CHEMISTRY
1.
It is the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom.
a.
molecular number
c. mass number
b.
proton number
d. atomic number
2.
It is the number of protons plus the number of neutrons:
a.
atomic number
c. molecular number
b.
mass number
d. proton number
3.
The _____________ is calculated by adding together all the atomic numbers:
a.
molecular weight
c. formula weight
b.
compound weight
d. none of these
4.
An element may be defined as a substance, all the atoms of which have the same:
a.
number of neutrons
c. atomic weight
b.
radioactivity
d. atomic number
5.
The different types of atoms in a given element are called:
a.
molecules
c. isotopes
b.
neutrons
d. compounds
6.
All isotopes of the same element have:
a.
Equal no. of protons and neutrons
b.
Equal no. of protons
c.
The same atomic mass
d.
Equal no. of neutrons
7.
What is a substance that cannot be decomposed into simpler substances during ordinary
chemical reactions?
a.
Atom
c. Molecule
b.
Element
d. Compound
8.
Salt, water, rubber, iron rust are called ____________.
a.
mix atom
c. element
b.
chemical compound
d. molecule
9.
The particle inside the nucleus is called
a.
Nucleons
c. Nucleic
b.
Nuclei
d. Nuclide
10.
If the volume of a confined gas is constant, the pressure is directly proportional to the
absolute temperature. This is known as
a.
Kelvin’s law
c. Boyle’s law
b.
Charles’ law
d. Joule’s law
11.
If the temperature of a confined gas is constant, the product of the pressure and volume is
constant. This is known as
a.
Kelvin’s law
c. Boyle’s law
b.
Charles’ law
d. Joule’s law
12.
Which of the following is the Ideal Gas Law?
a.
V/T =k
c. PV = nRT
b.
P1/T1 = P2/T2
d. V = K x 1/P
13.
The temperature to which the air must be cooled at a constant pressure to produce
saturation is called:
a.
boiling point
c. critical point
b.
dew point
d. triple point
14.
The changing of solid directly to vapor without passing through the liquid state is called:
a.
evaporation
c. vaporization
b.
sublimation
d. condensation
15.
Sublimation refers to:
a.
the vaporization of solid without first becoming a liquid
b.
the melting of a solid
c.
the vaporization of a liquid
d.
maybe in any or all of the above into a liquid
16.
At the same pressure and temperature, equal volumes of all gases contain equal number
of molecules. This is known as:
a.
Faraday’s law
c. Boyle’s law
b.
Lenz’ law
d. Avogadro’s law
17.
The number of molecules in a mole of any substance is constant, this number is called
a.
Thompson’s constant
c. Otto cycle
b.
Rankine cycle
d. Avogadro’s number
18.
How many moles are there in one atom?
a.
1.66 x 10-23 moles
c. 1.66 x 1023 moles
b.
1.66 x 10-24 moles
d. 1.66 x 1024 moles
19.
The atomic weight of hydrogen is 1 gram per gram-atom. What is the mass of a hydrogen
atom?
a.
1.66 x 10–24 g/atom
c. 6.02 x 10–23 g/atom
b.
1.0 x 10–10 g/atom
d. 1 g/atom
20.
The mole is a basic unit of measurement in chemistry. Which of the following is not equal
to or the same as one mole of the substance indicated?
a.
22.4 liters of Nitrogen (N2) gas at STP
b.
6.02 x 10²³ oxygen (O2) molecules
c.
16g of oxygen (O2) molecules
d.
1g of hydrogen (H) atoms
21.
The critical point for mixture occurs for which of the following cases?
a.
the vapor and the liquid have a single form
b.
the liquid has no absorbed gas
c.
the vapor phase is stable
d.
the liquid is completely vaporized
22.
How is “molality” defined?
a.
the number of moles of solute in 1000 grams of solvent
b.
the number of moles of solute in 1 liter of solution
c.
the number of gram-formula weights of solute per liter
d.
the number of gram-equivalent weights of solute in 1 liter of solution
23.
All gases at the same temperature and pressure under the action of a given value “g” have
the same number of molecules per unit volume from which it follows that specific weight
of a gas is proportional to its molecular weight is known as:
a.
Avogadro’s Law
c. Torrecillis’s principle
b.
Boyle’s Law
d. Archimedes’ principle
24.
Which are the electrostatic forces that exist between ions?
a.
ionic bond
c. chemical bond
b.
covalent bond
d. atomic bond
25.
