Practice_Exam_2
Answers are given at the end!
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
1. Mt. Everest, the tallest mountain above sea level, is located on the continent of ____________.
a. Africa
c. North America
b. Asia
d. Europe
____
2. An episode of mountain building is termed a(n) ____________.
a. orogeny
c. aureole
b. phylogeny
d. slickenside
____
3. A hot body of rock is more likely to exhibit ____________ than is a cold body of rock.
a. brittle behavior
b. ductile behavior
____
4. Earthquakes only occur ____________ the brittle/ductile transition depth.
a. above
c. at or near
b. below
____
5. Force per unit area is termed ____________.
a. stress
b. strain
c. power
d. work
____
6. During deformation, rocks can undergo a change in all of the following except ____________ .
a. location
c. orientation
b. composition
d. shape
____
7. Why might a geologist looking at exposed rock determine that the rock is undeformed?
a. The layers are cut by joints.
b. The grains present are not spherical.
c. The clay flakes are parallel to the bedding.
d. The clay flakes exhibit slaty cleavage.
____
8. A body of rock to which a sudden, rapid stress has been applied is more likely to exhibit ____________ than is
a body of rock subjected to a gradually applied stress.
a. brittle behavior
b. ductile behavior
____
9. A body of rock under high pressure is more likely to exhibit ____________ than is a body of rock at low
pressure.
a. brittle behavior
b. ductile behavior
____ 10. Which of the following statements is true regarding rock deformation inside the Earth?
a. Heat makes materials harder to deform.
b. High pressures make rock act more brittlely.
c. A sudden change in shape causes ductile deformation.
d. Softer rock types deform ductilely.
____ 11. A body of rock affected by compressive stress will likely undergo ____________.
a. shortening
c. shear strain
b. stretching
____ 12. A body of rock affected by tensile stress will likely undergo ____________.
a. shortening
c. shear strain
b. stretching
____ 13. Change in shape, induced by stress, is termed ____________.
a. plastic deformation
c. strain
b. pressure release
d. metamorphosis
____ 14. Most fault surfaces, like joints, are roughly planar in orientation.
a. true
b. false
____ 15. Right lateral and left lateral are both examples of ____________ faults.
a. strike-slip
c. oblique-slip
b. dip-slip
____ 16. Normal, reverse, and thrust are all examples of ____________ faults.
a. strike-slip
c. oblique-slip
b. dip-slip
____ 17. Movement along faults often produces sharply angled rock fragments termed ____________.
a. fault gouge
c. fault breccia
b. rock flour
d. slickensides
____ 18. A polished surface produced by scraping of rock along a fault is termed a(n) ____________.
a. orogeny
c. aureole
b. phylogeny
d. slickenside
____ 19. A joint always occurs as a single, isolated plane within a rock.
a. true
b. false
____ 20. It is possible for offset along an oblique-slip fault to have both ____________ and ____________ components.
a. normal; reverse
c. normal; left-lateral
b. right-lateral; left-lateral
____ 21. In a ____________ fault, the fault plane is nonvertical, and the hanging-wall block moves downward relative to
the footwall block.
a. detachment
b. normal
c. reverse
d. thrust
____ 22. Motion along all faults is either strike slip or dip slip; combinations of these two types of displacement are never
found together in a single fault.
a. true
b. false
____ 23. In a ____________ fault, the fault plane is greater than 35° from horizontal and the hanging-wall block moves
upward relative to the footwall block.
a. detachment
b. normal
c. reverse
d. thrust
____ 24. In a ____________ fault, the fault plane is less than 35° from horizontal and the hanging-wall block moves
upward relative to the footwall block.
a. detachment
c. reverse
b. normal
d. thrust
____ 25. Shear stress at sufficient depth within a fault plane can induce ductile shear, forming a fine-grained
metamorphic rock named ____________.
a. ignimbrite
c. mylonite
b. gneiss
d. migmatite
____ 26. Within a platform, sedimentary rocks always have a horizontal orientation.
a. true
b. false
____ 27. ____________ may help a geologist recognize a fault.
a. Displacement
c. Breccia
b. Fault scarps
d. All of the above are correct.
