Question bank
1) Clozapine contains which of the following moiety?
(a) Flourobutyrophenone
(b) Dibenzodiazepine
(c) Dibenzoxazepin
(d)Diphenylbutylpipperidine
2) Drugs acting on Nigrostriatal pathways lead to
(a) Antipsychotic effects
(b) EPS (c) Anti-cholinergic side effects
(d) None of above
3) Z-(o-chlorophenyl)-2-methylaminocyclohexanone is IUPAC name for
(a) Donezepil
(b) Meprobamate
(c) Ketamine
(d) Chlorphenesin
(c) Ketamine
(d) Isoflurane
4.Adrenocortical suppression is seen with
(a) Etomidate
(b) Propofol
As per D&C Act and Rules, the GMP is included under Schedule ………
a) W
b) G
c) M
d) P
(1) Which component is used to control intensity of radiation in UV instruments?
a) Monochromator
b) Occluder
c) slits
d) Chopper
(2) Diluent used for formulation of pellets by Spheronization method is……….
a) Lactose
b) MCC c) Starch
d) PVP
(3) Which test is used to determine the wetting angle?
a) Dew point test
b) Draves test
c) Cloud point test
d) Kraft test
(4) The superdisintegrant used in tablet formulation is……………..
a) Sodium starch glycolate
silicate
b) Starch
c) PVP
d) Mg-aluminium
(5) Z-(o-chlorophenyl)-2-methylaminocyclohexanone is IUPAC name for
a) Donezepil
b) Meprobamate
(6) Instrument
c) Ketamine
Description
P) Manesty dry cota
1) Layered tablets
Q) Versa Press
2) Compression coated tablets
R) Differential manomer
3) Homogenization of emulsion
S) Ultra-sonifier
4) Determine aggregation of suspension
a) P-2,Q-1,R-3,S-4
(d) Chlorphenesin
b) P-1,Q-2,R-4,S-3
c) P-2,Q-1,R-4,S-3
d) P-2,Q-3,R-1,S-4
(7) Which solvent is used as a binder in the formulation of compression coated tablets?
a) Acetone
above
b) Aquacoat
c) Isopropyl alcohol
d) None of the
(8) Nitric oxide act by which of the following mediator?
a) cGMP
above
b) cAMP
c) ATP
d) None of the
(9) Glucose and galactose are……………..?
a) C2 epimers
β-anomers
b) C4 epimers
c) α-anomers
(10)Which of the following is/are 5-HT2A antagonist(s)?
a) Ketanserine
b) Pizotifen
c) Both A and B d) None of the above
d)
(11)Which of the following antiepileptic drug acts by inhibiting GABA uptake?
a) Vigabatrine
b) Tiagabine
c) Gabapentine
d) Lamotrigine
(12)Which of the following drug is used to treat ‘jet-lag’ condition?
a) Melanin
above
b) Melatonin
c) Both a & b
d) None of the
(13)Which of the following is ultra short acting Benzodiazepines?
a) Chlordizepoxide
b) Midazolam
c) Nitrazepam
d) Alprazolam
(14)Which of the following amino acids is/are produce ketone bodies?
a) Leucine
b) Lysine
c) Both A & B
d) Alanine
(15)Which of the following enzyme is rate-limiting in urea cycle?
a) CPS-I
Hydrolases
b) CPS-II
c) Arginase
d)
(16)Which of the following is not an excitatory amino acid transmitter?
a) Glutamate
b) Aspartate
c) Glycine
d) Homocysteate
(17)Which of the following drug causes methaemogloninaemia?
a) Levodopa
b) Tolcapone
c) Prilocaine
d) Articaine
c) Dibenzoxazepin
d)Diphenylbutylpipperidine
(18)Clozapine contains which of the following moiety?
a) Flourobutyrophenone
b) Dibenzodiazepine
(19) Drugs acting on Nigrostriatal pathways lead to
a) Antipsychotic effects
b) EPS
c) Anti-cholinergic side effects
above
d) None of
(20)χ max of O-chloro benzaldehyde is…..
a) 265
b) 250 c) 272 d) 275
(21)Adrenocortical suppression is seen with
a) Etomidate
b) Propofol
c) Ketamine
d) Isoflurane
(22) All water soluble vitamins excreted through urine and are not stored in body except….
a) Vitamin B6
b) Vitamin B12
c) Vitamin C
Niacin
d)
(23)Which of the following test is used to detect lactic acid?
a) Uffelmann test
test
b) karpus test
c) Fuji korai test
d)
Biuret
(24)What is the synonym of SGPT?
a) AST
ASP
b) ALT
c) ALP
d)
(25)Hyperuricemia is associated with abnormal metaboliam of……….?
a) Pyrimidine
All
b) Purine
c) Riboflavin
d)
c) Vitamin D
d)
(26)Which of the following vitamin has antioxidant action?
a) Vitamin H
Vitamin F
b) Vitamin E
(27)The term REVERSE TRANSCRIPTION means……………..?
a) DNA to RNA
b) RNA to DNA
c) RNA to Protein
d) Protein to RNA
(28)Which of the following unsaturated fatty acid is used for prostaglandin synthesis?
a) Arachidonic acid b) Capric Acid
c) Linoleic acid
d) All
(29)A 6.40* 10-5 M solution had an absorbance of 0.847 in a 1cm cell at 255 nm. Then molar
absorptivity is…..
a) 13234
b) 150
c) 1400
d) 1324
1) Nitric oxide act by which of the following mediator?
a) cGMP
b) cAMP
c) ATP
d) None of the above
2) Which of the following is/are 5-HT2A antagonist(s)?
a) Ketanserine
b) Pizotifen
c) Both A and B d) None of the above
3) Which of the following antiepileptic drug acts by inhibiting GABA uptake?
a) Vigabatrine
b) Tiagabine
c) Gabapentine
d) Lamotrigine
4) Which of the following drug is used to treat ‘jet-lag’ condition?
a) Melanin
b) Melatonin
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
5) Which of the following is ultra short acting Benzodiazepines?
a) Chlordizepoxide
b) Midazolam
c) Nitrazepam
d) Alprazolam
6) Which of the following is not an excitatory amino acid transmitter?
a) Glutamate
b) Aspartate
c) Glycine
d) Homocysteate
7) Which of the following drug causes methaemogloninaemia?
a) Levodopa
b) Tolcapone
c) Prilocaine
d) Articaine
(1) HLB system is used to classify........................
a) Surfactants
b) Preservatives
d) Sequestering agents
c) Antioxidants
(2) The micro-organism for the assay of tetracycline is……………………….
a) Micrococcus luteus
d) S. aureus
b) E.coli
c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(3) Which test is used for the diagnosis of Tuberculosis?
a) Wasserman test
d) None of the above
b) Schick test
c) Widal test
(4) In tablet compression machine the component guiding the movement of punches is ………………..
a) Hopper
d) Turrets
b) Die table
c) Cam tracks
(5) Chemically Bentonite is.....................................
a) Magnesium aluminium silicate
aluminium silicate
c) Alumino silicate
d) All of the above
b) Hydrated
(6) The most commonly used abbreviation BCS stands for………………………………….
a) Bovine cervical system
b) Benign Carcinogenic symptom
c) Biopharmaceutics classification system
d) Bio-clinical system
(7) The drug used in the treatment of Swine Flu (Tamiflu Tablets) by Roche Company is…………………..
a) Abacavir
b) Lamivudine
c) Oseltamivir
d) Tenofovir
c) Floating
d) Complete
c) 30 – 100 parts
d) > 10000 parts
(8) Wetting angle of 180˚ indicates……………………….
a) No wetting
wetting
b) Slight wetting
(9) The term “Freely soluble” means………………………
a) < 1 part
b) 1 – 10 parts
(10) Rat holling phenomena relates with………………..
a) Poor flow of granules
b) Maintaining the granule flow
c) Filling of capsules
d) Increasing the granular flow
(11) Which of the following test(s) is/are utilize for detection of Pilocarpine?
a) Helch’s colour test
above
b) Ekkert’s colour test
c) Both A and B d)
None
of
the
(12) Which of the following test is utilized for detection of quinine?
a) Thaleoquin test
reaction
b) Vitali-Morrin test
c) Frohde’s test
d) Kedde’s
(13) Quantitative color estimation is done by………………………....
a) Calorimetric measurement
b) Micro-reflectance photometer
c) Psychrometry
d) All of the above
(14) Description
Related to
P) Crystal growth
1) Griffin
Q) pH scale
2) Sorensen
R) HLB scale
3) DLVO theory
S) Interparticular force
4) Ostwald ripening
a) P-4,Q-2,R-1,S-3
b) P-3,Q-1,R-2,S-4
c) P-2,Q-4,R-1,S-3
d) P-1,Q-3,R-4,S-2
c) Max Planck
d) Lambert
(15) Wave theory for EMR was given by………..
a) Newton
b) De-Broglie
(16) Which of the following is not the unit of Frequency?
a) Keyser
b) Cycle/sec
c) Hertz
d) Frensel
(17) Which of the following EMR is used in Nuclear Magnetic Resonance spectroscopy?
a) Radio waves b) Radar waves
c) Micro waves
(18) Ascending order for transitions based on energy requirement is…
a) Π → Π* < n → σ*< n → Π* < σ → σ*
b) n → Π* < Π → Π* < n → σ* < σ → σ*
c) σ → σ*< Π → Π* < n → σ*< n → Π*
d) Cosmic rays
d) Π → Π* <σ → σ* < n → Π* < n → σ*
(19) n → Π* transition in Nonpolar solvent shows ………….
a) Hypsochromic shift
above
b) Bathochromic shift
c) Hypochromic shift d)
None
of
the
(20) Find the λ max of….
a) 358 nm
b) 319 nm
c) 363 nm
d) 314 nm
(21) Which of the following drug contains pyrimidine and pyrrolidine alkaloids?
a) Withania
b) Coca
c) Tobacco
d) None of the above
(22) Which of the following is also known as “Egyptian Henbane”?
a) Datura
b) Coca
c) Hyoscyamus
d) None of the above
(23) Which of the following drug contains quinoline alkaloids?
a) Ergot
Rauwolfia
b) Withania
c) Cinchona
(24) Which of the following is/are the known as water clearing nut?
a) S. nuxblanda
b) S. potatorum c) Both A and B d) None of the above
(25) Which of the following drug(s) contains proto alkaloids?
d)
a) Ephedra
b) Colchicum
c) Both A and B d) None of the above
(26) Which of the following is Mayer’s reagent used for alkaloid testing?
a) KI + Bismuth nitrate
b) KI in dilute Iodine solution
c) Saturated solution of picric acid
d) Potassium mercuric iodide
(27) Which of the following test is used for xanthine alkaloids?
a) Vitali-Morrin test
b) Thaleoquin test
c) Murexide test
d) Frohde’s test
(28) Which colour is observed when Papaverine + HCl + Potassium Ferricyanide are treated together?
a) Emerald green
b) Lemon yellow
c) Purple
d) Violet
(29) Which of the following is Van Urk’s reagent?
a) p-methyl amino benzaldehyde
b) p-dimethyl amino benzaldehyde
c) p-ethyl amino benzaldehyde
d) o-methyl amino benzaldehyde
(30) Which of the following tests are used for detection of sterols and Triterpenes?
a) Liberman-Burchard Test
b) Halphen’s test
c) Badouin’s test
d) Ethambutol
Which of the following receptor is from Type-2 receptor family?
a) GABAA
b) GABAB
c) NMDA
d) AMPA
Which of the following is 5-HT1A receptor agonist?
a) Buspirone
b) Bicuculline
d) None of the above
c) Zolpidem
Which of the following is the side effect of Levodopa?
a) Dyskinesia
b) On-Off effect
c) Both A and B d) None of the above
Which of the following is the mechanism action of the strychnine?
a) Antagonize GABA
b) Antagonize glutamate c) Antagonize glycine
d) None of the above
Which of the following test is used for detection of quinoline alkaloid?
a) Thaleoquin test
c) Van-urk’s test d) Mayer’s test
b) Vitali-Morrin test
Which of the following drug is from Loganiaceae family?
a) Senna
b) Nux-vomica
c) Vinca
d) None of the above
Which of the following drug contains Saponin glycoside?
a) Dioscorea
b) Ginseng
c) Both A and B d) None of the above
Which of the following variety is the Indian Senega?
a) Polygala senega
b) Polygala chinensis
c) Polygala alba
d) None of the above
Which of the following is the specific test for an alkaloid?
a) Dragendorff b) Wagner
c) Murexide
d) Hager
Which of the following is the pyridine-pyrrolidine alkaloid containing drug?
a) Lobelia
b) Belladona
c) Ipecac
d) Ergot
Which of the following drugs contains the diacytic stomata?
a) Digitalis
b) Datura
c) Vasaka
d) Belladona
Which of the following leaf drug possess an isobilateral leaf?
a) Senna
b) Belladona
c) Hyoscyamus
d) Vasaka
From the dissolution view point, which dosage form is the least absorbed with time?
a) Solution
b) Suspension
c) Uncoated tablets
d) Coated tablets
ICH stands for …….…………………..…
a) Indian Council on Healthcare system
b) Institute for controlling Health Hazards
c) International Conference on Harmonization d) International Committee on Harmonization
Powdered Glass test is not used for which USP Glass?
a) Type I
b) Type II
c) Type III
d) All of the above
The preferred method for sterilization for mineral oil injections
is………………………..
a) Autoclave
Dry heat
b) Filtration
c) Gas sterilization
Combiflam tablet is a combination drug product of …………………….
P) Paracetamol
S) Diclofenac sodium
Q) Aspirin
a) PQ
c) PS
b) PR
R) Ibuprofen
d) RS
d)
The weight variation problem in tablets may be caused due
to……………………..
a) Change in die fill b) Large proportion of fines
densities
d) All of the above
c) Differing
Which of the following diluent causes tablet softening upon storage?
a) Lactose
b) MCC c) Mannitol
d) DCP
Pharmaceutical excipients are intended for following purposes
except……………………
a) Pharmacological activity b) Pharmaceutical stability c) Physical
solubility d) Chemical compatibility
The thickness of implantable tablet should not be more
than……………………..
a) 2 mm
10 mm
b) 4 mm
c) 8 mm
d)
A process designed to kill some or all of the micro-organisms to a harmless
level is known as…….……
a) Disinfection
Ventilation
b) Sterilization
c) Lyophilization
The diagnostic test used for Brucellosis disease is………………
d)
a) Elex test
Coombs test
b) Ducrey test
c) Weil felix test d)
In the microbial assay of bacitracin, the test organism used is
……………….…..
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Bacillus pumilus
Staphylococcus epidermidis
d) Micrococcus luteus
c)
What is an acceptable range for a tablet to pass friability test?
a) 0.5-1.5%
b) 02.-1%
c) 0.5-1%
d) 1-2%
Schedule: “Requirement & guideline on Clinical trials for import and manufacture of new drugs.”
a) Sch. D
b) Sch. K
c) Sch. V
d) Sch. Y
The HPMC (commonly known as Hypromellose) is used in formulations as ……………..
a) Coating agent
b) Tablet binder
c) Sustained release polymer
d) All of the above
In the process of sugar coating of tablets the colorants are added in one of the following steps?
a) Syrup coating
b) Sub coating
c) Polishing
Standards for mechanical contraceptives are given in...............
d) Seal coating
a) Schedule V
b) Schedule N
c) Schedule U
d) Schedule R
Opaque color concentrate for film coating is known as ………….
a) Opacoat
b) Opaspray
c) Opalux
d) Opadry
Which of the following is not a function of a plasticizer?
a) To improve flexibility of coating
b) To provide pH independent release
c) To reduce the risk of film cracking
d) To improve adhesion of film
Which tablets require special care for storage in a hermetically sealed packaging?
a) Implant tablets
b) Effervescent tablets
c) Chewable tablets
d) All of the above
Which of the following drug contains Rubiaceous stomata?
a) Senna
b) Coca
c) Both A and B d) None of the above
Which of the following drug contains glandular trichomes?
a) Male fern
b) Vasaka
c) Nux vomica
d) Cannabis
Idioblasts of crystal layer of calcium oxalate are a diagnostic feature of …………………….
a) Hyoscyamus niger leaves
leaves
b) Deadly nightshade leaves
c) Cinchona bark
d) Senna
Which of the following herbal drug is used as respiratory stimulant in the treatment of asthma?
a) Hyoscyamus
b) Duboisia
c) Coca
d) Lobelia
Atropine on hydrolysis with Barium Hydroxide gives……………………………….
a) Tropanol and Tropic acid
b) Scopine and Tropic acid
b) Ecgonine and Benzoic acid
d) Benzyl ecgonine and Methanol
Which of the following is/are known as water clearing nut?
a) S. nuxblanda
b) S. potatorum c) Both A and B d) None of the above
Which of the following test is used for xanthine alkaloids?
a) Vitali-Morrin test
b) Thaleoquin test
c) Murexide test
d) Frohde’s test
Which of the following test is utilized for detection of quinine?
a) Thaleoquin test
b) Vitali-Morrin test
c) Frohde’s test
d) Kedde’s reaction
Which of the following is the Coumarin glycoside?
a) Quassin
b) picroside
c) prunasin
d) khellin
Rauwolfia alkaloid belongs to the class of………………………..
a) Quinoline
b) Isoquinoline
c) Piperidine
d) Indole
Which of the following is controlling DARK ADAPTATION TIME?
a) Retinol
b) Retinal
c) Rhodopsin
d) Retinoic acid
Which of the following vitamins is/are widely used in mouth ulcer?
a) Folic acid
b) Vitamin B12
c) Both A an B
d) None of the above
Which of the following is an Antineuritic vitamin?
a) Vitamin B5
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin B7
d) Vitamin B1
Which of the following is an active form of vitamin B 6?
a) Pyridoxin
b) Pyridoxamine c) Pyridoxal phosphate
d) Pyridoxal
Which of the following amino acid is frequently bound at active site of enzymes?
a) Lysine
b) Alanine
c) Valine
d) Serine
Which of the following enzyme is specific biomarker for liver & skeletal muscle?
a) LDH1
b) LDH2
c) LDH3
d) LDH5
Which of the following coenzyme is required in phospholipid synthesis?
a) CDP
b) ATP
c) PLP
d) SAM
Which of the following enzyme is controlling used uric acid level?
a) MAO
b) Xanthine oxidase
c) PABA
d) None of the above
Wave theory for EMR was given by………..
a) Newton
Lambert
b) De Broglie
c) Max Planck
d)
Which of the following is not the unit of Frequency?
a) Keyser
d) Frensel
b) Cycle/sec
c) Hertz
Which of the following EMR is used in Nuclear Magnetic Resonance spectroscopy?
a) Radiowaves b) Radarwaves
c) Microwaves
d) Cosmic rays
Ascending order for transitions based on energy requirement is…
a) Π → Π* < n → σ*< n → Π* < σ → σ*
b) n → Π* < Π → Π* < n → σ* < σ → σ*
c) σ → σ*< Π → Π* < n → σ*< n → Π*
d) Π → Π* <σ → σ* < n → Π* < n → σ*
n → Π* transition in Nonpolar solvent shows …
a) Hypsochromic shift
b) Bathochromic shift
c) Hypochromic shift
None of above
HLB system is used to classify........................
a) Surfactants
agents
b) Preservatives
c) Antioxidants
d) Sequestering
The micro-organism for the assay of tetracycline is……………………….
a) Micrococcus luteus
b) E.coli
c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d) S. aureus
Which test is used for the diagnosis of Tuberculosis?
a) Wasserman test b) Schick test
c) Widal test
d) None of the above
In tablet compression machine the component guiding the movement of punches is
a) Hopper
b) Die table
c) Cam tracks
d) Turrets
d)
Description
Related to
P) Crystal growth
1) Griffin
Q) pH scale
2) Sorensen
R) HLB scale
3) DLVO theory
S) Interparticular force
4) Ostwald ripening
a) P-4,Q-2,R-1,S-3 b) P-3,Q-1,R-2,S-4
c) P-2,Q-4,R-1,S-3
d) P-1,Q-3,R-4,S-2
Chemically Bentonite is.....................................
a) Magnesium aluminium silicate
b) Hydrated aluminium silicate
c) Alumino silicate
d) All of the above
The most commonly used abbreviation BCS stands for………………………………….
a) Bovine cervical system
b) Benign Carcinogenic symptom
c) Biopharmaceutics classification system
d) Bio-clinical system
The drug used in the treatment of Swine Flu (Tamiflu Tablets) by Roche Company is…………………..
a) Abacavir
b) Lamivudine
c) Oseltamivir
d) Tenofovir
Wetting angle of 180˚ indicates……………………….
a) No wetting
wetting
b) Slight wetting
c) Floating
d) Complete
The term “Freely soluble” means………………………
a) < 1 part
b) 1 – 10 parts
c) 30 – 100 parts
d) > 10000 parts
Rat holling phenomena relates with………………..
(a) Poor flow of granules
(b) Maintaining the granule flow
(c) Filling of capsules
(d) Increasing the granular flow
Quantitative color estimation is done by………………………....
a) Calorimetric measurement
b) Micro-reflectance photometer
c) Psychrometry
d) All of the above
(1) Which of the following is controlling DARK ADAPTATION TIME?
a) Retinol
acid
b) Retinal
c) Rhodopsin
d) Retinoic
(2) Which of the following vitamins is/are widely used in mouth ulcer?
a) Folic acid
b) Vitamin B12
c) Both
(3) Which of the following is an Antineuritic vitamin?
a) B5
b) C
c) B7
d) None
d) B1
(4) Which of the following is an active form of vitamin B6?
a) Pyridoxin
b) Pyridoxamine
c) Pyridoxal phosphate d) Pyridoxal
(5) Which of the following amino acid is frequently bound at active site of enzymes?
a) Lysine
b) Alanine
c) Valine
(6) Which of the following enzyme is specific biomarker for liver & skeletal muscle?
d) Serine
a) LDH1
b) LDH2
c) LDH3
d) LDH5
(7) Which of the following coenzyme is required in phospholipid synthesis?
a) CDP
b) ATP
c) PLP
d) SAM
(8) Which of the following enzyme is controlling used uric acid level?
a) MAO
1)
b) Xanthine oxidase
b) coca
b) vasaka
6)
c) nux vomica
b) Deadly nightshade leaves
c) Cinchona
Which of the following herbal drug is used as respiratory stimulant in the treatment of asthma?
a) Hyoscyamus
Lobelia
5)
d)
Idioblasts of crystal layer of calcium oxalate are a diagnostic feature of:
a) Hyoscyamus niger leaves
bark
d) Senna leaves
4)
c) both a and b
Which of the following drug contains glandular trichomes?
a) Male fern
d) cannabis
3)
d) None
Which of the following drug contains Rubiaceous stomata?
a) Senna
none
2)
c) PABA
b) Duboisia
c) Coca
d)
Atropine on hydrolysis with Barium Hydroxide gives
a) Tropanol and Tropic acid
acid
b) Scopine and Tropic
b) Ecgonine and Benzoic acid
and Methanol
d) Benzyl ecgonine
Which of the following is/are the known as water clearing nut?
a) S. nuxblanda
b) S. potatorum c) Both a & b
d) None of
the above
7)
Which of the following test is used for xanthine alkaloids?
a) Vitali-Morrin test
Frohde’s test
8)
c) Murexide test d)
Which of the following test is utilized for detection of quinine?
a) Thaleoquin test
Kedde’s reaction
9)
b) Thaleoquin test
b) Vitali-Morrin test
c) Frohde’s test d)
b) picroside
c) prunasin
Which of the following is the coumarin glycoside?
a) Quassin
d) khellin
10) Rauwolfia alkaloid belongs to the class of:
a) Quinoline
indole
b) isoquinoline
c) piperidine
d)
1) Which of the following receptor is from Type-2 receptor family?
a) GABAA
b) GABAB
c) NMDA
d) AMPA
2) Which of the following is 5-HT1A receptor agonist?
a) Buspirone
b) Bicuculline
c) Zolpidem
d) none
3) Which of the following is the side effect of Levodopa?
a) dyskinesia
b) On-Off effect
c) Both
d) none
4) Which of the following is the mechanism action of the strychnine?
a) antagonise GABA b) antagonise glutamate
c) antagonise glycine d) none
Cognosy
1) Which of the following test is used for detection of quinoline alkaloid?
a) Thaleoquin test
b) Vitali-morin test
c) Van-urk’s test
d) Mayer’s test
2) Which of the following drug is from Loganiaceae family?
a) Senna
b) Nux-vomica
c) Vinca
d) none
3) Which of the following drug contains saponin glycoside?
a) Dioscorea
b) Ginseng
c) Both
d) none
4) Which of the following is the Indian senega?
a) Polygala senega
b) Polygala chinensis c) Polygala alba
d) none
5) Which of the following is the non-specific test for alkaloid?
a) Dragendorff
b) Wagner
c) Murexide
d) Hager
6) Which of the following is the pyridine-pyrollidine alkaloid containing drug?
a) Lobelia
b) Belladona
c) Ipecac
d) Ergot
7) Which of the following drugs contains the diacytic stomata?
a) Digitalis
b) Datura
c) Vasaka
d) Belladona
8) Which of the following leaf drug is isobilateral leaf?
a) Senna
b) Belladona
(1) HLB system is used to classify........................
c) Hyoscyamus
d) Vasaka
a) Surfactants
b) Preservatives
d) Sequestering agents
c) Antioxidants
(2) The micro-organism for the assay of tetracycline is……………………….
a) Micrococcus luteus
d) S. aureus
b) E.coli
c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(3) Which test is used for the diagnosis of Tuberculosis?
a) Wasserman test
d) None of the above
b) Schick test
c) Widal test
(4) In tablet compression machine the component guiding the movement of punches is ………………..
a) Hopper
d) Turrets
b) Die table
c) Cam tracks
(5) Chemically Bentonite is.....................................
a) Magnesium aluminium silicate
aluminium silicate
c) Alumino silicate
b) Hydrated
d) None of the above
(6) The most commonly used abbreviation BCS stands for………………………………….
a) Bovine cervical system
b) Benign Carcinogenic symptom
c) Biopharmaceutics classification system
d) Bio-clinical system
(7) The drug used in the treatment of Swine Flu (Tamiflu Tablets) by Roche Company is…………………..
a) Abacavir
b) Lamivudine
(8) Wetting angle of 180˚ indicates……………………….
c) Oseltamivir
d) Tenofovir
a) No wetting
wetting
b) Slight wetting
c) Floating
d) Complete
c) 30 – 100 parts
d) > 10000 parts
(9) The term “Freely soluble” means………………………
a) < 1 part
b) 1 – 10 parts
(10) Rat holling phenomena relates with………………..
a) Poor flow of granules
b) Maintaining the granule flow
c) Filling of capsules
d) Increasing the granular flow
(11) Quantitative color estimation is done by………………………....
a) Calorimetric measurement
b) Micro-reflectance photometer
c) Psychrometry
d) All of the above
(12) Description
Related to
P) Crystal growth
1) Griffin
Q) pH scale
2) Sorensen
R) HLB scale
3) DLVO theory
S) Interparticular force
4) Ostwald ripening
a) P-4,Q-2,R-1,S-3
b) P-3,Q-1,R-2,S-4
c) P-2,Q-4,R-1,S-3
d) P-1,Q-3,R-4,S-2
From the dissolution view point, which dosage form is the least absorbed
with time?
a) Solution
b) Suspension
d) Coated tablets
c) Uncoated tablets
ICH stands for …….…………………..…
(a) Indian Council on Healthcare system
(b) Institute for controlling Health Hazards
(c) International Conference on Harmonization
Harmonization
(d) International Committee on
Powdered Glass test is not used for which USP Glass?
(a) Type I
(b) Type II
(c) Type III
(d) All of the above
The preferred method for sterilization for mineral oil injections
is………………………..
a) Autoclave
Dry heat
b) Filtration
c) Gas sterilization
Combiflam tablet is a combination drug product of …………………….
