1. Myxomatosis is associated with which of the following clinical signs?
a. Kidney disease
b. Oedema around the eyes and ears
c. Haemorrhage
d. Diarrhoea
2. Which of the following statements about chipmunks is FALSE?
a. Chipmunks are social animals and generally live in groups
b. Chipmunks can be stressed by the sound frequencies emitted from
televisions
c. Chipmunks need a large amount of space in which to exercise
d. Chipmunks are very placid and easy to handle
3. Induced ovulator means that:
a. The animal is seaonally polyoestrus
b. Ovulation occurs spontaneously
c. Animals are mono-oestrus
d. Ovulation occurs following mating
4. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. Golden hamsters should be kept in groups
b. Rats should be kept in groups
c. Gerbils are best kept as female groups
d. Ferrets should be kept in groups of 2 or 3
5. Atropine may be given to a chinchilla as part of a premedicant in order to:
a. Provide analgesia
b. Sedate the animal prior to induction
c. Prevent tachycardia at induction
d. Reduce oral secretions thus facilitating intubation
6. For which of the following conditions in rabbits would fluid therapy by advisable?
a. Vestibular disease
b. Mucoid enteropathy
c. Pododermatitis
d. Spondylosis
7. You are asked to hospitalise an injured rat. Which of the following factors would
you consider as important for this patient?
a. Company of other animals, room temperature of 25 degrees Celsius and
interaction with people
b. Company of other animals, light and routine sounds
c. Seclusion, room temperature of 25 degrees Celsius and bright light
d. Seclusion, provision of a darkened area and quiet
8. Which of the following species are omnivorous?
a. Rabbit
b. Degu
c. Rat
d. Chinchilla
9. You are advising an owner who wishes to keep a pet rat. What type of substrate
would you advise to put in the cage?
a. Straw
b. Wood shavings
c. Paper
d. Sawdust
10. Which of the following statements regarding zoonoses and small mammals is
TRUE?
a. Ringworm can be transmitted to people from small mammals
b. Wearing gloves in not effective at preventing transmission of ringworm
c. Guinea pigs do not carry any zoonotic diseases
d. E. cuniculi is a zoonotic condition
11. Which of the following species CAN vomit?
a. Rabbit
b. Guinea pig
c. Degu
d. Ferret
12. Which of the following veins could be used in a guinea pig to take a blood
sample?
a. lateral tail vein
b. saphenous vein
c. marginal ear vein
d. cephalic vein
13. A trichobezoar is:
a. A parasite of guinea pigs
b. A shortening of the lower jaw
c. Another term for entropion
d. A hairball found in the stomach
14. Which of the following species will hibernate?
a. Chipmunks
b. Gerbils
c. Rats
d. Jird
15. Rabbits lose heat through:
a. Lowering their metabolic rate
b. Panting
c. Sweating
d. Behaviour
16. Which of the following species cannot jump and should therefore have
accommodation that is on one level?
a. mouse
b. rat
c. rabbit
d. guinea pig
17. The gestation period of the guinea pig is:
a. 19-21 days
b. 24-26 days
c. 60-72 days
d. 111 days
18. Ferrets should be vaccinated against which canine disease?
a. Hepatitis
b. Leptospirosis
c. Bordetella bronchiseptica
d. Distemper
19. You are monitoring an anaesthetised rabbit which is being spayed, when you
notice an increase in the animal’s heart rate. Which of the following could be the
cause of this?
a. The animal is experiencing a painful stimulus
b. Fluids are being administered too rapidly
c. The rabbit is entering a deep plain of anaesthesia
d. Low end tidal carbon dioxide levels are present
20. The furcula is:
a. The fused coccygeal vertebrae of birds
b. One of the metacarpal bones found in birds
c. The avian equivalent of the mammalian clavicle
d. Any pneumonised bone in the avian skeleton
21. The avian crop is:
a. A diverticulum of the oesophagus
b. Responsible for the mechanical breakdown of food
c. An area of the gastrointestinal tract where chemical digestion of food takes
place
d. The last part of the avian gastrointestinal tract
22. Apterylae are:
a. Structures which hold the barbs of a feather together
b. Tracts of feather follicles in avian skin
c. Areas of avian skin where feather follicles are NOT present
d. A type of feather
23. When restraining a bird of prey, it may be necessary to use jesses. What are
jesses?
