This work is funded by the National Science Foundation
Advanced Technological Education Grant 1003223
The CAHIMS Exam Preparation Course
and the CAHIMS exam are the result of
collaboration between the Life Science
Informatics Center at Bellevue College
and the Healthcare Information and
Management Systems Society (HIMSS).
Significant content found in the CAHIMS
Exam Preparation Course stems from the
Office of the National Coordinator for
Health Information Technology. Creation
of the CAHIMS Exam Preparation Course
and the CAHIMS exam was made
possible through support from the National
Science Foundation (NSF).
Curriculum Team:
Margaret Schulte, DBA
Michèle Royer, PhD
Nathan Savage, MLIS
This work is funded by the National Science Foundation
Advanced Technological Education Grant 1003223
Section 8 - Leadership and Planning
Lesson 8.2 - Quality Standards
Assessment Questions Answer Key
Lectures 1, 2, 3 & 4
1. Providers are more likely to view healthcare quality as __________.
*a. use of computerized decision support to facilitate evidence-based practice
b. implementation of a web-based patient satisfaction survey
c. computerized flow sheets that enable documentation required by regulatory
standards
d. centralized appointment scheduling system that decreases patient wait time
Answer: a. While providers may view each of the choices as having some effect
on health care quality, they are more likely to view quality as the application of
evidence-based professional knowledge. Computerized decision support can be
designed to present evidence in a way to support application of best practices.
Payers place more emphasis on patient satisfaction, so they are more likely to
select choice b. Professional and regulatory bodies place more importance on
regulatory standards, so they are more likely to select choice c. Patients and
families would be more likely to view choice d, since they place more importance
on how long they have to wait for services.
Lecture/Slides: 2/13-17
2. Patients and families are more likely to view quality as __________.
a. the application of evidence-based professional knowledge
b. adherence to standards
*c. how well the provider communicates
d. use of preventive services
Answer: c. Patients and families place more importance on how well the provider
communicates with them or how long they are kept waiting, than they do on the
use of evidence-based knowledge, adherence to standards or the use preventive
services.
Lecture/Slides: 2/13-17
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Page 1
3. An example of a structure used to evaluate quality of health care information
technology is __________.
*a. a policy describing the prescriber’s role and responsibilities with respect to
provider order entry
b. data on medication errors noted in the on-line event reporting system
c. data on how well physicians and nurses document problems on the electronic
problem list
d. patient satisfaction with the electronic portal
Answer: a. Structures refer to having the right things, process refers to doing
things right, and outcomes refer to having the right things happen. A policy is a
structure that ensures that the right things are in place to ensure quality, so
choice “a” is the most appropriate selection. Choice “b” and “d” are outcome
measures, and choice “c” is a process measure.
Lecture/Slides: 2/13-17
4. According to the Institute of Medicine Crossing the Quality Chasm, which of
the following is NOT a quality improvement aim?
a. efficiency
b. patient centeredness
c. effectiveness
*d. innovation
Answer: d. The Institute of Medicine identified that to close the quality gap, health
care should be safe, effective, patient-centered, timely, efficient, and equitable.
While innovation is likely required to make these changes, it is not one of the six
aims noted.
Lecture/Slides: 2/13-17
5. Which of the following is not one of the four basic tenants to quality
improvement?
a. setting an aim
*b. doubt
c. learning the system
d. measurement
e. change
Answer: Setting an aim, measurement, change and learning the system are the
four basic tenants of quality improvement. These elements are cyclic in nature.
Lecture/Slides: 4/3-26
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6. What quality improvement measures must eligible providers report in 2011 to
qualify for meaningful use incentive payments?
*a. blood pressure, tobacco status, and adult weight screening as well as three
additional measures from a list of metrics
b. a single quality improvement measure of their own choosing
c. substance abuse, exercise tolerance, and nutritional status
d. advance directives in patients aged 65 and older
Answer: a. Starting in 2011, eligible providers must report on six quality
measures to qualify for meaningful use incentive payments—three core
measures and three from lists of metrics ready for incorporation into electronic
health records (EHRs). Blood pressure, tobacco status, and adult weight
screening are core measures.