P) Paracetamol
S) Diclofenac sodium
Q) Aspirin
a) PQ
c) PS
b) PR
R) Ibuprofen
d) RS
The weight variation problem in tablets may be caused due
to……………………..
d)
a) Change in die fill b) Large proportion of fines
densities
d) All of the above
c) Differing
Which of the following diluent causes tablet softening upon storage?
a) Lactose
b) MCC c) Mannitol
d) DCP
Pharmaceutical excipients are intended for following purposes except
…………………………
a) Pharmacological activity
b) Pharmaceutical stability
c) Physical solubility
d) Chemical compatibility
The thickness of implantable tablet should not be more
than……………………..
a) 2 mm
10 mm
b) 4 mm
c) 8 mm
d)
A process designed to kill living micro-organisms to a harmless level is
known as…….……………
a) Disinfection
d) Ventilation
b) Sterilization
c) Lyophilization
The diagnostic test used for Brucellosis disease is
a) Elex test
Coombs test
b) Ducrey test
c) Weil felix test d)
In the microbial assay of bacitracin, the test organism used is ………..
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Bacillus pumilus
Staphylococcus epidermidis
d) Micrococcus luteus
c)
What is an acceptable range for a tablet to pass friability test?
a) 0.5-1.5%
b) 02.-1%
c) 0.5-1%
d) 1-2%
Schedule: “Requirement & guideline on Clinical trials for import and manufacture of new drugs.”
(a) Sch. D
(b) Sch. K
(c) Sch. V
(d) Sch. Y
The HPMC (commonly known as Hypromellose) is used in formulations as ……………..
a) Coating agent
b) Tablet binder
c) Sustained release polymer
d) All of the above
In the process of sugar coating of tablets the colorants are added in one of the following steps?
a) Syrup coating
b) Sub coating
c) Polishing
d) Seal coating
Standards for mechanical contraceptives are given in...............
a) Schedule V
b) Schedule N
c) Schedule U
Opaque color concentrate for film coating is known as ………….
d) Schedule R
a) Opacoat
b) Opaspray
c) Opalux
d) Opadry
Which of the following is not a function of a plasticizer?
a) To improve flexibility of coating
b) To provide pH independent release
c) To reduce the risk of film cracking
d) To improve adhesion of film
Which tablets require special care for storage in a hermetically sealed packaging?
a) Implant tablets
b) Effervescent tablets
c) Chewable tablets
d) All of the above
(1) Which of the following is neurohormone?
a. Neuropeptide-Y
b. Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide
c. Oxytocin
d. Dopamine
(2)Which of the following 5HT-receptors are involved in platelet
aggregation?
a. 5-HT1A
b. 5-HT1B
c. 5-HT2A
d. 5-HT2B
(3) Which of the following is COMT inhibitor and used to treat
Parkinsonism?
a. Bromocriptine
b. Entacapone
c. Lisuride
d. Pramipexole
(4)Which of the following local anaesthetic causes
methaemoglobinaemia?
a. Articaine
b. Prilocaine
c. Levobupivacaine
d. Ropivacaine
(5)Which of the following are D2 class receptor agonist & used to treat
parkinsonism?
a. Ropinirole
b. Pramipexole
c. Both
d. none
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Pharmacognosy
1) Which of the following drug contains C-glycosides?
a. Cochineal
b. senna
c. Rhubarb
d. None
2.) Which of the following is cyanogenetic glycoside?
a. amygdalin
c. both
b.prunasin
d. None
3.) Which of the following drug contains Isothiocyanate glycoside?
a. Thevetia
b. Brahmi
c. Black mustard
d. None
4.) Which of the following drugs gives positive Borntrager’s test?
a. Senna
b. Ginseng
c. Gokhru
d. Thevetia
5.) Which of the following drug contains S-glycosides?
a. Rhein
b. Hypericin
c. Sinigrin
d. Carminic acid
6.) Which of the following drug contains abnormal vascular bundles?
a. Senna
b. Rhubarb
c. Aloe
d. Thevetia
7.) Which of the following is known as St. John’s wort?
a. Aloin
b. barbaloin
c. Hypericum
d. Carminic acid
8.) Which of the following drug contains unicellular, conical, warty
trichomes?
a. Rhubarb
b. Senna
c. Digitalis
d. Stophanthus
1. Which of the following is a negative modulator of benzodiazepines
A. α – carboline
B. β – carboline
C. γ - carboline
D. δ – carboline
2. Meprobamate is used as:
A. Sedative-hypnotic
B. Anti-anxiety agent
C. In absence seizure
D. All of above
3. Buspiron – an anti anxiety agent is
A. 5-HT1a agonist
B. 5-HT1a antagonist
C. 5-HT1b agonist
D. 5-HT1b antagonist
4. Which of the general anesthetic is used as an emulsion form
A.
B.
C.
D.
Etomidate
Propofol
Ketamine
Halothane
5. IUPAC name of halazepam is
A. 5-Chloro -1,3-dihydro-5-phenyl-1(2,2,2-triflouroethyl)-2H-1,4-benzodiazepin-2one
B. 7-Chloro -1,3-dihydro-6-phenyl-1(2,2,2-triflouroethyl)-2H-1,4-benzodiazepin-3one
C. 7-Chloro -1,3-dihydro-5-phenyl-1(2,2,2-triflouroethyl)-2H-1,4-benzodiazepin-2one
D. 5-Chloro -1,3-dihydro-6-phenyl-1(2,2,2-triflouroethyl)-2H-1,4-benzodiazepin-3one
In tablet compression machine the component guiding the movement of the punches is called
a) Hopper
d) Turrets
b) Die table
c) Cam tracks
Dry heat sterilization cannot be used for ……………..
a) Oils
d) Metal instruments
b) Powders
c) Surgical dressing
Quantitative color estimation is done by...
a) Calorimetric measurement
reflectance photometer
c) Psychrometry
d) All of the above
As per D&C Act and Rules, the GMP is included under Schedule ………
a) W
b) G
c) M
b) Micro-
d) P
Pasteurization method for sterilization of milk is carried out at ……………
min.
a) 62.8 ºC for 30 min.
d) 60 ºC for 1 hr.
b) 68.2 ºC for 30 min.
c) 121 ºC for 30
Diluent used for Spheronization method is……….
a) Lactose
b) MCC
c) Starch
d) PVP
What is the working principle of action of Hammer mill?
a) Attrition
b) Impact
c) Both A and B d) Pressure
Which derivative of Vitamin B1 gives fluorescence in visible region?
a) Thiochrome
d) Oxythiamine
b) Thiamine
c) Pyrithiamine
The coenzyme not involved in hydrogen transfer
a) FMN
b) FAD
c) NADP+
d) FH4
Rat holling phenomena relates with………………..
Storage condition
(a) Poor flow of granules
flow
(b) Maintaining the granule
(c) Filling of capsules
flow
(d) Increasing the granular
Description
P) Cold storage
1) Any temp. not greater than 8˚C
Q) Cool storage
2) Any temp. between 8-25˚C
R) Warm storage
3) Any temp. between 30-40˚C
S) Excessive heat
4) Any temp. above 40˚C
(a) P1,Q2,R3,S4
(b) P2,Q1,R4,S3
(c) P2,Q1,R3,S4
Antibiotic
Test organism
P) Bleomycin
Q) Chloramphenicol
(d) P1,Q3,R2,S4
1) Mycobacterium smegmatis
2) E.coli
R) Rifampicin
3) B. subtilis
S) Chlortetracyclineine
4) S. aureus
a) P-4,Q-1,R-2,S-3 b) P-2,Q-3,R-4,S-1
P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4
Excipient (Trade Name)
P) Avicel
c) P-3,Q-4,R-1,S-2
Purpose
1) Diluent
Q) Aspartame
2) Sweetner
R) Ac-di-sol
3) Superdisintegrant
S) Aerosil
4) Glidant
d)
a) P-4,Q-1,R-2,S-3
P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4
b) P-3,Q-2,R-4,S-1
c) P-3,Q-4,R-1,S-2
d)
The phenomenon of increasing solubility of non-polar molecules by addition of a water miscible
solvent in which the drug has good solubility is called ………..
a) Complexation
Hydrotrophy
b) Co-solvency c) Solubilization d)
The biological indicator for moist heat sterilization is ………
P) Clostridium sporogenes Q) Chromobacter prodigism
coagulans S) B. subtilis
a) P, Q
b) P, R
R) B.
c) R, S
d)
Q, S
The official dissolution test apparatus contains cylindrical vessel and the lower edge of the blade
is positioned from inside bottom of the vessel at
a) 20±2 mm
d) 25±0.5 mm
b) 25±2 mm
c) 18±2 mm
The “Soluble” term means ………………..
a) <1 parts
d) 30-100 parts
b) 1-10 parts
c) 10-30 parts
Vesicular systems formed by a mixture of cholesterol & non-ionic
surfactant are known as ………………
a) Liposomes
d) Nanospheres
b) Microcapsules
c) Neosomes
Reaction of lactose with amines is known as ………………….
a) Hydrolysis
b) Lactolysation
d) All of the above
c) Maillard reaction
The diagnostic test for “Diphtheria” is ………………
a) Kahn test
d) Schick test
b) Coombs test
c) Dick test
The term “Veegum” stands for ………………
a) Alumino silicate
b) Hydrated aluminium
c) Magnesium aluminium silicate
d) All of the above
silicate
Which test is used to determine the wetting angle?
a) Dew point test
d) Kraft test
b) Draves test
c) Cloud point test
The test organism used in microbiological assay of antibiotic Polymyxin B
is …………………
a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b) Bordetella bronchiseptica
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Micrococcus luteus
Taste sensation
Recommended flavour
P) Salty
1) Raspberry
Q) Bitter
2) Butterscotch
R) Sweet
3) Chocolate
S) Sour
4) Vanilla
a) P-4,Q-1,R-2,S-3
d) P-2,Q-4,R-3,S-1
b) P-3,Q-2,R-4,S-1
c) P-2,Q-3,R-4,S-1
The superdisintegrant used in tablet formulation is
a) Sodium starch glycolate
aluminium silicate
b) Starch
c) PVP d) Mg-
Which evaluation parameter(s) is/are considered for floating tablets?
a) Lag time
All of the above
b) Floating time
c) Hardness
d)
Which term is adopted by USP for Fast dissolving tablets?
a) Orodispersible tablets
c) Melt-In-Mouth Tablets
b) Mouth dissolving tablets
d) Orally disintegrating tablets
In the microbial assay of bacitracin, the test organism used is ………..
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Bacillus pumilus
c) Staphylococcus epidermidis
d) Micrococcus luteus
List of drugs that are exempted from certain provision under manufacture
are described under the schedule ….
a) C
b) D
c) E
d) K
The diagnostic test used for Brucellosis disease is
a) Elex test
test
b) Ducrey test
c) Weil felix test d) Coombs
Which UV wavelength (in nm) gives maximum bactericidal effect for
sterilization purpose?
a) 220
b) 253.7
Instrument
P) Manesty dry cota
c) 265
d) 320
Description
1) Layered tablets
Q) Versa Press
2) Compression coated tablets
R) Differential manomer
3) Homogenization of emulsion
S) Ultra-sonifier
4) Determine aggregation of suspension
a) P-2,Q-1,R-3,S-4
d) P-2,Q-3,R-1,S-4
Type of mill
b) P-1,Q-2,R-4,S-3
c) P-2,Q-1,R-4,S-3
Not used for
P) Hammer mill
1) Solid materials
Q) Revolving mill
2) Soft materials
R) Cutter mill
3) Abrasive material
S) Colloid mill
4) Friable material
a) P-1,Q-3,R-4,S-2
d) P-2,Q-3,R-1,S-4
b) P-2,Q-3,R-4,S-1
c) P-3,Q-2,R-4,S-1
Which solvent is used as a binder in the formulation of compression coated tablets?
a) Acetone
b) Aquacoat
d) None of the above
c) Isopropyl alcohol
The micronized form of drug is absorbed faster because it’s …………………. is
increased.
a) Surface area
All of the above
b) viscosity
c) friability
d)
c) Base only
d)
Nucleoside refers to………………….
a) Base + Sugar b) Base + Phosphate
None of the above
Carbohydrates containing more than 4 % protein are known as ……..
a) Glycoprotein b) Mucoprotein
c) Metalloprotein d) Lipoprotein.
Invert Sugar is prepared from …..
a) Dextrose
the above
b) Sucrose
c) Inulin
d) None of
Maximum amount of flavoring oil that can be added to granulation is ………….
a) 0.1-0.3%
b) 0.5-0.75%
c) 1-2%
d) 2-5%
Which number carbon differentiates α and β forms (i.e. anomers) of D-glucose?
a) C4
b) C3
c) C1
d) C2
c) (C6H10O6)n
d)
Homopolysaccharides have general formula …………..
a) (C6H10O5)n
(C6H10O4)n
b) (C6H12O4)n
Which of the following is nonapeptide?
a) Kallidin
b) Bradykinin
c) Substance P
d) Gastrin
Which of the following is/are an essential Fatty Acid(s)?
a) Linoleic Acid
above
b) Linolenic Acid
The functionally active form of Vitamin D is…
c) Arachidonic Acid
d) All of the
a) Cholecalciferol
Calcitriol
b) Ergocalciferol c) Dehydrocholesterol
Type of coating
Coating materials
P) Sealing
1) HPMC
Q) Subcoating
2) Carnauba wax
R) Polishing
d)
3) Gelatin
S) Film coating
a) P-4,Q-3,R-2,S-1
d) P-1,Q-3,R-2,S-4
4) Shellac
b) P-4,Q-2,R-3,S-1
c) P-2,Q-4,R-1,S-3
Controlled porosity Osmotic pumps possess delivery orifice preferably produced by
……………..
a) Laser b) Microdill
the above
c) Modified punches
d) None of
A pediatric patient requires quicker onset of action of a low dose bitter drug that is
having high first pass metabolism. Suggest the most suitable dosage form for
effective treatment with patient compliance?
a) Sugar coated tablets
b) Transdermal patches
c) Orodispersible tablets
d) Enteric coated tablets
Which test is used to check the purity of butter containing good conc. of volatile
fatty acid?
a) Reichert-Meissl No.
d) Ash value
b) Acid No.
c) Iodine No.
Edman’s Reagent is chemically …………………
a) Phenyl isothiopropionate
b) Phenyl isothiocyanate
c) Phenyl isopropylbuty rate
d) Phenyl Butylpropionate.
Which of following is present in collagen?
a) 5-Hydroxy proline
Hydroxy proline
b) 4-Hydroxy lysine
c) 5-Hydroxy lysine
d) 3-
Which of the following enzymes requires chloride ions as activators?
a) Lipase
Chemotrypsin
b) Amylase
c) Trypsin
d)
) Which of the following drug should not be given with torsemide?
a) Bleomycin
Neomycin
b) Dactinomycin
c) Mitomycin
d)
2) Which of the following drug is given with fenofibrate to prevent
Coronary Heart Disease?
a) Pravastatin
Cerivastatin
b) Rosuvastatin
c) Simvastatatin
d)
3) Which of the following β-blocker is used to treat angina?
a) Atenolol
Nebivolol
b) Nadolol
c) Betoxalol
d)
4) Which of the following route(s) of administration is used for
Epoetin-β?
a) I.M.
Both B and C
b) I.V.
c) S.C.
d)
5) Which of the following anti-platelet drug is PDE inhibitor?
a) Dipyridamol
Abciximab
b) Disopyramide
c) Tirofiban
d)
biochem question:
1) What is the last product of the glycolysis in anaerobic medium?
a) Pyruvate
oxaloacetate
b) lactate
c) citrate
d)
2) HMP pathway is also known as…….
a) Pentose phosphate pathway
pathway
b) Hexose phosphate
c) Phosphate pathway
d) Cori’s cycle
3) Pompe’s deficiency is caused due to deficiency of ………………..
a) Acid maltase
b) Glycogen sythatase
d) Acid lactase
c) Hexokinase
(1) The µ-opioid receptors are involved in the following pharmacological effects except ………….
a) Analgesia
b) Euphoria
c) Dysphoria
d) Respiratory depression
(2) Which of the following is/are the endogenous opioids(s)?
a) Endorphins
b) Dynorphins
c) Both A and B d) None of the above
(3) Which of the following amino acid is a precursor for Serotonin (5-HT)?
a) Tyrosine
b) Tyramine
c) Tryptophan
d) Taurine
(4) Which of the following drug is used to treat ‘jet-lag’ condition?
a) Melanin
b) Melatonin
c) Both A and B d) None of the above
(5) Which of the following is not a pharmacological effect of morphine?
a) Diarrhoea
b) Pin point pupil c) CNS depression
d) Respiratory depression
(6) Which of the following is an ultra short acting Benzodiazepine?
a) Chlordizepoxide b) Midazolam
c) Nitrazepam
d) Alprazolam
(7) Which of the following herbal drug is used as respiratory stimulant in the treatment of asthma?
a) Hyoscyamus
b) Duboisia
c) Coca
d) Lobelia
(8) Salicin, a phenolic glucoside, on hydrolysis yields ……..…………
a) Salicylic acid + glucose
b) Salicyl alcohol + glucose
c) Phenol + glucose
d) Salicyl aldehyde + glucose
(9) Atropine on hydrolysis with Barium Hydroxide gives ……………..
a) Tropanol and Tropic acid
b) Ecgonine and Benzoic acid
c) Scopine and Tropic acid
d) Benzyl Ecgonine and Methanol
(10) C-17 α-β unsaturated lactone ring is a common feature in …………………..
a) Digitalis and squill glycosides
b) Digitalis and Senna glycosides
c) Digitalis and Strophanthus glycosides
d) Digitalis and amygdalin
(11) C3-O-glycoside digitoxin is used for ……………
a) Cardiac action
b) CNS action
c) Hypotensive action
d) Liver action
(12) Idioblast of crystal layer of calcium oxalate is a diagnostic feature of ……………..
a) Hyoscyamus niger leaves
b) Cinchona bark
c) Deadly nightshade leaves
d) Senna leaves
(13) Which of the following method is used to extract Citrus oils?
a) Hydrodistillation b) Enfleurage method
c) Ecuelle method
d) None of the above
(14) Which of the following drug(s) contain Phenolic ether volatile oil?
a) Anise
b) Nutmeg
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
(15) How many no. of Isoprene units are present in sesquiterpenes?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
(16) Which of the following is the main chemical constituent of the Eucalyptus oil?
a) geraniol b) cineole
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
(17) Which of the following is/are the substitute(s) of Caraway?
a) Cuminum cyminum
b) Anethum sowa c) Both A and B d) None of the above
Cology
(18) Which of the following penicillins are effective against P. aeruginosa infection?
a) Oxacillin
b) Naficillin
c) Methicillin
d) Ticarcillin
(19) Which of the following is 4th generation Cephalosporins?
a) Cephazolin
c) Cefaclor
b) Cefclidine
d) Cefixime
(20) Which of the following drug is used to treat Lyme’ disease?
a) Sulphasalazine
b) Azlocillin
c) Clarithromycin
d) Clofazimine
(21) Which of the following tetracycline is effective against N. meningitidis infection?
a) Rolitetracycline
c) Minocycline
b) Demeclocycline
d) Doxycycline
(22) Which of the following anti TB dug causes pyridoxine deficiency?
a) Isoniazid
c) Pyrazinamide
b) Cycloserine
d) Ethambutol
.what is the function of peroxisome?
a)bimerization b)mutarotation c)oxidation d)glycation
2)which of the following acid is formed on oxidation of -CHO group
of sugars?
a)glucoronic acid b)gluconic acid c)sacchric acid d)mucic acid
3.which of the following deficiency cause Phrynoderma or toad skin?
a)essential fatty acid b)non essential fatty acid c)proteins d)all
4)which of the following lipid posses antihyperlipidemic action?
a)phospholipid b)triglyceride c)glycolipid d)sitosterol
5)Proteins are polymer of ……
a) L-α-aminoacidb) D-α-aminoacidc) L-β-aminoacid d) L-λaminoacid
6)what is the principle Reverse sequencing method detecting amino
acid sequence?
a)enzymatic method b)chemical method c)chemical-DNA method
d)HPLC
7)Uric acid is chemically………?
a)2,6-dioxypurine
dioxypurine
b)2,6,8-trioxypurine c )6-oxypurine
d)6,8-
8)which of the following enzymes used for detecting glucose in urine?
A)glucose peroxidase b)glucose oxidase c)glucose transferase d)both
a& b
1) Which of the following is the example of Neuromodulator?
a) Nor-adrenaline
b) Ach
d) Oxytocin
c) Vasoactive Inyestinal Peptide (VIP)
2)Which of the following is the 5-HT2A anatagonist?
a) Ketanserine
b) Pizotifen
c) both
d) none
3) Which of the following COMT inhibitor causes Hepatotoxicity as its side effects?
a) Entacapone
b) Tolcapone
c) both
d) none
4) Which of the following antiepileptic drug acts by inhibiting GABA uptake?
a) Vigabatrine
b) Tiagabine
c) Gabapentine
d) Lamotrigine
(1) Solvent which can be used in PMR spectroscopy is…….
a) Chloroform
d) Methanol
b) Carbon tetrachloride
c) Acetone
(2) Compounds listed below contain σ. N and π electron….
P) Acetaldehyde Q) Butadiene
a) PS
c) PR
d) QS
R) Formaldehyde S) Benzene
b) QR
(3) χ max of p-hydroxy benzaldehyde is…..
a) 265
b) 250
c) 272
(4) How many peaks are observed for Isopropanol in PMR?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 5
d) 275
(5) n → π* in polar solvent shows……
a) Hyperchromic shift
Hypsochromic shift
d) None
b) Bathochromic shift
c)
(6) 106 mg of compound A (dissolved in 100 ml ethanol) in a 1 cm long cell has a χ max 295 nm and
absorbance is 0.28. Then the value of A1% 1cm is…..
a) 2.64
b) 264
c) 190
d) 640
(7) Rotation of e- around proton generates a secondary magnetic field which may oppose the applied
magnetic field. The proton is said to be…..
a) Deshielded
b) H-Bonded
c) Shifted
d) Shielded
C=0 stretching IR Freq.(cm-1)
(8) Compound
P) C=O stretching
1) 1420
Q) C-O bending in Phenol
2) 3600
R) O-H stretching
3) 1715
S) O-H
4) 1230
bending
a) P-4,Q-1,R-2,S-3
b) P-2,Q-3,R-4,S-1
c) P-3,Q-4, R-2,S-1
d) P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4
(9) The mechanism of the digitalis is…………
a) ↑ end diastolic volume
myocardial contraction d) All
b) ↓ end diastolic volume
c) ↓
(10) Which of the following drug is a long acting nitrate used in CHD?
a) Nitroglycerine
b) Amyl nitrate
c) Isosorbide 5-mononitrate
d) Nitrous oxide
(11) Which of the following drug cause decrease in GFR?
a) Hydralazine
b) Orlistat
c) Rimonabant
d)Enalaprilat
(12) Which of the following drug should not be given with Sotalol?
a) Probucol
d) Bosentan
b) Furosemide
c) Icatibant
(13) Which vitamin’s coenzyme must be required for transamination of Amino acids?
a) VitaminB5
d) VitaminB3
b) VitaminB6
c) VitaminB12
(14) Disposal of ammonia in mammals is by………
a) NH4
b) Urea
c) Uric Acid
d) NH4Cl
(15) Which of the following is/are example(s) of ketone bodies?
a) Alcohol
b) Acetone
c) Acetoacetate
d) Both A and C
(16) Which of the following enzyme cause phosphorylation of glucose in Glycolysis?
a) Glucokinase
All
b) Pyruvate kinase
c) PFK
d)
c) VitaminB3
d)
(17) Which of the following vitamin is known as anti-dermatitis factor?
a) VitaminB6
Pantothenic acid
(18) Melatonin is synthesized from…………….
b) VitaminB12
a) Tyrosine
b) Valine
c) Tryptophan
d) Serine
(19) Which arm of the t-RNA is responsible for recognition of triplet codon of m-RNA?
a) D-arm
b) T¥C arm
c) Anticodon arm
d) Variable arm
(20) Which of the coenzyme donates sulfate for synthesis of mucopolysaccharides?
a) Phosphoadenosine phosphosulfate
d) ATP
b) UDP
c) CDP
(21) Which of the Non-α-amino acid is intermediate in synthesis of porphyrin?
a) α-Alanine
d) ornithine
b) δ-Aminolevulinic acid
c) Taurine
(22) Which of the following is a central molecule for Glycolysis, Glycogenesis, Gluconeogenesis?
a) Fructose
b) Glucose-6-phosphate c) Fructose-6-phosphate
d) Glycogen
(23) Bile acid is synthesized from……………
a) Choline
Triacylglycerol
b) Phosphatidic acid
c) Cholesterol
d)
(24) Elastin & Keratin are……………..…
a) Scleroprotein b) Simple protein
d) All of the above
c) conjugated protein
(9) Chemical shift can be expressed in…….
a) δ
b) ppm
above
(10) If the % transmittance is 50% then Absorbance will be….
c) Hz
d) All of
a) 0.5
d) 2.01
b) 1.301
c) 1.0
(11) χ max of O-chloro benzaldehyde is…..
a) 265
b) 250
c) 272
d) 275
(12) How many peaks are observed for Dimethyl etherl in PMR?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
(13) π →π* in polar solvent shows……
a) Hypochromic shift
Hypsochromic shift
b) Bathochromic shift
c)
d) None
(14) A 6.40* 10-5 M solution had an absorbance of 0.847 in a 1cm cell at 255 nm. Then molar absorptivity
is…..
a) 13234
b) 150
c) 1400
d) 1324
(15) Precession frequency of 13C is of how many times that of 1H…..
a) 4
(16)
b) 1/2
c) 2
d) 1/4
Which of the following can not be used as IR detector?
a) hermocouple
b) Golay pneumatic detector
c) Globar
d) Bolometer
(25) Which of the following gene is responsible for Obesity?
a) obs gene
obg gene
b) obe gene
c) ob gene
d)
(26) Which of the following enzyme responsible for transport & elimination of cholesterol from body?
a) Lysine transferase
b) Lecithine-cholesterol acyl transferase c) CETP
d) Acylase
(27) Which of the following enzyme cause Gaucher’s disease?
a) β-glucosidase
b) α-galactosidase
d) β-galactosidase
c) ceramidase
(28) Which of the following is an active form of methionine?
a)s-adenosyl methionine
b) S-adenosyl cystine
methionine
d) S-formyl methionine
c) Meth-
(29) Which of the Vitamin is known as Antisterility Vitamin?
a) Vitamin E
Vitamin B
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin K
d)
(30) How many NET ATP synthesized in aerobic condition in Glycolysis?
a) 8
b) 6
c) 10
d) 12
(31) Which of the following is/are specific biomarker for diagnosis of CVS disease?
a) LDH2
b) CPK2
c) LDH1
d) Both B & C
(32) Which of the following cholesterol is GOOD CHOLESTEROL’?
a) HDL
NONE
b) LDL
c) TG
d)
(33) Which of the Following drug is/are Non depolarizing competitive antagonist?
a) Rocuronium
Both A & B
b) Mecamylamine
c) Suxamethonium
(34) Which of the drug used in treatment of multiple sclerosis ?
a) Tolazoline
b) Tizobifen
c) Tizanidine
d) dimaprit
(35) Which of the following is an antidote of Atropine?
a) Physostigmine
b) Carisopradol
c) Azimilide
d) fibirtan
d)
(36) Which of the following drug given with Quinidine to prevent its indirect effect?
a) Verapamil
b) Cardinolides c) Bisoprolol
d) All
(37) Which of the drug is Fibrinogen site inhibitor?
a) Tirofiban
Aspirin
b) Ticlopidine
c) Dipyridamol
d)
(38) Which of the following is a GM_CSF?
a) Lenograstim
Molgramostin
b) Filgrastim
c) PEGfilgrastim d)
1. Tetracyclines are drug of choice for ………..
(a) Typhoid fever
(b) whooping cough (c) Both a and b
above
2. Which derivative of CPcol is more active than CPcol?
(a) 2-NHCOCH3
(b) 2-NHCOCHF2 (c) 2-NHCOCF3
3. Clarithromycin is drug of choice for………………….
(a) Legionella infection
(b) Atypical pneumonia
Whooping cough
4. Imipenam binds to ………………….
(a) PBP-1
(b) PBP-2
(c) PBP-3
(23)
(d) None of the
(d) 2-NHCF3
(c) Lyme`s disease (d)
(d) PBP-4to6
Which Amino acid directly participates in synthesis of Heme….
a) Methionine
b) Aspartate
c) Glycine
d) Tryptophan
(24)
No. of Heme present in Myoglobin is……………..
