certification
D. Is optional for board certified physicians who do not practice clinical
medicine.
SESSION 31: USE OF IT
PENDING
SESSION 32: ADOLESCENT HEALTH UPDATES
1. In sports and recreation, what age groups are at higher risk for traumatic brain
injuries? (select your best option)
A) 20-30 year olds
B) 5-9 year olds
C) 10-14 year olds
D) 0-4 year olds
2. Concussions occur due to (mark all that apply)
A) direct blow to the head only
B) any blow to the body that results in rapid movement of the head.
C) all of the above
D) not applicable
3. Athletes with suspected concussion should (select your best option)
A) return to play after 15 minutes rest
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B) remove from play and return to play 30 minutes after the injury event
C) Send him/her home
D) None of the above
4. Benefits of the Heads Up Program
A)
B)
C)
D)
Decrease the incidence of TBI
Fosters community involvement
Prevents other injuries
All of the above
5. How many children in America sustain a sports-related injury serious enough to
require medical attention each year?
A)
B)
C)
D)
1 million
3.5 million
8 million
12 million
6. What percent of parents are confident in their own abilities to prevent youth sports
injuries?
A)
B)
C)
D)
10%
20%
30%
40%
7. What is the most popular team sport among children ages 5 to 14 in the United
States?
A)
B)
C)
D)
baseball/softball/t-ball
basketball
soccer
football
8. What percent of parents are confident in their children’s coaches' abilities to prevent
youth sports injuries?
A)
B)
C)
D)
9%
19%
29%
39%
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9. Which of the following specific youth sport injury do most parents worry a great deal
or quite a bit about?
A)
B)
C)
D)
lacerations
concussions
broken bones
dehydration
SESSION 33: INTERNATIONAL HEALTH/JAPAN DISASTER
1. Radiation is so frightening and dangerous because it is invisible, odorless, and
there are no countermeasures against environmental exposure.
a. True
b. False
2. Dosimetry is the best method to determine radiation exposure because it
provides objective means to calculate that exposure.
a. True
b. False
3. Which of the following represent the greatest public health risk for U.S. Forces
and citizens in Japan during the Great Tohoku Earthquake, Tsunami, and
Fukushima Dai-ichi nuclear crisis:
a. Elevated risk of cancer, especially in children
b. Psychological effects
c. Increase threat of food-borne illnesses
d. Exposure to asbestos, and other harmful chemicals released into the
environment
4. Risk communication during a public health crisis involves:
a. Carefully concealing harmful messages from the public so as not to cause
panic
b. Gathering all the facts as long as necessary before making public
statements to ensure all details are correct
c. A rapid and honest appraisal of the situation, even before all the facts are
in so people know what you know and what you don’t know, and when
you might know more
d. Can be done by anyone, even without specific training
5. Physicians and medical providers are knowledgeable and reliable sources of
information on radiation risks because of their training:
a. True
b. False
SESSION 34: BEHAVIORAL HEALTH IN UNIFORMED SERVICES
1. Which of the following is a public-health measure implemented to minimize the
mental health impact of the wars in Afghanistan and Iraq?
A) implementation of the electronic medical record
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B) stigma reduction campaigns
C) increased use of polypharmacy
D) routine service discharge for mental health conditions
2.
Which potentially stressful deployment-related experience remains poorly
understood in spite of a decade of war?
A)
B)
C)
D)
witnessing combat deaths
sleep deprivation
prolonged separation from family
transition home from war
3. What percentage of service members and veterans in need of mental health services
do not receive care?
A)
B)
C)
D)
30%
15%
50%
75%
4. Which study is the largest ever conducted on mental health risk and resilience among
military personnel?
A) Army SAMS
B) Army STARRS
C) Army ASAP
D) Army RISK
5. The New Soldier Study (NSS) enrolls Soldiers at which point of service?
A)
B)
C)
D)
recruitment
accession
basic training
first assignment
SESSION 35: SCIENTIFIC ABSTRACT SESSION
1. Approximately, what percentage of Botswana women surveyed know that HPV
causes cervical cancer?
A. 40%
B. 1%
C. 5%
D. 20%
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2. Botswana who have had a Pap smear have are likely to have the following
characteristics.
A. older, lower income, HIV positive
B. younger, have children, HIV positive
C. older, higher income, HIVpositive
D. younger, lower income, have children
3. What proportion of distracted driving offenses involve persons that are also
intoxicated?
A)
B)
C)
D)
50%
33%
25%
10%
4. Which of the following is not true?
A) Alcohol reduces inhibitions against using electronic devices while driving
B) Drunk & distracted drivers are not only physically/cognitively impaired from alcohol,
but also visually impaired
C) Lack of dexterity and focus from intoxication reduces the amount of time required
for electronic device use
D) Distracted driving laws such as cell phone bans have not proven to be effective.
5. As of 2012, the US Preventive Services Task Force has made A-level or B-level
screening recommendations for all of the following mental health and substance abuse
conditions except:
a.
Alcohol Misuse
b.
Suicidal Ideation
c.
Depression
d.
