Multidetector CT for the Technologist DVD Series 2008
QUESTIONS
Answer the following questions and complete the answer sheet provided.
Volume 1
Cardiac CT: Basic Principles & Techniques
Elliot K. Fishman, MD, FACR
1.
Requirements for cardiac CT include all of the following except
a. High spatial resolution
b. high temporal resolution
c. true volume datasets
d. 16 slice MDCT scanners
2.
Typical slice thickness for cardiac CT is
a. less than 1mm
b. 1-5mm
c. 5-8mm
d. 10mm
3.
The ideal CT scanner today for cardiac CT is
a. 4 detector MDCT
b. 16 detector MDCT
c. 32 detector MDCT
d. 64 detector MDCT
4.
What is the negative predictive value of coronary CTA today?
a. 80%
b. 90%
c. approaches 99%
d. 100%
5.
The injection rate for coronary CTA is
a. 2 cc/sec
b. 3 cc/sec
c. 4 cc/sec
d. over 5 cc/sec
6.
Calcium scoring for coronary calcification has a score measured in what units?
a. coronary units
b. Agatston score
c. Hounsfeld score
d. none of the above
7.
Classic risk factors for heart disease include all of the following except
a. high blood pressure
b. diabetes
c. smoking
d. female
8.
Which statement is not correct?
a. calcium scoring is a marker of coronary artery disease
b. calcium scoring can define sites of vessel stenosis
c. calcium scoring has an optimal score of 0
d. a negative calcium score suggests a low likelihood of significant coronary artery disease
MDCT 2008 Question Packet 1 of 24
80018011
Multidetector CT for the Technologist DVD Series 2008
QUESTIONS
Answer the following questions and complete the answer sheet provided.
9.
An ideal heart rate for coronary CTA is
a. under 50 beats per minute
b. 60-65 beats per minute
c. 70 beats per minute
d. 75-80 beats per minute
10.
Which of the following medications can be used to lower the heart rate for cardiac CT?
a. nitroglycerine
b. metoprolol
c. visipaque-320
d. iodixinol
11.
The main disadvantage of CT coronary angiography in clinical practice is
a. visualization of the vessel wall
b. a stent cannot be placed at the time of the study
c. is non-invasive
d. can visualize the cardiac chambers
12.
Timing of delivery of IV contrast for a coronary CTA is done with all of the following except
a. bolus timing technique
b. bolus tracking technique
c. pre-set timing
d. a & b
13.
Classic radiation dose for cardiac CT is quoted in the range of
a. 15 mSv
b. >20 mSv
c. <10 mSv
d. <5 mSv
14.
Contraindications to beta-blockers (to lower heart rate) include all of the following except
a. blood pressure below 90 systolic
b. heart rate below 60 beats per minute
c. active bronchospasm
d. patient over age 65
MDCT 2008 Question Packet 2 of 24
80018011
Multidetector CT for the Technologist DVD Series 2008
QUESTIONS
Answer the following questions and complete the answer sheet provided.
80018011
Volume 1
Basic CT Anatomy of the Heart and Coronary Arteries
Karen M. Horton, MD
1. Which of the heart chambers is most anterior on a CT scan.
a. Right atrium
b. Right ventricle
c. Left atrium
d. Left ventricle
2. The pulmonary veins return blood to which heart chamber?
a. Right atrium
b. Right ventricle
c. Left atrium
d. Left ventricle
3. Which valve is between the aright atrium and right ventricle?
a. Tricuspid valve
b. Mitral valve
c. Aortic valve
d. Pulmonary valve
4. The normal aortic valve has how many leaflets?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
5. What is the normal thickness of the pericardium on CT?
a. 10 mm
b. 7-8mm
c. 5mm
d. 1-2mm
6. What percentage of people have a right dominant coronary system?
a. 7%
b. 15%
c. 50%
d. 85%
7. The conus artery and sinus node artery arise most commonly from which coronary artery
a. Right coronary artery
b. Left main coronary artery
c. Left circumflex artery
d. Left anterior descending artery
8. In what percentage of patients do the left anterior descending and circumflex arteries arise directly
off the aorta (the left main is absent)?
a. 1%
b. 0.41%
c. 2%
d. 41%
MDCT 2008 Question Packet 3 of 24
Multidetector CT for the Technologist DVD Series 2008
QUESTIONS
Answer the following questions and complete the answer sheet provided.