Lecture/Slides: 1/10-11
7. Which of the following are the goals of meaningful use of electronic health
records? Select all that apply.
*a. Improve quality, safety, & efficiency
*b. Engage patients & their families
*c. Improve care coordination
*d. Improve population & public health; reduce disparities
*e. Ensure privacy & security protections
Answer: a, b, c, d & e. The five goals of meaningful use of electronic health
records are: to use health records in a way that improves quality, safety, and
efficiency of care, engages patients and families in their care, improves
coordination of care, improves population and public health and reduces
disparities; and ensure privacy and security protections for all.
Lecture/Slides: 1/10-11
8. One example of how HIT can enhance patient-centeredness is __________.
a. reduce drug errors through computerized provider order entry
b. increase efficiency through automated vital sign capture
*c. tailor care plan to individual needs through clinical decision support
d. remind providers of best practices through prompts and flags
Answer: c. Clinical decision support can tailor information according to patient
characteristics; and customized health education and disease management
messaging can enable patient self-management. Computerized provider order
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entry supports patient safety. Automated vital sign supports efficiency, and best
practice prompts support effectiveness of care.
Lecture/Slides: 4/3-26
9. An example of a workaround that can result in unintended consequences is
__________.
a. reporting patient fall via an on-line event reporting system
*b. having nurses enter prescriber orders because the prescriber is too busy
c. use of a patient locator board to track patients
d. use of paper-based report sheets to communicate changes in patient condition
Answer: b. Work-arounds are alternative processes that help workers avoid
demands placed on them that they perceive to be unrealistic or harmful. These
unanticipated behaviors can be directly or indirectly caused by the EHR when the
system impedes the provider’s work. For example, a nurse may take a verbal
orders rather than the prescriber entering the order into POE due to workflow
timing of the event, such as the surgeon being scrubbed on a case in the OR.
The other choices are examples of artifacts.
Lecture/Slides: 4/3-26
10. Man-made tools that aid or enhance the user’s thinking abilities are called:
a. structures
b. objects
*c. artifacts
d. work-arounds
Answer: c. Artifacts are man-made tools that help the worker to think. They are
developed to meet the demands of a particular activity. Keeping references at the
bedside so that the nurse can refer to them during the course of care is an
example of an artifact.
Lecture/Slides: 4/3-26
Lectures 5 & 6
11. Which of the following is a basic principle of the science of safety?
*a. The system is perfectly designed to deliver the results it gets.
b. Workers are largely to blame when mistakes happen.
c. The principles of safe design only refer to technical work.
d. Providers should assume things will go right rather than wrong.
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Page 4
Answer: a. Every system is perfectly designed to achieve the results it gets.
Common misunderstandings related to the science of safety are that workers are
to blame, that safe design pertains only to the technical work, and that we can’t
plan for the things that might go wrong.
Lecture/Slide: 5/8
12. Which of the following is the premise behind the Swiss Cheese Model?
a. The Swiss Cheese Model states there is always someone at fault for an error.
*b. There are “holes,” vulnerabilities, or hazards in the health care environment
that have an impact on medical error.
c. Problems are usually the result of people who don’t know what they are doing
d. Hazards are fairly static; one need only look hard to find them.
Answer: b. In James Reason’s Swiss Cheese Model, the holes represent
vulnerabilities or hazards in our work environment. The hazards are dynamic and
can change location over time. When all the holes align, errors can occur.
Lecture/Slide: 5/9
13. One of the following is not a system factor that has an impact on patient
safety?
a. patient characteristics
*b. time factors
c. team factors
d. provider skill
Answer: b. The patient characteristics, the skill of the provider, team factors, and
work environmental are system factors that can have an impact of safety.