____ 28. A geologist’s compass differs from the more widely known orienteering compass in that the geologist’s
compass ____________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
possesses an inclinometer, allowing the user to measure dip and plunge angles
contains a barometer that warns the geologist of approaching storms
can chemically analyze rock samples in the field
needle points directly toward geographic north rather than geomagnetic north
____ 29. The distinction between joints and faults is that ____________.
a. faults are joints that are greater than one square meter in areal extent
b. faults are fractures along which displacement has occurred; displacement does not occur
along joints
c. joints are fractures along which displacement has occurred; displacement does not occur
along faults
d. There is no distinction; the two terms are synonymous.
____ 30. If a geologist was examining a line that ran across a rock face, how could he or she best determine whether the
line was a joint or fault?
a. by consulting a geologic map of the area
b. by looking for telltale signs of movement on either side of the line
c. by measuring the strike and dip of the line
d. by looking for signs of erosion
____ 31. In the map below, the vertical, north-south trending fault is a ____________ fault.
a. normal dip-slip
b. reverse dip-slip
c. right-lateral strike-slip
d. left-lateral strike-slip
____ 32. A fold shaped like an elongate arch is a(n) ____________.
a. anticline
b. basin
c. dome
d. syncline
____ 33. The central portion of high curvature on a fold is termed the fold ____________.
a. limb
c. midsection
b. hinge
d. thorax
____ 34. A fold shaped like an right-side-up bowl is a(n) ____________.
a. anticline
b. basin
c. dome
d. syncline
____ 35. A fold shaped like an upside-down bowl is a(n) ____________.
a. anticline
b. basin
c. dome
d. syncline
____ 36. A fold shaped like an elongate trough is a(n) ____________.
a. anticline
b. basin
c. dome
d. syncline
____ 37. Tectonic foliation, such as elongation of quartz grains, always occurs parallel to the original bedding plane of a
body of rock.
a. true
b. false
____ 38. The sides of a fold, where curvature is at a minimum, are termed ____________.
a. branches
b. limbs
c. axial planes
d. hinges
____ 39. On a geologic map, if the contacts between sedimentary rock units form a bull’s-eye pattern of concentric
circles, with the youngest unit in the center, the underlying structure is a(n) ____________.
a. anticline
b. basin
c. dome
d. syncline
____ 40. On a geologic map, if the contacts between sedimentary rock units form a bull’s-eye pattern of concentric
circles, with the oldest unit in the center, the underlying structure is a(n) ____________.
a. anticline
b. basin
c. dome
d. syncline
____ 41. On a geologic map, if the contacts between sedimentary rock units form a series of parallel lines, with the
youngest unit in the center, the underlying structure is a(n) ____________.
a. anticline
b. basin
c. dome
d. syncline
____ 42. Mountain ranges are important sites for the formation of igneous and metamorphic rocks, but do not have any
apparent relationship with the formation of sedimentary rocks.
a. true
b. false
____ 43. Orogenesis (mountain building) leads to the production of ____________.
a. metamorphic rocks only
c. sedimentary rocks only
b. igneous rocks only
d. any of the three rock types listed above
____ 44. Deformation brought on by orogeny can ____________.
a. metamorphose rock
c. produce faulting in rock
b. produce folds in rock
d. All of the above are correct.
____ 45. Regions of continents that have not been subjected to orogeny during the past one billion years are termed
____________.
a. exotic terranes
c. cratons
b. accreted terranes
____ 46. Why do mountains occur in distinctive belts?
a. Rifts are linear features.
b. Plates move linearly over hot spots.
c. The processes that create mountains are linear.
d. Both a and c are correct.
e. Both b and c are correct.
____ 47. Mountain ranges are associated with modern and ancient convergent-plate boundaries, but do not form in
association with either divergent- or transform-plate boundaries.
a. true
b. false
____ 48. Nearly all of the present mountain ranges are the products of single orogenic events.
a. true
b. false
____ 49. Why do offshore volcanic arcs collide with and suture to an overriding plate?
a. They are too buoyant to subduct.
b. The melting involved in subduction sutures them to the plate.
c. Their predominant rock type is the same as the overriding plate.
d. When they collide, subduction stops.
____ 50. Why are Mt. Everest and the surrounding Himalayan Mountains still growing?
a. They experience no erosion.
b. The Indian Plate is still moving.
c. India is made of stronger lithosphere than Asia.
d. Both a and c are correct.
e. Both b and c are correct.