a. A hood that is placed over the head
b. Gauntlets worn by the handler
c. Leather straps attached to the legs of the bird
d. A box that the bird can be placed in to recover from handling
24. A decrease in end tidal carbon dioxide levels could be due to:
a. increased respiratory rate
b. apnoea
c. inadequate mechanical respiration
d. decreased respiratory rate
25. Fret marks can be found on feathers. These are associated with:
a. An illness or nutritional problem at the time of feather production
b. Topical feather damage
c. A recent illness
d. Self mutilation by the bird
26. Which of the following anatomical structures of a bird can contain grit?
a. oesophagus
b. crop
c. gizzard
d. cloaca
27. Poor seed quality can lead to contamination with which of the following
organisms (an important avian pathogen)?
a. Toxoplasma
b. Microsporum
c. Aspergillus
d. Toxocara
28. A young bird has been brought into the practice. You intend to crop tube this
bird. The best type of food to administer is:
a. non-lactose containing baby food
b. ground seeds in water
c. lactose containing baby food
d. baby milk
29. The African Grey Parrot has which of the following foot and toe arrangements?
a. Zygodactyl
b. Anisodactyl
c. Semi-zygodactyl
d. Palmate
30. Which of the following statements about psittacosis is TRUE?
a. It is a zoonosis
b. It can be prevented by vaccination
c. It only affects birds
d. There is no known cure
31. The avian heterophil is the equivalent of the mammalian:
a. erythrocyte
b. neutrophil
c. basophil
d. eosinophil
32. The uropygial gland is found where?
a. Under the eyes
b. Under the wings
c. Over the sternum
d. At the base of the tail
33. Which of the following is NOT a possible site for the administration of intraosseous fluids?
a. Proximal tibia
b. Distal ulna
c. Proximal ulna
d. Femur
34. Scaly beak is a relatively common condition of budgies. This condition is caused
by:
a. A nutritional deficiency
b. A mite: Cnemidocoptes spp.
c. Low environmental humidity
d. A viral infection
35. A weathering is:
a. A three sided shelter for raptors
b. A nest box for psittaciformes
c. A loft for racing pigeons
d. A perch for a falcon
36. How much water is a healthy budgie likely to consume over 24 hours?
a. 5-10ml
b. 10-20ml
c. 20-25ml
d. 25-35ml
37. Teflon toxicity can be associated with birds kept in the:
a. bathroom
b. bedroom
c. aviary
d. kitchen
38. You are monitoring an anaesthetised iguana. Which of the following could result
in a fall in oxygen saturation levels?
a. A blockage in the anaesthetic circuit
b. An increased respiratory rate
c. Increased blood pressure
d. The animal becoming 'light'
39. Frogs and toads belong to which order?
a. Anura
b. Caudata
c. Gymnophiona
d. Squamata
40. Ecdysis is:
a. Normal shedding of reptilian skin
b. Abnormal shedding of reptilian skin
c. Skin production in reptiles
d. The production of skin colouration in reptiles
41. MS-222 is used to:
a. Treat antibacterial infections
b. Induce anaesthesia in amphibians
c. Treat endocrine disease
d. Induce gaseous anaesthesia in reptiles
42. Feeding garter snakes raw fish can result in a deficiency of which vitamin?
a. B1
b. B12
c. Biotin
d. Folic acid
43. SCUD (Septicaemic Cutaneous Ulcerative Disease) is most likely to be found in
which of the following species?
a. Snakes
b. Iguanas
c. Frogs
d. Chelonia
44. Whether an animal is male or female is ALWAYS chromosomally dependent in
which of the following groups of animals?
a. chelonia
b. crocodylia
c. snakes
d. lizards
45. Which of the following statements regarding nutrition of snakes is TRUE?
a. All species of snake should be fed daily
b. Food should only be provided during the day
c. Cold food is preferable to warm food
d. It is illegal to feed live vertebrates to snakes in the United Kingdom
46. The trade in Mediterranean Tortoises is controlled by which of the following
forms of legislation?
a. Wildlife & Countryside Act 1981
b. Protection of Animals Act 1911-1964
c. Abandonment of Animals Act 1960
d. Convention on the International Trade of Endangered Species (CITES)
47. The amphibian heart has how many chambers?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
48. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Snakes posses a diaphragm
b. Snakes posses a urinary bladder
c. Snakes secrete nitrogenous waste mainly in the form of urea.
d. In rattlesnakes and other colubrids the right lung is the major lung and the
left is vestigial.