a) 1
(25)
b) Cytochrome
(28)
c) Cytochrome b
d) Non-Heme
b) Catalase
c) Superoxide dismutase d)
BSP (Bromosulphthalein) is used to access the function of…
a) Liver
b) Kidney
c) Heart
c) Polypeptide
d) Octapeptide
Most active mineralocorticoid hormone is …………….
a) Cortisol
(30)
d)Muscle
Gonadotropin releasing hormone is….
a) Nonapeptide b) Decapeptide
(29)
d) 4
Superoxide is converted to H2O2 by…
a) Peroxidase
Glutathion peroxidase
(27)
c) 3
Which of the following element of ETC possesses isoprenoid units?
a) Coenzyme Q
(26)
b) 2
b) Aldosterone
c) ADH
d) Epinephrine
In Hemolytic Jaundice, Van den Bergh reaction is….
a) Direct positive b) Indirect positive
None of above
c) Biphasic
(39) Which of the following drug generally given with Diclofenac after orthopedic surgery?
d)
a) Vecuronium
b) Derifenacin
d) Suxamethonium
c) Chlormezanone
(40) Which of the following drug produce depolarization & persistent depolarization?
a) Gallamine
b) Trimetaphan
c) Nicotine
d) Doxacurium
(41) Which of the following is an Anionic site Anticholinestearase used in treatment of Glaucoma?
a) Distigmine
b) Malathione
c) Ecothiopate
d) Physostigmine
(42) Which of the following receptor located on circular muscle of eye?
a)NM Receptor
Receptor
b) M3 Receptor
c) M1 Receptor
d) NN
(43) Which of the following drug is/are used in poisoning of irreversible Anticholinestearase ?
a) Atropine
Both a & b
b) Pralidoxime
c) Neostigmine
d)
(44) Which of the following sugar is an important metabolite in HMP shunt pathway?
a) D-Ribulose
Xylose
b) Xylulose
c) Ribose
d)
(45) Which of the following lipid cause diabetes in Hyperlipidemia?
a) HDL
b) LDL
c) Phospholipid
d) Triacylglycerol
(46) Which of the following protein structure contain two or more segment of peptide chains?
a) Primary
b) Secondry
c) Tertiary
d) Quaternary
(47) Histones are associated with eukaryotic DNA leads to formation of……….
a) Chromosome
Zygote
b) Nucleotide
c) Nucleosomes
(48) Which of the following statement is true for Un-competative enzyme inhibiton ?
a) Inhibitor binds to E+S Complex
Complex
b) Inhibitor binds to ES
d)
c) Inhibitor binds to E+P Complex
Complex & ES complex
d) Inhibitor binds to E+S
(49) What is calcitriol?
a) Vitamin
b) Hormone
c) Prohormone
d) All
(50) Which of the following assay is based on immunochemical reaction of antigen & antibody?
a) ELISA
b) RIA
COLORIMETRY
c) LUMINEX
d)
(51) Which of the following is an Anti-oxidant Enzyme?
a) Catalase
b) Tocopherols
c) Hydroperoxidase
d) Aspartate
(52) Growth hormone (GH) mediate bone mineralization through………..?
a) GRF
b) IGF-I
c) hCG
d) Somatostatin
(53) Which of the following commonest amino acid is found in protein?
a) Alanine
Glycine
b) Tryptophan
c) Tyrosine
d)
(54) Which of the following drug combinations are highly susceptible to Nephrotoxicity?
a) Enalapril+Hydrochlorthiazide
Losartan+Hydrochlorthiazide
b)
c) Atenolol+Hydrochlorthiazide
Amlodipine+Hydrochlorthiazide
d)
(55) A patient 40-45 year age, suffering from heart failure & hypertension, which of the following is first
choice drug prescribed by physician?
a) Digoxin
b) Irbesartan
Torasemide
c) Spironolactone
d)
(56) Which of the following drug is both L & T type Calcium channel blocker?
a) Nimodipine
Ethosuximide
b) Mibefradil
c) Verapamil
d)
(57) Which of the following drug is specific B2 receptor Antagonist?
a) Betaxolol
b) Salbutamol
d) Butoxamine
c) Ritodrine
(58) Which of the following drugs is/are Potasium channel openers?
a) Nicorandil
b) Pinacidil
d) Nebivolol
c) both a & b
(59) Desmopressin is selective………………..
a) V2 Agonist
Antagonist
b) V2 Antagonist
c) V1 Agonist
d)
c) Methoxamine
d) Roxin
V1
(60) Which of the following is Heparin Antagonist?
a) Pergolide
b) Protamine
(61) Which of the following drug is PPAR α receptor Activator?
a) Tolbutamide
b) Gemfibrozil
d) Muraglitazar
c) Rosiglitazone
(62) Which of the Following antihypertensive drug is producing Rebound Hypertension?
a) Hexamethonium
b) Clonidine
d) Prazosin
c) Metoprolol
(63) Which of the following drug is non-depolarising NM blocker?
a) Mephensin
Mivacurium
b) Decamethonium
c) Baclofen
d)
(64) Which of the following is controlling DARK ADAPTATION TIME?
a) Retinol
acid
b) Retinal
c) Rhodopsin
(65) Which of the following sugar is required for nucleic synthesis?
d) Retinoic
a) Ribose
b) Galactose
d) Verbascose
c) Fructose
(66) Which of the following is an unsaturated fatty acid?
a) Myristic acid
b) Oleic acid
d) Lignoceric acid
c) Valeric acid
(67) Which of the following amino acid is containing specific functional group DISULFIDE?
a) Cysteine
b) Cystine
c) Methionine
d) Leucine
(68) Which of the following test is used to detect albuminuria?
a) Heat coagulation
b) Soliwanoff’s
c) Millons
d ALL
(69) Which of the following specific reaction is used to identify the increase in serum bilirubin?
a) Van den bergh
d) All
b) Fouchet’s test
c) Gmelin test
(70) Which of the following test used to assess the completeness of vagotomy?
a) Hollander’s test
b) BUN
c) Sulmen’s test
d) Histamine test
(71) Which of the following amino acid is precursor for thyroid hormone synthesis?
a) Phenyl alanine
Threonine
b) Tyrosine
c) Glycine
d)
(72) Which of the following is an end product of β-oxidation?
a) Acetyl CoA
b) Aceyl CoA
d) Oleic acid
(73) Which of the following enzyme deficiency cause Lactic acidosis?
c) Palmitate
a) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
dehydrogenase
b) Lactate
c) 2, 3-BPG
d) Hexokinase
(74) Aldosterone is secreted from……?
a) Zona glomerulosa
b) Zona reticularis
c) Zona fasciculata
d) ALL
(75) Which of the following enzyme is responsible for formation of tRNA?
a) RNA polymerase I
b) RNA polymerase II
c) RNA polymerase III
d) Polymerase
(76) Which of the following codons signaling during foetus development causes progeria?
a) UAG
b) UUA
c) AUU
d) CUG
(77) Which of the following is an end product of purine metabolism in humans?
a) Urea
b) Uric acid
d) Ammonia
c) Xanthine
(78) Which of the following immunoglobin is mostly responsible for humoral immunity?
a) IgA
b) IgD
c) IgM
1. Metabolism of carbamezapine occurs via …………..
(a) Epoxide formation at (E) cis stilbene double bond
(b) Epoxane formation at (Z) cis stilbene double bond
(c) Epoxide formation at (Z) cis stilbene double bond
(d) Epoxane formation at (E) cis stilbene double bond
2. Gabapentin acts by inhibiting ………..
(a) GABA
(b) Na+ channels
d) IgG
(c) Ca+2 channels
(d) Glutamate
3. Clozapine contains which of the following moiety?
(a) Fluorobutyrophenone
(b) Dibenzodiazepine
(c) Dibenzoxazepine
(d) Diphenylbutylpiperidine
4. Therapeutically used Amphetamine is ……………..
(a) (S) + isomer
(b) (S) – isomer
(c) (R) + isomer
(d) (R) – isomer
5. SPEED® is intravenous salt of ………………….
(a) Amphetamine
(b) Benzphetamine
(c) Methamphetamine
(d) Phentermine
6. Anxiolytic effect of benzodiaziapines is mediated via ………………
(a) α1 subunit
(b) α2 subunit
(c) α3 subunit
(d) α4 subunit
Antipsychotic drug causes gynaecomastia as a side effect which is due
to ………………
a) ↑ in prolactin level
b) ↓ in prolactin level
dopamine
d) ↓ in dopamine
c) ↑ in
(2) Which of the following drug(s) causes Agranulocytosis?
a) Olanzapine
b) Clozapine
and B d) None of the above
c) Both A
(3) Which of the following is side effect of Phenytoin?
a) Gum hyperplasia
b) Hirsutism
and B d) None of the above
c) Both A
(4) Which of the following drug is used to treat absence seizure?
a) Trimethadione
b) Ethosuximide
and B d) None of the above
(5) Antiepileptic Drug
c) Both A
Mechanism of action
1) Vigabatrin
P) NMDA antagonist
2) Felbamate
inhibitor
Q) GABA transaminase
R) Ca2+ channel inhibitor
3) Tiagabine
4) Gabapentin
inhibitor
S) GABA reuptake
a) 1-S, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-P
b) 1-Q, 2-P, 3-S, 4-R
3-R, 4-P
d) 1-S, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-P
c) 1-Q, 2-S,
COGNOSY
(1) Which of the following is triterpenoidal Saponin glycoside?
a) Strophanthidin
b) Glycyrrhizine
Barbaloin
d) Amygdalin
c)
(2) With Ammonium Vanadate and sulphuric acid, strychnine gives
which colour?
a) Purple
b) Orange
c) Blue
d) Yellow
(3) Which of the following drug is Egyptian henbane?
a) H. reticulates
b) H. aureus
d) H. muticus
c) H. albus
(4) Which of the following drug(s) contains Coumarin glycosides?
a) Psoralea
b) Ammi visnaga
and B d) None of the above
c) Both A
(5) Which of the following test is used to detect ergot alkaloids?
a) Thaleoquin test
b) Van Urk’s test
reaction
d) Schoutenten’s reaction
c) Kedde’s
(6) Which of the following drug belongs to Araliaceae family?
a) Glycyrrhiza
Sarsaparilla
b) Ginseng
c) Senega
d)
(79) Which of the following organism culture is used for detection of mutagenicity?
a) S.pyogenus
b) S.typhimurium
c) B.subtilis
d) ALL
(80) Which of the following ACE inhibitor is producing heavy protenuria?
a) Captopril
b) Ramipril
c) Lisinopril
d) Enalapril
(81) Which of the following H1 – receptor antagonist is used in treatment of vestibular disorders?
a) Cinnarizine
b) Cyclizine
c) Dexamethasone
d) Alterelol
c) T3
d)
(82) Which of the following drug is “mast-cell stabilizer”?
a) Loratidine
Chromoglicate
b) Ropinirol
(83) Which of the following is mechanism for TACROLIMUS?
a) IL-12 inhibitor
b) IL-1 inhibitor
c) IL-2 inhibitor
d) IL-4 inhibitor
(84) Which of the following sulfonamide causes reversible decrease in sperm count?
a) Sulfadiazine
d) Dapsone
b) Sulfasalazine
(85) Which of the following drug is HMG-Co A reductase inhibitor?
c) Sulfadoxine
a) Atorvastatin
b) Gemfibrozil
c) Niacin
d) ALL
(86) Which of the following drug is administerd by intrathecal route in treatment of childhood
leukaemia?
a) Mianserine
b) Clopidogrel
c) Methtrexate
d) Ticlopidine
(87) Which of the following cell-cycle phase is responsible for DNA synthesis?
a) S-phase
d) G2 -phase
b) G-phase
c) M-phase
(88) Which of the following progesterone derivative is widely used in oral-contraceptive pill?
a) Levonogestrel
b) Mestranol
d) Genistain
c) Estranol
(89) Which of the following test is used for detection of ketone bodies?
a) Rothera’s test
test
b) Biuret’s test
c) Seliwanoff’s test
d) Milon’s
c) Vitamin C
d) Niacin
(90) The intrinsic White injury factor is……
a) Biotin
b) Lipoic acid
(91) The coding unit of the DNA is called as…..?
a) Intron
d) Prion
b) Cistron
c) Exon
(92) Induced fit theory was given by………….?
a) Fischer
b) Koshland
d) Michalies
c) Griffin
(93) Which of the following disease is autoimmune disorder?
a) Rhematoid arthritis
b) Grave’s disease
c) Addision disease
d) Obesity
(94) Niemann-pick disease is due to the deficiency of…….?
a) Glucokinase
b) Sphingomylinase
c) Fructo kinase
b) Glucose+Lactose
d) Glucose+Fructose
c)
d) PFK-II
(95) Maltose is composed of……?
a) Glucose+Glucose
Glucose+Galactose
(96) Which of the following enzyme is elevated in prostate cancer?
a) Alkaline phosphate
b) Acid phosphate
c) AST
d) ALT
c) IgE
d) IgM
(97) Which of the following antibody is secreted in mother’s milk?
a) IgA
b) IgD
(98) Creatinine clearance is used to assess……………….
a) Renal function
function
d) ALL
b) Gastric fuction
c) Liver
b) FeCl3 Reaction
c) Ammonia
(99) Xanthine is characterized by…………..?
a) Murexide test
test
d) Meconic Acid test
(100) Which of the following drug is dopamine-β-hydroxydase inhibitor?
a) Disulfiram
Olmisartan
b) Diazoxide
c) Baclofen
d)
(101) Urea cycle involved in …………..?
a) Protein metabolism b) Carbohydrate metabolism
c) Lipid metabolism
d) None
(102) Which of the following glucocorticoids is used in replacement therapy?
a) Betamethasone
d) None
b)Beclomethasone
c)
Hydrocortisone
(103) Which of the following diuretic drug is containing pteridine ring?
a) Triamterene
b) Amiloride
d) Furosemide
c) Bendrothiazide
Which component is responsible for developing the proper pressure within
the aerosol system?
a) Actuator
Container
b) Propellant
c) Valve
d)
Inadequate spreading of the coating solution before drying causes which
tablet coating defect?
a) Orange peeling
Blooming
b) Blistering
c) Cracking
d)
Which of the following statements about lambda carrageenan (Viscarin) is/are true?
a) Lambda carrageenan is a non-gelling polymer among different carrageenan grades
b) It can be used as a sustained release tablet matrix agent
c) Carrageenan is the hydrocolloid obtained by extraction with water from Sea weed (Class
Rhodophyceae)
d) All of the above
The shelf life (t90) of zero order reaction is calculated as…………………
a) 0.1Co / k
b) Co / 2k
c) 0.105 / k
d) 0.693 / k
For restricted retail sale of drugs apply in form No. _____________
a) 19
19-AA
b) 19-A
c) 19-C
d)
Flocculated suspensions exhibit ________________ type of flow.
a) Dilatant
Pseudoplastic
b) Newtonian
c) Plastic
d)
Polyplasdone used as a superdisintegrant is the trade name of
__________________
a) Crosslinked NaCMC
b) Crosslinked PVP
c) Crosslinked Starch d) Microcrystalline
cellulose
Which equation describes the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet?
a) Fick’s law
b) Henderson-Hassalbache
d) Michaelis-Menten
c) Noyes Whitney
The dose to be given for Intramuscular route of administration is ………………….
a) 0.01-0.2 ml
b) 2-4 ml
c) less than 20 ml
d) 500 ml or more
Which is a common reaction of reducing sugars (lactose) with amines
resulting into unstable products?
a) Hydrolysis
d) Oxidation
b) Lactolysation
c) Maillard reaction
The phenomenon of increasing solubility of non-polar molecules by addition
of a water miscible solvent in which the drug has good solubility is called
………..
a) Complexation
b) Co-solvency c) Solubilization d) Hydrotrophy
Pasteurization method for sterilization of milk is carried out at ……………
a) 62.8 ºC for 30 min.
68.2 ºC for 30 min.
b) 60 ºC for 1 hr
c) 121 ºC for 30 min.
d)
The biological indicator for moist heat sterilization is ………
P) Clostridium sporogenes
Q) Chromobacter prodigism
R) B. coagulam
S) B. subtilis
a) P, Q
b) P, R
c) R, S
d) Q, S
In BCS, Class III drugs are ______________________
a) Low solubility and high permeability
permeability
b) High solubility and low
c) Low solubility and low permeability
permeability
d) High solubility and high
Considering the WHO stability guidance for packaging, the Zone I indicate
the condition as……………
a) Temperate b) Subtropical with possible high humidity
d) Hot/Humid
Name
c) Hot/Dry
Description
P) Sorensen
1) pH scale
Q) Dalla Valle
2) Micromeritics
R) Zanasi
3) Tablet coating
S) Wurster
4) Capsule filling machine
a) P1 Q2 R3 S4
S4
b) P1 Q2 R4 S3 c) P2 Q1 R4 S3
d) P1 Q3 R2
Schedule
Description
P) Schedule M
1) Requirements of manufacturing premises
Q) Schedule O
2) Standards for disinfectant fluids
R) Schedule R
3) Standards for mechanical contraceptives
S) Schedule V
4) Standards for patent or proprietary medicines
a) P1 Q2 R3 S4
P1 Q3 R2 S4
b) P1 Q2 R4 S3
c) P2 Q1 R4 S3
Type of mill
Not used for
P) Hammer mill
1) Solid materials
Q) Revolving mill
2) Soft materials
R) Cutter mill
3) Abrasive material
S) Colloid mill
4) Friable material
a) P1 Q3 R4 S2
P2 Q3 R1 S4
b) P2 Q3 R4 S1
Industrial dryer
c) P3 Q2 R4 S1
d)
Pharmaceutical applications
P) Drum dryer
1) Antibiotic solution
Q) Fluidized bed dryer
2) Tablet granules
R) Spray dryer
3) Gelatin
S) Freeze dryer (lyophilizer)
4) Suspension of kaolin
a) P1 Q3 R4 S2
P3 Q2 R4 S1
d)
b) P4 Q2 R3 S1
c) P4 Q2 R1 S3
d)
One of the following statements for Transdermal drug delivery system is not
true?
a) Suitable for drugs with low o/w partition coefficient
b) Useful for prolonged duration of action
c) Provides rapid drug absorption by penetration enhancers
d) Franz diffusion cell is used for In-vitro release testing of TDDS
1) A teratogenic action is:
a) Toxic action on the liver
b) Negative action on the fetus causing fetal malformation
c) Toxic action on blood system
d) Toxic action on kidneys
2) Which one of the following local anesthetics is an ester of benzoic acid?
a) Lidocaine
b) Procaine
c) Ropivacaine
d) Cocaine
3) Which of the following hypnotic agents is a positive allosteric modulator of GABAA
receptor function?
a) Zaleplon
b) Flurazepam
c) Zolpidem
d) All of the above
4) Dose-related adverse effect caused by phenytoin is:
a) Physical and psychological dependence
b) Exacerbated grand mal
epilepsy
c) Gingival hyperplasia
d)
Extrapyramidal
symptoms
5) Which of the following statements is correct?
a) MAO-A metabolizes dopamine; MAO-B metabolizes serotonin
b) MAO-A metabolizes norepinephrine and dopamine; MAO-B metabolizes serotonin
c) MAO-A metabolizes norepinephrine and serotonin; MAO-B metabolizes dopamine
d) MAO-A metabolizes dopamine; MAO-B metabolizes norepinephrine and serotonin
6) For which of the following conditions could aspirin be used prophylactically?
a) Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema
b) Peptic ulcers
c) Thromboembolism
d) Metabolic acidosis
7) Tick the antibiotic for cancer chemotherapy:
a) Cytarabine
b) Doxorubicin
c) Gentamycin
d) Etoposide
8) Tick the drug which belongs to nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors:
a) Zidovudine
b) Vidarabine
c) Nevirapine
d) Gancyclovir
9) Mechanism of Izoniazid action is:
a) Inhibition of protein synthesis
b) Inhibition of mycolic
acids synthesis
c) Inhibition of RNA synthesis
d) Inhibition of ADP
synthesis
10) Tachyphylaxis is:
a) A drug interaction between two similar types of drugs
b) Very rapidly developing tolerance
c) An increase in responsiveness to a drug after taking it for days or weeks.
d) None of the above
11) Cocaine is used as...................in the officinal medicine.
a) narcotic
b) emetic
c) sedative
d)
local
anaesthetic
12) Choose the right test for identification of anthraquinones.
a) Marquis test
b) Froehde test
c) Liebermann-Burchard test
d) Bornträeger test
13) What is Opium?
a) Latex exudate of the unriped incised capsules after air dried.
b) Dried wateric extract of the riped capsules.
c) Dried alcoholic extract of the unriped capsules.
d) Concentrated alcoholic extract of the poppy straw.
14) The common base skeleton of physiologically active ergoline alkaloids is:
a) isolysergic acid. b) clavorubine.
c) lysergic acid.
d)
2phenylbenzopyrane
15) Which of the following alkaloids derived from lysine?
a) emetin
b) chelidonin
c) cinchonidin
d) lobelin
16) Codeine is:
a) monomethyl ether of morphine.
b)
amide
of
apomorphine.
c) acetyl derivative of morphine.
d) dimethyl ether
of papaverine.
17) Which of the following vegetable drugs has the highest caffeine content?
a) Mate folium
b) Theae folium
c) Guarana
d) Coffeae semen
18) Which of the followings is true for inulin?
a) arabin
b) pectin
c) galaktane
d) fructosane
19) Which of the following plant constituents can be characterized by reversible
complexation
with proteins?
a) alkaloids
b) saponins
c) tannins
d) mucilages
20) What type of compound is arbutin used in urological infections?
a) flavonoid glycoside
b)
phenolic
glycoside
c) furanocoumarin
d)
iridoid
glycoside
21) Pilocarpin the alkaloid of Jaborandi folium has.................... .
a) antagonist effect of atropine
b) agonist effect of
atropin
c) sedative effect
d) diuretic activity
22) Which is the right reagent for identification of Ergot alkaloids?
a) van Urk
b) Fehling I and II
c) iron-III-chloride
d) phloroglucinol
in HCl
23) Which of the following drug contains saponin glycoside?
a) Dioscorea
b) Ginseng
c) Both
d) none
24) Which of the following test is used for detection of quinoline alkaloid?
a) Thaleoquin test
b) Vitali-morin test c) Van-urk’s test
d) Mayer’s test
25) Which of the following drugs contains the diacytic stomata?
a) Digitalis
b) Datura
c) Vasaka
d) Belladona
1) Which component is responsible for developing the proper pressure within the aerosol system?
a) Actuator
b) Propellant
c) Valve
d) Container
2) Inadequate spreading of the coating solution before drying causes which tablet coating defect?
a) Orange peeling
b) Blistering
c) Cracking
d) Blooming
3) Which of the following statements about lambda carrageenan (Viscarin) is/are true?
a) Lambda carrageenan is a non-gelling polymer among different carrageenan grades
b) It can be used as a sustained release tablet matrix agent
c) Carrageenan is the hydrocolloid obtained by extraction with water from Sea weed (Class
Rhodophyceae)
d) All of the above
4) The shelf life (t90) of zero order reaction is calculated as…………………
a) 0.1Co / k
b) Co / 2k
c) 0.105 / k
d) 0.693 / k
5) For restricted retail sale of drugs apply in form No. _____________
a) 19
b) 19-A
c) 19-C
d) 19-AA
6) Flocculated suspensions exhibit ________________ type of flow.
a) Dilatant
b) Newtonian
c) Plastic
d) Pseudoplastic
7) Polyplasdone used as a superdisintegrant is the trade name of __________________
a) Crosslinked NaCMC b) Crosslinked PVP
c) Crosslinked Starch d) Microcrystalline cellulose
8) Removal of a single electron from a molecule results in the formation of
a) Fragment ion
b) Metastable ion
c) Molecular ion
ion
d) Rearrangement
9) Which equation describes the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet?
a) Fick’s law
b) Henderson-Hassalbache
c) Noyes Whitney
Menten
d) Michaelis-
10)The dose to be given for Intramuscular route of administration is ………………….
a) 0.01-0.2 ml
b) 2-4 ml
c) less than 20 ml
d) 500 ml or more
11) Which is a common reaction of reducing sugars (lactose) with amines resulting into unstable
products?
a) Hydrolysis
b) Lactolysation
c) Maillard reaction
d) Oxidation
12) The phenomenon of increasing solubility of non-polar molecules by addition of a water miscible
solvent in which the drug has good solubility is called ………..
a) Complexation
b) Co-solvency c) Solubilization d) Hydrotrophy
13) Pasteurization method for sterilization of milk is carried out at ……………
a) 62.8 ºC for 30 min. b) 60 ºC for 1 hr
c) 121 ºC for 30 min. d) 68.2 ºC for 30 min.