____ 51. Which of the following must occur for the elevation of a mountain range to increase over time?
a. There must be an absence of erosion.
b. The rate of erosion must be less than the rate of uplift.
c. The rate of uplift must be less than the rate of erosion.
d. Uplift and erosion must cease, but the asthenosphere must expand.
____ 52. Theoretically, there is no reason why mountains substantially taller than Mt. Everest might not one day arise on
Earth.
a. true
b. false
____ 53. The balance between the weight of a mountain range and the buoyancy provided by the underlying mantle is
termed ____________.
a. punctuated equilibrium
c. isostatic equilibrium
b. homeostatic equilibrium
d. osmotic equilibrium
____ 54. Why are blocks of wood floating in water a good analogy for mountains floating on the asthenosphere?
a. The materials on which they float have the same properties.
b. A larger block of wood has more “showing” above the water.
c. The mass of the displaced water is equal to the mass of the block below water.
d. The blocks have positive buoyancy.
____ 55. Continental crust is typically 35 km thick, but may be up to ____________ thicker under mountain ranges.
a. 20%
c. 100%
b. 50%
d. 200%
____ 56. Why don’t we have mountains as tall as Olympus Mons, found on Mars, on Earth?
a. Our high geothermal gradient causes crustal rocks to act ductilely at mid-crust depths.
b. The greater gravity on Earth prevents mountains from reaching such heights.
c. Mars doesn’t have a geothermal gradient.
d. Mars has rock types more conducive to constructing such large mountains.
____ 57. In order to maintain isostasy, what must occur after new igneous rock is added to the crust (either on top of or
intruded into)?
a. The asthenosphere must sink.
b. The base of the lithosphere must sink in equal proportional to how much the surface has
risen.
c. The base of the lithosphere must sink but not as much as the surface has risen.
d. The surface must rise in equal proportion to how much the asthenosphere has sunk.
____ 58. Regions where Precambrian metamorphic rocks are exposed at the surface are termed ____________.
a. shields
c. convergent margins
b. platforms
____ 59. The outer portion of a craton, where deformed rocks are covered by sediments, is termed the ____________.
a. shield
c. convergent margin
b. platform
____ 60. Valleys and hillsides carved by glaciers are generally more ____________ in comparison to those produced by
rivers and streams.
a. steep sided
b. shallow sided
____ 61. If the numerical ages of two formations are known, then the relative age of each with respect to one another can
be inferred.
a. true
b. false
____ 62. If the relative age of two formations (with respect to one another) is known, then the numerical ages for each
formation can be inferred.
a. true
b. false
____ 63. In the 1800s Lord Kelvin estimated the age of the Earth, utilizing a number of assumptions. Which wrong
assumption was the primary reason why his estimate (approximately 20 million years) was so wildly
inaccurate?
a. that the Earth was once hotter than it presently is today
b. that the Earth may have been molten when first formed
c. that no new heat has been added to the Earth since its initial formation
d. that the Earth would lose heat over time through radiation into outer space
____ 64. Why did James Hutton deduce that there must have been a long time before human history began?
a. He found no physical remains of humans in his geologic investigations.
b. No human had seen the full process of sediment deposition to mountain formation.
c. He found no signs of humans in the ancient rock record.
d. No human had observed continents in different locations.
____ 65. In an undisturbed sequence of sedimentary rocks, younger layers overlay older layers, according to the principle
of ____________.
a. superposition
b. original continuity
c. original horizontality
d. uniformitarianism
____ 66. Uniformitarianism is succinctly summarized by which phrase?
a. The future is the key to the present.
c. The past is the key to the present.
b. The present is the key to the past.
d. The present is the key to the future.
____ 67. As understood by modern geologists, the principle of uniformitarianism implies that ____________.
a. Earth has always had the same basic appearance that it has today, with the distributions of
ocean basins and continents identical to what we see today
b. igneous, metamorphic, and sedimentary rocks are uniformly mixed throughout the crust of
Earth
c. physical processes observed today (such as erosion and volcanic eruption) have been active
in the past and are responsible for the geologic history we see preserved in the rock record
d. physical processes observed today (such as erosion and volcanic eruption) have been
occurring throughout Earth history at constant rates; for example, no eruption in geologic
time would have been greater than the 1815 Tambora eruption
____ 68. James Hutton, the “father of geology,” put forth the principle of ____________.
a. superposition
c. original horizontality
b. original continuity
d. uniformitarianism
____ 69. In the area immediately surrounding an igneous intrusion, a host limestone is locally metamorphosed to
produce marble. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. The intrusive igneous rock must be older than the limestone.
b. The limestone must be older than the marble.
c. The marble must be older than the intrusive rock.
d. The relative ages of the three units cannot be determined with the information given.