49. A fibricess is:
a. A condition of the liver in reptiles
b. A term describing the colouration of damaged areas of epithelium
c. The solid form of abscess that develops in reptiles
d. A parasitic infection of lizards
50. Which of the following statements regarding the handling of reptiles is TRUE?
a. Geckos have very fragile skin and should be examined in a clear container
or a soft cloth used to handle them
b. Lizards can be restrained by their tails
c. Mature, male green iguanas are rarely aggressive
d. Non-venomous snakes can be held in one hand
51. Small (pin head sized) red dots are seen around the eyes of a snake. The
likeliest cause of this is:
a. Ticks
b. Cryptosporidiosis
c. Snake mites
d. Fly strike
52. The renal portal system of reptiles is important because:
a. It is unique to reptiles
b. Drugs administered to the caudal half of the body could be excreted without
reaching the general circulation
c. Drugs will be taken straight to the heart
d. Drugs will enter the general circulation too rapidly
53. Which of the following is NOT a method of differentiating male and female
tortoises?
a. Tail length
b. Length of hindlimb claws
c. The presence or absence of a hinge on the caudal plastron
d. Colour of carapace
54. The Jackson's ratio of a tortoise is determined by:
a. comparing weight with age
b. comparing weight with body length
c. comparing weight with carapace height
d. comparing weight with body width
55. The function of the parietal eye is:
a. To aid vision
b. Ornamentation and protection
c. To provide information about daytime length
d. To differentiate male from female
56. Which of the following drugs should NEVER be given to chelonia?
a. Acyclovir
b. Enrofloxacin
c. Ivermectin
d. Fenbendazole
57. Gout in reptiles is due to a build up of:
a. Urea
b. Uric acid
c. Ammonia
d. Phosphate
58. Swelling of the skin around the eye in a reptile can be associated with a
deficiency of which vitamin?
a. A
b. C
c. D
d. K
59. Which of the following statements about grey squirrels is TRUE?
a. They cannot be released into the wild following a period of time in captivity
and should be euthanased or held in a wildlife sanctuary
b. They must be released in exactly the same area that they were found
c. They should be released in an area that is not inhabited by any other
squirrels
d. They should be released where red squirrels are native
60. You have been asked to house a weasel in the practice. The front of the cage is
made of wire. In order to prevent escape the diameter of this wire should be no more
than:
a. 2cm diameter
b. 3cm diameter
c. 4cm diameter
d. 5cm diameter
61. Tuberculosis is a zoonotic disease predominantly associated with which of the
following British wild animals?
a. Foxes
b. Stoats
c. Pine martin
d. Badger
62. Which of the following statements regarding fluid therapy of seals is FALSE?
a. Fluids can be given subcutaneously
b. Fluids can be given intravenously
c. Fluids can be given per os
d. Fluids may be required post-operatively
63. You have been asked to help clean up some sea birds that are covered in oil
from a tanker spill. Which of the following substances should you use to remove this
oil?
a. A bar of soap
b. Washing powder
c. Washing up liquid
d. Dog shampoo
64. Which of the following species of deer is not native to the UK?
a. Red deer
b. Roe deer
c. Fallow deer
d. Sika deer
65. Which of the following statements regarding the reproductive cycle of the badger
is correct?
a. There is no set time of year when young are born
b. They are spontaneous ovulators and young are generally born between
April and May
c. They can mate at any time of year, but cubs are born between January and
March due to delayed implantation
d. They are seasonally polyoestrus from January to August
66. A hibernaculum is:
a. A bat's winter roost
b. A badger's hibernation sett
c. A squirrel's winter home
d. A fox's winter home
67. The pipistrelle is a species of:
a. Otter
b. Bat
c. Deer
d. Stoat
68. Which of the following zoonotic conditions is NOT commonly carried by
hedgehogs?
a. ringworm
b. E. coli
c. scabies
d. salmonellosis
69. Which of the following conditions could be transmitted from a fox to a dog within
the practice?
a. scabies
b. canine adenovirus
c. salmonella
d. all of the above
70. In the hedgehog the orbicularis muscle is responsible for:
a. Movement of the limbs
b. Moving the lower jaw muscle
c. Nose twitching
d. Contracting the hedgehog into a ball for protection
71. Which of the following lists of British mammals, only contains those described as
mustelids?
a. Weasel, stoat, pine marten, polecat
b. Stoat, vole, weasel, mink
c. pine marten, polecat, vole, squirrel
d. Mink, squirrel, otter, stoat
72. Which of the following conditions COULD be carried by a bat?
a. Distemper virus
b. Rabies virus (Lyssavirus)
c. Adenovirus
d. Scabies