Although time can create pressure in the execution of a task, systems’ thinking is
about viewing the inter-relatedness of the parts and how they work together to
prevent failures or errors.
Lecture/Slide: 5/10
14. Which of the following is not a principle of safe design?
a. standardize
b. create independent checks
*c. add steps
d. learn from mistakes
Answer: c. Principles of safe design include standardizing processes and
creating independent checks. These principles enhance safety by simplifying
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Page 5
and eliminating unnecessary steps and reducing the potential for hazards or
errors.
Lecture/Slide: 5/8
15. An example of an independent check is __________.
*a. car alarm sounds when passenger fails to put on seatbelt
b. reading an instruction manual
c. taking a test
d. checking battery life
Answer: a. A car alarm that signals when a passenger fails to put on his seatbelt
is an example of an independent check. It is an active alarm that reminds the
user to complete a planned task when the user fails to remember to do so on his
own.
Lecture/Slide: 5/8
16. Standardization is important because __________.
a. when patterns of care are widely divergent clinical outcomes suffer
b. standardization reduces errors and improves safety
c. it can be attempted both in the technical aspects of care and team aspects
*d. all of the above
Answer: d. Standardization is one of the important principles of safe design. It
attempts to reduce divergence. It can be used in different setting such as
technical and team settings.
Lecture/Slide: 5/8
17. An example of an independent check is __________.
a. playing “man-down”
b. limiting the number of choices of drugs in a drop-down list
*c. requiring two signatures on high alert medications
d. developing protocols on how to document in electronic records
Answer: c. An independent check is a back-up procedure that is designed to
ensure safety. Requiring two nurses to independently check right drug, right
dose, right route, right time, and right patient before high alert medications are
administered provides an extra measure of safety.
Lecture/Slide: 5/8
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Advanced Technological Education Grant 1003223
Page 6
18. An example of standardization is __________.
a. verbal read-backs
b. requiring two signatures on high alert medications
*c. using a checklist before doing a procedure
d. eliminating extraneous steps
Answer: c. Standardizing care whenever possible is a key principle of safe
design. An effective tool to promoting standardization is a checklist that lists all
required best practices as a reminder to ensure that optimal conditions are
present before doing potentially risky interventions. Verbal read backs and two
signature requirements are examples of independent double checks. Eliminating
extra steps is the third key principle of safe design.
Lecture/Slide: 5/8
19. Which of the following indicate system factors that have an impact on patient
safety?
a. patient and provider characteristics
b. task characteristics and the work environment
c. institutional factors
*d. all of the above
Answer: d. There is a wide variety of system factors that have an impact on
patient safety. These include: patient characteristics, task factors, individual
provider characteristics, team factors, the work environment, departmental,
hospital, and institutional factors.
Lecture/Slide: 5/9
20. HIT teams make wise decisions when __________.
a. there is a strong, knowledgeable leader who can make decisions for them
*b. there is diverse and independent input
c. all members of the team think alike
d. there is no opposition to the prevailing viewpoint
Answer: b. Teams make wise decisions with diverse and independent input.
Diversity increases the number of lenses through which the team can view a
problem. The more input you get from consumers, from patients, from parents,
from colleagues, the wiser a decision you’re going to make when designing and
implementing HIT.
Lecture/Slide: 5/8
This work is funded by the National Science Foundation
Advanced Technological Education Grant 1003223
Page 7
Lecture 7
21. Regarding reliability measurement, which statement is false?
a. The characteristics of systems that perform at 10-1 are different from those
that perform at 10-3.
b. To measure reliability, you divide the number of actions that achieved the
intended result by the total number of actions taken.
*c. Reliability is expressed as an order of magnitude.
d. A system that performs at 10-3 is less reliable than a system that performs at
10-1.
Answer: c. Reliability science involves continually evaluating care, calculating the
overall reliability of the care, and improving the structures, processes, and
outcomes.
It improves the ability of a process to perform as intended under commonly
occurring conditions.