14) A solvent used in NMR studies is
a) chloroform
b) acetone
c) carbontetrachloride
d) methanol
15) The biological indicator for moist heat sterilization is ………
P) Clostridium sporogenes
Q) Chromobacter prodigism
R) B. coagulam
S) B. subtilis
a) P, Q
b) P, R
c) R, S
d) Q, S
16) In BCS, Class III drugs are ______________________
a) Low solubility and high permeability
b) High solubility and low permeability
c) Low solubility and low permeability
d) High solubility and high permeability
17) Considering the WHO stability guidance for packaging, the Zone I indicate the condition as……………
a) Temperate
b) Subtropical with possible high humidity
c) Hot/Dry
d)
Hot/Humid
18) Conductivity cells are made up of
a) two silver rods
c) glass membrane with Ag/AgCI
b) two parallel sheets of platinum
d) Sb-Sb203
19) Name
P) Sorensen
Q) Dalla Valle
R) Zanasi
S) Wurster
a) P1 Q2 R3 S4
Description
1) pH scale
2) Micromeritics
3) Tablet coating
4) Capsule filling machine
b) P1 Q2 R4 S3
c) P2 Q1 R4 S3
20) Schedule
P) Schedule M
Q) Schedule O
R) Schedule R
S) Schedule V
a) P1 Q2 R3 S4
Description
1) Requirements of manufacturing premises
2) Standards for disinfectant fluids
3) Standards for mechanical contraceptives
4) Standards for patent or proprietary medicines
b) P1 Q2 R4 S3
c) P2 Q1 R4 S3
d) P1 Q3 R2 S4
21) Type of mill
P) Hammer mill
Q) Revolving mill
R) Cutter mill
S) Colloid mill
a) P1 Q3 R4 S2
Not used for
1) Solid materials
2) Soft materials
3) Abrasive material
4) Friable material
b) P2 Q3 R4 S1
c) P3 Q2 R4 S1
22) Industrial dryer
P) Drum dryer
Pharmaceutical applications
1) Antibiotic solution
d) P1 Q3 R2 S4
d) P2 Q3 R1 S4
Q) Fluidized bed dryer
2) Tablet granules
R) Spray dryer
3) Gelatin
S) Freeze dryer (lyophilizer)
4) Suspension of kaolin
a) P1 Q3 R4 S2
b) P4 Q2 R3 S1
c) P4 Q2 R1 S3
d) P3 Q2 R4 S1
23) IR Detectors
P) Thermocouple
Q) Pyroelectric Detector
R) Golay cells
S) Thermistor
a) P4 Q2 R3 S1
b) P3 Q1 R4 S2
Composition
1) Oxides of Mn, CO and Ni
2) Bi-Sb
3) Xenon
4) Triglycine sulphate
c) P1 Q3 R2 S4
d) P2 Q4 R3 S1
24) Technique
P) Visible spectrophotometry
Q) IR spectrophotometry
R) NMR spectrophotometry
S) Fluorescence spectrophotometry
a) P2 Q4 R3 S1
b) P3 Q2 R1 S4
Source of Radiation
1) R Source transmitter
2) Xenon lamp
3) Tungsten lamp
4) Nernst glower
c) P3 Q4 R1 S2
d) P4 Q1 R3 S2
25) Equation
P) Nernst equation
Q) Ilkovic equation
R) Kaulrauch law
S) Hooke’s law
Application
1) Potential
2) IR spectroscopy
3) Diffusion current
4) Conductance
a) P1 Q3 R4 S2
b) P3 Q2 R1 S4
P4 Q1 R3 S2
c) P3 Q4 R1 S2
d)
26) How many gms of a drug should be used in preparing 500 ml of a 1 : 2500 solution?
a) 0.2
b) 0.02
c) 0.4
d) 1.25
27) The pyroelectric detector converts electromagnetic radiation into
a) electrical signal
b) fluorescence
c) electrons
d) visible light
28) The method of expressing magnetic field strength is
a) cycles/sec
b) pulses/sec
c) debye units
d) gauss
29) A conductance cell is calibrated by using a solution of known conductivity, i.e., usually a solution of
a) NaCl
b) HgCl
c) KCl
d) NaSO
30) A mixture of Hydrochloric acid and acetic acid can be titrated satisfactorily by
a) Potentiometry
b) Conductometry
c) amperometry
d)
Spectrophotometry
31) An amperometric titrations which one of the following is kept constant?
a) Current
b) Resistance
c) Voltage Applied
d) Conductance
32) Energy absorbed in U.V. region produces changes in
a) rotational energy b) vibrational energy c) electronic energy
d) the three energy levels
33) Molecular formula C4H8O2 : NMR values 1.21δ (3H) triplet; 1.83 δ (3H) singlet; 4.03 δ (2H) quartet
Then possible structure is
a) CH3COOCH2CH3
b) CH3OCOCH2CH3
c) CH3CH2CH2COOH
d) None of
above
34) One of the following statements for Transdermal drug delivery system is not true?
a) Suitable for drugs with low o/w partition coefficient
b) Useful for prolonged duration of action
c) Provides rapid drug absorption by penetration enhancers
d) Franz diffusion cell is used for In-vitro release testing of TDDS
35) A teratogenic action is:
a) Toxic action on the liver
b) Negative action on the fetus causing fetal malformation
c) Toxic action on blood system
d) Toxic action on kidneys
36) Which one of the following local anesthetics is an ester of benzoic acid?
a) Lidocaine
b) Procaine
c) Ropivacaine
d) Cocaine
37) Which of the following hypnotic agents is a positive allosteric modulator of GABAα receptor
function?
a) Zaleplon
b) Flurazepam
c) Zolpidem
d) All of the above
38) Dose-related adverse effect caused by phenytoin is:
a) Physical and psychological dependence
b) Exacerbated grand mal epilepsy
c) Gingival hyperplasia
d) Extrapyramidal symptoms
39) Which of the following statements is correct?
a) MAO-A metabolizes dopamine; MAO-B metabolizes serotonin
b) MAO-A metabolizes norepinephrine and dopamine; MAO-B metabolizes serotonin
c) MAO-A metabolizes norepinephrine and serotonin; MAO-B metabolizes dopamine
d) MAO-A metabolizes dopamine; MAO-B metabolizes norepinephrine and serotonin
40) For which of the following conditions could aspirin be used prophylactically?
a) Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema
b) Peptic ulcers
c) Thromboembolism
d) Metabolic acidosis
41) Antibiotic for cancer chemotherapy is:
a) Cytarabine
b) Doxorubicin
c) Gentamycin
d) Etoposide
42) Drug which belongs to nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors:
a) Zidovudine
b) Vidarabine
c) Nevirapine
d) Gancyclovir
43) Mechanism of Izoniazid action is:
a) Inhibition of protein synthesis
c) Inhibition of RNA synthesis
b) Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis
d) Inhibition of ADP synthesis
44) Tachyphylaxis is:
a) A drug interaction between two similar types of drugs
b) Very rapidly developing tolerance
c) An increase in responsiveness to a drug after taking it for days or weeks.
d) None of the above
45) The common base skeleton of physiologically active ergoline alkaloids is:
a) isolysergic acid.
b) clavorubine. c) lysergic acid. d) 2-phenylbenzopyrane
46) Which of the following alkaloids derived from lysine?
a) emetin
b) chelidonin
c) cinchonidin
47) Cocaine is used as...................in the officinal medicine.
a) narcotic
b) emetic
c) sedative
d) local anaesthetic
48) Choose the right test for identification of anthraquinones.
d) lobelin
a) Marquis test
c) Liebermann-Burchard test
b) Froehde test
d) Bornträeger test
49) What is Opium?
a) Latex exudate of the unriped incised capsules after air dried.
b) Dried wateric extract of the riped capsules.
c) Dried alcoholic extract of the unriped capsules.
d) Concentrated alcoholic extract of the poppy straw.
50) Codeine is:
a) monomethyl ether of morphine.
c) acetyl derivative of morphine.
b) amide of apomorphine.
d) dimethyl ether of papaverine.
51) Which of the following vegetable drugs has the highest caffeine content?
a) Mate folium
b) Theae folium c) Guarana
d) Coffeae semen
52) Which of the followings is true for inulin?
a) arabin
b) pectin
c) galaktane
d) fructosane
53) Which of the following plant constituents can be characterized by reversible complexation with
proteins?
a) alkaloids
b) saponins
c) tannins
d) mucilages
54) What type of compound is arbutin used in urological infections?
a) flavonoid glycoside
b) phenolic glycoside
c) furanocoumarin
d) iridoid glycoside
55) Pilocarpin the alkaloid of Jaborandi folium has.................... .
a) antagonist effect of atropine
b) agonist effect of atropin
c) sedative effect
d) diuretic activity
56) Which is the right reagent for identification of Ergot alkaloids?
a) van Urk
b) Fehling I and II
c) iron-III-chloride
d) phloroglucinol in HCl
57) Which of the following drug contains saponin glycoside?
a) Dioscorea
b) Ginseng
c) Both
d) none
58) Which of the following test is used for detection of quinoline alkaloid?
a) Thaleoquin test
b) Vitali-morin test
c) Van-urk’s test
d) Mayer’s test
59) Which of the following drugs contains the diacytic stomata?
a) Digitalis
b) Datura
c) Vasaka
60) Benzoczine isa) Methyl-p-aminobenzoate
the above
b) Ethyl-p-aminobenzoate
d) Belladona
c) ethyl-p-chlorobenzoate
61) Choose the correct statement about estrogena) Ring-D is benzenoid & -OH grp at C-17 is phenolic
b) Ring-A is quinonoid & -OH grp at C-3 is alcoholic
c) Ring-A is benzenoid & -OH grp at C-3 is phenolic
d) Ring-D is quinonoid & -OH grp at C-17 is alcoholic
62) Penicilline on hydrolysis with alkali gives
a) Penicilloic acid
b) Penaldic acid
c) Penicillic acid d) Penicillamine
63) Naltriben contains which of the following ring?
a) Furan
b) Pyrrole
c) Thiophene
64) Macrolide antibiotics exert their action by
(a) Inhibiting transcription
d) Pyridine
(b) Alternating the genetic code
d) None of
(c) Terminating protein synthesis prematurely
(d) Post translational modification
65) Which of the following gives positive ferric chloride test?
(a) Morphine
(b) Codeine
(c) Thebaine
66) Isoxazole ring can be found in which of the following?
(a) Nitrofurantoin
(b) Primidone
(c) Mebendazole
67) Which of the following is pseudo-irreversible in nature(a) Tacrine
(b) Donezepil
(c) Rivastigmine
(d) None of the above
(d) Cloxacillin
(d) Galanthamine
68) The ultrashort acting barbiturates have brief duration of action due to
(a) High degree of binding to plasma proteins
(b) Low lipid solubility resulting in a minimal concentration in brain
(c) Metabolism is slow in liver
(d) Rapid rate of redistribution from the brain due to its high liposolublity
69) Match the following
GROUP-A
GROUP-B
A. Dacarbazine P. Pteridine
B. Procarbazine
Q. Quinone
C. Mitomycin-C
R. Hydrazine
D. Methotrexate
S. Imidazole
(a) AP BQ CR DS
(b) AQ BR CS DP
(c) AS BQ CR DP
(d) AS BR CQ DP
70) Inadequate activity of which enzyme will lead to Grey baby syndrome
(a) Glucuronyl esterase (b) Glucuronyl transferase (c) Glucuronyl reductase (d) Glucuronyl
synthetase
71) Z-(o-chlorophenyl)-2-methylaminocyclohexanone is IUPAC name for
(a) Donezepil
(b) Meprobamate
(c) Ketamine
(d) Chlorphenesin
72) Metabolism of carbamezapine occurs via
(a) Epoxide formation at (E) cis stilbene double bond
(b) Epoxane formation at (z) cis stilbene double bond
(c) Epoxide formation at (z) cis stilbene double bond
(d) Epoxane formation at (E) cis stilbene double bond
73) SPEED® is intravenous salt of
(a) Amphetamine
(b) Benzphetamine
(c) Methamphetamine
(d) Phentermine
74) 9α-flouro-11β,17α,21-trihydroxy-16β-methylpregna-1,4-diene-3,20-dione is IUPAC name of
(a) Triamcinolone
(b) Cortisone
(c) Beclomethasone
(d) Betamethasone
75) Which of the following organism culture is used for detection of mutagenicity?
a) S.pyogenus
b) S.typhimurium
c) B.subtilis
d) ALL
76) Which of the following ACE inhibitor is producing heavy protenuria?
a) Captopril
b) Ramipril
c) Lisinopril
d) Enalapril
77) Which of the following H1 – receptor antagonist is used in treatment of vestibular disorders?
a) Cinnarizine
b) Cyclizine
c) Dexamethasone
d) Alterelol
78) Which of the following drug is “mast-cell stabilizer”?
a) Loratidine
b) Ropinirol
c) T3
Chromoglicate
79) Which of the following is mechanism for TACROLIMUS?
a) IL-12 inhibitor
b) IL-1 inhibitor
c) IL-2 inhibitor
d)
d) IL-4 inhibitor
80) Which of the following sulfonamide causes reversible decrease in sperm count?
a) Sulfadiazine
b) Sulfasalazine
c) Sulfadoxine
d) Dapsone
81) Which of the following drug is HMG-Co A reductase inhibitor?
a) Atorvastatin
b) Gemfibrozil
c) Niacin
d) ALL
82) Which of the following drug is administerd by intrathecal route in treatment of childhood
leukaemia?
a) Mianserine
b) Clopidogrel
c) Methtrexate
d) Ticlopidine
83) Which of the following cell-cycle phase is responsible for DNA synthesis?
a) S-phase
b) G-phase
c) M-phase
d) G2 -phase
84) Which of the following progesterone derivative is widely used in oral-contraceptive pill?
a) Levonogestrel
b) Mestranol
c) Estranol
d) Genistain
85) Which of the following test is used for detection of ketone bodies?
a) Rothera’s test
b) Biuret’s test
c) Seliwanoff’s test
d) Milon’s
test
86) The intrinsic White injury factor is……
a) Biotin
b) Lipoic acid
c) Vitamin C
87) The coding unit of the DNA is called as…..?
a) Intron
b) Cistron
c) Exon
88) Induced fit theory was given by………….?
a) Fischer
b) Koshland
c) Griffin
d) Niacin
d) Prion
d) Michalies
89) Which of the following disease is autoimmune disorder?
a) Rhematoid arthritis b) Grave’s disease
c) Addision disease
d) Obesity
90) Niemann-pick disease is due to the deficiency of…….?
a) Glucokinase
b) Sphingomylinase
c) Fructo kinase
d) PFK-II
91) Maltose is composed of……?
a) Glucose+Glucose b) Glucose+Lactose
Glucose+Fructose
c) Glucose+Galactose
d)
92) Which of the following enzyme is elevated in prostate cancer?
a) Alkaline phosphate
b) Acid phosphate
c) AST
d) ALT
93) Which of the following antibody is secreted in mother’s milk?
a) IgA
b) IgD
c) IgE
d) IgM
94) Creatinine clearance is used to assess……………….
a) Renal function
b) Gastric fuction
95) Xanthine is characterized by…………..?
a) Murexide test
b) FeCl3 Reaction
Acid test
c) Liver functiond) ALL
c) Ammonia test
96) Which of the following drug is dopamine-β-hydroxydase inhibitor?
a) Disulfiram
b) Diazoxide
c) Baclofen
Olmisartan
97) Urea cycle involved in …………..?
a) Protein metabolism b) Carbohydrate metabolism
d)
c) Lipid metabolism
98) Which of the following glucocorticoids is used in replacement therapy?
a) Betamethasone
b)Beclomethasone
c) Hydrocortisone
d) Meconic
d) None
d) None
99) Which of the following diuretic drug is containing pteridine ring?
a) Triamterene
b) Amiloride
c) Bendrothiazide
Furosemide
d)
100) In a compound there are seen (m) & (m+2) peak of almost equal intensity. It may contain following
halogen…
a) Iodine
b) Chlorine
c) Fluorine
Bromine
(104) The ion exchange resins have been extensively used in tablet formulation for …………………
a) Sustained release
d) All of the above
b) Taste masking
c) Disintegration
(105) SPEED® is intravenous salt of ………………….
a) Amphetamine
Phentermine
b) Benzphetamine
c) Methamphetamine
d)
(106) Anxiolytic effect of benzodiazepines is mediated via ………………
a) α1 subunit
b) α2 subunit
c) α3 subunit
d) α4 subunit
(107) With Ammonium Vanadate and sulphuric acid, strychnine gives which colour?
a) Purple
d) Yellow
b) Orange
c) Blue
(108) Which of the following drug belongs to Araliaceae family?
a) Glycyrrhiza
d) Sarsaparilla
b) Ginseng
c) Senega
b) H. aureus
c) H. albus
(109) Which of the following drug is Egyptian henbane?
a) H. reticulates
d) H. muticus
(110) Which of the following lipid possess antihyperlipidemic action?
a) Phospholipid
b) Triglyceride
c) Glycolipid
d)
d) Sitosterol
(111) Proteins are polymer of ………….
a) L-α-aminoacid
d) L-λ-aminoacid
b) D-α-aminoacid
c)
L-β-aminoacid
(112) Opaque color concentrate for film coating is known as ………….
a) Opacoat
Opadry
b) Opaspray
c) Opalux
d)
(113) Gabapentin acts by inhibiting ………..
a) GABA
Glutamate
(114) DEVICE
b) Na+ channels
c) Ca+2 channels
d)
DESCRIPTION
P) Kern Injector
1) Compression of waxy substances
Q) Precompresion stations
2) Implant tablets
R) Fette machines
granulations
S) Chilosonator
3) Compression of difficult
4) For dry granulation
a) P-2,Q-4,R-3,S-1
b) P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4
d) P-2,Q-1,R-3,S-4
c) P-2,Q-3,R-1,S-4
(115) Which of these capsules consists of an animal shell composition?
a) HPMC capsules
Starch capsules
b) Pullulan capsules
c) Ocean caps d)
(116) Antipsychotic drug causes gynaecomastia as a side effect which is due to ………………
a) ↑ in prolactin level
b) ↓ in prolactin level
dopamine
d) ↓ in dopamine
c) ↑ in
(117) Which of the following drug(s) causes Agranulocytosis?
a) Olanzapine
None of the above
b) Clozapine
c) Both A and B d)
(118) Which of the following is side effect of Phenytoin?
a) Gum hyperplasia
None of the above
b) Hirsutism
c) Both A and B d)
(119) Which of the following drug is used to treat absence seizure?
a) Trimethadione
None of the above
b) Ethosuximide
c) Both A and B d)
(120) Which of the following test is used to detect ergot alkaloids?
a) Thaleoquin test
b) Van Urk’s test
d) Schoutenten’s reaction
c) Kedde’s reaction
(121) Which of the following drug(s) contains Coumarin glycosides?
a) Psoralea
b) Ammi visnaga
and B d) None of the above
(122) Antiepileptic Drug
c) Both A
Mechanism of action
1) Vigabatrin
2) Felbamate
inhibitor
P) NMDA antagonist
Q) GABA transaminase
3) Tiagabine
R) Ca2+ channel inhibitor
4) Gabapentin
S) GABA reuptake inhibitor
a) 1-S, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-P
1-S, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-P
b) 1-Q, 2-P, 3-S, 4-R
c) 1-Q, 2-S, 3-R, 4-P d)
(123) Which of these is not a characteristic of semipermeable membrane?
a) Sufficient wet strength
b) Biocompatibility
c) Good solute permeability
d) None of the above
(124) Which of the following is triterpenoidal Saponin glycoside?
a) Strophanthidin
d) Amygdalin
b) Glycyrrhizine
c) Barbaloin
c) Dibenzoxazepine
d)
(125) Metabolism of carbamazepine occurs via …………..
a) Epoxide formation at (E) cis stilbene double bond
b) Epoxane formation at (Z) cis stilbene double bond
c) Epoxide formation at (Z) cis stilbene double bond
d) Epoxane formation at (E) cis stilbene double bond
(126) Clozapine contains which of the following moiety?
a) Fluorobutyrophenone
Diphenylbutylpiperidine
b) Dibenzodiazepine
(127) Therapeutically used Amphetamine is ……………..
a) (S) + isomer
isomer
b) (S) – isomer
c) (R) + isomer
d) (R) –
(25) What is the function of peroxisome?
a) Bimerization
Glycation
b) Mutarotation c) Oxidation
d)
(26) Which of the following acid is formed on oxidation of - CHO group of sugars?
a) Glucoronic acid
Mucic acid
b) Gluconic acid c) Saccharic acid
(27) Which of the following deficiency cause Phrynoderma or toad skin?
d)
a) Essential fatty acid
b) Non-essential fatty acid
d) All of the above
c) Proteins
(28) What is the principle Reverse sequencing method detecting amino acid sequence?
a) Enzymatic method
method
d) HPLC
b) Chemical method
c) Chemical-DNA
(29) Uric acid is chemically?
a) 2,6-dioxypurine
b) 2,6,8-trioxypurine
oxypurine
d) 6,8-dioxypurine
c) 6-
(30) Which of the following enzymes used for detecting glucose in urine?
A) Glucose peroxidase
Both A and B
b) Glucose oxidase
c) Glucose transferase
b) Vitamin L
c) Vitamin P
d)
(1) Bioflavanoids are known as….
a) Vitamin H
d) Vitamin A
(2) Which of the following is an Antineuritic vitamin?
a) Vitamin B5
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin B7
d) Vitamin B1
(3) Which of the following is neurohormone?
a) Neuropeptide-Y
Dopamine
b) Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide
c) Oxytocin
d)
(4) Which of the following 5HT-receptors are involved in platelet aggregation?
a) 5-HT1A
b) 5-HT1B
c) 5-HT2A
d) 5-HT2B
(5) Which of the following is COMT inhibitor and used to treat Parkinsonism?
a) Bromocriptine b) Entacapone
c) Lisuride
d) Pramipexole
(6) Which of the following local anaesthetic causes methaemoglobinaemia?
a) Articaine
d) Ropivacaine
b) Prilocaine
c) Levobupivacaine
(7) Which of the following are D2 class receptor agonist and used to treat Parkinsonism?
a) Ropinirole
the above
b) Pramipexole
c) Both A and B
b) Senna
c) Rhubarb
d) None of
(8) Which of the following drug contains C-glycosides?
a) Cochineal
None of the above
d)
(9) Which of the following is a Cyanogenetic glycoside?
a) Amygdalin
None of the above
b) Prunasin
c) Both A and B
d)
c) Black mustard
d)
(10) Which of the following drug contains Isothiocyanate glycoside?
a) Thevetia
None of the above
b) Brahmi
(11) Which of the following drug gives positive Borntrager’s test?
a) Senna
Thevetia
b) Ginseng
c) Gokhru
d)
c) Sinigrin
d)
(12) Which of the following drug contains S-glycosides?
a) Rhein
Carminic acid
b) Hypericin
(13) Which of the following drug contains abnormal vascular bundles?
a) Senna
Thevetia
b) Rhubarb
c) Aloe
d)
c) Hypericum
d)
(14) Which of the following is known as St. John’s wort?
a) Aloin
Carminic acid
b) Barbaloins
(15) Which of the following drug contains unicellular, conical, warty trichomes?
a) Rhubarb
Stophanthus
b) Senna
c) Digitalis
d)
(16) Which of the following is a negative modulator of benzodiazepines?
a) α – carboline
b) β – carboline
c) γ - carboline d) δ – carboline
(17) Meprobamate is used as ……………..
a) Sedative-hypnotic
above
b) Anti-anxiety agent
c) In absence seizure
d) All of the
(18) Buspiron – an anti anxiety agent is ………………….
a) 5-HT1a agonist
antagonist
b) 5-HT1a antagonist
c) 5-HT1b agonist
d) 5-HT1b
(19) Which of the general anesthetic is used as an emulsion form?
a) Etomidate
b) Propofol
c) Ketamine
d) Halothane
(20) IUPAC name of halazepam is
a) 5-Chloro -1, 3-dihydro-5-phenyl-1(2, 2, 2-triflouroethyl)-2H-1, 4-benzodiazepin-2-one
b) 7-Chloro -1, 3-dihydro-6-phenyl-1(2, 2, 2-triflouroethyl)-2H-1, 4-benzodiazepin-3-one
c) 7-Chloro -1, 3-dihydro-5-phenyl-1(2, 2, 2-triflouroethyl)-2H-1, 4-benzodiazepin-2-one
d) 5-Chloro -1, 3-dihydro-6-phenyl-1(2, 2, 2-triflouroethyl)-2H-1, 4-benzodiazepin-3-one
(21) Which of the following sugar deficiency cause diarrhoea and flatulence?
a) Maltose
Lactose
b) Sucrose
c) Xylose
d)
(22) Which of the following is an unbranched water soluble polysaccharide?
a) Amylase
Hyaluronidase
b) Amylopectin
c) Heparin
d)
(23) Which of the following cyclic fatty acid is used in treatment of leprosy?
a) Ricinoleic acid b) Sesame oil
All of the above
c) Chaulmoogra oil
d)
(24) Which of the following phosphogyceride possess antigenic property?
a) Cephalin
Sphingoside
b) Plasmalogen
c) Cardiolipin
d)
(25) Which of the following is true for an amino acid lysine?
a) Ketogenic
Both A and C
b) glycogenic
c) Essential amino acid
d)
c) Pauly’s test
d)
(26) Which of the following test used for imidazole ring containing amino acid?
a) Sakaguchi reaction
Millons test
b) Zak’s test
(27) Which of the following form of DNA is a right handed helix?
a) Z
b) A
c) B
d) E
(28) What is the synonym for transfer RNA?
a) Irregular RNA b) regular RNA
c) polymer RNA d) soluble RNA
(29) Which of the following vitamin deficiency is caused by Isoniazid?
a) Pyridoxine
Pantothenic acid
b) Niacin
c) Biotin
d)
(30) Which of the following vitamin(s) is/are widely used in mouth ulcer?
a) Vitamin B-complex
the above
b) Folic acid
c) Both A and B d) None of
(17) What is the last product of the glycolysis in anaerobic medium?
a) Pyruvate
d) oxaloacetate
b) lactate
c) citrate
(18) Which component is responsible for developing the proper pressure within the aerosol system?
a) Actuator
Container
b) Propellant
c) Valve
d)
c) Mitomycin
d)
(19) Which of the following drug should not be given with torsemide?
a) Bleomycin
Neomycin
b) Dactinomycin
(20) Which of the following drug is given with fenofibrate to prevent Coronary Heart Disease?
a) Pravastatin
Cerivastatin
b) Rosuvastatin c) Simvastatatin
d)
(21) Which of the following is the side effect of Levodopa?
a) dyskinesia
b) On-Off effect c) Both A and B
d)
None
(22) Which of the following test is used for detection of quinoline alkaloid?
a) Thaleoquin test
d) Mayer’s test
b) Vitali-morin test
c) Van-urk’s test
(23) Which of the following β-blocker is used to treat angina?
a) Atenolol
d) Nebivolol
b) Nadolol
c) Betoxalol
(24) Which of the following drug belongs to Loganiaceae family?
a) Senna
b) Nux-vomica
c) Vinca
d) None
(25) Which of the following route(s) of administration is used for Epoetin-β?
a) I.M.
b) I.V.
c) S.C.
d) Both B and C
(26) Which of the following is the pyridine-pyrrolidone alkaloid containing drug?
a) Lobelia
d) Ergot
b) Belladona
c) Ipecac
(27) Which of the following anti-platelet drug is PDE inhibitor?
a) Dipyridamol
d) Abciximab
b) Disopyramide
c) Tirofiban
(28) Pompe’s deficiency is caused due to deficiency of ………………..
a) Acid maltase
b) Glycogen sythatase
c) Hexokinase
d) Acid
lactase
(29) HMP pathway is also known as…….
a) Pentose phosphate pathway
b) Hexose phosphate pathway
c) Phosphate pathway
d) Cori’s cycle
(30) Drug of choice for primary dysmenorrhea is …………………
a) Aspirin
b) Phenylbutazone
d) Indomethacin
c) Mefenamic acid
(31) Therapeutically used naltrindole is a ………………
a) OP1 antagonist b) OP2 antagonist
Sigma antagonist
(32) Drug used in Gilles de la taurette is …………….
c) OP3 antagonist
d)
a) Pimozide
d) Clozapine
b) Resperidone
c) Molindone
(33) Modafinil acts via which mechanism?
a) α1-NE agonist b) α1-NE antagonist
d) β2-NE antagonist
c) β1-NE agonist
(34) Drugs acting on Nigro-striatal pathway leads to ………………
a) Antipsychotic effects
b) EPS
c) Anti-cholinergic side effects
d)
None
(35) Which of the following receptor belongs to the Type-2 receptor family?
a) GABAA
b) GABAB
c) NMDA
d) AMPA
(36) Which of the following is the mechanism action of the strychnine?
a) GABA antagonist
antagonist
d) None
b) glutamate antagonist
c) glycine
(37) Which of the following is 5-HT1A receptor agonist?
a) Gepirone
d) None
b) Bicuculline
c) Zolpidem
(38) Spina bifida is the teratogenic side effect of which of the following anti epileptic drug?
a) Vigabatrin
Lamotrigine
b) Sodium valproate
d) Felbamate
c)
(39) Which of the following is the non-specific test for alkaloid?
a) Dragendorff
d) Hager
b) Wagner
c) Murexide
(40) Which of the following drug contains Saponin glycoside?