9. The diagonals are branches of which coronary artery?
a. Right coronary artery
b. Left main coronary artery
c. Left circumflex artery
d. Left anterior descending artery
MDCT 2008 Question Packet 4 of 24
80018011
Multidetector CT for the Technologist DVD Series 2008
QUESTIONS
Answer the following questions and complete the answer sheet provided.
Volume 1
Cardiac CT: 3D Volume Visualization
Elliot K. Fishman, MD, FACR
1.
The average size of the left main coronary artery is
a. under 3mm
b. 4mm
c. over 8mm
d. 10mm
2.
The best technique for global visualization of the heart is
a. MPR
b. volume rendering (VRT)
c. curved planar reconstruction
d. maximum intensity projection (MIP)
3.
Which post processing technique is most affected by vessel calcification
a. MPR
b. volume rendering
c. curved planar reconstruction
d. maximum intensity projection
4.
For evaluation of suspected coronary artery disease, the post processing technique used is
a. volume rendering
b. maximum intensity projection
c. curved planar reconstruction
d. all of the above
5.
If coronary artery stenosis on CT in under 50% most patients will
a. go for a cardiac bypass
b. have a stent placed
c. always go to angiography
d. be treated medically
6.
Which statement regarding myocardial bridging is not true
a. is an anatomic abnormality of the coronary artery
b. usually occurs in the left anterior descending
c. patients usually are asymptomatic
d. patients usually require bypass surgery
7.
Coronary artery anomalies of vessel origin occur in what percent of patients
a. up to 3%
b. 5-10%
c. 10-20%
d. less than 1%
MDCT 2008 Question Packet 5 of 24
80018011
Multidetector CT for the Technologist DVD Series 2008
QUESTIONS
Answer the following questions and complete the answer sheet provided.
8.
Which coronary artery is usually the dominant coronary artery in 85% of cases
a. left anterior coronary artery
b. circumflex coronary artery
c. right coronary artery
d. left main coronary artery
9.
Coronary CTA can be used to accurately evaluate bypass graft patency in
a. over 90% of cases
b. 70% of cases
c. 50% of cases
d. under 50% of cases
10.
4D display can accurately evaluate
a. aortic valve motion
b. myocardial perfusion
c. ejection fraction
d. cc/sec of blood flow
11.
Aortic valve prosthesis can be evaluated with 4D CTA
a. true
b. false
12.
Coarctation of the aorta is associated with
a. tricuspid aorta valve
b. bicuspid aortic valve
c. aortic regurgitation
d. mitral valve disease
MDCT 2008 Question Packet 6 of 24
80018011
Multidetector CT for the Technologist DVD Series 2008
QUESTIONS
Answer the following questions and complete the answer sheet provided.
80018011
Volume 2
MDCT of the Kidney: State of the Art
Elliot K. Fishman, MD, FACR
1.
Nephrographic phase imaging occurs how long after the start of contrast injection (3-4cc/sec)?
a. 25-30 sec
b. 55-60 sec
c. 60-90 sec
d. 3 minutes
2.
The renal cortex is maximally enhanced during which phase of acquisition?
a. corticomedullary phase
b. nephrographic phase
c. excretory phase
d. equilibrium phase
3.
Differential enhancement of the kidneys is best seen on which phase?
a. corticomedullary phase
b. nephrographic phase
c. excretory phase
d. equilibrium phase
4.
The best phase for detecting a transitional cell carcinoma of the kidney is the
a. corticomedullary phase
b. nephrographic phase
c. excretory phase
d. non contrast phase
5.
Perfusion changes in the kidney can be due to
a. arterial disease
b. venous disease
c. ureteral obstruction
d. all of the above
6.
Renal cell carcinomas are usually
a. hypervascular
b. normal vascularity
c. hypovascular
d. none of the above
MDCT 2008 Question Packet 7 of 24
Multidetector CT for the Technologist DVD Series 2008
QUESTIONS
Answer the following questions and complete the answer sheet provided.