Lecture/Slides: 7/3, 5
22. The IHI reliability framework __________.
a. employs a three-tiered strategy
*b. suggests prevention of failure is the first step to redesigning a reliable system
c. scheduling tasks is a tool to identify and mitigate
d. a and c
e. all of the above
Answer: b. Preventing failure to compensate for human limitations, the IHI
framework employs a three-tiered strategy. The first line of defense is to prevent
failure from occurring in the first place.
Lecture/Slides: 7/3, 7
23. Regarding prevention of failure, __________.
a. the strategies to prevent failure are using intent and standardization and
segmentation
b. the intent and standardization phase is aimed at changing the human factors
and introducing a degree of redundancy
*c. the intent and standardization phase attempts to prevent the effects of
clinician distraction and interruption
d. a and c
e. all of the above
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Answer: c. Complete reliance on the team is the hallmark of a high reliability
organization. Decisions are made by the person or persons with the most direct
experience, not necessarily the team leader.
Lecture/Slides: 7/3, 9
24. Which one of the following attributes is characteristic of a highly reliable
organization?
a. Understand where the failure in the system is occurring and determine the
remedy.
*b. Have highly skilled workers in the field of reliability.
c. Acknowledge mistakes when they happen.
d. Have a comprehensive QI department.
Answer: b. Oversimplifying explanations for how things work risks developing
unworkable solutions and failing to understand the ways a system may fail,
placing a patient at risk. Reliable organizations improve the consistent and
standard delivery of high quality, safe healthcare. They continually evaluate care,
calculating overall reliability of that care, and improving structures, processes,
and outcomes
Lecture/Slides: 7/3, 5-7
25. Which of these statements is false?
a. A "bundle" is a group of interventions related to a disease process that, when
executed together, result in better outcomes than when implemented individually.
b. Providing each element of care within a bundle leads to more reliable care for
patients.
c. An example of a diabetes bundle is the measurement of BMI, education, two
HgbA1c tests, LDL test, and use of statin.
*d. All diabetic bundles must contain at least three measures
Answer: d. There are no determined number of elements that need to be part of
a bundle.
Lecture/Slides: 7/3, 8
26. Which of these statements is false?
a. Designing a reliable system is a stepwise process that requires the
incorporation of prevention of failure, identification and mitigation of failure, and
system redesign from failure.
b. A highly reliable organization aims to have all processes perform at 10-6.
*c. Different processes require different levels of reliability.
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d. Reliability principles, used to design systems that compensate for the limits of
human ability, can improve safety and the rate at which a system consistently
produces desired outcomes.
Answer: c. High reliability organizations survive in complex environments that
depend on multi-team systems that must coordinate their respective activities for
safety. High reliability organizations are also tightly coupled. That is, team
members depend on tasks across the entire team. Roles are very clearly defined
and differentiated in high reliability organizations. Intense coordination is required
for the team to work cohesively. Complete reliance on the team is the hallmark of
high reliability organization. There are multiple decision makers in high reliability
organizations, and, processes must be in place to allow these decision-makers to
communication with each other. Therefore, choice c is correct.
Lecture/Slides: 7/3, 5
Lectures 8 & 9
27. Which one of the following is not an example of clinical decision support?
a. Computer screen displays the hospital fall prevention policy.
b. Electronic flow sheet displays evidence-based fall prevention strategies
*c. The computer system times out after a period of inactivity.
d. The EHR sends an automated message to the physical therapy department
when patients screen as high fall risk.
Answer: c. General decision support functions promote use of best practices and
facilitate evidence-based population management. For example, rules-based
logic can scan available patient information and flag patients who are not in
compliance with wellness or disease management regimens and alert the
provider or the patient that interventions are due. Formulas and algorithms can
present relevant patient data and perform complex calculations that the providers
used to have to perform by hand. Important patient information can be tracked in
disease registries. Summary screens display patient problems, medications,
recent laboratory test results, and other pertinent clinical information in a “patient
at a glance” display. These serve as reminders for the patient’s care team about
chronic issues to factor into decisions as well as for covering providers who may
have gaps in knowledge about the patient. System time-outs are designed to
protect patient confidentiality and are not a form of decision support.