B
a) Dioscorea
d) None
b) Ginseng
c) Both A and
b) Polygala chinensis
c) Polygala
(41) Which of the following is the Indian Senega?
alba
a) Polygala senega
d) None
(42) The IUPAC name of naproxen is …………….
a) (S)-2-(6-ethoxy-2-napthyl)-acetic acid
napthyl)-acetic acid
c) (S)-2-(6-ethoxy-2-napthyl)-propionic acid
napthyl)-propionic acid
b) (S)-2-(6-methoxy-2-
d) (S)-2-(6-methoxy-2-
(43) The ultra-short acting barbiturates have brief duration of action due to ……………..
a) High degree of binding to plasma proteins
b) Low lipid solubility resulting in a minimal concentration in brain
c) Metabolism is slow in liver
d) Rapid rate of redistribution from the brain due to its high liposolublity
(44) Drug
Ring System
A. Meloxicam
P. Indene ring
B. Sulindac
Q. Imidazole ring
C. Maclobemide
R. Morpholon ring
D. Etomidate
a) AP BQ CR DS
S. Thiazole ring
b) AS BP CR DQ
c) AR BS CP DQ d) AQ BR CS DP
(45) The temp. at which the vapors of the test liquid (aerosol product) ignite is known as ………
a) Flash extension
d) Flame point
b) Flash point
c) Flash projection
(46) In the cold filling process the propellant is kept at what temp. prior to adding into container?
a) -20° to -40°F
b) -20° to -40°C c) 0° to 20°F
d) 30° to
40°C
(31)
Which of the following tablets does not require diluents in its formulation?
a) Bilayered tablets
(32)
b) Floating tablets
c) Implantable tablets
d) Sublingual tablets
Disposal of ammonia in mammals is by……………..
a) NH4
b) Urea
c) Uric Acid
d) NH4Cl
(33)
Which of the following is an example of Neuromodulator?
a) Nor-adrenaline
Oxytocin
(34)
b) Ach
c) Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide (VIP)
Which of the following is/are 5-HT2A antagonist(s)?
a) Ketanserine
None of the above
(35)
(36)
d)
b) Pizotifen
Which of the following drug cause decrease in GFR?
a) Hydralazine
b) Orlistat
c) Rimonabant
c) Both A and B
d)Enalaprilat
Which of the following drug should not be given with Sotalol?
a) Probucol
d) Bosentan
b) Furosemide
c) Icatibant
d)
(37)
Excessive use of lubricant leads to increase in disintegration time due to …………….
a) Hydrophobicity
Mottling
(38)
b) Hydrophilicity c) Picking
Maillard reaction is due to interaction of carbohydrate with …………….
a) Chloramphenicol
d) Paracetamol
(39)
c) Isoniazid
b) Tolcapone
c) Both A and B
d)
c) Gabapentine
d)
Which of the following antiepileptic drug acts by inhibiting GABA uptake?
a) Vigabatrine
Lamotrigine
(41)
b) Aspirin
Which of the following COMT inhibitor causes Hepatotoxicity as its side effects?
a) Entacapone
None of the above
(40)
d)
b) Tiagabine
The mechanism of the digitalis is…………
a) ↑ end diastolic volume b) ↓ end diastolic volume c) ↓ myocardial contraction
d) All above
(42)
(43)
Which of the following drug is a long acting nitrate used in CHD?
a) Nitroglycerine
b) Amyl nitrate
c) Isosorbide 5-mononitrate
Nitrous oxide
Which vitamin’s coenzyme must be required for transamination of Amino acids?
a) VitaminB5
(44)
d)
b) VitaminB6
d) VitaminB3
c) VitaminB12
Which of the following is/are example(s) of ketone bodies?
a) Alcohol
b) Acetone
d) Both A and C
c) Acetoacetate
(45)
Which of the following enzyme cause phosphorylation of glucose in Glycolysis?
a) Glucokinase
All of the above
(46)
b) Pyruvate kinase
b) Blistering
c) Cracking
Molindone contains ………..
a) Pyrrole ring
(48)
b) Morphiloyln ring
c) Both A and B d) None of above
The durability of tablets to combined effects of abrasion and shock is evaluated by ……….
a) Hardness tester
b) Friabilator
Disintegration test apparatus
(49)
(50)
P) Dicalcium phosphate
Q) SLS
a) PR
RS
b) QS
R) Sorbitol syrup S) Tragacanth
c) PQ
d)
b) Butyl stearate c) Titanium dioxide
d) Butylated
Isotopic abundance of 13C is ……….
b) 99.98 %
c) 50 %
d) 11.1 %
Which of the following is most commonly used as reference standard in NMR?
a) DTGS
(53)
d)
Elastomer used in rubber closure formulation is …………..
a) 1.1 %
(52)
c) Screw gauge
Abrasive and humectant compounds used in the formulation of toothpaste are ………….
a) Neoprene
hydroxy toluene
(51)
d)
Inadequate spreading of the coating solution before drying causes which tablet coating defect?
a) Orange peeling
d) Blooming
(47)
c) PFK
b) TMS
c) KBr
Which of the following is less cardiotoxic as compared to others?
d) CCl4
a) Daunorubicin b) Doxorubicin
(54)
c) Idrarubicin
Drug of choice for choriocarcinoma is…………
a) Methotrexate b) Doxorubicin
(55)
b) Raclopride
c) Sulperide
b) [b,f] azepine c) [c,f] azepine
b) Meprobamate
d) [d,f] azepine
Type of tablet
c) Ketamine
1) Slowly erode within the pouch
Q) Lozenges
2) Slowly dissolve in the mouth
R) Sublingual tablets
3) Beneath the skin
S) Implants
4) Beneath the tongue
a) P-2,Q-1,R-3,S-4
P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4
GROUP-A
d) Chlorphenesin
Description
P) Buccal tablets
(59)
d) Olanzapine
Z-(o-chlorophenyl)-2-methylaminocyclohexanone is IUPAC name for ………
a) Donezepil
(58)
d) Actinomycin-D
Carbamezapine contains what kind of azepine ring?
a) [a,f] azepine
(57)
c) Cytarabine
Radioactive D2 antagonist is …………..
a) Spiroperidol
(56)
d) Aclacinomycin
b) P-1,Q-2,R-4,S-3
GROUP-B
A. Dacarbazine
P. Pteridine
B. Procarbazine
Q. Quinone
C. Mitomycin-C
R. Hydrazine
D. Methotrexate
S. Imidazole
c) P-2,Q-1,R-4,S-3 d)
a) AP BQ CR DS
(60)
b) AQ BR CS DP
c) AS BQ CR DP
d) AS BR CQ DP
MESNA is an abbreviation used for ………..
a) Sodium-2-mercaptoethane sulphate
sulphonate
c) sodium-3-mercaptoethane sulphate
(1)
c) salts of meconic acid
d) None
b) Lignified cell walls
c) Cutinized cell walls d) Mucilaginous cell walls
b) Schedule Y
c) Schedule A
d) Schedule B
b) A-terpeniol
c) A-pinene
d) Neral
The test organism used in Microbiological assay of Rifampicin is....................
a) Micrococcus luteus
(7)
b) salt of citric acid
The oil obtained from cymbopogan flexousus contains one of the following ……………….
a) Citral
(6)
d) Clove
Guidelines for Clinical trials, import & manufacture of new drugs as per D&C Act are given under......
a) Schedule N
(5)
c) Cinnamon
Phloroglucinol and HCl produce pink or red color with ……………….
a) Cellulose cell walls
(4)
b) Ginseng
The opium alkaloids in Papaver-somniferum are present as……………
a) Free Alkaloids
(3)
d) sodium-3-mercaptoethane sulphonate
Ellipsoidal Schizolysigenous oil glands are important diagnostic characteristics of ………………
a) Ergot
(2)
b) sodium-2-mercaptoethane
b) E.coli
c) Bacillus subtilis
The diagnostic test for typhoid (caused by S. typhi) is…………….
d) S. aureus
a) VDRL test
(8)
(10)
(11)
b) VitaminB12
Melatonin is synthesized from …….
a) Tyrosine
b) Valine
b) UDP
c) CDP
d) ATP
b) δ-Aminolevulinic acid
c) Taurine
d) ornithine
b) Glucose-6-phosphate c) Fructose-6-phosphate
d) Glycogen
b) Phosphatidic acid
c) Cholesterol
d)
Elastin & Keratin are……………………
a) Scleroprotein
the above
(16)
d) Serine
Bile acid are synthesized from………..
a) Choline
Triacylglycerol
(15)
c) Tryptophan
Which of the following is a central molecule for Glycolysis,Glycogenesis,Gluconeogenesis?
a) Fructose
(14)
d) Pantothenic acid
Which of the Non-α-amino acid is intermediate in synthesis of porphyrin?
a) α-Alanine
(13)
c) VitaminB3
Which arm of the t-RNA is responsible for recognition of triplet codon of m-RNA?
a) D-arm
b) T¥C arm
c) Anticodon arm
d) Variable arm
Which of the coenzyme donates sulfate for synthesis of mucopolysaccharides?
a) Phosphoadenosine phosphosulfate
(12)
d) Widal test
Which of the vitamin is known as anti-dermatitis factor?
a) VitaminB6
(9)
b) Mantoux testc) RIA
b) Simple protein
c) conjugated protein
d) None of
Choose the correct key intermediate for the bio-synthesis of C6-C3 units, which serves as a precursor
for the biosynthesis of amino acids.
a) Shikimic acid
Mevalonic acid
b) Pyruvic acid
c) Dehydro quinic acid
d)
(17)
Choose the correct characteristic of the epidermal cells and cuticle of Atropa belladona leaf.
a) Pitted walls with striated cuticle
b) Wavy walls with striated cuticle
c) Algal walls with smooth cuticle
c) Straight walls with wavy cuticle
(18)
Solvent which can be used in PMR spectroscopy is…….
(19)
a) Chloroform
b) Carbon tetrachloride
Choose the correct for digitoxigenin
c) Acetone
a) 3 β, 14 β, 16 β trihydroxy cardenolide
c) 3β, 14 β dihydroxy cardenolide
d) Methanol
b) 3 β, 12 β, 14 β trihydroxy cardenolide
d) 1, 3, 5, 11α, 14, 19β hexahydroxy cardenolide
(20)
Choose the correct trichomes of digitalis purpurea.
a) Numerous covering trichomes and a few glandular trichomes
b) Few covering trichomes
c) Few glandular and a few covering trichomes
d) Few glandular trichomes
(21)
Hyoscyamine, an alkaloid from atropa belladona…………….
a) Readily racemises to atropine with ethanoic alkali. Atropine is (±) Hyoscyamine
b) Readily disintegrates into atropine with acid solution. Atropine is (-) Hyoscyamine
c) Readily rearranges into atropine with alkali solution. Atropine is (+) Hyoscyamine
d) Readily racemises to atropine with ethanolic alkali. Atropine is (±) Hyoscine
(22)
Compounds listed below contain σ, n and π electron…..………….
P) Acetaldehyde Q) Butadiene
a) PS
(23)
R) Formaldehyde
b) QR
λ max of p-hydroxy benzaldehyde is………....
a) 265
b) 250 c) 272 d) 275
c) PR
S) Benzene
d) QS
(24)
How many peaks are observed for Isopropanol in PMR?
a) 4
(25)
b) 3
c) 2
n → π* in polar solvent shows……
a) Hyperchromic shift
None
(26)
b) 264
c) 190
d)
d) 640
b) H-Bonded
c) Shifted
d) Shielded
C=0 stretching IR Freq.(cm-1)
Compound
P) C=O stretching
1) 1420
Q) C-O bending in Phenol
2) 3600
R) O-H stretching
3) 1715
S) O-H
bending
a) P-4,Q-1,R-2,S-3
(29)
c) Hypsochromic shift
Rotation of electron around proton generates a secondary magnetic field which may oppose the
applied magnetic field. The proton is said to be……………...
a) Deshielded
(28)
b) Bathochromic shift
106 mg of compound A (dissolved in 100 ml ethanol) in a 1 cm long cell has a χ max 295 nm and
absorbance is 0.28. Then the value of A1% 1cm is…………..
a) 2.64
(27)
d) 5
4) 1230
b) P-2,Q-3,R-4,S-1
c) P-3,Q-4, R-2,S-1
d) P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4
As per Schedule O of the D & C Act the minimum Rideal Walker Coefficient for Grade 1 and Grade 3
Black disinfectant fluids are…………..
P) 18
Q) 10
R) 5
S) 14
a) PR
b) QS
c) PS
d) RS
(30) Which drying process is used in the preparation of yellow fever vaccine?
a) Spray drying
b) Vacuum drying
c) Drum drying
d) Freeze drying
(1) HLB system is used to classify........................
a) Surfactants
Sequestering agents
b) Preservatives
c) Antioxidants
d)
(2) Which of the following cholesterol is GOOD CHOLESTEROL?
a) HDL
b) LDL
c) TG
d) None
(3) Chemical shift can be expressed in ……………..
a) δ
b) ppm
c) Hz
d) All of the above
(4) Lozenges tablets are used for ……………..
a) Slow dissolution in stomach
stomach
b) Fast dissolution in
c) Slow dissolution in mouth
intestine
d) Slow dissolution in
(5) Which of the Vitamin is known as Anti-sterility Vitamin?
a) Vitamin E
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin K
d) Vitamin B
(6) Tablet thickness is measured by
a) Manometer
scale d) Picometer
b) Pycnometer
c) Sliding caliper
(7) Which of the following is not a pharmacological effect of morphine?
a) Diarrhoea
b) Pin point pupil
Respiratory depression
c) CNS depression
d)
(8) Which tablets require special care for storage in a hermetically sealed packaging?
a) Implant tablets
b) Effervescent tablets c) Chewable tablets
d) All of the above
(9) Which of the following amino acid is a precursor for Serotonin (5-HT)?
a) Tyrosine
Taurine
b) Tyramine
c) Tryptophan
d)
(10) In the process of sugar coating of tablets the colorants are added in one of the following steps?
a) Syrup coating
Seal coating
b) Sub coating
c) Polishing
d)
(11) Which of the following drug is used to treat ‘jet-lag’ condition?
a) Melanin
the above
b) Melatonin
c) Both A and B d) None of
(12) The leaker test (using Methylene blue solution) is performed for the evaluation of ……….
a) Ampoules
above
b) Vials
c) Bottles
(13) Which of the drug is Fibrinogen site inhibitor?
a) Tirofiban
b) Ticlopidine
c) Dipyridamol
d) Aspirin
d) All of the
(14) An antioxidant commonly used in the formulation of a non-aqueous parenteral preparation
is……
a) Ascorbic acid
metabisulphate
b) Thioglycollic acid
d) BHT
c)
Na-
(15) Idioblast of crystal layer of calcium oxalate is a diagnostic feature of ……………..
a) Hyoscyamus niger leaves
b) Cinchona bark
nightshade leaves
d) Senna leaves
c)
Deadly
(16) Standards for mechanical contraceptives are given in...............
a) Schedule V
b) Schedule N
c) Schedule U
d) Schedule R
(17) The µ-opioid receptors are involved in the following pharmacological effects except ………….
a) Analgesia
b) Euphoria
Respiratory depression
c) Dysphoria
d)
c) Castor oil
d)
c) Nitrazepam
d)
(18) Most commonly used film former in Nail preparations is ……..
a) PEG
Carbopol
b) Nitrocellulose
(19) Which of the following is an ultra short acting Benzodiazepine?
a) Chlordizepoxide
Alprazolam
b) Midazolam
(20) Which of the following herbal drug is used as respiratory stimulant in the treatment of asthma?
a) Hyoscyamus
b) Duboisia
(21) Which of the following is/are the endogenous opioid(s)?
c) Coca
d) Lobelia
a) Endorphins
the above
b) Dynorphins
c) Both A and B d) None of
(22) Salicin, a phenolic glucoside, on hydrolysis yields ……..…………
a) Salicylic acid + glucose
b) Salicyl alcohol + glucose
c) Phenol + glucose
glucose
d)
Salicyl
aldehyde
+
(23) Atropine on hydrolysis with Barium Hydroxide gives ……………..
a) Tropanol and Tropic acid
acid
b) Ecgonine and Benzoic
c) Scopine and Tropic acid
Methanol
d) Benzyl Ecgonine and
(24) Which of these coating polymer(s) is/are soluble in the intestinal fluid above pH 6?
a) Eudragit E
All of the above
b) Eudragit L
c) HPMC
d)
(25) C-17 α-β unsaturated lactone ring is a common feature in …………………..
(26) Instrumentation
a) Digitalis and squill glycosides
glycosides
b) Digitalis
and
Senna
c) Digitalis and Strophanthus glycosides
d) Digitalis and amygdalin
Description
P) Nomogram
the capsule shell
1) To determine the moisture content of
Q) Toluene distillation
2) To determine the capsule size
R) Accofill
capsules
3) Fill exact powder dose in hard gelatin
S) Accogel
capsules
4) Filling of dry powder in soft gelatin
a) P-2,Q-1,R-3,S-4
P-2,Q-3,R-1,S-4
(27) Industrial dryer
b) P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4
c) P-2,Q-1,R-4,S-3
d)
Pharmaceutical applications
P) Drum dryer
1) Antibiotic solution
Q) Fluidized bed dryer
2) Tablet granules
R) Spray dryer
3) Gelatin
S) Freeze dryer
4) Suspension of kaolin
a) P-1,Q-3,R-4,S-2
P-3,Q-2,R-4,S-1
b) P-4,Q-2,R-3,S-1
c) P-4,Q-2,R-1,S-3
d)
d)
Atropa
(28) Anomocytic type of stomata is found in the leaves of …………….
a) Fox glove
belladonna
b) Cassia acutifolia
c) Urginea maritima
(29) If the % transmittance is 50% then Absorbance will be…………...
a) 0.5
b) 1.301
c) 1.0
(30) λmax of O-chloro benzaldehyde is………………..
a) 265 nm
b) 250 nm
c) 272 nm
d) 2.01
d) 275 nm
(31) How many peaks are observed for Dimethyl ether in PMR?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
(32) π →π* in polar solvent shows……………………….
a) Hypochromic shift
b) Bathochromic shift c) Hypsochromic shift
d) None
(33) A 6.40* 10-5 M solution had an absorbance of 0.847 in a 1cm cell at 255 nm. Then molar
absorptivity is……………………………….
a) 13234
b) 150
c) 1400
d) 1324
(34) Precession frequency of 13C is how many times that of 1H?
a) 4
b) 1/2
c) 2
d) 1/4
(35) Which of the following cannot be used as IR detector?
a) Thermocouple
b) Golay pneumatic detector
c) Globar
d) Bolometer
c) ob gene
d) obg gene
(36) Which of the following gene is responsible for Obesity?
a) obs gene
b) obe gene
(37) Which of the following enzyme is responsible for transport & elimination of cholesterol from
body?
a) Lysine transferase b) Lecithine-cholesterol acyl transferase
c) CETP
d)
Acylase
(38) How many NET ATP molecules are synthesized in aerobic condition in Glycolysis?
a) 8
b) 6
c) 10
d) 12
(39) Which of the following is/are specific biomarker for diagnosis of CVS disease?
a) LDH2
b) CPK2
c) LDH1
d) Both B and C
(40) Which of the following drug is/are Non-depolarizing competitive antagonist?
a) Rocuronium
b) Mecamylamine
c) Suxamethonium
(41) Which of the drug used in treatment of multiple sclerosis?
a) Tolazoline
b) Tizobifen
c) Tizanidine
(42) Which of the following is an antidote of Atropine?
a) Physostigmine
b) Carisopradol
d) Both A and B
d) Dimaprit
c) Azimilide
d) Fibirtan
(43) Which of the following drug given with Quinidine to prevent its indirect effect?
a) Verapamil
b) Cardinolides
c) Bisoprolol
d) All of the above
(44) Which of the following is a GM_CSF?
a) Lenograstim
b) Filgrastim
c) PEGfilgrastim
d) Molgramostin
(45) The full form for AMPA is...……………………..
a) a-amino-3-hydroxy-4-methyl-isoxazole
b) a-amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-isoxazole
c) a-amino-4-hydroxy-4-methyl-isoxazole
d) a-amino-4-hydroxy-5-methyl-isoxazole
(46) Adrenocortical suppression is seen with………………………
a) Etomidate
b) Propofol
c) Ketamine
d) Isoflurane
(47) Arrange the following in descending order of their blood:gas partition.
a) Desflurane<nitrous oxide<sevoflurane<isoflurane
b) Desflurane<nitrous oxide<isoflurane<sevoflurane
c) Nitrous oxide<desflurane<isoflurane<sevoflurane
d) Isoflurane<nitrous oxide<desflurane<sevoflurane
(48) Cheese reaction is associated with………………………….
a) Reversible MAO-A inhibitors
b) Irreversible-B MAO inhibitors
c) Reversible MAO-B inhibitors
d) Irreversible MAO-A inhibitors
(49) Topiramate possess following action……………………..
a) Increases GABA effect b) Antagonizes glutamate receptors c) Weak CA inhibitor d) All of
above
(50) Pentostatin is structurally…………………………….
a) Tetrahydro pyridine b) Tetrahydro imidazole
c) Dihydro pyridine
d) Dihydro imidazole
(51) Which of the following is not a function of a plasticizer?
a) To improve flexibility of coating
independent release
c) To reduce the risk of film cracking
b) To provide pH
d) To improve adhesion of film
(52) N-triflouro Acetyl Doxorubicin is …………………………….
a) Idrarubicin
b) daunarubicin
c) Mitomycin
d) Valrubicin
(53) Inadequate activity of which enzyme will lead to Grey baby syndrome?
a) Glucuronyl esterase
b) Glucuronyl transferase
c) Glucuronyl reductase
d) Glucuronyl synthetase
(54) Active form of Chloramphenicol is…………………………………..
a) (D)-erythreo Levo
b) (D)-threo levo
c) (D)-erythreo dextro
d) (D)-threo dextro
(55) Which of the following enzyme cause Gaucher’s disease?
a) β-glucosidase
b) α-galactosidase
c) ceramidase
d) β-galactosidase
(56) Which of the following is not possessing sulphonamide group?
a) Tolbutamide
b) Furosemide
c) Zonisamide
d) Atenolol
(57) Browne’s tubes are most commonly used as chemical indicator for………………………
a) Ethylene oxide sterilization
b) Heat sterilization
c) Radiation sterilization
d) Filtration sterilization
(58) Form No. for issuing license for sale from motor vehicle of drug except that of Schedule C/C1
is……
a) 19
b) 19 A
c) 19 C
d) 19 AA
(59) The process in which DNA is passed from one bacterium to another in a bacteriophage is known
as……
a) Transduction
b) Transfection
c) Transformation
d) Transplantation
(60) Which of the following is an active form of methionine?
a) S-adenosyl methionine
b) S-adenosyl cysteine
methionine
d) S-formyl methionine
c) Met-
(1) Which of the following method is used to extract Citrus oils?
a) Hydrodistillation
b) Enfleurage method
d) None of the above
c)
Ecuelle
method
(2) How many no. of Isoprene units are present in sesquiterpenes?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
(3) % Compressibility required for excellent flowability is ………
a) < 1.25
b) 5-15
c) 12-16
d) > 40
(4) Which of the following is the fourth generation Cephalosporin?
a) Cephazolin
Cefixime
b) Cefclidine
c) Cefaclor
d)
(5) Which of the following is the main chemical constituent of the Eucalyptus oil?
a) geraniol
the above
b) cineole
c) Both A and B d) None of
(6) Which of the following is an Anionic site Anticholinestearase used in treatment of
Glaucoma?
a) Distigmine
b) Malathione
c) Ecothiopate d) Physostigmine
(7) In Hemolytic Jaundice, Van den Bergh reaction is……………………….
a) Direct positive b) Indirect positive
above
c) Biphasic
d) None of
(8) The number of Heme present in Myoglobin is……………..
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
(9) BSP (Bromosulphthalein) is used to access the function of…………….…
a) Liver
b) Kidney
c) Heart
d) Muscle
(10) Gonadotropin releasing hormone is………………
a) Nonapeptide b) Decapeptide
c) Polypeptide
d) Octapeptide
(11) Which of the following is/are the substitute(s) of Caraway?
a) Cuminum cyminum
b) Anethum sowa c) Both A and B d) None of the above
(12) Which of the following penicillin is effective against P. aeruginosa infection?
a) Oxacillin
Ticarcillin
b) Naficillin
c) Methicillin
d)
(13) Which of the following drug is used to treat Lyme’ disease?
a) Sulphasalazine b) Azlocillin
c) Clarithromycin d) Clofazimine
(14) Which of the following tetracycline is effective against N. meningitidis infection?
a) Rolitetracycline
Doxycycline
b) Demeclocycline
c) Minocycline
d)
(15) Which of the following drug(s) contain Phenolic ether volatile oil?
a) Anise
b) Nutmeg
c) Both A and B d) None of the above
(16) Which of the following anti TB dug causes pyridoxine deficiency?
a) Isoniazid
Ethambutol
b) Cycloserine
c) Pyrazinamide d)
(17) The USP apparatus used in the in-vitro release testing of transdermal patches is…………..
a) Paddle
b) Basket
d) All of the above
c) Paddle over disk
(18) The source microorganism for Oxytetracycline is …………………….
a) Streptomyces nodosus b) S. fradiae
d) S. orientalis
c) Streptomyces rimosus
(19) Which of the following drug generally given with Diclofenac after orthopedic surgery?
a) Vecuronium b) Derifenacin
Suxamethonium
c) Chlormezanone
d)
(20) Which of the following drug produce depolarization and persistent depolarization?
a) Gallamine
b) Trimetaphan
c) Nicotine
d) Doxacurium
(21) Which of the following receptor is located on circular muscle of eye?
a) NM Receptor
b) M3 Receptor
c) M1 Receptor
d) NN Receptor
(22) Which of the following drug is/are used in poisoning of irreversible Anticholinestearase?
a) Atropine
and B
b) Pralidoxime
c) Neostigmine
d) Both A
(23) Which Amino acid directly participates in synthesis of Heme?
a) Methionine
Tryptophan
b) Aspartate
c) Glycine
d)
(24) Which of the following element of Electron transport chain (ETC) possesses isoprenoid
units?
a) Coenzyme Q
b) Cytochrome
c) Cytochrome B
d) Non-Heme
b) Catalase
c) Superoxide dismutase d)
(25) Superoxide is converted to H2O2 by………………
a) Peroxidase
Glutathion peroxidase
(26) Most active mineralocorticoid hormone is ………………
a) Cortisol
b) Aldosterone
c) ADH
d) Epinephrine
(27) Tetracyclines are drug of choice for ……………
a) Typhoid fever
b) whooping cough c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
(28) Which derivative of CPcol is more active than CPcol?
a) 2-NHCOCH3
b) 2-NHCOCHF2
c) 2-NHCOCF3
d) 2-NHCF3
(29) Imipenem shows highest binding affinity to…………….
a) penicillin binding proteins (PBP)-1
b) PBP-2
(30) Clarithromycin is drug of choice for……………………..
a) Legionella infection
b) Atypical pneumonia
Whooping cough
c) PBP-3
d) PBP- 4to6
c) Lyme`s disease
d)
(1) Which of the following drug is a specific M3 receptor Antagonist?
a) Methoctramine
Oxotremorine
b) Solifenacin
c) Tripitramine
d)
(2) Which of the following drug is used as the urinary bladder relaxant?
a) Glycopyrrolate
b) Atropine
c) Clinidium
d) Flavoxate
(3) Which of the following drug is a TXA2 synthesis inhibitor?
a) Ridogrel
b) Dazoxiben
c) Diazoxide
d) Doxazosin
(4) How many no. of Isoprene units are present in Triterpenes?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
(5) Which of the following is also known as Eucalyptus oil?
a) Chenopodium oil
the above
b) Dinkum oil
c) Both A and B d) None of
(6) Which of the following is used as a source of citral from which β-ionone is prepared?
a) Turpentine oil
Camphor oil
b) Lemon-grass oil
c) Peppermint oil
d)
(7) Which of the following is/are the main constituent of Garlic?
a) Alliin
above
b) Allicin
c) Both A and B d) None of the
(8) No. of peaks in CMR spectra of Resorcinol is ………………
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 8
(9) Which of the following is 2nd generation Cephalosporins?
a) Cephazolin
Cefixime
b) Cefclidine
c) Cefaclor
d)
(10) When Gaultheria oil treated with 5% solution of vanillin in 90% alcohol it gives which colour?
a) Lemon yellow
Green
b) Blood red
c) Purple
d)
c) Picrocrosin
d)
(11) Which of the following is the bitter principle of Saffron?
a) Crocin
Safranal
b) Crocetin
(12) Which of the following antimalarial drug is effective against Exo-erythrocytic phase?
a) Quinine
Primaquine
b) Chloroquine
c) Mefloquine
d)
(13) Base peak in Benzaldehyde in the Mass spectrum is at……………..
a) 77
b) 91
c) 105
d) 107
(14) Which of the following drug is used to treat Lennox-gastaut syndrome?
a) Gabapentin
Topiramate
b) Tiagabine
c) Felbamate
d)
(15) Which of the following antiepileptic drug cause “spina-bifida” as its teratogenic effect?
a) Lamotrigine
d) Vigabatrin
b) Carbamzepine
c) Sodium valproate
(16) Which of the following drug is used in Arrhythmia and as skeletal muscle relaxant?
a) Disopyramide
b) Quinidine
c) Azimilide
d) Digoxin
(17) Which of the following diuretic is acting on the Principal Cells?
a) Spiranolactone
Acetazolamide
b) furosemide
c) Urea
d)
(18) Ticlopidine is acting on ………………………….
a) P2Y1
b) P2X1
c) P2Y21
d) P2Y12
(19) Which of the following is the atypical antipsychotic?
a) Pimozide
b) Reserpine
c) Fluphenazine
d) Loxapine
(20) In a compound there are seen (m) & (m+2) peak of almost equal intensity. It may contain
halogen…..........
a) Iodine
b) Chlorine
c) Fluorine
d) Bromine
(21) High vacuum is an important requirement of ……………………….
a) NMR spectroscopy
b) IR spectroscopy
spectroscopy
d) Polarimeter
c) Mass
(22) Which of the following is present in the Guggul lipids?
a) Z-guggulesterone
b) E-guggulesterone
and B d) None of the above
c) Both A
(23) Which of the following is/are the adulterant(s) of Guggul?
a) Commiphora abyssinica
b) Commiphora roxburghii
and B d) None of the above
(25) Out of following which one is anti-fungal agent?
a) Neomycin
d) Fradimine
c) Both A
b) Fradicin
c) Neamine
c) Brucellosis
d) Amebic
(26) Paromamycin is drug of choice for ………………………..
a) Penicillin resistant gonnorhea
dysentery
b) UTI
(27) Mechanism of inhibition of Hydroxyurea is by inhibiting……………………………
a) Ribose nuclease
b) Deoxyribose nuclease
c) Ribonucleotide reductase
d) Deoxyribonucleotide reductase
(28) An electro-negative substituent at position-6 in benzodiazepines results …………………………..