7.
Which lesions are not usually seen best in the corticomedullary phase?
a. renal laceration
b. renal carcinoma
c. AVM malformation
d. Transitional cell carcinoma
8.
Partial nephrectomy requires meeting all of the following criterion except for
a. mass is exophytic
b. mass is less than 5.0 in size
c. mass does not involve the renal pelvis
d. no vascular invasion
9.
The best phase to detect renal cell carcinoma is the
a. corticomedullary phase
b. nephrographic phase
c. excretory phase
d. non contrast phase
10.
Excretory phase imaging is usually at
a. 60 sec post injection
b. 90 sec post injection
c. 120 sec post injection
d. 240 sec post injection
11.
Optimal evaluation of the kidney may require
a. axial images
b. MPR images
c. 3D volume or MIP rendering
d. all of the above
12.
Diagnosis of a renal vascular malformation like an AVM is seen best in which phase
a. corticomedullary phase
b. nephrographic phase
c. excretory phase
d. non contrast phase
13.
Arterial phase imaging is ideal for detecting all of the following except
a. renal cell carcinoma
b. transitional cell carcinoma
c. renal AVM
d. renal infarct
MDCT 2008 Question Packet 8 of 24
80018011
Multidetector CT for the Technologist DVD Series 2008
QUESTIONS
Answer the following questions and complete the answer sheet provided.
Volume 2
MDCT of the Kidney: State of the Art Part 2
Elliot K. Fishman, MD, FACR
1.
The best phase for detecting renal calculi is
a. corticomedullary phase
b. nephrographic phase
c. excretory phase
d. non contrast phase
2.
Which technique(s) can be used for timing contrast delivery and data acquisition?
a. bolus tracking
b. test bolus
c. preset timing
d. all of the above
3.
The ideal contrast injection rate for renal CT is
a. 1 cc/sec
b. 2 cc/sec
c. 4 cc/sec
d. 6 cc/sec
4.
CT urography focuses on which of the flowing phases?
a. corticomedullary phase
b. nephrographic phase
c. excretory phase
d. non contrast phase
5.
What percent of patients have multiple renal arteries?
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40%
6.
Prehilar branching of the renal artery means a branch arises off the renal artery
a. within 1 cm from its origin
b. within 2 cm from its origin
c. within 3 cm from its origin
d. within 4 cm from its origin
7.
How accurate is MDCT angiography for detecting the number and location of renal arteries?
a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 90%
d. over 95%
8.
CT angiography can be successfully use for
a. evaluation of renal artery stenosis
b. evaluation of patency of renal artery stents
c. evaluation of suspected renal artery aneurysm
d. all of the above
MDCT 2008 Question Packet 9 of 24
80018011
Multidetector CT for the Technologist DVD Series 2008
QUESTIONS
Answer the following questions and complete the answer sheet provided.
9.
For renal artery stents, the best technique for determining in-stent stenosis is
a. volume rendering technique
b. MIP
c. curved planar reconstruction
d. minimum intensity projection technique
10.
Regarding fibromuscular dysplasia (FMD), which statement is not true?
a. string of beads appearance is classic
b. occlusion of the renal artery is common
c. smooth long stenosis occur
d. focal concentric stenosis occur
11.
Regarding renal artery aneurysms, which statement is not true?
a. more common in men
b. may be secondary to trauma or vasculitis
c. 2nd or 3rd most common visceral artery aneurysm
d. seen in up to 1% of angiograms
12.
Regarding the renal veins, which statement is not true?
a. circumaortic renal veins occur in 17% of patients
b. retroaortic renal vein is more common than a circumaortic vein
c. the left renal vein is longer than the right (7.5 cm)
d. duplicate renal veins are more common on the right side
13.
Renal vein thrombosis may be due to
a. sepsis
b. dehydation
c. nephrotic syndrome
d. all of the above
14.