Lecture/Slide: 8/3
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Page 10
28. A clinician has been using a system that has a reminder system. When the
clinician performs an action even when not prompted by the reminder system,
this response is called __________.
*a. spillover
b. reactance
c. compliance
d. reliance
Answer: a. Spillover occurs when there is a spread of responses merely due to
increased awareness of the need for an action, even when the clinician is not
prompted by the reminder system.
Lecture/Slide: 9/6
29. Which one of the following is not a right of clinical decision support?
a. right information
b. right person
*c. right dose
d. right channel
Answer: c. Osheroff suggests the five rights of clinical decision support are that it
should be designed to provide the right information to the right person in the right
format through the right channel at the right time.
Lecture/Slide: 8/5
30. Which of the following statements is a myth regarding clinical decision
support?
*a. Clinicians will use stand-alone decision-support tools.
b. Use of decision support is affected by patient characteristics and risk-benefit
for patients.
c. Decision support needs to be integrated into the context of routine clinical
workflow.
d. Decision support can reduce medication-related expenditures.
Answer: a. A myth of clinical decision supports is that clinicians will use standalone decision support tools. We know now that we need to integrate decision
support into the context of routine clinical workflow and that patient-related
factors can have an impact on use of CDSS.
Lecture/Slide: 8/9
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Page 11
31. Which of the following is NOT a recommendation of the consensus panel for
effective use of clinical decision support?
a. seamless integration of CPOE with CDSS into workflow
b. access to Internet-based and other online support material
c. designing systems specifically for the clinical area
*d. maximizing the use of active data capture
Answer: d. Recommendations for clinical decision support systems success note
that systems should maximize the use automated systems and provide for
passive, not active, data capture. Passive data capture, such as use of bar code
scanning, promotes efficiency and decreases error.
Lecture/Slide: 9/13
32. Clinical decision support is most appropriate for __________.
a. inpatient settings
b. ambulatory care settings
c. public health settings
*d. all of the above
Answer: d. The merits of clinical decision support are not limited to any particular
environment. Skilled IT professionals can guide clinicians through the
considerations that can promote successful implementation in any health care
setting.
Lecture/Slide: 8/4
33. Which of the following is a decision support rule that can enhance efficiency?
*a. rules that trigger alerts for high cost drugs and suggest lower cost
alternatives
b. drug-drug alert
c. drug-allergy warnings
d. drug-disease contraindications
Answer: a. Clinical decision support rules for efficiency are rules that trigger
alerts for high cost drugs and suggest lower cost alternatives, duplicate testing
alerts, rules that help the provider to document information that supports
appropriate medical coding, and rules that calculate risks and generate
preventive recommendations. The other three choices trigger alerts to enhance
patient safety by avoiding common sources of error.
Lecture/Slide: 9/7
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Page 12
34. All of the following statements are correct EXCEPT __________
a. Alerts and reminders have the potential to enhance patient safety.
b. Alerts and reminders have the potential to enhance medical error.
*c. Alerts should never be overridden.
d. Alert fatigue can cause medical error.
Answer: c. Alerts have the potential to enhance safety as well as errors. Alerts
should be specific, sensitive, clear, and concise in order to prevent fatigue. Alerts
should be designed to avoid the need be overridden and when this occurs the
reasons should be explored to improve use
Lecture/Slide: 8/5
35. Basic medication order guidance is __________.
a. generated when the mode of action of one drug is known to be affected by
simultaneously prescribing a second drug
*b. an alert that provides dosing information with default dosing being the most
appropriate initial dosing.
c. generated when the patient is already receiving the medication just ordered or
a different drug in the same therapeutic category
d. an alert that fires when a drug is ordered to which a patient has a documented
allergy
Answer: b. Basic medication order guidance, a type of basic drug alert, is an alert
that provides dosing information with default dosing being the most appropriate
initial dosing.