____ 70. The basalt body is best described as a ____________.
a. pluton
b. sill
c. dike
d. laccolith
____ 71. Which of the following geologic principles is NOT a result of gravity?
a. original horizontality
b. cross-cutting relationships
c. original continuity
d. superposition
____ 72. Which of the following geologic principles is a direct result of gravity?
a. baked contacts
b. cross-cutting relationships
c. original horizontality
d. inclusions
____ 73. Period names on the geologic time scale, such as Devonian and Permian, provide examples of ____________.
a. relative age
b. numerical age
____ 74. Within the world’s undisturbed sequences of sedimentary rocks, fossils ____________.
a. are rarely, if ever, found
b. are randomly distributed
c. occur in an ordered sequence
____ 75. Concerning the relative ages of the basalt and the fault, the ____________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
fault must be older, according to the principle of cross-cutting relationships
basalt must be older, according to the principle of cross-cutting relationships
basalt must be older, according to the principle of original horizontality
Their relative ages cannot be determined from the information given.
____ 76. What principle allows geologists to deduce that folds in beds occurred after deposition?
a. principle of uniformitarianism
c. principle of lateral continuity
b. principle of superposition
d. principle of original horizontality
____ 77. If the lithology and fossil content of two bodies of rock on opposite sides of a canyon are identical, then these
remaining outcrops were likely physically connected at one time and formed part of an extensive, sheet-like
layer of rock. This idea summarizes the principle of ____________.
a. superposition
b. original continuity
c. original horizontality
d. uniformitarianism
____ 78. The marble rind surrounding the granite pluton must be younger than the limestone according to the principle of
____________.
a. superposition
b. baked contacts
c. original horizontality
d. original continuity
____ 79. Which eon of geologic time is represented by rocks containing abundant shelly fossils?
a. Archean
c. Proterozoic
b. Phanerozoic
____ 80. Which method of correlation is more reliable for determining age equivalence among bodies of rock that are
physically isolated by vast distances?
a. lithologic correlation
b. fossil correlation
____ 81. Relative ages expressed on the geologic time scale primarily resulted from the study of ____________.
a. fossil content and spatial relationships among igneous rocks
b. fossil content and spatial relationships among sedimentary rocks
c. radiometric dating of igneous rocks
d. radiometric dating of sedimentary rocks
____ 82. Presented with an outcrop containing a succession of beds and only the knowledge of relative-age dating, which
of the following would be the best to look for to determine the story of the outcrop?
a. a fossil that could be found in all of the beds
b. an intrusion, as it would be older than the surrounding rock
c. a fossil found in only a few layers
d. a fault, as it would be older than the surrounding rock
____ 83. Concerning the relative ages of the shale and sandstone, the ____________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
shale must be older, according to the principle of superposition
sandstone must be older, according to the principle of superposition
shale must be older, according to the principle of components
Their relative ages cannot be determined from the information given.
____ 84. Concerning the relative ages of the granite and sandstone, the ____________.
a.
b.
c.
d.
granite must be older, according to the principle of superposition
sandstone must be older, according to the principle of superposition
granite must be older, according to the principle of components
Their relative ages cannot be determined from the information given.
____ 85. Buried erosional surfaces between parallel sedimentary strata are termed ____________.
a. disconformities
b. angular unconformities
c. nonconformities
____ 86. The surface below sedimentary rocks that overlie igneous or metamorphic rocks is termed a(n) ____________.
a. disconformity
b. angular unconformity
c. nonconformity
____ 87. If horizontal sedimentary strata overlie tilted strata (and no fault is present), the surface between the horizontal
and tilted strata must be a(n) ____________.
a. conformable sedimentary contact
b. angular unconformity
____ 88. Which statement about contact #3 is correct?
c. disconformity
d. nonconformity
a.
b.
c.
d.
It and contact #2 once formed a continuous unconformity.
It was once elevated farther above contact #2, but faulting has brought them closer together.