Prominent gonadal veins most commonly represent
a. pelvic thromboplebitis
b. normal variant
c. tumor occlusion of the renal vein
d. acute pyelonephritis
MDCT 2008 Question Packet 10 of 24
80018011
Multidetector CT for the Technologist DVD Series 2008
QUESTIONS
Answer the following questions and complete the answer sheet provided.
80018011
Volume 2
MDCT of the Airways
Karen M. Horton, MD
1. IV contrast is essential when performing virtual bronchoscopy for which of the following indications?
a. Stent patency
b. Foreign body aspiration
c. Airway stenosis
d. Suspected vascular rings
2. Which of the following statements about Virtual bronchoscopy is true?
a. 5mm slice thickness is ideal
b. Patients are always scanned during expiration
c. It is possible to perform adequate scans with low radiation dose (25-50mAs)
d. Patients must be scanned in both prone and supine positions.
3. What is the optimal threshold setting for visualization of the central bronchial tree?
a. -100 to -200
b. -400 to -600
c. 100 to 200
d. 400 to 600
4. What is the normal diameter of the trachea in adults?
a. 0.5-1cm
b. 2-2.5cm
c. 4-5cm
d. 5-7cm
5. Which of the following is not a secondary lobular branch of the right mainstem bronchus?
a. Right upper lobe bronchus
b. Right middle lobe bronchus
c. Right lower lobe bronchus
d. Lingular bronchus
6. Which of the following statements about a congenital tracheal diverticulum is false?
a. Usually arise 4-5 cm below the true vocal cords
b. Is noted at autopsy in 1% of people
c. Can be single or multiple
d. Is almost always on the left
7. Which of the following is a limitation of virtual bronchoscopy.
a. Requires sedation
b. Requires long breath hold
c. Retained mucous or blood can cause false positives
d. Requires a high mAs
8. Which of the following is difficult to detect with Virtual bronchoscopy?
a. Tracheal stenosis
b. Bronchial obstruction
c. Stent patency
d. Flat mucosal lesions
MDCT 2008 Question Packet 11 of 24
Multidetector CT for the Technologist DVD Series 2008
QUESTIONS
Answer the following questions and complete the answer sheet provided.
9. Which of the following statement about foreign body aspiration is true?
a. Delayed diagnosis may lead to wheezing, infection or airway obstruction.
b. IV contrast is essential for this clinical indication
c. CT can only detect aspirated metallic foreign bodies
d. Foreign body aspiration is a rare cause of respiratory difficulties in young children
10. Which of the follow statements about tracheoesophageal fistula is false?
a. Can be associated with esophageal atresia
b. Can occur after surgery
c. Can occur as a complication of stent placement
d. Is a normal finding in 5% of the population
MDCT 2008 Question Packet 12 of 24
80018011
Multidetector CT for the Technologist DVD Series 2008
QUESTIONS
Answer the following questions and complete the answer sheet provided.
Volume 3
MDCT/CTA Evaluation of Pancreatic Tumors
Elliot K. Fishman, MD, FACR
1.
Pancreatic cancer leads to 28,000 deaths per year in the USA. This makes it the
a. most common cause of cancer related deaths
b. 2nd common cause of cancer related deaths
c. 3rd common cause of cancer related deaths
d. 4th common cause of cancer related deaths
2.
The current 5 yr survival for pancreatic adenocarcinoma is
a. under 5%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 50%
3.
The one finding that will make a patient unresectable is
a. tumor abuts SMA
b. involvement of the splenic vein
c. liver metastases
d. peripancreatic nodes
4.
The typical surgery for resection of a carcinoma of the pancreas is
a. Whipples procedure
b. Lyle procedure
c. Smith procedure
d. Michigan protocol
5.
Pancreatic CT requires use of the following except
a. neutral oral contrast agents
b. positive oral contrast agents
c. IV contrast agents
d. Rapid bolus of IV contrast
6.
A 1cm hypervascular pancreatic mass is most likely a
a. non functioning islet cell tumor
b. insulinoma
c. adenocarcinoma
d. IPMN
7.
Venous phase imaging is ideal except for which of the following situations
a. detect islet cell tumor
b. detection of metastases from adenocarcinoma
c. tumor detection
d. vascular mapping
MDCT 2008 Question Packet 13 of 24
80018011
Multidetector CT for the Technologist DVD Series 2008
QUESTIONS
Answer the following questions and complete the answer sheet provided.