a) Increase in the effect
No change
(29) Group-I
b) Decrease in the effect
Group-II
A. Halazepam
P. Anxiolytic
B. Alprazolam
Q. Hypnotic
C. Diazepam
R. Anti-depressant
c) Abolishing effect d)
D. Temazepam
S. Anasthetic
a) AP BQ CR DS b) AQ BR CS DP c) AS BR CQ DP d) AP BR CS DQ
(30) Pigmentory retinopathy is caused by ………………………....
a) Chlorpromazine
b) Trifluperazine
c) Mesoridiazine
d) Haloperidol
(1) A process designed to kill living micro-organisms to a harmless level is known
as_____________________
a) Disinfection
Ventilation
b) Sterilization
c) Lyophilization
d)
(2) Chemically Bentonite is________________________
a) Magnesium aluminium silicate
silicate
b) Hydrated aluminium
c) Alumino silicate
d) All of the above
(3) The most commonly used abbreviation BCS stands for_________________________________
a) Bovine cervical system
symptom
b) Benign Carcinogenic
c) Biopharmaceutics classification system
d) Bio-clinical system
(4) The drug used in the treatment of Swine Flu (Tamiflu Tablets) by Roche Company
is___________________
a) Abacavir
Tenofovir
b) Lamivudine
(5) Pyrogens can be detected by______________________
c) Oseltamivir
d)
a) Fluorescence technique
testing
d) Smear test
b) Electron microscopy
c) LAL
(6) The chemical used in hard, rigid hydrophobic lens is_______________________
a) HEMA
rubber
b) PMMA
c) CAB
d) Silicon
(7) Which of the following is not a mechanism for filtration type sterilization?
a) Imbibation
b) Electrostatic charge
d) Pore Irregularity
c) Alkylation
(8) Higher is the brittle fracture index, more _______________ is the tablet.
a) stronger
d) elegant
b) weaker
c) friable
(9) Flocculated suspensions exhibit ________________ type of flow.
a) Dilatant
Pseudoplastic
b) Newtonian
c) Plastic
d)
(10) As per USFDA guideline, Class 100 Clean room contains 100 particles of ______________
a) < 0.5 μm / ft3 b) < 0.3 μm / ft3
/ m3
c) < 0.5 μm / m3
d) < 0.1 μm
(11) For restricted retail sale of drugs apply in form No. _____________
a) 19
19-AA
b) 19-A
c) 19-C
d)
b) 1955
c) 1965
d)
(12) The pharmacy Act was passed in __________
a) 1948
1970
(13) If the drug is imported under a name which belongs to another drug, it is considered as
______________
a) Misbranded drug
Drug of abuse
b) Adulterated drug
c) Spurious drug
d)
(14) Insulin preparations are usually administered by _______________ injections.
a) Intradermal
Intramuscular
b) Intravenous
c) Subcutaneous
d)
(15) Trehalose is used as ___________
a) Tablet disintegrant
(16) Description
b) Lyoprotectant
c) Gelling agent
d) Glidant
Related to
P) Crystal growth
1) Griffin
Q) pH scale
2) Sorensen
R) HLB scale
3) DLVO theory
S) Interparticular force
4) Ostwald ripening
a) P-4,Q-2,R-1,S-3
P-1,Q-3,R-4,S-2
b) P-3,Q-1,R-2,S-4
c) P-2,Q-4,R-1,S-3
(17) Aerosol Evaluation test Description
P) Flash point
1) Standard Tag open apparatus
Q) Density
2) Rotational viscometer
R) Foam stability
3) Pycnometer
S) Particle size distribution
4) Cascade impactor
d)
a) P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4
P-1,Q-3,R-2,S-4
(18) Disease
b) P-2,Q-4,R-3,S-1
c) P-2,Q-3,R-4,S-1
d)
Test
P) Tuberculosis
1) Mantoux test
Q) Typhoid
2) Widal test
R) Hemophillus
3) Ducrey test
S) Syphilis
4) Treponema immobilization test
a) P-2,Q-1,R-3,S-4
P-2,Q-3,R-1,S-4
b) P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4
c) P-2,Q-1,R-4,S-3
d)
(19) For the first order kinetics half life is computed from ___________________
a) 0.105/K
b) 0.693/K
c) log 0.9/K
d) None of the above
(20) The IND is issued before __________________
a) Starting animal trials b) Starting Phase I trials
d) Starting Phase IV
c) Starting Phase II trials
(21) Which of the following sugar is an important metabolite in HMP shunt pathway?
a) D-Ribulose
Xylose
b) Xylulose
(22) Which of the following lipid cause diabetes with Hyperlipidemia?
a) HDL
b) LDL
c) Phospholipid
c) Ribose
d)
d) Triacylglycerol
(23) β-pleated sheet is one of the forms of which of the following protein structure?
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) Quaternary
(24) Histones associated with eukaryotic DNA leads to formation of______________________
a) Chromosome
Zygote
b) Nucleotide
c) Nucleosomes
d)
(25) Which of the following statement is true for non-competitive enzyme inhibition?
a) Inhibitor binds to E+S Complex
Complex
b) Inhibitor binds to ES
c) Inhibitor binds to E+P Complex
Complex and ES complex
d) Inhibitor binds to E+S
(26) Calcitriol relates to________________
a) Vitamin
of the above
b) Hormone
c) Prohormone
d) All
(27) Which of the following assay is based on immunochemical reaction of antigen and antibody?
a) ELISA
b) RIA
COLORIMETRY
c) LUMINEX
(28) Which of the following is an Anti-oxidant Enzyme?
a) Catalase
b) Tocopherols c) Hydro-peroxidase
d)
d) Aspartate
(29) The molecular formula for cholesterol is____________________
a) C27H46O
d) C29H48O
b) C24H46O
c) C20H46O
(30) Pernicious anemia leads to _______________ resulting in failure of Vitamin B12 synthesis.
a) Lack of intrinsic factor
b) Lack of extrinsic factor
production d) All of the above
c) Lack of HCl
(1) Most alkaloids occur in nature as:
a) Free bases
c) insoluble salts of organic acids
b) Water soluble salts
acids
d) alcohol soluble salts of organic
(2) Anomocytic type of stomata are found in the leaves of:
a) Fox glove
b) Cassia accutifolia
d)Atropa belladonna
c) Urginea maritime
(3) Chinchona alkaloids are present as:
a) Free bases
c) salts of meconic acid
b) Free acids
d) salts of quinic & cinchotanic acid
(4) Cineole is a terpene belonging to the class of:
a) Diterpene
triterpene
b) Monoterpene
c) sesquiterpene
d)
(5) Codeine is:
a) 6-methyl morphine
morphine
c)
b) 3,6-dimethyl morphine
(6)
3-methoxy
d) Ethyl morphine
Alkaloids in cinchona bark are detected by:
a) Iodine test
test
b) Thaleoquin test
d) Nessler’s test
c)
Leibermann-burchard
(7) Colchicine is mainly used to treat:
a) Gout
arthritis
b) cancer
c) diabetes
d)
b) isoquinoline
c) piperidine
d)
(8) Rauwolfia alkaloid belongs to the class of:
a) Quinoline
indole
(9) In CCF the natural product used belongs to the family:
a) Leguminosae
Solanaceae
b) Scrophulariaceae
c) Apocynaceae
d)
(10) Gensenosides having one of the following action:
(11)
a) Oxytocic action
c) Antitussive action
b) Adaptogenic action
d) none of the above
Which of the following glycoside(s) is/are present in Smilax?
a) Smilagenin
the above
b) Sarsapogenin
c) Both a & b
d) none of
(12) Which of the following bitter glycoside is/are present in Chirata?
a) Gentiopicrin
none of the above
b) Amarogentian
c) Both a & b
d)
c) prunasin
d)
c) Hyoscyamus
d)
(13) Which of the following is the Coumarin glycoside?
a) Quassin
khellin
b) picroside
(14) Which of the following drug contains cruciferous type of stomata?
a) Digitalis
Senna
b) Datura
(15) Which of the following test is used to detect cotton seed oil as an adulterant?
a) Badouin’s test
b) Salkowski reaction
c) Schoutenten’s reaction
d) Halphen’s test
(1) The weight variation problem in tablets may be caused due to……………………..
a) Change in die fill
b) Large proportion of fines
densities
d) All of the above
c) Differing
(2) Moh’s scale is related with
a) Flexibility
d) Stickiness
b) Hardness
c) Bulk density
(3) Polyplasdone is the trade name of __________________
a) Crosslinked NaCMC
b) Crosslinked PVP
d) Microcrystalline cellulose
c) Crosslinked Starch
(4) The thickness of implantable tablet should not be more than……………………..
a) 2 mm
b) 4 mm
c) 8 mm
d) 10 mm
(5) The temperature used for the sterilization of vaccines is............................
a) 70 º C
95-100 º C
b) 80 º C
c) 55-60 ºC
d)
(6) A multiple emulsion is designated as………………………
a) o/w/w
b) w/o/w
c) w/o/o/w
d) w/o/o
(7) One of the following is not used as a sweetening agent in tablet?
a) Neotame
d) Aspartame
b) Sucralose
c) Aerosil
(8) Emulsions are defined as thermodynamically unstable systems. The events that follow sequentially towards
instability are:
a) coalescence, breaking, creaming and flocculation
b) coalescence, breaking, creaming and flocculation
c) coalescence, breaking, creaming and flocculation
d) flocculation, creaming, coalescence and breaking
(9) An o/w microemulsion is prepared using a hydrophilic surfactant. The appearance of a microemulsion is:
a) Intense white
Transparent
b) Milky white
c) Translucent
d)
c) more than one
d)
(10) For an ideal suspension the sedimentation volume should be…………………..
a) Equal to one
zero
b) less than one
(11) The storage temperature for aerosols should never exceed……………………..
a) 37 ºC
b) 120 ºF
c) 100 ºF
d) 120 ºC
(12) The preferred method for sterilization for mineral oil injections is………………………
a) Autoclave
Dry heat
(13) Description
b) Filtration
c) Gas sterilization
Description
P) Castor oil
1) Plastic flow
Q) Conc. Flocculated suspension
2) Pseudoplastic flow
R) Liquid dispersion of methyl cellulose
3) Dilatant flow
S) Pastes of small deflocculated particles
4) Newtonian flow
d)
a) P-1,Q-3,R-4,S-2
2,S-3
b) P-3,Q-1,R-2,S-4
c) P-2,Q-4,R-1,S-3 d) P-4,Q-1,R-
(14) Pharmaceutical importance of simethicone is _______________
a) Antiadherent
Emulsifying agent
b) Antifoaming
c) Glidant
d)
(15) The BCS Class II drugs are ______________________
a) Low solubility and high permeability
permeability
b) High solubility and low
c) Low solubility and low permeability
permeability
d) High solubility and high
(16) Pharmaceutical excipients are intended for following purposes except ______________________
a) Pharmacological activity
b) Pharmaceutical stability c) Physical solubility
d) Chemical compatibility
(17) Which of the following diluent causes tablet softening upon storage?
a) Lactose
d) DCP
b) MCC
c) Mannitol
(18) How many litres of 8% solution can be made from 500 gm of a solid?
a) 1.6 litre
6250 litre
b) 4 litre
c) 6.25 litre
(19) One of the following statements for a generic drug product is not true?
a) Must contain the same active ingredients in the same concentration as the
innovator
b) Must contain the same composition of inactive ingredients
c) Must be bioequivalent to the innovator product
d)
d) Generics are offered at significantly lower prices than reference medicines
(20) One of the following statements for Phase I clinical trial is not true?
a) It is initiated only after successful animal studies
b) It is performed on healthy human volunteers
c) It is used to determine the drug safety
d) It is used to establish the drug efficacy
(21) Which of the following pairs has an interaction beneficial for routine clinical use?
a) Pseudoephedrine and Aluminum hydroxide gel
b) Tetracycline and Milk of
Magnesia
c) MAO inhibitors and Tyramine
d) Chloromphenicol
and Tolbutamide
(22) Macrolide antibiotics exert their action by
a) Inhibiting transcription
genetic code
c) Terminating protein synthesis prematurely
modification
b) Alternating the
d) Post translational
(23) A specimen isolated from a patient suffering from septicemia was found to be a strict aerobe. Its culture vial
has a characteristic grape like odour and it was susceptible to Carbenicillin. Identify the organisma) Pseudomonas flourescens
b) S.typhi
c) S. aureus
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(24) The drug regime used in treatment of both intestinal and extra intestinal symptoms of amoebiasis orally is
a) Diloxanide & Iodoquinol
b) Paramomycin & Mefloquine
c)
Metronidazole & Diloxanide
d) Chloroquine
(25) Which of the following gives positive ferric chloride test?
a) Morphine
b) Codeine
None of the above
c) Thebaine
(26) Fusidic acid belongs to which of the following group?
a) Cyclic dipeptide
b) Macrolide
d) Glycopeptide
c) Tetracyclic triterpine
(27) Which of the following anti-anxiety agent is an azaspirodecanedione derivative?
a) Lorazepam
b) Cycloheptadiene
c) Meprobamate
d) Buspirone
(28) One of the following drug has activity against herpes virus simplex-I and is used topically. Systemic
administration of this agent results in BMD, hepatic dysfunction and nephrotoxicity. Identify the drug.
a) Acyclovir
b) Amantadine
c) Vidarabine
d) Idoxuridin
d)
(29) β-phenyl-N-alkyl piperidine moiety is largely responsible for activity in one of the following. Choose the correct
onea) Bupreonorphine
b) Pethidine
c) Cycloserine
d) Amitryptilline
(30) The most common causative agent of bacterial pneumonia is…………………………
a) S.aureus
b) E.coli
c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
d) Mycoplasma pneumonia
(31) p-flouro phenyl acetic acid conjugate, on metabolism, is given by which of the following drug?
a) Paracetamol
b) Diloxanide
c) Ivermectin
Haloperidol
d)
(32) 2-β(2-chloroethyl)aminoperhydro-1,3,2-oxazaphosphorinane is an …………………
a) Anti-metabolite
b) Alkylating agent
c) Anti-TB agent
Anti-arrhythmic agent
d)
(33) N-allyl derivative of dihydrohydroxymorphine is…………………………
a) Naloxone
b) Nalorphine
Naltrexone
d)
c) Thebaine
(34) Enkephalins are ………………………..
a) Exogenous compounds used in analgesia.
b) Endogenous ligands are pentapeptides that are localized in some nerve endings.
c) Endogenous ligands are tripeptides that are present in nerve tissue.
d) Endogenous ligands are tetrapeptides that are present in cardiovascular tissue.
(35) Isoxazole ring can be found in which of the following drug?
a) Nitrofurantoin
b) Primidone
Cloxacillin
c) Mebendazole
d)
c) >15
d)
(36) For simple (1st order) NMR spectrum value of Δv/j should be………………
a) >10
<15
b) <10
(37) Which of the following alkenes would have the largest λmax?
(38) The CMR spectrum of an unknown compound shows 4 absorptions and the PMR spectrum shows 4
absorptions. Which of the following compounds is the unknown compound?
(39) Which of the following have highest λmax?
a) CH3F
b) CH3Cl
c) CH3Br
d) CH3I
(40) Value of the Plank constant is ………………
a) 6.625*10-27 erg sec
1.602*10-12 joule sec
b) 6.625*10-27 joule sec
c) 6.241*10-11 erg sec d)
(41) Characteristic component of Polarograph is …………………..
a) Diffusion current
mercury electrode
b) Pt.electrode
c) Calomel electrode
d) Dropping
(42) Diffusion current can be obtained by ………………….
a) Ilkovic eqn.
Lambert’s law
b) Beer’s eqn.
c) Hooke’s law
d)
b) Methyl red
c) Triton
d)
b) 91
c) 105
(43) Which of the following is used as Polarographic maxima suppressant?
a) Gelatin
All of the above
(44) Benzyl bromide gives base peak at …………..
a) 77
d) 107
(45) Dependent variable in Polarography is ……………….
a) Current
Volume
b) Potential
c) Concentration
d)
(46) Which of the following drug combinations are highly susceptible to Nephrotoxicity?
a) Enalapril+Hydrochlorthiazide
Losartan+Hydrochlorthiazide
b)
c) Atenolol+Hydrochlorthiazide
Amlodipine+Hydrochlorthiazide
d)
(47) A patient of 40-45 year age is suffering from heart failure & hypertension, which of the following is first choice
drug prescribed by physician?
a) Digoxin
b) Irbesartan
c) Spironolactone
d) Torasemide
(48) Which of the following drug is both L & T type Calcium channel blocker?
a) Nimodipine
b) Mibefradil
c) Verapamil
d) Ethosuximide
(49) Which of the following drug is specific B2 receptor Antagonist?
a) Betaxolol
Butoxamine
b) Salbutamol
c) Ritodrine
d)
c) Both A and B
d)
(50) Which of the following drug(s) is/are Potassium channel opener?
a) Nicorandil
Nebivolol
b) Pinacidil
(51) Desmopressin is selective…………………….
a) V2 Agonist
b) V2 Antagonist
c) V1 Agonist
d) V1 Antagonist
c) Methoxamine
d) Roxin
(52) Which of the following drug is Heparin Antagonist?
a) Pergolide
b) Protamine
(53) Which of the following drug is PPARα receptor Activator?
a) Tolbutamide
b) Gemfibrozil
d) Muraglitazar
c) Rosiglitazone
(54) Which of the following antihypertensive drug produces Rebound Hypertension?
a) Hexamethonium
d) Prazosin
b) Clonidine
c) Metoprolol
(55) Which of the following drug is non-depolarising NM blocker?
a) Mephensin
b) Decamethonium
c) Baclofen
d) Mivacurium
(56) Which of the following is controlling DARK ADAPTATION TIME?
a) Retinol
b) Retinal
c) Rhodopsin
d) Retinoic acid
(57) Which of the following sugar is required for nucleic synthesis?
a) Ribose
d) Verbascose
b) Galactose
c) Fructose
(58) Which of the following is an unsaturated fatty acid?
a) Myristic acid
b) Oleic acid
d) Lignoceric acid
c) Valeric acid
(59) Which of the following amino acid is containing specific functional group DISULFIDE?
a) Cysteine
b) Cystine
c) Methionine
d) Leucine
c) Millon’s
d) All of the above
(60) Which of the following test is used to detect albuminuria?
a) Heat coagulation
b) Seliwanoff’s
(61) Which of the following specific reaction is used to identify the increase in serum bilirubin?
a) Van den bergh b) Fouchet’s test
All of the above
c) Gmelin test
d)
(62) Which of the following test used to assess the completeness of vagotomy?
a) Hollander’s test
b) BUN
c) Sulmen’s test
d) Histamine test
(63) Which of the following amino acid is precursor for thyroid hormone synthesis?
a) Phenyl alanine
b) Tyrosine
c) Glycine
d) Threonine
(64) Which of the following is an end product of β-oxidation?
a) Acetyl CoA
Oleic acid
b) Aceyl CoA
c) Palmitate
d)
(65) Which of the following enzyme deficiency cause lactic acidosis?
a) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
d) Hexokinase
b) Lactate dehydrogenase
c) 2, 3-BPG
(66) Aldosterone is secreted from…………………..
a) Zona glomerulosa
b) Zona reticularis
c) Zona fasciculata
d) All of the above
(67) Which of the following enzyme is responsible for formation of tRNA?
a) RNA polymerase I
Polymerase
b) RNA polymerase II
c) RNA polymerase III
d)
(68) Which of the following codon signaling during foetus development causes progeria?
a) UAG
b) UUA
c) AUU
d) CUG
(69) Which of the following is an end product of purine metabolism in humans?
a) Urea
b) Uric acid
c) Xanthine
d) Ammonia
(70) Which of the following immunoglobin is mostly responsible for humoral immunity?
a) IgA
b) IgD
c) IgM
d) IgG
(71) Name of drugs
Synonyms
1. Nux vomica
P) Indian tobacco
2. Lobelia
Q) Thorn apple leaves
3. Colchicum
R) Meadow saffron
4. Stramonium
S) Crow fig seeds
a) 1-S, 2-P, 3-R, 4-Q
1-P, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-S
b) 1-Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4-R
c) 1-R, 2-P, 3-S, 4-Q
d)
(72) The bitterness value is determined by comparing the test drug with following drug:
a) Quinine HCl
Quinine phosphate
b) Chloroquine HCl
c) Quinine sulphate
d)
b) Abscicic acid
c) Ethylene
d)
(73) Give the name of anti-transpirant Growth Regulator:
a) Gibberellin
Auxin
(74) Drugs
Families
1. Artemisia
P) Combretaceae
2. Myrobalan
Q) Leguminosae
3. Black catechu
R) Euphorbeaceae
4. Amla
S) Compositae
a) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q
S, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-P
b) 1-P, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-S
c) 1-S, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-R
d) 1-
(75) The usual adulterants for clove buds are clove stalk and mother clove. The clove stalk can be identified by the
presence of …..
a) Starch grains
b) cystoliths
c) prisms of calcium oxalate
d) none
(76) Mother clove can be identified by the presence of……………………
a) Acicular crystals of calcium oxalate
sclerieds d) both b & c
b) starch grains
c) lignified
(77) Which of the following alkaloid is not derived from tyrosine?
a) Ephedrine
papaverine
b) colchicines
c) morphine
d)
(78) Ester value really means………………………
a) No. of mg of KOH required to neutralize the free acid in 1 gm of the oil
b) No. of mg of KOH required to neutralize the fatty acids resulting from complete
hydrolysis of 1 gm of the oil
c) No. of mg of KOH required to combine with fatty acids which are present in
glycerides form in 1gm of the oil
d) None of the above
(79) Glycyrrhiza has all these pharmacological activities except one.
a) antiulcer
d) antidiabetic
(80) Chemical tests
b) antispasmodic
c) anti-inflammatory
Chemical constituents
1. Grignard Reaction
P) Flavanoids
2. Shinoda Test
Q) Tannins
3. Froth Test
R) Cyanogenetic Glycosides
4. Goldbeater’s Skin Test
S) Saponin
a) 1-R, 2-P, 3-S, 4-Q
S, 2-R, 3-P, 4-Q
b) 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S
c) 1-S, 2-Q, 3-P, 4-R
d) 1-
c) Histamine
d)
(81) Which of the following neurotransmitter is involved in Parkinson’s disease?
a) Nor-adrenaline
Neuropeptide-Y
b) Dopamine
(82) Which of the following is not an excitatory amino acid transmitter?
a) glutamate
d) homocysteate
b) aspartate
c) glycine
(83) Which of the following drug causes methaemogloninaemia?
a) levodopa
b) tolcapone
c) prilocaine
d) articaine
(84) Which of the following drug is 5-HT 1A receptor agonist and used to treat anxiety?
a) methaqualone
b) buspirone
c) meprobamate
d) zolpidem
(85) Which of the following drug causes Anterograde amnesia as its pharmacological effect?
a) Benzodiazepines
b) barbiturates
c) tricyclic antidepressants
d) none of the above
(86) Which of the following drug is used to treat Pneumocystis carini infection in AIDS patient?
a) Ureidopenicillins
doripenam
b) co-trimoxazole c) loracarbef
d)
(87) Which of the following drug is metabolized by enzyme acetyl transferase?
a) Tetracycline
d) capreomycin
b) cycloserine
c)
chloramphenicol
(88) Which of the following anticancer drug acts by inhibition of topoisomerase-I enzyme?
a) etoposide
d) mitomycin
b) topotecan
c) vinorelbine
(89) Which of the following anticancer drug is irreversible aromatase inhibitor?
a) mitotane
d) hydroxyurea
b) flutamide
c) exemestane
(90) Which of the following drug is used in “rescue therapy” of methotrexate?
a) capacitabine
d) octreolide
b) fosfestrol
c) leucovorin
(91) TEVA is mainly known for …………………………..
a) Branded drugs
d) Indian drugs
b) Excipients
c) Generics
b) Atorvastatin Calcium
c) Simvastatin
(92) Lipitor is the brand name for ………………………..
a) Atorvastatin
d) Lipostatin
(93) Which of the following statements for PEG is true?
a) PEG, also known as PEO, has the trade name carbowax
b) The covalent coupling of a therapeutic protein to the PEG molecule is known as
PEGylation
c) Higher Mol. Wt. PEG is used as ointment bases and film coatings.
d) All of the above
(94) Which of the following statements for Polymorphs is true?
a) Polymorphs have different physico-chemical properties
b) Milling/micronization operations may result in polymorphic conversion of a drug
c) Addition of Cellulose ether polymers (HPC, MC) may inhibit polymorphic
transformation
d) All of the above
(95) How many parts of 10% ointment should be mixed with 2 parts of 15% ointment to get 12% ointment?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 6
(96) One of the ex-officio member of the Pharmacy Council of India is……………………….
a) Director General of Health Services
b) Government Analyst
c) Registrar of the State Pharmacy Council
d) Director General of Indian Veterinary
Research Institute
(97) A retardant material that forms a hydrophilic matrix in the formulation of matrix tablets is………
a) HPMC
b) CAP
c) Polyethyleneoxide
d) Carnauba Wax
(98) An organism which has been implicated as a possible cause of chronic gastritis and peptic ulcer
is………………………
a) Campylobacter jejuni b) E. coli c) Helicobacter Pylori
d) Giardia lamblia
(99) A new drug delivery system which is composed of phospholipids that spontaneously form multilamellar
concentric bilayer vesicles with layers of aqueous media separating the lipid layers is…………………
a) prodrugs
b) liposomes
c) osmotic pumps
d) nanoparticles
(100) Measurement of particle size in pharmaceutical Aerosols is by ……………………
(P) Cascade impactor
(Q) light scatter decay
(R) Karl-Fischer method
spectrophotometry
a) P, Q
b) Q, R
c) R, S
d) P, S
(S) IR
(1) What is an acceptable range for a tablet to pass friability test?
a) 0.5-1.5%
b) 02.-1%
c) 0.5-1%
d) 1-2%
(2) Which instrument is used for Homogenization of emulsion?
a) Wood’s apparatus
Coulter Counter
b) Erweka
c) Ultra-sonifier
d)
(3) Which equation describes the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet?
a) Fick’s law
b) Henderson-Hassalbache
d) Michaelis-Menten
c) Noyes Whitney
(4) One of the following statements for Transdermal drug delivery system is not true.
a) Suitable for drugs with low o/w partition coefficient
b) Useful for prolonged duration of action
c) Provides rapid drug absorption by penetration enhancers
d) Franz diffusion cell is used for In-vitro release testing of TDDS
(5) Which is the most stringent environment control zone that is required for filling of parenteral?
a) Grey
b) Black
c) White
d) Red
(6) The dose to be given for Intramuscular route of administration is ………………….
a) 0.01-0.2 ml
b) 2-4 ml
c) less than 20 ml d) 500 ml or more
(7) The shelf life (t90) of zero order reaction is calculated as…………………
a) 0.1Co / k
b) Co / 2k
c) 0.105 / k
d) 0.693 / k
(8) Which of the following mills are used for sterile products?
a) Ball mill
b) Colloid mill
c) Fluid energy mill
d) Both A and C
(9) The causative micro-organism for Syphilis is………………………..
a) Bordetella pertussis
b) Treponema pallidum c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(10) Educational regulations are approved by ……………………
a) State Government
b) Central Government
c) Tribunal
d) Campylobacter jejuni
d) All of the above
(11) Kraft point is the point at which …………………….of the surfactant equals to CMC.
a) Lipophilicity
b) Hydrophilicity
c) Solubility
d) None of the above
(12) The Drug Technical Advisory Board consists of following number of Ex-Officio members?
a) 3
b) 6
c) 8
d) 10
(13) One of the following statements is true regarding oxygen requirement for Facultative anaerobes
(E.coli).
a) Requires oxygen
b) Grows with or without oxygen c) Grows best
with low oxygen
d) Killed by oxygen
(14) The Thermophil bacteria can grow at………………
a) 5-25 ° C
70-100 ° C
b) 25-40 ° C
c) 40-85 ° C
d)
(15) In a formulation development laboratory, you have to formulate an oral dosage from containing olive
oil, vitamin A and water. Suggest a suitable dosage form.
a) Solution
b) Suspension
c) Emulsion
d) Capsule
(16) Yen is the currency of ……………….
a) Japan
South Africa
b) Singapore
c) UK
d)
(17) The full form of GRAS is ………………….
a) Generally recognized as safe
Agreement
b) Generic remedies and safety
c) Government rational approach to safety
services
d) Government relief and
(18) The regulatory agency of Brazil is …………………
a) EMEA
USFDA
b) TGA
c) ANVISA
d)
(19) A patent gives the owner the right to……………………………
a) Make her invention
b) Publish the results of tests using the invention
c) Exclude others from making her invention
d) Collect a monetary award from the government
(20) Combiflam is a combination drug product of …………………….