Lecture/Slide: 8/13
Lecture 11
36. In the absence of a valid and transparent measurement system, most people
are __________.
*a. over-confident in their performance
b. highly critical of their performance
c. fairly accurate about their performance
d. unclear about their performance
Answer: a. Studies have shown that, in the absence of valid and transparent
measures, health care workers tend to be over-confident in their performance.
People go into health care to help people and that desire causes bias when
trying to measure their own performance.
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Page 13
Lecture/Slide: 11/10, 18
37. When you analyze variation to understand its cause __________.
a. variation provides a basis for action on the process
b. Variation is based on what the process actually delivers
c. You use run chart as a method to understand the variation
*d. all of the above
Answer: d. When you analyze variation to understand its cause: variation
provides a basis for action on the process, it is based on what the process
actually delivers and uses run chart as a method to understand the variation.
When you analyze variation to assess performance: evaluation classifies
outcomes as acceptable or not, it is based on what the customer wants and uses
a variety of methods including specifications, budgets, forecasts and numeric
goals among others.
Lecture/Slide: 11/5, 6
38. Which characteristic typifies common cause variation?
a. new phenomena happen within the system
b. variation is unpredictable
*c. variation happens within historical parameters
d. evidence of some change in the system or our knowledge of the system
Answer: c. Variation happens within historical parameters
The characteristics of common cause variation are: variation happens on a
regular basis, variation is predictable, variation happens within historical
parameters and no change in the system or our knowledge of the system
Lecture/Slide: 11/5, 6
39. Which statistical rules to identify non-random signals in run charts are
subjective?
a. shifts
b. runs
*c. astronomical points
d. trends
Answer: c. Shifts, runs and trends are three probability-based rules used to
objectively analyze a run chart for evidence of nonrandom patterns in the data
based on an α error of p<0.05 while astronomical points are a subjective rule that
recognizes the importance of the visual display of the data in a run chart.
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Lecture/Slide: 11/7, 11
40. A valid model for reporting and measuring quality and safety in health care
includes attention to process, outcome, and balance measures. An example of a
balance measure in health care is the __________.
a. number of patient falls
b. cost of the implementation of a fall reduction strategy
*c. percentage of time providers spend with patients.
d. number of times fall prevention measures are documented
Answer: c. A balance measure is used to determine if we are causing new
problems in other parts of the system. Cost is a typical balance measure.
Lecture/Slide: 11/11-16
41. An example of an outcome measure is __________.
a. whether we have a policy to manage patients with heart valve repair on our
unit
*b. the percentage of patients with central lines who develop a blood stream
infection
c. how often we place patients in restraints to manage aggressive behavior
d. the number of new patient visits
Answer: b. The only outcome measure in this list is the percentage of patients
with central line associated blood stream infections. This measure reflects the
results of our care. The presence of an organizational policy is a structural
measure since it reflects how we organize care. How often patients are placed in
restraints and number of new patient visits both reflect process measures, since
they look at what we do.
Lecture/Slide: 11/16
42. To calculate a fall rate, you need to have __________.
*a. a clear definition of the population that is at risk for falls
b. a calculator
c. an on-line reporting system
d. a fall risk assessment scale
Answer: a. For a rate-based measure to be valid, we need a clear definition of
both the numerator (who fell) and the denominator (who was at risk to fall). While
the other three choices are nice to have, they are not required for calculation of a
valid fall rate.
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Lecture/Slide: 11/17
43. Which of the following is not a means to enhance data validity?
*a. free text data
b. clarify who what when where and how
c. train and evaluate competency
d. evaluate data quality (look at data)
e. missing data, outliers, repeat values
Answer: a. One important aspect of data collection enhancement is to structure
data entry or data collection forms whenever possible, to ensure those who are
entering data are crystal clear about who, what, where, when and how, to
formally train and evaluate the competency of those entering the data (ideally
formal training that includes evaluation of performance and the provision of
feedback), to evaluate data quality check for missing data and correct it if
possible, look at your outliers and repeat values, especially for denominators.