It presents an example of an angular unconformity.
It must be younger than the conglomerate, due to the principle of baked contacts.
____ 89. Contact #1 is an example of a(n) ____________.
a. conformable sedimentary contact
b. fault
c. baked contact
d. unconformity
____ 90. The surfaces named contacts #2 and #3 are examples of ____________.
a. conformable sedimentary contacts
b. faults
c. baked contacts
d. unconformities
____ 91. Which of the following is the most correct reason why no single location on Earth contains a complete record of
Earth history?
a. because of unconformities
b. because of erosion
c. because of times of nondeposition
d. because deposition is constantly occurring
____ 92. Contact #3 is both a ____________ and a(n) ____________ at various points.
a. conformable contact; unconformity
b. fault; unconformity
c. nonconformity; angular unconformity
d. disconformity; nonconformity
____ 93. The principle of ____________ explains the occurrence of older rock within an igneous body.
a. baked contacts
c. original horizontality
b. cross-cutting relationships
d. inclusions
____ 94. The age of Earth CANNOT be reliably estimated from sediment thicknesses because ____________.
a. sedimentation rates are not likely to remain constant at any one locality over all of Earth’s
history
b. sedimentary rocks can be metamorphosed or melted
c. locally, much of Earth’s history is represented by unconformities between strata rather than
the strata themselves
d. All of the above are correct.
____ 95. The oldest geologic unit in the cross section is the ____________.
a. granite
b. marble
c. limestone
d. sandstone
____ 96. The youngest geologic unit visible in the cross section is the ____________.
a. granite
b. limestone
c. conglomerate
d. marble
____ 97. Why do some rock formations go by names containing specific rock types, while others retain the word
“formation”?
a. It depends on the locality of the rock formation.
b. Areas named as a “formation” contain more than one rock type.
c. The rock type could not be determined if it was named “formation.”
d. It is the choice of the person who first studies the rock formation.
____ 98. Basaltic clasts within the basal layers of the conglomerate imply which of the following statements (choose the
most correct answer)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The conglomerate must be the older of the two.
The basalt must be the older of the two.
The section must not have been overturned by tectonic activity at any time.
Both b and c are both correct.
____ 99. If no single location records all of Earth’s history, how was the geologic column created?
a. by interpolating the rest of the column from the largest column that could be found
b. by ignoring universal gaps in time
c. by using only the information from the largest column found
d. by globally correlating small columns and filling in the gaps
____ 100. Which of the following is always the same for multiple isotopes of a single element?
a. atomic number
c. tendency to decay radioactively
b. atomic mass number
d. None of the above are correct.
____ 101. Two atoms of a single element that differ in number of neutrons are said to represent two distinct
____________ of that element.
a. isomers
c. isotherms
b. isotopes
d. atomic species
____ 102. When an unstable isotope decays, the daughter isotope that results is always a stable isotope.
a. true
b. false
____ 103. Which of the following always varies among multiple isotopes of a single element?
a. atomic number
c. tendency to decay radioactively
b. atomic mass number
d. None of the above are correct.
____ 104. Why is radiocarbon dating only rarely applied in geological work?
a. No substances on Earth contain significant amounts of carbon-14.
b. The half-life of carbon-14 is so long that it is effectively a stable isotope.
c. The half-life of carbon-14 is so short that it can only be used to date materials that are less
than 70,000 years old.
____ 105. Dendrochonology involves dating of historic and geologic events through the study of ____________.
a. growth layers in shells
c. remnant magnetism in iron-rich minerals
b. oxygen isotope profiles in glacial ice
d. annual growth rings in trees
____ 106. Why were geologists able to switch from determining relative age of geologic events to determining the
numerical age?
a. New fossils were discovered.
b. Radioactivity was discovered.
c. New geologic units were discovered.
d. Numerical age dating became more widely accepted.
____ 107. In an unweathered sample of igneous rock, the ratio of an unstable isotope to its stable daughter isotope is 1/15.
If no daughters were present at the time the rock cooled below closure temperature, and the half-life of the
reaction is 50 million years, how old is the rock?
a. 200 million years
c. 750 million years
b. 400 million years
d. None of the above are correct.