P) Paracetamol
Diclofenac sodium
a) PQ
b) PR
Q) Aspirin
c) PS
R) Ibuprofen
S)
d) RS
(21) Colorcon is a company popularly known for ………………….
a) Branded drugs
Indian drugs
b) Excipients
c) Generics
(22) The HPMC (commonly known as Hypromellose) is used in formulations as ……………..
d)
a) Coating agent
b) Tablet binder
polymer
d) All of the above
c) Sustained release
(23) As per ICH stability guidance, Zone I indicates the condition as………………………..
a) Temperate
b) Subtropical climate c) Hot/Dry
d) Hot/Humid
(24) A number of two digits is equal to 3 times the sum of digits. Find the number
a) 72
b) 63
c) 27
d) 36
(25) The shelf life of a liquid drug is 24 hrs. at 5 ºC. Approximately how long will the drug be stable at 37
ºC?
a) 1 hr.
hrs.
b) 2 hrs.
c) 3 hrs.
d) 4
(26) In Potentiometry curve is obtained by plotting…………………….
a) Emf Vs ml of titrant
b) Emf Vs current
titrant d) Current Vs resistance
c) Current Vs ml of
(27) Which of the following is an inert electrode?
a) Carbon electrode
electrode
b) Calomel electrode
d) Glass electrode
c)
Hydrogen
(28) 60 mg of NaAc.3H2O (M.W. 136) on titration gave reading 3.5 ml then strength of Karl-Fischer
reagent is………...
a) 6.81 mg of water / ml of reagent
reagent
b) 17.14 mg of water / ml of
c) 23.82 mg of water / ml of reagent
reagent
d) 10.2 mg water / ml of
(29) Law of independent migration used in Conductometry is……………………….
a) Kohlrausch law
b) Beer’s law
d) Hooke’s law
c) Lambert’s law
(30) Acetic anhydride is used in Non-aq. Titration ……………………
a) To remove water
b) To adjust pH
c) For standardization of HClO4 soln.
d) As a solvent
(31) Reagent used for UV-estimation of steroids containing α-ketone is …………………….
a) Triphenyl Tetrazolium chloride
b) Bratton Marshal reagent
c) 2, 4-Dinitrophenyl
d) Antimony trichloride
(32) Detector used in ESR spectroscopy is ………………….
a) Silicon carbide
b) Silicon crystal detector
Golay pneumatic detector
c) Klystron
d)
(33) Primary standard compound for Acetous perchloric acid is ………………..
a) KHP
b) Anhydrous sodium bicarbonate
d) NaOH
c) Benzoic acid
(34) In Gas chromatography for analysis of drugs containing halogens, the preferred detector is ……………
a) TCD
b) FID
c) Gas density detectors
d) ECD
(35) Iodine vapours for TLC are used to detect………..…………
a) Carboxylic acids
Volatile compounds
(36) Techniques
Electrodes
b) Steroids
c) Unsaturated compound
d)
P. Polarography
1. Pt + DME
Q. Conductometry
2. Pt + Pt
R. pH metry
3. Pt + Glass
S. Potentiometry
4. Pt + SCE
a) P-1,Q-2,R-4,S-3
P-2,Q-4,R-3,S-1
b) P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4
c) P-2,Q-3,R-4,S-1
d)
(37) In gel permeation chromatography, the molecules are separated on the basis of……………………..
a) Chemical nature
Partition coefficient
b) Size & Shape c) Adsorptive properties
d)
(38) For qualitative analysis in Polarography which of the following is used?
a) Half wave potential
d) Residual current
b) Diffusion current
c) Migration current
(39) Common indicator used in non aqueous titration is…………………….
a) Crystal violet
Phenolphthalein
b) Methyl orange
c) Sudan red
(40) Base peak in Benzoyl bromide in the Mass spectrum is at …………………………
a) 77
b) 91
c) 105
d) 107
(41) Which of the following heterocyclic ring is present in Atorvastatin?
a) Pyrolle
d) Furan
b) Imidazole
(42) Losartan-An angiotensin II type1 receptor antagonist metabolized to…………….….
c) Piperidine
d)
a) Losartan-5-CH3OH
4-COOH
b) Losartan-4-CH3OH
c) Losartan-5-COOH
(43) Which of the following drug is a specific coronary vasodilator?
a) Verapamil
b) Azimilide
c) Amiodarone
d) Losartan-
d) Diltiazem
(44) Which of the following amino acid is frequently bound at active site of enzymes?
a) Lysine
b) Alanine
c) Valine
d) Serine
(45) Which of the following protein causes Alzheimer disease?
a) Amyloid-β-peptide
δ-peptide
b) Amyloid-α-peptide
c) Amyloid-λ-peptide
d) Amyloid-
(46) Which of the following vitamin deficiency causes scruvy?
a) Ascorbic acid b) Nicotin
c) Biotin
d) Pyridoxin
(47) Which of the following is a major transporter of steroid hormone?
a) Transcortin
b) Transferrine
c) Ceruloplasmin
d) RBP
(48) Which of the following coenzyme is involved in electron transport chain (ETC) process?
a) Coenzyme A
b) Coenzyme Q c) Coenzyme H d) Coenzyme V
(49) Which of the following cycle divided into energy investment, splitting and energy generation phase?
a) TCA cycle
Urea cycle
b) Glycolysis
c) Gluconeogenesis
d)
(50) Which of the following enzyme is responsible for β-oxidation of unsaturated fatty acid?
a) Isomerase
Thiolase
b) Dehydrogenase
(51) Which of the following enzyme is rate-limiting in urea cycle?
a) CPS-I
b) CPS-II
c) Arginase
c) Oxidase
d) Hydrolases
(52) Which of the following process is responsible for synthesis of protein from mRNA?
a) Transcription
b) Translation
c) Reverse transcription
d) PCR
(53) Which of the following group is responsible for anti-anginal activity of 1, 4-dihydropyridine?
d)
a) Nitrate
NH3
b) Nitro
c) NO
d)
(54) Which of the following anti-arrhythmic drug shows pH dependent activity?
a) Procainamide
Digoxin
b) Sotalol
c) Propranolol
d)
(55) Which of the following moiety is responsible for binding to angiotensin II type 1 receptor?
a) Acidic tetrazole
b) Basic tetrazole
c) Neutral tetrazole
d) All of the above
c) Verapamil
d) Both A and C
b) Enalapril maleate
c) Captopril
(56) Which of the following contains nitrile group?
a) Dipyridamol
b) Diltiazem
(57) Which of the following is a prodrug of enalapril?
a) Lisinopril
Quinapril
d)
(58) Which of the following sentence is true for β-blocker sotalol?
a) L-sotalol 15 times more β-Blocker
b) L-sotalol 30-60 times more β-Blocker
c) D-sotalol 30-60 times more β-Blocker
d) D-sotalol 10-20 times more β-Blocker
(59) Which of the following moiety is responsible for α1 antagonistic activity of prazosin?
a) 10 amine
b) 20 amine
c) 30 amine
d) 40 amine
(60) Which of the following drug is synthesized by Williamson synthesis?
a) Clofibrate
Probenecid
b) Fenofibrate
c) Colesevelam
d)
b) ALT
c) ALP
d)
(61) What is the synonym of SGPT?
a) AST
ASP
(62) A lady 30-35 year old, taking Ramipress™ containing ramipril for severe hypertension. Which of the
following drug will be prescribed by physician with Ramipress™?
a) Dextromethorphan
b) Ibuprofen
c) Tramadol
d) Telmisartan
c) Icatibant
d) Dazoxiben
(63) Which of the following drug is Bradykinin antagonist?
a) Icarban
b) Atosiban
(64) Which of the following drug causes crystalluria?
a) Metyrosine
b) Disulfiram
d) All of the above
c) Guanithidine
(65) Which of the following β-Blocker produces side effect lupus erythematosus?
a) Pindolol
b) Proctalol
d) Metoprolol
(66) Which of the following central analgesic drug is used as pain killer?
a) Trazodon
b) Tramadol
c) Piroxicam
c) Atenolol
d) Diclofenac
(67) Which of the following drug is used in Raynauld’s disease?
a) Nifedipine
b) Captopril
d) Amlodipine
c) Clonidine
(68) Which of the following β-Blocker is used in glaucoma?
a) Nadolol
d) Betoxalol
b)Cartelol
c) Oxprenolol
(69) Which of the following is used as antifibrinolytic drug?
a) Aminocaproic acid
d) Aspirin
b) Picotamide
c) Ticlopidine
(70) Which of the following drug is widely used in supraventricular tachycardia?
a) Adenosine
b) Warfarin
c) MgSO4
d) Mexiletine
(71) Control of Respiratory depression is mediated by……………………..
a) μ1 receptor
b) μ2 receptor
d) None of the above
c) Kappa receptor
(72) Naltriben contains which of the following ring?
a) Furan
Pyridine
b) Pyrrole
c) Thiophene
d)
c) Meclofenamate.Na
d)
(73) Anti-UV erythema activity is associated with which of the following?
a) Mefenamic acid
Clonixin
b) Flufenamic acid
(74) Paracetemol produces Anti-pyretic, Analgesic effect via inhibition of enzyme………………………..
a) COX-1
COX-4
b) COX-2
c) COX-3
d)
(75) Primaquine is associated with which of the following side effects?
a) Teratogenic
d) Cyanosis
b) Increases QT interval
c) Heart block
b) Cyclophosphamide
c) Chloropromazine
(76) Largactil® is a trade name for which drug?
a) Morphine
d) Sulperide
(77) Drug of choice in today`s world due to high resistance to other drugs is………………
a) Quinine
b) Chloroquinine
d) Artemisinin
c) Fosphidomycin
(78) Adrenocortical suppression is associated with…………..
a) Etomidate
Propofol
b) Ketamine
c) Isoflurane
d)
c) Tigabine
d)
(79) Structure of Carmustine, an anticancer drug is…………………………
a) ClCH2CH2N(NO)CH2NHCH2CH2Cl
ClCH2CH2N(NO)CH2N(NO)CH2CH2Cl
b)
c) ClCH2CH2N(NO)CONHCH2CH2Cl
ClCH2CH2N(NO)CON(NO)CH2CH2Cl
d)
(80) Drug of choice for Lennox gastaut syndrome is …………………………….
a) Lamotrignine
Zonisamide
b) Felbamate
(81) Which of the following anti-TB dug causes pyridoxine deficiency?
a) Isoniazid
b) Pyrazinamidec) Cycloserine
Ethambutol
d)
(82) Which of the following penicillins are effective against P. aeruginosa infection?
a) Oxacillin
b) Naficillin
c) Methicillin
Ticarcillin
d)
(83) Which of the following is/are the endogenous opioids(s)?
a) Endorphins
b) Dynorphins
the above
c) Both A and B d) None of
(84) Nitric oxide acts by which mediator?
a) cGMP
None of the above
c) ATP
d)
c) Azlocillin
d)
b) cAMP
(85) Which of the following drug is used to treat Lyme’ disease?
a) Sulphasalazine
b) Clarithromycin
Clofazimine
(86) Which of the following drugs is excreted primarily by renal tubular secretions?
a) Gentamycin
b) Kanamycin
c) Tetracycline
Carbenicillin
d)
(87) Which of the following tetracycline drug is effective against N. meningitidis infection?
a) Rolitetracycline
b) Minocycline
c) Demeclocycline
Doxycycline
d)
(88) Which of the following anticancer drug acts by inhibition of topoisomerase-I enzyme?
a) Etoposide
b) topotecan
c) vinorelbine
mitomycin
d)
(89) Which of the following drug is used to treat Pneumocystis carini infection in AIDS patient?
a) Ureidopenicillins
b) co-trimoxazole
c) loracarbef
doripenam
d)
(90) µ-opioid receptors are involved in all pharmacological effects except………………….
a) Analgesia
b) Euphoria
c) Dysphoria
Respiratory depression
d)
(91) As per WHO guidelines which of the following method is used to determine water content of the
herbal crude drug?
a) Toluene Distillation
b) Gravimetric analysis
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
(92) Lycopodium spore method is used to analyze which of the following form of the drug?
a) Leaf
b) stem
c) powdered drug
d) root
(93) Which of the following drug contains glandular trichomes?
a) Male fern
b) vasaka
cannabis
c) nux vomica
d)
(94) Which of the following herbal drug is used as respiratory stimulant in the treatment of asthma?
a) Hyoscyamus
b) Duboisia
c) Coca
d)
Lobelia
(95) Which of the following is the main chemical constituent of the Eucalyptus oil?
a) Geraniol
b) cineole
c) Both A and B
None of the above
(96) How many no. of Isoprene units are present in sesquiterpenes?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
(97) Which of the following contains Phenolic ether volatile oil?
a) Anise
b) Nutmeg
the above
d)
d) 4
c) Both A and B
(98) Colchicine is mainly used to treat……………………….
a) Gout
b) cancer
arthritis
d) None of
c) diabetes
(99) Rauwolfia alkaloid belongs to the class of……………………….
a) Quinoline
b) Isoquinoline c) Piperidine
(100) Which of the following method is used to extract Citrus oils?
a) Hydrodistillation
b) Enfleurage method
d) None of the above
Controlled release products are…………………………
d)
d) Indole
c) Ecuelle method
a) Modified release products b) Sustained release products
release products
d) All of the above
c) Delayed
The correct non-ionic surfactant used as a penetration enhancer in the preparation of mucoadhesives
is…………….
a) oleic acid
b) tween-80
c) glycerol
d) propylene glycol
Guggulipid, a resin is…………………………
a) a hypolipidemic agent obtained from cotton plants containing
multifunctional compound ( ± ) gossypol
b) a lipid obtained from Arctium lappa, asteraceae and traditionally used for
the treatment of dermatoses
c) cathartic glucoresin obtained from Ipomoea orizabensis and used since
ancient time
d) a hypolipidemic agent obtained from Commiphora mukul consisting of a
mixture of sterols including Z-pregna-(20)-diene-3, 16-dione
What is the term for a utility patent in India?
a) 10 years
20 years
b) 15 years
c) 17 years
d)
The decomposition of a drug in aqueous acid solution was found to follow first order reaction. The
initial concentration was found to be 0.056 M. The concentration after a period of 12 hours was 4.10 ×
10 moles/litre. The reaction rate constant is 0.02599- 1 œhr
What is the quantity of drug remaining undecomposed after 8 hours?
a) 0.455 moles/litre
b) 0.25 moles/litre
c) 0.0455 moles/litre
d) 0.10 moles/litre
What is the amount of drug deteriorated during the period of 24 hours?
a) 0.026 moles/litre
b) 0.0026 moles/litre c) 0.03 moles/litre
d) 0.053 moles/litre
Peso is the currency of …………………………………
a) Korea
Bangladesh
b) UAE
c) Mexico
d)
The full form of IIG is ……………………………
a) Indian Institute of Geology
b) Indian
c) International Institute of Gastrology
d) Inactive Ingredient guide
TGA is the regulatory agency of…………………………..
a) New Zealand
Europe
b) USA
c) Australia
d)
The full form of USPTO is ……………………………
a) UN Society for Patient Therapeutic operations
States Pharma Trade Organization
c) United States Patent and Trademark Office
b) United
d)
Alcon is the global leader in ……………………
a) Coating technology
b) Transdermals
Ophthalmics
d) Aerosols
c)
Find the next number…………..
If 2+3 = 10, 7+2 = 63, 6+5 = 66, 8+4 = 96, then 9+7 =????
a) 99
b) 144
c) 160
d) 97
In statistics, the value that occurs the most frequently in a data set is known
as …………………..
a) Mean
b) Median
c) Mode
d) Range
Indian Patent Act was passed in ……………
a) 1950
b) 1960
c) 1970
d) 1980
All the drug products marketed in USA are listed in ………………………
a) Blue book
Orange book
b) Green book
c) Red book
d)
The USFDA is concerned with the regulations of………………………
a) Drugs
All of the above
b) Cosmetics
c) Medical devices
d)
How much of 3% ointment must be added to 50 gm of an 15 % ointment to
make 10% ointment?
a) 7.15 gm
250 gm
b) 14.30
c) 35.7 gm
d)
Which derivative of Vitamin B1 gives fluorescence in visible region?
a) Thiochrome
Oxythiamine
b) Thiamine
c) Pyrithiamine
The coenzyme not involved in hydrogen transfer
a) FMN
b) FAD
c) NADP+
d) FH4
d)
Which number carbon differentiates α and β forms (i.e. anomers) of D-glucose?
a) C4
b) C3
c) C1
d) C2
c) (C6H10O6)n
d)
Homopolysaccharides have general formula …………..
a) (C6H10O5)n
(C6H10O4)n
b) (C6H12O4)n
Which test is used to check the purity of butter containing good conc. of volatile
fatty acid?
a) Reichert-Meissl No.
d) Ash value
b) Acid No.
c) Iodine No.
Which of the following is/are an essential Fatty Acid(s)?
a) Linoleic Acid
above
b) Linolenic Acid
c) Arachidonic Acid
d) All of the
Edman’s Reagent is chemically …………………
a) Phenyl isothiopropionate
b) Phenyl isothiocyanate
c) Phenyl isopropylbuty rate
d) Phenyl Butylpropionate.
Which of the following is nonapeptide?
a) Kallidin
b) Bradykinin
Which of following is present in collagen?
c) Substance P
d) Gastrin
a) 5-Hydroxy proline
Hydroxy proline
b) 4-Hydroxy lysine
c) 5-Hydroxy lysine
d) 3-
Nucleoside refers to………………….
a) Base + Sugar b) Base + Phosphate
None of the above
c) Base only
d)
Carbohydrates containing more than 4 % protein are known as ……..
a) Glycoprotein b) Mucoprotein
c) Metalloprotein d) Lipoprotein.
Invert Sugar is prepared from …..
a) Dextrose
the above
b) Sucrose
c) Inulin
d) None of
The functionally active form of Vitamin D is…
a) Cholecalciferol
Calcitriol
b) Ergocalciferol c) Dehydrocholesterol
d)
Which of the following enzymes requires chloride ions as activators?
a) Lipase
Chemotrypsin
b) Amylase
c) Trypsin
d)
Which of the following sugar deficiency cause diarrhoea and flatulence?
a) Maltose
Lactose
b) Sucrose
c) Xylose
d)
Which of the following is an unbranched water soluble polysaccharide?
a) Amylase
Hyaluronidase
b) Amylopectin
c) Heparin
d)
Which of the following cyclic fatty acid used in treatment of leprosy?
a) Ricinoleic acid b) Sesame oil
All of the above
c) Chaulmoogra oil
d)
Which of the following phosphogyceride possess antigenic property?
a) Cephalin
Sphingoside
b) Plasmalogen
c) Cardiolipin
d)
Which of the following is true for an amino acid lysine?
a) Ketogenic
Both A and C
b) glycogenic
c) Essential amino acid
d)
Which of the following test used for imidazole ring containing amino acid?
a) Sakaguchi reaction
Millons test
b) Zak’s test
c) Pauly’s test
d)
Which of the following form of DNA is a right handed helix?
a) Z
b) A
c) B
What is the synonym for transfer RNA?
a) Irregular RNA b) regular RNA
c) polymer RNA d) soluble RNA
d) E
Which of the following vitamin deficiency is caused by Isoniazid?
a) Pyridoxine
Pantothenic acid
b) Niacin
c) Biotin
d)
Which of the vitamin widely used in mouth ulcer?
a) Vitamin B-complex
the above
b) Folic acid
c) Both A and B d) None of
Bioflavanoids are known as….
a) Vitamin H
b) Vitamin L
c) Vitamin P
d) Vitamin A
Which of the following is an Antineuritic vitamin?
a) Vitamin B5
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin B7
d) Vitamin B1
What is the function of peroxisome?
a) Bimerization
Glycation
b) Mutarotation c) Oxidation
d)
Which of the following acid is formed on oxidation of - CHO group of sugars?
a) Glucoronic acid
Mucic acid
b) Gluconic acid c) Saccharic acid
Which of the following deficiency cause Phrynoderma or toad skin?
d)
a) Essential fatty acid
b) Non-essential fatty acid
d) All of the above
c) Proteins
What is the principle Reverse sequencing method detecting amino acid sequence?
a) Enzymatic method
method
d) HPLC
b) Chemical method
c) Chemical-DNA
Uric acid is chemically?
a) 2,6-dioxypurine
b) 2,6,8-trioxypurine
oxypurine
d) 6,8-dioxypurine
c) 6-
Which of the following enzymes used for detecting glucose in urine?
A) Glucose peroxidase
Both A and B
b) Glucose oxidase
c) Glucose transferase
d)
Which of the following lipid possess antihyperlipidemic action?
a) Phospholipid
b) Triglyceride
c) Glycolipid
d) Sitosterol
Proteins are polymer of ………….
a) L-α-aminoacid
b) D-α-aminoacid c) L-β-aminoacid d) L-λ-aminoacid
What is the last product of the glycolysis in anaerobic medium?
a) Pyruvate
oxaloacetate
b) lactate
c) citrate
d)
Which of the following drug should not be given with torsemide?
a) Bleomycin
b) Dactinomycin
c) Mitomycin
d) Neomycin
Which of the following drug is given with fenofibrate to prevent Coronary Heart
Disease?
a) Pravastatin
b) Rosuvastatin c) Simvastatatin
d) Cerivastatin
Which of the following β-blocker is used to treat angina?
a) Atenolol
b) Nadolol
c) Betoxalol
d) Nebivolol
Which of the following route(s) of administration is used for Epoetin-β?
a) I.M.
Both B and C
b) I.V.
c) S.C.
d)
Which of the following anti-platelet drug is PDE inhibitor?
a) Dipyridamol
b) Disopyramide
c) Tirofiban
d) Abciximab
Pompe’s deficiency is caused due to deficiency of ………………..
a) Acid maltase
b) Glycogen sythatase
c) Hexokinase
d) Acid lactase
HMP pathway is also known as…….
a) Pentose phosphate pathway
b) Hexose phosphate pathway
c) Phosphate pathway
d) Cori’s cycle
Which vitamin’s coenzyme must be required for transamination of Amino acids?
a) VitaminB5
d) VitaminB3
b) VitaminB6
c) VitaminB12
Disposal of ammonia in mammals is by………
a) NH4
b) Urea
c) Uric Acid
d) NH4Cl
Which of the following is/are example(s) of ketone bodies?
a) Alcohol
Both A and C
b) Acetone
c) Acetoacetate
d)
Which of the following enzyme cause phosphorylation of glucose in Glycolysis?
a) Glucokinase
All
b) Pyruvate kinase
c) PFK
d)
Which of the following vitamin is known as anti-dermatitis factor?
a) VitaminB6
Pantothenic acid
b) VitaminB12
c) VitaminB3
Melatonin is synthesized from…………….
a) Tyrosine
b) Valine
c) Tryptophan d) Serine
Which arm of the t-RNA is responsible for recognition of triplet codon of m-RNA?
a) D-arm
b) T¥C arm
c) Anticodon arm
d) Variable arm
Which of the coenzyme donates sulfate for synthesis of mucopolysaccharides?
d)
a) Phosphoadenosine phosphosulfate
ATP
b) UDP c) CDP
d)
Which of the Non-α-amino acid is intermediate in synthesis of porphyrin?
a) α-Alanine
ornithine
b) δ-Aminolevulinic acid
c) Taurine
d)
Which of the following is a central molecule for Glycolysis, Glycogenesis,
Gluconeogenesis?
a) Fructose
Glycogen
b) Glucose-6-phosphate
c) Fructose-6-phosphate d)
Bile acid is synthesized from……………
a) Choline
b) Phosphatidic acid
d) Triacylglycerol
c) Cholesterol
Elastin & Keratin are……………..…
a) Scleroprotein b) Simple protein
of the above
c) conjugated protein
d) All
Which Amino acid directly participates in synthesis of Heme….
a) Methionine
Tryptophan
b) Aspartate
c) Glycine
d)
c) 3
d) 4
No. of Heme present in Myoglobin is……………..
a) 1
b) 2
Which of the following element of ETC possesses isoprenoid units?
a) Coenzyme Q
b) Cytochrome
c) Cytochrome b
d) Non-Heme
Superoxide is converted to H2O2 by…
a) Peroxidase
Glutathion peroxidase
b) Catalase
c) Superoxide dismutase d)
BSP (Bromosulphthalein) is used to access the function of…
a) Liver
b) Kidney
c) Heart
d)Muscle
Gonadotropin releasing hormone is….
a) Nonapeptide b) Decapeptide
c) Polypeptide
d) Octapeptide
Most active mineralocorticoid hormone is …………….
a) Cortisol
b) Aldosterone
c) ADH
d) Epinephrine
In Hemolytic Jaundice, Van den Bergh reaction is….
a) Direct positive b) Indirect positive
above
c) Biphasic
HLB of o/w emulsifying agent is ……………
(a) 3-6
(b) 6-9
(c) 9-16
(d) 15-40
d) None of
Capacity (in ml) of 000 capsule is ………….
(a) 0.13
(b) 0.30
(c) 0.95
(d) 1.30
Which of the following is not a water soluble antioxidant?
(a) Ascorbic acid
(b) Thioglycerol (c) Lecithin
(d) Sodium metabisulphate
ICH stands for …….……
(a) Indian Council on Healthcare system
Health Hazards
(b) Institute for controlling
(c) International Conference on Harmonization
Harmonization
(d) International Committee on
Various shaped tablets are produced by …………
(a) Convex punches (b) Slotted punches
punches
(c) Concave punches
(d) Flat
(c) 30-100 parts
(d) 100-1000
Sparingly soluble means …………..
(a) 1-10 parts
parts
(b) 10-30 parts
Schedule: “Requirement & guideline on Clinical trials for import and manufacture of
new drugs?”
(a) Sch. D
Sch. Y
(b) Sch. K
Powdered Glass test is not used for which USP Glass?
(c) Sch. V
(d)
(a) Type I
All of the above
(b) Type II
(c) Type III
Name
Description
P) Sorensen
1. pH scale
Q) Dalla Valle
2. Micromeritics
R) Zanasi
3. Tablet coating
S) Wurster
4. Capsule filling machine
(a) P1,Q2,R3,S4
P1,Q3,R2,S4
(b) P1,Q2,R4,S3
(c) P2,Q1,R4,S3
Schedule
(d)
(d)
Description
P) Schedule M
1. Requirements of manufacturing premises
Q) Schedule O
2. Standards for disinfectant fluids
R) Schedule R
3. Standards for patent or proprietary medicines
S) Schedule V
4. Standards for mechanical contraceptives
(a) P1,Q2,R3,S4
P1,Q3,R2,S4
Sterilization process
(b) P1,Q2,R4,S3
(c) P2,Q1,R4,S3
Biological indicator
P) Filtration
1. B. stearothermophillus
Q) Radiation
2. B. pumulis
(d)
R) Dry heat
3. B. subtilis var. niger
S) Moist heat
4. Serratia marscence
(a) P4,Q2,R3,S1
P4,Q1,R2,S3
(b) P1,Q3,R2,S4
(c) P1,Q4,R3,S2
(d)
Diagnostic tests for syphilis are...........
P) Kahn test
Schick test
(a) P,Q
Q) Widal test
(b) P,S
R) Wasserman test
(c) P,R
S)
(d) Q,S
In tablet compression machine the component guiding the movement of the punches is called
a) Hopper
Turrets
b) Die table
c) Cam tracks
d)
c) Surgical dressing
d)
Dry heat sterilization cannot be used for ……………..
a) Oils
Metal instruments
b) Powders
Quantitative color estimation is done by...
a) Calorimetric measurement
photometer
b) Micro-reflectance
c) Psychrometry
d) All of the above
As per D&C Act and Rules, the GMP is included under Schedule ………
a) W
b) G
c) M
d) P
Pasteurization method for sterilization of milk is carried out at ……………
a) 62.8 ºC for 30 min.
60 ºC for 1 hr.
b) 68.2 ºC for 30 min.
c) 121 ºC for 30 min.