8.
A mass in the region of the pancreatic head may be all of the following except for
a. adenocarcinoma
b. lymphoma
c. metastases
d. lymphoid hyperplasia
9.
The classic clinical presentation of an insulinoma is
a. weight loss
b. hypoglycemia
c. back pain
d. diarrhea
10.
Metastases to the pancreas arise from all of the following except for
a. breast cancer
b. melanoma
c. renal cell carcinoma
d. osteosarcoma
11.
Metastatic renal cell carcinoma to pancreas usually occurs
a. 1 yr s/p detection of the renal cell carcinoma
b. 5 yrs s/p detection of the renal cell carcinoma
c. 10 yrs s/p detection of the renal cell carcinoma
d. 20 years s/p detection of the renal cell carcinoma
12.
Which of the following tumors is usually largest in size?
a. non functioning islet cell tumor
b. metastatic renal cell carcinoma
c. insulinoma
d. adenocarcinoma
13.
Which pancreatic mass is cystic and has central calcifications?
a. islet cell tumor
b. IPMN
c. Adenocarcinoma
d. Angiomyolipoma
MDCT 2008 Question Packet 14 of 24
80018011
Multidetector CT for the Technologist DVD Series 2008
QUESTIONS
Answer the following questions and complete the answer sheet provided.
Volume 3
MDCT/CTA Evaluation of Liver Masses
Elliot K. Fishman, MD, FACR
1.
The most common liver lesion is
a. simple cyst
b. hemangioma
c. FNH
d. Metastases
2.
The single best phase to detect hepatoma is
a. arterial phase
b. venous phase
c. delayed phase
d. noncontrast phase
3.
The best phase to detect liver metastases from colon cancer is
a. arterial phase
b. venous phase
c. delayed phase
d. noncontrast phase
4.
Which lesion will never become isodense over time?
a. hepatoma
b. hemangioma
c. metastatic islet cell
d. simple cyst
5.
Which statement regarding focal nodular hyperplasia is false?
a. The lesion may have a central scar.
b. The lesion can become isodense with time.
c. A central feeding vessel may be seen on 3D.
d. It is a pre-malignant lesion.
6.
Which statement regarding focal nodular hyperplasia is false?
a. It is more common in men.
b. Hypervascular on arterial phase images.
c. May be seen in association with hemangioma.
d. Ranges in size from 1-10 cm.
MDCT 2008 Question Packet 15 of 24
80018011
Multidetector CT for the Technologist DVD Series 2008
QUESTIONS
Answer the following questions and complete the answer sheet provided.
7.
Which statement regarding hepatic adenoma is false?
a. It may spontaneously bleed.
b. It is usually hypervascular on arterial phase imaging.
c. It may develop into a hepatoma.
d. It is always benign.
8.
Which statement regarding hepatic adenoma is false?
a. are common in patients with steroid use
b. best seen on venous phase images
c. may spontaneously bleed
d. is a pre-malignant lesion
9.
Hepatomas arise more commonly in patients with
a. cirrhosis
b. fatty liver
c. hemangiomas
d. liver cysts
10.
Hepatic tumors that contain fat include all of the following except for
a. hepatoma
b. angiomyolipomas
c. hemangiomas
d. hepatic adenoma
11.
The most common malignant hepatic tumor is
a. hepatoma
b. cholangiocarcinoma
c. lymphoma
d. metastases
12.
Vascular liver metastases include all of the following except for
a. carcinoid tumor
b. renal cell carcinoma
c. metastatic colon cancer
d. thyroid cancer
MDCT 2008 Question Packet 16 of 24
80018011
Multidetector CT for the Technologist DVD Series 2008
QUESTIONS
Answer the following questions and complete the answer sheet provided.
