Ch. 25
1. Why is Aristotle’s great chain of being an incorrect theory?
A. It is wrong because he believed some species are ‘better’ or ‘higher’ than
other species
B. It is wrong because it reflects his belief that some species have evolved
from other species
C. It is wrong because it did not recognize that species do not change
D. It is wrong because he did not place humans at the top of the chain.
2. Briefly describe Plato’s typological thinking, Aristotle’s Great Chain of Being, and
Lamarck’s ideas of evolution.
3. What three major lines of evidence did Darwin use to argue that species have
changed through time?
A. Darwin’s evidence was that (1) closely related species often live in the
same geographic region; (2) structural, developmental, and genetic
homologies are widespread; and (3) vestigial traits are common.
B. Darwin’s evidence was that (1) closely related species often live in the
same geographic region; (2) many species have gone extinct (3) vestigial
traits are common.
C. Darwin’s evidence was that (1) fossils frequently resemble species found
in the same area today; (2) structural, developmental, and genetic
homologies are widespread; and (3) vestigial traits are common.
D. Darwin’s evidence was that (1) fossils frequently resemble species found
in the same area today; (2) many species have gone extinct; and (3)
vestigial traits are common.
4. Fossils are traces of organisms that lived in the past. Explain how Darwin used
fossils as evidence for change through time.
5. The forelimbs of adult humans, whales, and birds possess the same limb bones.
Although the bones are used differently, the bones show a structural
correspondence illustrating
A. Developmental Homology
B. Structural Homology
C. Genetic Homology
D. All of the above
6. Describe the interaction of the three homologies.
7. Cetaceans have a phylogeny that indicates a gradual transition between
terrestrial and aquatic forms that is supported by several independent sources; this
is a form of what?
A. Internal consistency
B. Genetic correlation
C. Acquired characteristics
D. None of the above
8. A patient with TB has some mutant bacteria that are resistant to the medication
rifampin. After taking the rifampin, the disease re-emerged, and the patient died 10
days later despite antibiotic treatment. Define Darwin’s four postulates and how
they relate to this example
9. A silent mutation is a change in the DNA sequence that does not result in a change
in amino acid sequence of the protein encoded by the gene, this is an example of
what?
A. Vestigial trait
B. Nonadaptive trait
C. Selective trait
D. None of the above
10. Explain how genetic correlations occur in genetic constraints
Ch. 26
11. What genotype frequencies are expected under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for
a population with allele frequencies of p=.8 and q=.2 for a particular gene?
A. .32, .64, and .04 for A1A1, A1A2, and A2A2
B. .33, .33, and .33 for A1A1, A1A2, and A2A2
C. .64, .32, and .04 for A1A1, A1A2, and A2A2
D. .25, .05, and .25 for A1A1, A1A2, and A2A2
12. What are the assumptions of the Hardy-Weinberg model that make it a null
hypothesis?
13. Inbreeding of a heterozygous parent would produce what ratio of homozygous
to heterozygous offspring?
A. 3:1
B. 1:3
C. 1:2:1
D. None of the above
14. What effects does inbreeding have on a population?
15. Evolution occurs when the allele frequency changes over time within a
population. A population of mice is disrupted by a serious drought and the
population is severely decreased. This results in a change of genetic variation BEST
described by
A. Natural selection
B. Genetic drift
C. Gene flow
D. Mutation
16. Explain the differences between natural selection, genetic drift, gene flow, and
mutation regarding allele movement
17. Women often have complications during labor while giving birth to very large
babies, whereas very small babies tend to be underdeveloped. Which kind of
selection is most likely at work regarding the birth weight of babies?
A. Directional selection
B. Disruptive selection
C. Stabilizing selection
18. Explain directional selection, stabilizing selection, disruptive selection and
balancing selection.
19. Which of statement most fully characterizes the fundamental asymmetry of sex?
A. Female fitness is limited mostly by the ability to attract males, and male
fitness is limited by the ability to attract females
B. Female fitness is limited mostly by the ability to get resources for
producing eggs and rearing young, whereas male fitness is limited by the
ability to attract females
C. Female fitness is limited mostly by the ability to get resources for
producing eggs and rearing young, whereas male fitness is limited by the
ability to get resources for provisioning the female
D. Female fitness is limited mostly by the ability to attract males, whereas
male fitness is limited by the ability to get resources for the female
20. Give an example of females choosing for “good alleles”
Ch. 27
21. A species is defined as the smallest monophyletic group on the tree of life. The
morphospecies concept identifies species by what?
A. A synapomorphy in an observable trait
B. Determining the cryptic species traits
C. Testing if the species can reproduce
D. None of the above
22. Explain the advantages and disadvantages of the biological species concept, the
morphospecies concept, and the phylogenetic species concept
23. True or False? A flood that separates a population of frogs onto opposite sides of
a lake is an example of a vicariance event that may result in allopatric speciation
True
False
24. Speciation results from genetic isolation and a lack of gene flow. Explain how
this happens in allopatric versus sympatric speciation.
25. Which of the following events would best be described as a case of speciation in
sympatry?
A. Speciation cannot take place in sympatry, only in allopatry
B. A population of lizards is subdivided by a natural barrier and subsequently
diverges to form two species that cannot interbreed
C. An individual plant undergoes meiotic failure, producing diploid pollen
and ovules; these self-fertilize, germinate, and grow into several fully
fertile tetraploid plants
D. A new, isolated population of fruit flies is founded by a small group of
colonists, who then diverge from the ancestral source population
26. Explain how sympatry can happen through ecological niches and through
chromosomal changes
27. Which of the following statements about reinforcement is true?
A. Reinforcement decreases the morphological differences between two
incipient species
B. Reinforcement is also called dispersive selection
C. Reinforcement increases the number of intermediate phenotypes
D. Reinforcement is a type of natural selection
28. Explain how selection works with reinforcement
29. Why was mitochondrial DNA so useful in the study of hybrid zones between
Townsend’s warbler and hermit warblers?
A. mtDNA is easy to extract, so the researcher could obtain lots of genetic
information about the hybrids
B. mtDNA is inherited from both parents, like most of the nuclear genetic
material. Any gene could have been used in this study.
C. mtDNA shows that reinforcement has been occurring within this hybrid
zone
D. mtDNA is maternally inherited, so the researchers were able to discover
that most hybrids resulted from Townsend’s males mating with hermit
females
30. How can hybridization create a new species?