Diluent used for Spheronization method is……….
a) Lactose
b) MCC
c) Starch
d) PVP
What is the working principle of action of Hammer mill?
a) Attrition
b) Impact
c) Both A and B d) Pressure
Rat holling phenomena relates with………………..
(a) Poor flow of granules
(b) Maintaining the granule flow
(c) Filling of capsules
(d) Increasing the granular flow
Storage condition
Description
P) Cold storage
1) Any temp. not greater than 8˚C
Q) Cool storage
2) Any temp. between 8-25˚C
R) Warm storage
3) Any temp. between 30-40˚C
S) Excessive heat
4) Any temp. above 40˚C
(a) P1,Q2,R3,S4
P1,Q3,R2,S4
Antibiotic
P) Bleomycin
(b) P2,Q1,R4,S3
(c) P2,Q1,R3,S4
Test organism
1) Mycobacterium smegmatis
(d)
d)
Q) Chloramphenicol
2) E.coli
R) Rifampicin
3) B. subtilis
S) Chlortetracyclineine
4) S. aureus
a) P-4,Q-1,R-2,S-3
P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4
b) P-2,Q-3,R-4,S-1
Excipient (Trade Name)
c) P-3,Q-4,R-1,S-2
d)
Purpose
P) Avicel
1) Diluent
Q) Aspartame
2) Sweetner
R) Ac-di-sol
3) Superdisintegrant
S) Aerosil
4) Glidant
a) P-4,Q-1,R-2,S-3
P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4
b) P-3,Q-2,R-4,S-1
c) P-3,Q-4,R-1,S-2
d)
The phenomenon of increasing solubility of non-polar molecules by addition of a
water miscible solvent in which the drug has good solubility is called ………..
a) Complexation b) Co-solvency
c) Solubilization d) Hydrotrophy
The biological indicator for moist heat sterilization is ………
P) Clostridium sporogenes
coagulam S) B. subtilis
a) P, Q
b) P, R
Q) Chromobacter prodigism
c) R, S
R) B.
d) Q, S
The official dissolution test apparatus contains cylindrical vessel and the lower edge
of the blade is positioned from inside bottom of the vessel at
______________________
a) 20±2 mm
25±0.5 mm
b) 25±2 mm
c) 18±2 mm
d)
c) 10-30 parts
d)
The “Soluble” term means ………………..
a) <1 parts
30-100 parts
b) 1-10 parts
Vesicular systems formed by a mixture of cholesterol & non-ionic surfactant are
known as ………………
a) Liposomes
b) Microcapsules c) Neosomes
d) Nanospheres
Reaction of lactose with amines is known as ………………….
a) Hydrolysis
b) Lactolysation
d) All of the above
c) Maillard reaction
The diagnostic test for “Diphtheria” is ………………
a) Kahn test
Schick test
b) Coombs test
c) Dick test
d)
The term “Veegum” stands for ………………
a) Alumino silicate
b) Hydrated aluminium silicate
c) Magnesium aluminium silicate
d) All of the above
Which test is used to determine the wetting angle?
a) Dew point test
Kraft test
b) Draves test
c) Cloud point test
d)
The test organism used in microbiological assay of antibiotic Polymyxin B is
…………………
a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Bordetella bronchiseptica
d) Micrococcus luteus
Taste sensation
Recommended flavour
P) Salty
1) Raspberry
Q) Bitter
2) Butterscotch
R) Sweet
3) Chocolate
S) Sour
4) Vanilla
a) P-4,Q-1,R-2,S-3
P-2,Q-4,R-3,S-1
b) P-3,Q-2,R-4,S-1
c) P-2,Q-3,R-4,S-1
d)
The superdisintegrant used in tablet formulation is
a) Sodium starch glycolate
silicate
b) Starch
c) PVP d) Mg-aluminium
Which evaluation parameter(s) is/are considered for floating tablets?
a) Lag time
All of the above
b) Floating time
c) Hardness
Which term is adopted by USP for Fast dissolving tablets?
d)
a) Orodispersible tablets
b) Mouth dissolving tablets
c) Melt-In-Mouth Tablets
d) Orally disintegrating tablets
In the microbial assay of bacitracin, the test organism used is ………..
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Bacillus pumilus
c) Staphylococcus epidermidis
d) Micrococcus luteus
List of drugs that are exempted from certain provision under manufacture are
described under the schedule ….
a) C
b) D
c) E
d) K
The diagnostic test used for Brucellosis disease is
a) Elex test
test
b) Ducrey test
c) Weil felix test d) Coombs
Which UV wavelength (in nm) gives maximum bactericidal effect for sterilization
purpose?
a) 220
b) 253.7
Instrument
c) 265
d) 320
Description
P) Manesty dry cota
1) Layered tablets
Q) Versa Press
2) Compression coated tablets
R) Differential manomer 3) Homogenization of emulsion
S) Ultra-sonifier
4) Determine aggregation of suspension
a) P-2,Q-1,R-3,S-4
P-2,Q-3,R-1,S-4
b) P-1,Q-2,R-4,S-3
Type of mill
c) P-2,Q-1,R-4,S-3
Not used for
P) Hammer mill
1) Solid materials
Q) Revolving mill
2) Soft materials
R) Cutter mill
3) Abrasive material
S) Colloid mill
4) Friable material
a) P-1,Q-3,R-4,S-2
P-2,Q-3,R-1,S-4
d)
b) P-2,Q-3,R-4,S-1
c) P-3,Q-2,R-4,S-1
d)
Which solvent is used as a binder in the formulation of compression coated tablets?
a) Acetone
b) Aquacoat
d) None of the above
c) Isopropyl alcohol
The micronized form of drug is absorbed faster because it’s …………………. is
increased.
a) Surface area
All of the above
b) viscosity
c) friability
d)
Maximum amount of flavoring oil that can be added to granulation is ………….
a) 0.1-0.3%
b) 0.5-0.75%
c) 1-2%
d) 2-5%
Type of coating
Coating materials
P) Sealing
1) HPMC
Q) Subcoating
2) Carnauba wax
R) Polishing
3) Gelatin
S) Film coating
4) Shellac
a) P-4,Q-3,R-2,S-1
P-1,Q-3,R-2,S-4
b) P-4,Q-2,R-3,S-1
c) P-2,Q-4,R-1,S-3
d)
Controlled porosity Osmotic pumps possess delivery orifice preferably produced by
……………..
a) Laser b) Microdill
the above
c) Modified punches
d) None of
A pediatric patient requires quicker onset of action of a low dose bitter drug that is
having high first pass metabolism. Suggest the most suitable dosage form for
effective treatment with patient compliance?
a) Sugar coated tablets
b) Transdermal patches
c) Orodispersible tablets
d) Enteric coated tablets
Which component is responsible for developing the proper pressure within the
aerosol system?
a) Actuator
b) Propellant
c) Valve
d) Container
The temp. at which the vapors of the test liquid (aerosol product) ignite is known as
………
a) Flash extension
Flame point
b) Flash point
c) Flash projection
d)
In the cold filling process the propellant is kept at what temp. prior to adding into
container?
a) -20° to -40°F
b) -20° to -40°C c) 0° to 20°F
d) 30° to 40°C
The ion exchange resins have been extensively used in tablet formulation for
a) Sustained release
above
b) Taste masking c) Disintegration d) All of the
Which drying process is used in the preparation of yellow fever vaccine?
a) Spray drying
b) Vacuum drying
c) Drum drying
d) Freeze drying
In the process of sugar coating of tablets the colorants are added in one of the
following steps?
a) Syrup coating
Seal coating
b) Sub coating
c) Polishing
d)
Which of these is not a characteristic of semipermeable membrane?
a) Sufficient wet strength
b) Biocompatibility
c) Good solute permeability
d) None of the above
Opaque color concentrate for film coating is known as ………….
a) Opacoat
Opadry
b) Opaspray
c) Opalux
d)
Which of these capsules consists of an animal shell composition?
a) HPMC capsules
d) Starch capsules
b) Pullulan capsules
c) Ocean caps
Which of these coating polymer(s) is/are soluble in the intestinal fluid above pH 6?
a) Eudragit E
All of the above
b) Eudragit L
c) HPMC
d)
Which of the following is not a function of a plasticizer?
a) To improve flexibility of coating
b) To provide pH independent release
c) To reduce the risk of film cracking
d) To improve adhesion of film
Which tablets require special care for storage in a hermetically sealed packaging?
a) Implant tablets
All of the above
b) Effervescent tablets
c) Chewable tablets
DEVICE
DESCRIPTION
P) Kern Injector
1) Compression of waxy substances
Q) Precompresion stations
2) Implant tablets
R) Fette machines
S) Chilosonator
a) P-2,Q-4,R-3,S-1
3,S-4
d)
3) Compression of difficult granulations
4) For dry granulation
b) P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4
c) P-2,Q-3,R-1,S-4 d) P-2,Q-1,R-
Instrumentation
Description
P) Nomogram
capsule shell
1) To determine the moisture content of the
Q) Toluene distillation
2) To determine the capsule size
R) Accofill
capsules
3) Fill exact powder dose in hard gelatin
S) Accogel
capsules
4) Filling of dry powder in soft gelatin
a) P-2,Q-1,R-3,S-4
P-2,Q-3,R-1,S-4
b) P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4
c) P-2,Q-1,R-4,S-3
d)
Lozenges tablets are used for ……………..
a) Slow dissolution in stomach
stomach
b) Fast dissolution in
c) Slow dissolution in mouth
intestine
d) Slow dissolution in
Tablet thickness is measured by
a) Manometer
scale
d) Picometer
b) Pycnometer
c) Sliding caliper
Inadequate spreading of the coating solution before drying causes which tablet
coating defect?
a) Orange peeling b) Blistering
c) Cracking
d) Blooming
Abrasive and humectant compounds used in the formulation of toothpaste are
P) Dicalcium phosphate
Q) SLS
a) PR
RS
b) QS
R) Sorbitol syrup S) Tragacanth
c) PQ
d)
The durability of tablets to combined effects of abrasion and shock is evaluated by
……….
a) Hardness tester
b) Friabilator
Disintegration test apparatus
c) Screw gauge
d)
Elastomer used in rubber closure formulation is
a) Neoprene
hydroxy toluene
b) Butyl stearate c) Titanium dioxide
d) Butylated
HLB system is used to classify........................
a) Surfactants
agents
b) Preservatives c) Antioxidants
d)
Sequestering
The leaker test (using Methylene blue solution) is performed for the evaluation of
……….
a) Ampoules
above
b) Vials
c) Bottles
d) All of the
An antioxidant commonly used in the formulation of a non-aqueous parenteral
preparation is……
a) Ascorbic acid b) Thioglycollic acid
d) BHT
c) Na-metabisulphate
Industrial dryer
Pharmaceutical applications
P) Drum dryer
1) Antibiotic solution
Q) Fluidized bed dryer
2) Tablet granules
R) Spray dryer
3) Gelatin
S) Freeze dryer
4) Suspension of kaolin
a) P-1,Q-3,R-4,S-2
P-3,Q-2,R-4,S-1
b) P-4,Q-2,R-3,S-1
c) P-4,Q-2,R-1,S-3
d)
Standards for mechanical contraceptives are given in...............
a) Schedule V
Schedule R
b) Schedule N
c) Schedule U
d)
c) Castor oil
d)
Most commonly used film former in Nail preparations is ……..
a) PEG
Carbopol
b) Nitrocellulose
Guidelines for Clinical trials, import & manufacture of new drugs as per D&C Act are
given under......
a) Schedule N
d) Schedule B
b) Schedule Y
c) Schedule A
As per Schedule O of the D & C Act the minimum Rideal Walker Coefficient for
Grade 1 and Grade 3 Black disinfectant fluids are…………..
P) 18
Q) 10
R) 5
S) 14
a) PR
b) QS
c) PS
d) RS
The USP apparatus used in the in-vitro release testing of transdermal patches
is…………..
a) Paddle
b) Basket
d) All of the above
c) Paddle over disk
% Compressibility required for excellent flowability is ………
a) < 1.25
b) 5-15
c) 12-16
d) > 40
The source microorganism for Oxytetracycline is …………………….
a) Streptomyces nodosus b) S. fradiae
d) S. orientalis
c) Streptomyces rimosus
Browne’s tubes are most commonly used as chemical indicator
for………………………
a) Ethylene oxide sterilization
b) Heat sterilization
c) Radiation sterilization
d) Filtration sterilization
Form No. for issuing license for sale from motor vehicle of drug except
that of Schedule C/C1 is……
a) 19
b) 19 A
c) 19 C
d) 19 AA
The test organism used in Microbiological assay of Rifampicin is....................
a) Micrococcus luteus
d) S. aureus
b) E.coli
c)
Bacillus
subtilis
The diagnostic test for typhoid (caused by S. typhi) is………………………
a) VDRL test
b) Mantoux test c) RIA
d) Widal test
Description
Related to
P) Crystal growth
1) Griffin
Q) pH scale
2) Sorensen
R) HLB scale
3) DLVO theory
S) Interparticular force
4) Ostwald ripening
a) P-4,Q-2,R-1,S-3
P-1,Q-3,R-4,S-2
b) P-3,Q-1,R-2,S-4
Aerosol Evaluation test
c) P-2,Q-4,R-1,S-3
d)
Description
P) Flash point
apparatus
1) Standard Tag open
Q) Density
2) Rotational viscometer
R) Foam stability
3) Pycnometer
S) Particle size distribution
4) Cascade impactor
a) P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4
P-1,Q-3,R-2,S-4
c) P-2,Q-3,R-4,S-1
Disease
b) P-2,Q-4,R-3,S-1
Test
d)
P) Tuberculosis
1) Mantoux test
Q) Typhoid
2) Widal test
R) Hemophillus
3) Ducrey test
S) Syphilis
4) Treponema immobilization test
a) P-2,Q-1,R-3,S-4
P-2,Q-3,R-1,S-4
b) P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4
c) P-2,Q-1,R-4,S-3
d)
A process designed to kill living micro-organisms to a harmless level is
known as…….……………
a) Disinfection
Ventilation
b) Sterilization
c) Lyophilization
d)
Chemically Bentonite is..............................
a) Magnesium aluminium silicate
silicate
b) Hydrated aluminium
c) Alumino silicate
d) All of the above
The most commonly used abbreviation BCS stands for………………………………….
a) Bovine cervical system
symptom
b) Benign Carcinogenic
c) Biopharmaceutics classification system
d) Bio-clinical system
The drug used in the treatment of Swine Flu (Tamiflu Tablets) by Roche
Company is…………………..
a) Abacavir
Tenofovir
b) Lamivudine
c) Oseltamivir
d)
Pyrogens can be detected by………………………
a) Fluorescence technique
testing
d) Smear test
b) Electron microscopy
c) LAL
The chemical used in hard, rigid hydrophobic lens is…………….
a) HEMA
b) PMMA
vinyl pyroliidone
c) CAB
d) Silicon
Which of the following is not a mechanism for filtration type sterilization?
a) Imbibation
b) Electrostatic charge
d) Pore Irregularity
c) Alkylation
Higher is the brittle fracture index, more _______________ is the tablet.
a) stronger
d) elegant
b) weaker
c) friable
Flocculated suspensions exhibit ________________ type of flow.
a) Dilatant
Pseudoplastic
b) Newtonian
c) Plastic
d)
For restricted retail sale of drugs apply in form No. _____________
a) 19
b) 19-A
c) 19-C
d)
19-AA
The pharmacy Act was passed in __________
a) 1948
1970
b) 1955
c) 1965
d)
If the drug is imported under a name which belongs to another drug, it is
considered as ______________
a) Misbranded drug
Drug of abuse
b) Adulterated drug
c) Spurious drug
d)
Insulin preparations are usually administered by _______________
injections.
a) Intradermal
Intramuscular
b) Intravenous
c) Subcutaneous
d)
As per USFDA guideline, Class 100 Clean room contains 100 particles of
______________
a) < 0.5 μm / ft3 b) < 0.3 μm / ft3
/ m3
c) < 0.5 μm / m3
d) < 0.1 μm
For the first order kinetics half life is computed from ___________________
a) 0.105/K
b) 0.693/K
Trehalose is used as ___________
c) log 0.9/K
d) None of the above
a) Tablet disintegrant
b) Lyoprotectant c) Gelling agent d) Glidant
IND is issued before __________________
a) Starting animal trials b) Starting Phase I trials
d) Starting Phase IV
c) Starting Phase II trials
The weight variation problem in tablets may be caused due to……………………..
a) Change in die fill
b) Large proportion of fines
densities
d) All of the above
c) Differing
Moh’s scale is related with
a) Flexibility
Stickiness
b) Hardness
c) Bulk density
d)
Polyplasdone is the trade name of __________________
a) Crosslinked NaCMC
b) Crosslinked PVP
Starch d) Microcrystalline cellulose
c) Crosslinked
The thickness of implantable tablet should not be more than……………………..
a) 2 mm
10 mm
b) 4 mm
c) 8 mm
d)
The temperature used for the sterilization of vaccines is............................
a) 70 º C
ºC
b) 80 ºC
c) 55-60 ºC
d) 95-100
A multiple emulsion is designated as
a) o/w/w
w/o/o
b) w/o/w
c) w/o/o/w
d)
One of the following is not a sweetening agent in tablet?
a) Neotame
Aspartame
b) Sucralose
c) Aerosil
d)
Emulsions are defined as thermodynamically unstable systems. The events
that follow sequentially towards instability are:
a) coalescence, breaking, creaming and flocculation
b) coalescence, breaking, creaming and flocculation
c) coalescence, breaking, creaming and flocculation
d) flocculation, creaming, coalescence and breaking
flocculation – floccules
creaming – nonuniform distribution of globules
coalescence – globules fail to remain together
breaking – two phases separate
An o/w microemulsion is prepared using a hydrophilic surfactant. The
appearance of a microemulsion is:
a) Intense white
d) Transparent
b) Milky white
c) Translucent
For an ideal suspension the sedimentation volume should be
a) Equal to one
zero
b) less than one
c) more than one
d)
The storage temperature for aerosols should never exceed
a) 37 ºC
120 ºC
b) 120 ºF
c) 100 ºF
d)
The preferred method for sterilization for mineral oil injections is
a) Autoclave
Dry heat
b) Filtration
c) Gas sterilization
Description
Description
P) Castor oil
1) Plastic flow
Q) Conc. Flocculated suspension
2) Pseudoplastic flow
R) Liquid dispersion of methyl cellulose
3) Dilatant flow
S) Pastes of small deflocculated particles
4) Newtonian flow
a) P-1,Q-3,R-4,S-2
P-4,Q-1,R-2,S-3
c) P-2,Q-4,R-1,S-3
b) P-3,Q-1,R-2,S-4
Pharmaceutical importance of simethicone is _______________
d)
d)
a) Antiadherent
d) Emulsifying agent
b) Antifoaming
c) Glidant
In BCS Class II drugs are ______________________
a) Low solubility and high permeability b) High solubility and low
permeability
c) Low solubility and low permeability
permeability
d) High solubility and high
Pharmaceutical excipients are intended for following purposes except
______________________
a) Pharmacological activity
b) Pharmaceutical stability
c) Physical solubility
d) Chemical compatibility
Which of the following diluent causes tablet softening upon storage?
a) Lactose
b) MCC c) Mannitol
d) DCP
One of the following statements for a generic drug product is not true?
a) Must contain the same active ingredients in the same concentration
b) Must contain the same composition of inactive ingredients
c) Must be bioequivalent to the innovator product
d) Generics are offered at significantly lower prices than reference
medicines
One of the following statements for Phase I clinical trial is not true?
a) It is initiated only after successful animal studies
b) It is performed on healthy human volunteers
c) It is used to determine the drug safety
d) It is used to establish the drug efficacy
How many litres of 8% solution can be made from 500 gm of a solid?
a) 1.6 litre
6250 litre
b) 4 litre
c) 6.25 litre
d)
c) Generics
d)
---TEVA is mainly known for __________________
a) Branded drugs
Indian drugs
b) Excipients
Lipitor is the brand name for ____________________
a) Atorvastatin
d) Lipostatin
b) Atorvastatin Calcium
c) Simvastatin
Which of the following statements for PEG is true?
a) PEG, also known as PEO, has the trade name carbowax
b) The covalent coupling of a therapeutic protein to the PEG molecule is
known as PEGylation
c) Higher Mol. Wt. PEG is used as ointment bases and film coatings.
d) All of the above
Which of the following statements for Polymorphs is true?
a) Polymorphs have different physico-chemical properties
b) Milling/micronization operations may result in polymorphic conversion of
a drug
c) Addition of Cellulose ether polymers (HPC, MC) may inhibit polymorphic
transformation
d) All of the above
How many parts of 10% ointment should be mixed with 2 parts of 15% ointment to get 12%
ointment?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 6
One of the ex-officio member of the Pharmacy Council of India is
a) Director General of Health Services
b) Government Analyst
c) Registrar of the State Pharmacy Council
d) Director General of Indian Veterinary Research Institute
A retardant material that forms a hydrophilic matrix in the formulation of matrix
tablets is
a) H.P.M.C
b) C.A.P c) Polyethylene d) Carnauba Wax
An organism which has been implicated as a possible cause of chronic gastritis and
peptic ulcer is
a) Campylobacter jejuni b) E. coli c) Helicobacter Pylori
d) Giardia lamblia
A new drug delivery system which is composed of phospholipids that spontaneously
form multilamellar concentric bilayer vesicles with layers of aqueous media
separating the lipid layers is
a) prodrugs
b) liposomes
c) osmotic pumps
d)
nanoparticles
Measurement of particle size in pharmaceutical Aerosols is by ……………………
(P) Cascade impactor
(Q) light scatter decay (R) Karl-Fischer method
IR spectrophotometry
a) P, Q
b) Q, R
c) R, S
d) P, S
(S)
---What is an acceptable range for a tablet to pass friability test?
a) 0.5-1.5%
b) 02.-1%
c) 0.5-1%
d) 1-2%
In a formulation development laboratory, you have to formulate an oral dosage
from containing olive oil, vitamin A and water. Suggest a suitable dosage form.
a) Solution
b) Suspension
c) Emulsion
d)
Capsule
How much of 3% ointment must be added to 50 gm of an 15 % ointment to
make 10% ointment?
a) 7.15 gm
250 gm
b) 14.30
c) 35.7 gm
d)
c) UK
d)
Yen is the currency of ………………………..
a) Japan
South Africa
b) China
The full form of GRAS is ………………………
a) Generally recognized as safe
Agreement
b) Generic remedies and safety
c) Government rational approach to safety
services
d) Government relief and
The regulatory agency of Brazil is …………………………..
a) EMEA
USFDA
b) TGA
c) ANVISA
d)
All the drug products marketed in USA are listed in ……………………….
a) Blue book
Orange book
b) Green book
c) Red book
d)
The USFDA is concerned with the regulations of …………………………
a) Drugs
All of the above
b) Cosmetics
c) Medical devices
d)
A patent gives the owner the right to ………………………
a) Make her invention
b) Publish the results of tests using the invention
c) Exclude others from making her invention
d) Collect a monetary award from the government
Combiflam tablet is a combination drug product of …………………….
P) Paracetamol
Diclofenac sodium
a) PQ
b) PR
Q) Aspirin
c) PS
R) Ibuprofen
d) RS
S)
Colorcon is mainly known for ………………………..
a) Branded drugs
Indian drugs
b) Excipients
c) Generics
d)
One of the following statements is true regarding oxygen (O2) requirement
for Facultative anaerobes (E.coli).
a) Requires oxygen
b) Grows with or without oxygen c) Grows best
with low oxygen d) Killed by oxygen
The Thermophil bacteria can grow at………………
a) 5-25 ° C
70-100 ° C
b) 25-40 ° C
c) 40-85 ° C
d)
The HPMC (commonly known as Hypromellose) is used in formulations as
……………..
a) Coating agent
b) Tablet binder
polymer
d) All of the above
c) Sustained release
As per WHO stability guidance Zone I indicates the condition
as………………………..
a) Temperate b) Subtropical with possible high humidity
d) Hot/Humid
c) Hot/Dry
Controlled release products are…………………………
a) Modified release products b) Sustained release products
release products
d) All of the above
c) Delayed
Indian Patent Act was passed in ……………
a) 1950
b) 1960
c) 1970
d) 1980
--A number of two digits is equal to 3 times the sum of digits. Find the number
a) 72
b) 63
c) 27
d) 36
Which equation describes the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet?
a) Fick’s law
b) Henderson-Hassalbache
d) Michaelis-Menten
c) Noyes Whitney
One of the following statements for Transdermal drug delivery system is not
true?
a) Suitable for drugs with low o/w partition coefficient
b) Useful for prolonged duration of action
c) Provides rapid drug absorption by penetration enhancers
d) Franz diffusion cell is used for In-vitro release testing of TDDS
Which instrument is used for Homogenization of emulsion?
a) Wood’s apparatus
Coulter Counter
20
b) Erweka
c) Ultra-sonifier
d)
Which is the most stringent environment control zone that is required for
filling of parenteral?
a) Grey
b) Black
c) White
d) Red
The dose to be given for Intramuscular route of administration is ………………….
a) 0.01-0.2 ml
b) 2-4 ml
c) less than 20 ml d) 500 ml or more
The shelf life (t90) of zero order reaction is calculated as…………………
a) 0.1Co / k
b) Co / 2k
c) 0.105 / k
d) 0.693 / k
Which of the following mills are used for sterile products?
a) Ball mill
b) Colloid mill
c) Fluid energy mill
d) Both A and C
The causative microorganism for Syphilis is………………………..
a) Bordetella pertussis
b) Treponema pallidum c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Educational regulations are approved by ……………………
a) State Government
b) Central Government
c) Tribunal
d) Campylobacter jejuni
d) All of the above
Kraft point is the point at which …………………….of the surfactant equals to CMC.
a) Lipophilicity
b) Hydrophilicity
c) Solubility
d) None of the above
The Drug Technical Advisory Board consists of following number of Ex-Officio members?
a) 3
b) 6
c) 8
d) 10
The correct non-ionic surfactant used as a penetration enhancer in the preparation of mucoadhesives
is…………….
a) oleic acid
b) tween-80
c) glycerol
d) propylene glycol
Guggulipid, a resin is…………………………
a) a hypolipidemic agent obtained from cotton plants containing multifunctional
compound ( ± ) gossypol
b) a lipid obtained from Arctium lappa, asteraceae and traditionally used for the
treatment of dermatoses
c) cathartic glucoresin obtained from Ipomoea orizabensis and used since ancient
time
d) a hypolipidemic agent obtained from Commiphora mukul consisting of a mixture
of sterols including Z-pregna-(20)-diene-3, 16-dione
What is the term for a utility patent in India?
a) 10 years
20 years
b) 15 years
c) 17 years
d)
The decomposition of a drug in aqueous acid solution was found to follow first order
reaction. The initial concentration was found to be 0.056 M. The concentration after a period
of 12 hours was 4.10 × 10 moles/litre. The reaction rate constant is 0.02599- 1 œhr
What is the quantity of drug remaining undecomposed after 8 hours?
(A) 0.455 moles/litre (B) 0.25 moles/litre
(C) 0.0455 moles/litre (D) 0.10 moles/litre
What is the amount of drug deteriorated during the period of 24 hours?
(A) 0.026 moles/litre (B) 0.0026 moles/litre
(C) 0.03 moles/litre (D) 0.053 moles/litre
Peso is the currency of …………………………………
a) Korea
Bangladesh
b) UAE
c) Mexico
d)
The full form of IIG is ……………………………
a) Indian Institute of Geology
b) Indian
c) International Institute of Gastrology
d) Inactive Ingredient guide
TGA is the regulatory agency of…………………………..
a) New Zealand
Europe
b) USA
c) Australia
d)
The full form of USPTO is ……………………………
a) UN Society for Patient Therapeutic operations
States Pharma Trade Organization
c) United States Patent and Trademark Office
Alcon is the global leader in ……………………
d)
b) United
a) Coating technology
b) Transdermals
Ophthalmics
d) Aerosols
c)
Find the next number…………..
If 2+3 = 10, 7+2 = 63, 6+5 = 66, 8+4 = 96, then 9+7 = ????
a) 99
b) 144
c) 160
d) 97
In statistics, the value that occurs the most frequently in a data set is known
as …………………..
a) Mean
Range
b) Median
c) Mode
d)