80018011
Volume 3
MDCT Evaluation of the Esophagus and Stomach
Karen M. Horton, MD
1. Esophageal cancer represents what percentage of GI tract malignancies?
a. 1%
b. 6%
c. 10%
d. 15%
2. Which of the following is not a risk factor for squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus
a. Alcohol
b. Tobacco
c. Previous head and neck cancer
d. Barrett’s Esophagus
3. Barrett’s Esophagus is thought to be a result of which of the following
a. Long standing gastroesophageal reflux
b. Tobacco use
c. Caustic ingestion
d. Radiation
4. Which of the following CT findings would indicate a stage II esophageal cancer
a. Focal wall thickening 3-5mm
b. Focal wall thickening > 5mm
c. Local mediastinal invasion
d. Distant metastasis.
5. CT findings of esophagitis include all of the following except
a. Wall thickening
b. Ulceration
c. Wall calcification
d. Stricture
6. What is a normal gastric wall thickness, when the stomach is well distended?
a. < 3mm
b. 5-7mm
c. 8-10mm
d. > 10mm
7. Which of the following studies is usually the most accurate for determining the depth of gastric
tumor invasion through the gastric wall?
a. CT
b. MR
c. Upper GI series
d. Endoscopic Ultrasound (EUS)
8. Which of the following agents is needed for gastric distension when performing virtual gastroscopy?
a. Water
b. High density contrast
c. Air
d. Fat density oral contrast
MDCT 2008 Question Packet 17 of 24
Multidetector CT for the Technologist DVD Series 2008
QUESTIONS
Answer the following questions and complete the answer sheet provided.
9. Which of the following is a common site of hematogenous metastases in patients with
adenocarcinoma of the stomach?
a. Liver
b. Prostate
c. Skin
d. Pancreas
MDCT 2008 Question Packet 18 of 24
80018011
Multidetector CT for the Technologist DVD Series 2008
QUESTIONS
Answer the following questions and complete the answer sheet provided.
80018011
Volume 4
MDCT of the Colon
Karen M. Horton, MD
1. The appendix arises from which segment of the colon?
a. Cecum
b. Transverse Colon
c. Descending Colon
d. Sigmoid Colon
2. What if the normal diameter of the Transverse colon on CT?
a. > 10 cm
b. 8-10 cm
c. 6-8 cm
d. < 6cm
3. Approximately how many new cases of colon cancer are diagnosed in the US each year?
a. 15,000
b. 25,000
c. 60,000
d. 150,000
4. Which of the following describes a Dukes A tumor?
a. Tumor involving lymph nodes
b. Distant metastases
c. Tumor extend into the serosa
d. Tumor is limited to the bowel wall
5. Diverticulosis is present in what percentage of the population by age 85?
a. 80%
b. 60%
c. 40%
d. 20%
6. A colovesical fistula is a fistula between the colon and what other organ?
a. Skin
b. Small bowel
c. Bladder
d. Prostate
7. Which of the following are the most common segments of the GI tract to be involved with Crohn’s
Disease?
a. Rectum and sigmoid colon
b. Stomach and jejunum
c. Terminal ileum and right colon
d. Transverse colon and descending colon
8. Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by toxins produced by which of the following organisisms?
a. E.coli
b. Clostridium Difficile
c. Stah Aureus
d. Salmonella
MDCT 2008 Question Packet 19 of 24
Multidetector CT for the Technologist DVD Series 2008
QUESTIONS
Answer the following questions and complete the answer sheet provided.
9. What are the overall mortality rates for pseudomembranous colitis?
a. 10-30%
b. 5.5-7.5%
c. 30-50%
d. 1.1 – 3.5%
10. Which of the following are typically used as treatment for pseudomembranous colitis?
a. Penicillin
b. Metronidazole or vancomycin
c. Bactrim
d. Erythromycon
MDCT 2008 Question Packet 20 of 24
80018011
Multidetector CT for the Technologist DVD Series 2008
QUESTIONS
Answer the following questions and complete the answer sheet provided.