____ 108. Which proportion of a radioactive isotope is expected to remain in an unaltered (unreacted) state after the
passage of three half-lives?
a. one-third
c. one-eighth
b. three-halves
d. one-sixth
____ 109. In an unweathered sample of detrital sedimentary rock, the ratio of an unstable isotope to its stable daughter
isotope is 1/15. If no daughters were present at the time the grains formed, and the half-life of the reaction is 50
million years, how old is the rock?
a. 200 million years
c. 750 million years
b. 400 million years
d. None of the above are correct.
____ 110. Basaltic clasts within the conglomerate have been radiometrically dated to 50 million years ago (Eocene epoch
of the Tertiary period). Is this a reliable age for the conglomerate?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Yes.
No, this age is likely too old.
No, this age is likely too young.
No, basalt never contains minerals bearing radioactive isotopes.
____ 111. If all of Earth history were compressed into a single year, Homo sapiens would first appear on ____________.
a. February 26 (close to Mardi Gras)
b. April 15 (just before taxes are due)
c. October 31 (just in time for Halloween)
d. December 31, at 11:59 P.M. (just before the ball drops on New Year’s Eve)
____ 112. Which statement best summarizes the development of the geologic time scale?
a. Numerical ages for rocks were known well before the relative sequence of sedimentary
layers was established.
b. Relative ages for sedimentary strata were known well before accurate numerical dates for
these rocks could be provided.
c. Names of relative ages (such as Silurian) and accurate numerical dates for these ages
appeared at about the same time.
____ 113. When radioactively dating a rock, which of the following would NOT result in an inaccurate age reading?
a. using weathered rocks
c. using all of the minerals present
b. homogenizing the rock material
d. using only the daughter isotopes
____ 114. Attempts to measure the age of Earth by extrapolating modern riverine influx rates into the past to produce
modern marine salinity from an initially freshwater ocean failed to take into account that ____________.
a. salt is removed through precipitation, balancing riverine input
b. dissolved salts from weathering of rock only rarely are transported all the way to the ocean
c. salts derived from the weathering of rock are insoluble in water
____ 115. Radiometric dates applied to sedimentary rocks produce ages that are ____________.
a. just as accurate as when the technique is applied to igneous rocks
b. too young (postdate sedimentary deposition)
c. too old (predate sedimentary deposition)
____ 116. Precisely speaking, a measured radiometric age for a mineral crystal within an igneous rock denotes the amount
of time that has passed since the ____________.
a. atoms within the crystal were part of a body of molten magma
b. crystal solidified
c. temperature of the crystal became equal to the Curie point for the mineral
d. temperature of the crystal became equal to the closure temperature for the mineral
____ 117. Numerical ages for boundaries between time units on the geologic time scale primarily resulted from the study
of ____________, in conjunction with relative age data.
a. fossil content and spatial relationships among igneous rocks
b. fossil content and spatial relationships among sedimentary rocks
c. radiometric dating of igneous rocks
d. radiometric dating of sedimentary rocks
____ 118. Why don’t we find rocks with ages between 4.03 and 4.57 Ga in the Earth’s crust?
a. The crust was molten during the Hadean Eon.
b. At the beginning of Earth’s history, the planet was heavily bombarded with meteorites.
c. They have been subducted and lost to geologists.
d. Both a and b are correct.
e. Both b and c are correct.
____ 119. If a geologist wished to date an outcrop of sandstone beds that he or she found, which of the following should
they look for to yield a specific date?
a. a fossil known to have a wide geographic distribution and to have existed over a long range
of time
b. a sedimentary layer constrained by igneous or metamorphic rocks
c. a fossil known to have a small geographic distribution and to have existed over a short range
of time
d. a sedimentary layer cut across by a fault
____ 120. Why can’t geologists isotopically date a clastic sedimentary rock?
a. They do not contain the appropriate minerals.
b. These types of rocks do not contain enough of the appropriate minerals to date.
c. The minerals would yield the date of when they crystallized in a metamorphic or igneous
rock.
d. The minerals would yield the date of when they weathered from their source material.