Tobacco Use
SESSION 36: CANCER PREVENTION
1. What percent of cancer incidence can be prevented through behavior and lifestyle
changes?
a. 0%
b. 10%
c. 25%
d. 50%
e. Greater than 50%
2. In which cancers is there evidence that exercise can influence survival?
a. Breast
b. Colorectal
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c. Prostate
d. Glioma
e. All of the above
3. There is more evidence for the role of stress in the cancer process in the following
area:
a. Stress and initiation of disease
b. Stress and progression of disease
4. Which dietary factor has been shown to influence breast cancer survival and prevent
cancer recurrence?
a. Meeting protein requirements
b. Reducing dietary carbohydrate intake
c. Maintaining a healthy weight
d. Consuming 3 or more servings of dairy products daily
5. Researchers from the Shanghai Breast Cancer Study found that women with a BMI
of 25 kg/m2 and over had a (n) ______ five-year survival rate as compared to women
with lower BMIs.
a. decreased
b. increased
c. unchanged
6. The WHEL Study evaluated breast cancer recurrence in pre- and post-menopausal
women by comparing a diet high in fruit and vegetables to a diet with
a. typical American carbohydrate and fat content.
b. fat > 35 percent of calories.
c. 5 fruits and vegetables per day.
SESSION 38: FOCUS ON PUBLIC SECTOR
1. As an initial step to finding a public sector job that is appropriate for your
education, experience, and interests, you would first (SELECT THE BEST OPTION):
a. Send your electronic resume to an internet-based job bank
b. Conduct an honest self-assessment of your professional strengths and
weaknesses
c. Apply for a job, right away, if it is at a high organizational level
d. Consult with private job recruiters
2. Which of the following statements describe opportunities in international public
health for American physicians?
a. Almost all opportunities involve direct patient care.
b. More opportunities are available through international organizations
such as World Health Orgnaization than through US government agencies
or NGos in the US
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c. It is easier to obtain funding for international research by applying
through a US institution than through an institution in the host country
d. a and c
e. all of the above
3. Private sector preventive medicine jobs are consistently better than public sector
PM jobs with respect to:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Salary
Benefits
Hours
Satisfaction
None of the above
SESSION 39: INFORMATICS: PUBLIC HEALTH CENTERS
1. To earn Medicare Meaningful Use incentives in the first year, eligible providers and
hospitals must (Select the best answer):
A. Implement a “certified” electronic health record
B. Use it to produce certain Quality Measures related to their practice
C. Use it to submit a test of any one of: an electronic immunization report,
electronic syndromic surveillance report, or (for hospitals only) an electronic
laboratory result report for a reportable condition to the public health
jurisdiction, if that agency is able to receive electronic reports using the
standards in the Meaningful Use rules
D. Be willing to see any Medicaid patient that presents for care
E. A, B, and C
2. Select the false statement:
A. All public health agencies are equipped today to receive all electronic messages
using Meaningful Use standards.
B. Among other things, the Meaningful Use incentives are designed to facilitate
improved quality of care.
C. State Health Departments are vigorously working to accept data from
Meaningful Use components and are at different stages of development.
D. The Department of Health and Human Services is tasked with developing a
variety of rules and standards which guide or will guide electronic data
interactions among health care organizations in the USA.
3. The following components are part of meaningful use:
A. Laboratory reporting
B. Immunization records
C. Syndromic surveillance
D. A, B and C
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E. A & B only
4. Select the best answer to finish this sentence: The ultimate goal of exchanging
immunization data is to:
A. improve vaccine delivery to older adults.
B. improve vaccine status among all age groups.
C. demonstrate compliance with federal mandates.
D. retain states’ access to federally funded public health grants.
SESSION 40: UPDATE FROM PH CAREERS
1. Which of the following was used as the proxy for exposure to a burn pit:
A) The amount of time a service member was deployed
B) The location of service member
C) The occupation of service member
D) A diagnosis of a respiratory condition
2. What was the primary reason for including a comparison group of service members
who had been stationed in Korea?
A) To address the potential impact of the “healthy deployer” effect
B) Deployers to Korea are exposed to burn pit emissions
C) Deployers to Korea are exposed to excessive levels of particulate matter
D) It represented a “convenience” control group
3. What is the major limitation of using deployment health assessments (questionnaire)
to assess exposure to burn pit smoke?
A) Incomplete assessment of exposure
B) Missing data
C) Recall bias
D) None of the above
4. Vaccine Adverse Event Surveillance can provide all the following EXCEPT:
A) Timely situational awareness of a possible vaccine-associated serious reaction
B) An indication that further epidemiologic study is required
C) Facts useful in vaccination risk communication
D) Proof of a causal link between influenza vaccines and Guillain–Barré syndrome
5. There are gender differences in vaccination immune responses AND in vaccine side
effects/adverse reactions.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
SESSION 41: USPSTF IN PRACTICE
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1. Which is a challenge that the USPSTF may face in reviewing evidence and making
recommendations for racial and ethnic groups?
A. These groups are often studied in clinical trials
B. Representation of racial and ethnic groups in proportion to their representation
in the overall population ensures acceptable group-specific results in clinical
trials
C. Standard definitions for racial/ethnic groups allow a full understanding of the
heterogeneity within defined groups
D. Baseline risk for racial and ethnic groups for many chronic diseases may be
dissimilar to the general population
2. Which of the following is true regarding challenges that the USPSTF may face in
reviewing evidence and making recommendations for older adults?
A. Older adults are well represented in clinical prevention trials
B. Age is not the only factor that describes the variation in health in older adults
C. Life expectancy is very important in determining net benefits and easy to
determine
D. Comorbidities while common do not modify prevention considerations
E. Outcomes of importance are similar for all adults
3. What are the core clinical preventive services (CPS) recommended for older adults
(age >65) and why are these CPS considered essential?
A. Influenza and pneumococcal vaccinations
B. Colorectal cancer screening
C. Breast cancer screening for women
D. Screening for high blood pressure and for elevated blood lipids.
E. All of the above
4. Which of the core clinical preventive services (CPS) are associated with the largest
racial and ethnic disparities in provision?
A. pneumococcal and influenza vaccinations.
B. Blood Pressure Screening
C. Breast Cancer Screening
D. Colorectal Cancer Screening