Volume 4
Virtual Colonoscopy: Why and How We Do It
Karen M. Horton, MD
1. Colon cancer results in approximately how many deaths per year in the US?
a. 20,000
b. 56,000
c. 150,0000
d. 250,0000
2. Which of the following facts about colon cancer is not true?
a. Lifetime risk to develop colon cancer is 6%
b. Lifetime risk of dying from colon cancer is 2.5%
c. Males and female are affected equally
d. 75% of cases of colon cancer occur in high risk patients
3. Most colon cancers arise from which of the following
a. Adenomatous polyps
b. Ulcers
c. Lipomas
d. Hyperplastic polyps
4. What is the chance that a polyp 5-9mm will be cancerous?
a. 0%
b. 1%
c. 10%
d. 40%
5. Average risk people should begin colon cancer screening at what age?
a. 30
b. 40
c. 50
d. 60
6. High risk people should begin colon cancer screening at what age?
a. 30
b. 40
c. 50
d. 60
7. Which of the following statement about virtual colonoscopy is true?
a. Virtual colonoscopy does not require a bowel prep.
b. To perform virtual colonoscopy, the colon is distended with water
c. There is no risk of perforation with Virtual colonoscopy
d. Virtual colonoscopy does not require the patient to be sedated
8. Which of the following statement about stool tagging is true?
a. Both solid and liquid stool tagging is helpful
b. Stool tagging agents are given to the patients while they are on the CT scanner
c. Stool tagging agents consist of radioactive material
d. Stool tagging agents appear black on a CT scan
MDCT 2008 Question Packet 21 of 24
80018011
Multidetector CT for the Technologist DVD Series 2008
QUESTIONS
Answer the following questions and complete the answer sheet provided.
80018011
9. Which of the following is most useful to distend the colon for virtual colonoscopy?
a. Hypaque
b. Water
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Barium
10. To perform a virtual colonsocopy the patient is usually scanned in which of the following positions?
a. RAO and LPO
b. LPO and right lateral
c. Prone and supine
d. RPO and left lateral
MDCT 2008 Question Packet 22 of 24
Multidetector CT for the Technologist DVD Series 2008
QUESTIONS
Answer the following questions and complete the answer sheet provided.
80018011
Volume 4
Extra Cardiac Findings on Heartscans and Guidelines for CT Scanning
Karen M. Horton, MD
1. How much of the thorax is visible when a cardiac CT is performed using a small field of view (i.e. 26
cm2)?
a. 10%
b. 35.5%
c. 70.3%
d. 95%
2. How much of the thorax is visible when a cardiac CT is performed using a maximum field of view?
a. 10%
b. 35.5%
c. 70.3%
d. 95%
3. In the study by Haller et al, what percentage of patients had incidental pulmonary emboli detected
on their cardiac CTA exams?
a. 0%
b. 0.6%
c. 1.5%
d. 3.2%
4. In the study by Onuma of non cardiac findings in cardiac imaging, what percentage of patients and
an incidental neoplasm detectd on their cardiac CT?
a. 0%
b. 0.2%
c. 0.8%
d. 2.1%
5. Which of the following statements about cardiac CT scans in true?
a. Cardiac CT scans only image the heart and not adjacent structures.
b. The reviewing physician is only responsible to review the heart and coronary arteries
c. Cardiac CT scans almost never detect important pathology in the extracardiac structures
d. In order to detect important pathology, cardiac CT scans should be reconstructed at both a small and large
field of view
6. What percentage of smokers over the age of 50 have pulmonary nodules?
a. 23%
b. 44%
c. 51%
d. 73%
7. The Fleischner society published a management approach for which of the following?
a. Coronary artery calcium scores
b. Atherosclerotic disease in patients under 40
c. Coronary artery aneurysms
d. Incidentally detected pulmonary nodules on CT
MDCT 2008 Question Packet 23 of 24
Multidetector CT for the Technologist DVD Series 2008
QUESTIONS
Answer the following questions and complete the answer sheet provided.
80018011
8. Most CT screening centers which accepts self referred patients are located in which part of the USA?
a. West
b. South
c. Midwest
d. Northeast
9.
Which of the following statement about lung nodules is true?
a. Lung nodules are rare, even in smokers
b. The ability to detect lung nodules improves with each new generation scanner
c. All lung nodules regardless of size need to be followed every 3 months for 2 years
d. Lung nodule follow-up is identical for both high risk and low risk patients
MDCT 2008 Question Packet 24 of 24