Practice_Exam_2
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C
II.A
A
II.B
B
II.B
D
II.B
A
II.C
B
II.C
C
II.A
A
III.A
A
III.C
B
III.C
C
III.D
D
III.D
B
III.A
C
III.C
B
III.C
B
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Applied
1
Conceptual
1
Factual
1
Applied
1
Conceptual
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Conceptual
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Factual
1
Applied
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Conceptual
1
Applied
1
Conceptual
1
DIF: Easy
REF: 9.1
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.1
DIF: Easy
REF: 9.2
DIF: Easy
REF: 9.2
DIF: Easy
REF: 9.2
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.2
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.2
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.2
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.2
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.2
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.2
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.2
DIF: Difficult
REF: 9.2
DIF: Easy
REF: 9.3
DIF: Easy
REF: 9.3
DIF: Easy
REF: 9.3
DIF: Easy
REF: 9.3
DIF: Easy
REF: 9.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.3
TOP:
23. ANS:
TOP:
24. ANS:
TOP:
25. ANS:
TOP:
26. ANS:
TOP:
27. ANS:
TOP:
28. ANS:
TOP:
29. ANS:
TOP:
30. ANS:
TOP:
31. ANS:
TOP:
32. ANS:
TOP:
33. ANS:
TOP:
34. ANS:
TOP:
35. ANS:
TOP:
36. ANS:
TOP:
37. ANS:
TOP:
38. ANS:
TOP:
39. ANS:
TOP:
40. ANS:
TOP:
41. ANS:
TOP:
42. ANS:
TOP:
43. ANS:
TOP:
44. ANS:
TOP:
45. ANS:
TOP:
46. ANS:
TOP:
III.C
C
III.C
D
III.C
C
III.D
B
III.D
D
III.D
A
III.A
B
III.A
B
III.A
D
III.C
A
IV.A
B
IV.A
B
IV.A
C
IV.A
D
IV.A
B
IV.C
B
IV.A
B
IV.A
C
IV.A
D
IV.A
B
V.D
D
V.D
D
V.D
C
V
D
V
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
Factual
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
Applied
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Conceptual
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.3
DIF: Difficult
REF: 9.3
DIF: Difficult
REF: 9.3
DIF: Difficult
REF: 9.3
DIF: Difficult
REF: 9.3
DIF: Easy
REF: 9.4
DIF: Easy
REF: 9.4
DIF: Easy
REF: 9.4
DIF: Easy
REF: 9.4
DIF: Easy
REF: 9.4
DIF: Easy
REF: 9.4
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.4
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.4
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.4
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.4
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.4
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.4
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.4
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.5
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.5
47. ANS:
TOP:
48. ANS:
TOP:
49. ANS:
TOP:
50. ANS:
TOP:
51. ANS:
TOP:
52. ANS:
TOP:
53. ANS:
TOP:
54. ANS:
TOP:
55. ANS:
TOP:
56. ANS:
TOP:
57. ANS:
TOP:
58. ANS:
TOP:
59. ANS:
TOP:
60. ANS:
TOP:
61. ANS:
TOP:
62. ANS:
TOP:
63. ANS:
TOP:
64. ANS:
TOP:
65. ANS:
TOP:
66. ANS:
TOP:
67. ANS:
TOP:
68. ANS:
TOP:
69. ANS:
TOP:
70. ANS:
TOP:
B
V.C
B
V.B | V.C
A
V.A
E
V.B
B
III.C
B
V
C
VI.A
B
VI.A
C
VI.A.i
A
III.C
C
V.A
A
VII
B
VII
A
VII
A
II.B
B
II.B
C
II.A
B
II.A
A
III
B
III
C
III
D
III
B
III
C
III
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
Factual
1
Conceptual
1
Factual
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Applied
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
Applied
1
Conceptual
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Applied
1
Applied
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.5
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.5
DIF: Difficult
REF: 9.5
DIF: Difficult
REF: 9.5
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.6