Lecture/Slide: 11/7, 18
Lectures 12 & 13
44. Quality is defined as:
a. In many ways depending on the context
b. the suitability of procedures, processes and systems in relation to the strategic
objectives
c. the ongoing process of building and sustaining relationships by assessing,
anticipating, and fulfilling stated and implied needs
*d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
Lecture(s)/Slide(s): 12/3
45. Quality Assurance is:
*a. a set of activities designed to ensure that the development and/or
maintenance process is adequate to ensure a system will meet its objectives
b. a set of activities designed to evaluate a developed a work product
c. a and b
d. None of the Above
Answer: a. a set of activities designed to ensure that the development and/or
maintenance process is adequate to ensure a system will meet its objectives
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Lecture(s)/Slide(s): 12/4
46. Quality Control is:
a. a set of activities designed to ensure that the development and/or
maintenance process is adequate to ensure a system will meet its objectives
*b. a set of activities designed to evaluate a developed a work product
c. a and b
d. None of the Above
Answer: b. a set of activities designed to evaluate a developed a work product
Lecture(s)/Slide(s): 12/4
47. The Deming Cycle Consist of Which Elements:
a. Act
b. Plan, Do, Check
*c. Act, Plan, Do, Check
d. None of the above
Answer: c. Act, Plan, Do, Check
Lecture(s)/Slide(s): 12/8
48. The Pareto Principal is:
a. The 80/20 Rule
b. the idea that by doing 20% of work, 80% of the advantage of doing the entire
job can be generated
c. a large majority of problems (80%) are produced by a few key causes (20%)
*d. All of the above
Answer: D - All of the above
Lecture(s)/Slide(s): 12/11
49. The Key Components of Organizational Culture are:
a. Business Environment
b. Organizational Values
c. Cultural Role Models
d. Organizational rites, rituals, and customs
e. Cultural Transmitters
*f. All of the above
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Answer: f. All of the above
Lecture(s)/Slide(s): 12/16
50. ISO 9000 is
a. a Certification
b. requires Auditing and Certification
c. borrows principles from TQM
d. requires Documentation of Procedures and Development of a Quality Manual
*e. all of the Above
Answer: e. all of the Above
Lecture(s)/Slide(s): 12/17
51. A flowchart:
a. is a type of diagram
b. represents an algorithm or process
c. shows the steps as boxes of various kinds
d. shows order by connecting boxes with arrows
*e. all of the above
Answer: e. all of the above
Lecture(s)/Slide(s): 13/5
52. A Fishbone Diagram is also known as:
*a. An Ishikawa diagram
b. Root Cause Analysis
c. A flow chart
d. None of the Above
Answer: a. An Ishikawa diagram
Lecture(s)/Slide(s): 13/7
53. Statistical Process Control is:
*a. the application of statistical methods to the monitoring and control of a
process to ensure that it operates at its full potential to produce conforming
product Determine Communication Needs
b. A control chart
This work is funded by the National Science Foundation
Advanced Technological Education Grant 1003223
Page 18
c. A specific kind of run chart that allows significant change to be differentiated
from the natural variability of the process.
d. None of the Above
Answer: d. None of the Above
Lecture(s)/Slide(s): 13/10
54. The Quality Management Plan describes the following components:
a. Quality objectives and Key project deliverables and processes
b. Quality standards and Quality control and assurance activities
c. Quality roles and responsibilities and Quality tools
d. Plan for reporting quality control and assurance problems
*e. All of the Above
Answer: e. All of the Above
Lecture(s)/Slide(s): 13/12
This work is funded by the National Science Foundation
Advanced Technological Education Grant 1003223
Page 19