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.6
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.6
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.6
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.6
DIF: Difficult
REF: 9.6
DIF: Difficult
REF: 9.6
DIF: Easy
REF: 9.7
DIF: Easy
REF: 9.7
DIF: Medium
REF: 9.7
DIF: Easy
REF: 10.2
DIF: Easy
REF: 10.2
DIF: Medium
REF: 10.2
DIF: Medium
REF: 10.2
DIF: Easy
REF: 10.3
DIF: Easy
REF: 10.3
DIF: Easy
REF: 10.3
DIF: Easy
REF: 10.3
DIF: Easy
REF: 10.3
DIF: Easy
REF: 10.3
71. ANS:
TOP:
72. ANS:
TOP:
73. ANS:
TOP:
74. ANS:
TOP:
75. ANS:
TOP:
76. ANS:
TOP:
77. ANS:
TOP:
78. ANS:
TOP:
79. ANS:
TOP:
80. ANS:
TOP:
81. ANS:
TOP:
82. ANS:
TOP:
83. ANS:
TOP:
84. ANS:
TOP:
85. ANS:
TOP:
86. ANS:
TOP:
87. ANS:
TOP:
88. ANS:
TOP:
89. ANS:
TOP:
90. ANS:
TOP:
91. ANS:
TOP:
92. ANS:
TOP:
93. ANS:
TOP:
94. ANS:
TOP:
95. ANS:
B
III
C
III
A
III.A
C
III.A
B
III
D
III
B
III
B
III
B
III.A
B
III.A
B
III.A
C
III.A
A
III
D
III
A
IV
C
IV
B
IV
A
IV
B
IV
D
IV
A
IV
D
IV
D
V
D
V
C
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
Factual
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
Factual
1
Applied
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Conceptual
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
DIF: Easy
REF: 10.3
DIF: Easy
REF: 10.3
DIF: Easy
REF: 10.3
DIF: Easy
REF: 10.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 10.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 10.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 10.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 10.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 10.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 10.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 10.3
DIF: Medium
REF: 10.3
DIF: Difficult
REF: 10.3
DIF: Difficult
REF: 10.3
DIF: Easy
REF: 10.4
DIF: Easy
REF: 10.4
DIF: Easy
REF: 10.4
DIF: Medium
REF: 10.4
DIF: Medium
REF: 10.4
DIF: Medium
REF: 10.4
DIF: Medium
REF: 10.4
DIF: Difficult
REF: 10.4
DIF: Easy
REF: 10.5
DIF: Easy
REF: 10.5
DIF: Medium
REF: 10.5
TOP:
96. ANS:
TOP:
97. ANS:
TOP:
98. ANS:
TOP:
99. ANS:
TOP:
100. ANS:
TOP:
101. ANS:
TOP:
102. ANS:
TOP:
103. ANS:
TOP:
104. ANS:
TOP:
105. ANS:
TOP:
106. ANS:
TOP:
107. ANS:
TOP:
108. ANS:
TOP:
109. ANS:
TOP:
110. ANS:
TOP:
111. ANS:
TOP:
112. ANS:
TOP:
113. ANS:
TOP:
114. ANS:
TOP:
115. ANS:
TOP:
116. ANS:
TOP:
117. ANS:
TOP:
118. ANS:
TOP:
119. ANS:
TOP:
V
C
V
B
V
D
V
D
VI
A
VII.A
B
VII.A
B
VII.A
B
VII.A
C
VII.C
D
VII.D
B
VII
A
VII.A
C
VII.A
D
VII.A
B
VII.B
D
VII.D
B
VII.D
B
VII.B
A
VII.C
C
VII.C
D
VII.C
C
VII.C
D
VIII.C
B
VII.B
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
PTS:
MSC:
Applied
1
Applied
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Factual
1
Applied
1
Factual
1
Conceptual
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Conceptual
1
Factual
1
Applied
1
Conceptual
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Applied
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
1
Conceptual
DIF: Medium
REF: 10.5
DIF: Medium
REF: 10.5
DIF: Medium
REF: 10.5
DIF: Medium
REF: 10.6
DIF: Easy
REF: 10.7
DIF: Easy
REF: 10.7
DIF: Easy
REF: 10.7
DIF: Easy
REF: 10.7
DIF: Easy
REF: 10.7
DIF: Easy
REF: 10.7
DIF: Medium
REF: 10.7
DIF: Difficult
REF: 10.7
DIF: Difficult
REF: 10.7
DIF: Difficult
REF: 10.7
DIF: Difficult
REF: 10.7
DIF: Easy
REF: 10.8
DIF: Easy
REF: 10.8
DIF: Medium
REF: 10.8
DIF: Medium
REF: 10.8
DIF: Medium
REF: 10.8
DIF: Medium
REF: 10.8
DIF: Medium
REF: 10.8
DIF: Medium
REF: 10.8
DIF: Difficult
REF: 10.8
120. ANS: C
TOP: VII.C
PTS: 1
MSC: Conceptual
DIF: Difficult
REF: 10.8
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