What are Van der Waals forces?
a.
weak secondary bonds between atoms
b.
primary bonds between atoms
c.
forces between electrons and protons
d.
forces not present in liquid
26.
What are valence electrons?
a.
the outer shell electrons
b.
electrons with positive charge
c.
the electrons with complete quantum shells
d.
the K – quantum shell electrons
27.
Strong bonds between hydrogen atoms is known as:
a.
the ionic bond
c. the metallic bond
b.
ionic and metallic bond
d. the covalent bond
28.
Which of the following is the strongest type of bond:
a.
Van Der Waals
c. covalent
b.
metallic
d. ionic
29.
In molecules of the same composition, variations of atomic arrangements is known as:
a.
polymers
c. isomers
b.
monomers
d. crystal systems
30.
In a crystal structure, what is an interstitial atom?
a.
an extra atom sitting at a non-lattice point
b.
an atom missing at a lattice point
c.
a different element at a lattice point
d.
a line defect
31.
As the amount of slip increases, additional deformation becomes more difficult and it
decreases until the plastic flow finally stops. Slip may begin again only if a larger stress is
applied. What is this phenomenon called?
a.
cooling
c. crowding
b.
strain hardening
d. twinning
32.
What causes the vinyl interiors of automobiles to crack when subjected to prolonged direct
sunlight?
a.
the volatilization of plasticizers
b.
repetitive expansion and contraction of the plastic
c.
oxidation of the plastic by sunlight and oxygen
d.
all of the above
33.
Low density polyethylene undergoes extensive elongation (over 100%) prior to rupture,
while polystyrene undergoes only 1 to 2 percent elongation. What is the main reason for
this difference?
a.
the polyethylene is less dense
b.
the large styrene groups in the polystyrene prevent slippage
c.
more cross linking occurs in the polystyrene
d.
polyethylene is less crystalline
34.
How is the quality, x, of a liquid-vapor mixture defined?
a.
the fraction of the total volume that is saturated vapor
b.
the fraction of the total volume that is saturated liquid
c.
the fraction of the total mass that is saturated vapor
d.
the fraction of the total mass that is saturated liquid
35.
It is defined as a measure of the amount of negative ions in the water.
a.
b.
alkalinity
acidity
c. turbidity
d. solubility
36.
The measure of acids in solutions is called:
a.
alkalinity
c. turbidity
b.
acidity
d. solubility
37.
Which of the following is the standard temperature and pressure (STP)?
a.
0°K and one atmospheric pressure
b.
0°F and zero pressure
c.
32°F and zero pressure
d.
0°C and one atmospheric pressure
38.
Which of the following elements and compounds is unstable in its pure form?
a.
sodium (Na)
c. helium (He)
b.
carbon dioxide (CO2)
d. hydrochloric acid (HCl)
39.
A substance is oxidized when which of the following occurs?
a.
it turns red
c. it becomes more negative
b.
it losses electrons
d. it gives off heat
40.
Boiling point of water occurs when:
a.
its vapor pressure equals the atmospheric pressure
b.
its vapor pressure is ½ the atmospheric pressure
c.
its vapor pressure is twice the atmospheric pressure
d.
none of these
41.
Two major types of chemical bonds are absorbed in chemical bonding: ionic and covalent.
Which of the following has a bond that is the least ionic in character?
a.
NaCl
c. CH4
b.
H2
d. H2O
42.
In order to assign oxidation states in polyatomic molecules, which of the following rules is
followed?
a.
the oxidation of all elements in any allotropic form is zero
b.
the oxidation state of oxygen is always –2
c.
the oxidation state of hydrogen is always +1
d.
all of the above rules are used
43.
Reactions generally proceed faster at higher temperature because of which of the
following?
a.
the molecules collide more frequently
b.
the activation energy is less
c.
the molecules are less energetic
d.
both a and b
44.
It is a process of application of chlorine that results in minimum chloramines residuals?
a.
breakpoint chlorination
b.
distillation
c.
coliform
d.
electrodialysis
45.
Which of the following affects most of the electrical and thermal properties of materials?
a.
the atomic weight expressed in grams per gram-atom
b.
the electrons, particularly the outermost ones
c.
the magnitude of electrical charge of the protons
d.
the weight of the atoms
46.
Which of the following describes diffusion in a crystal structure?
a.
it is not possible
b.
it occurs only in alloys, never in pure crystals
c.
it often uses an exchange or vacancy mechanism
d.
it occurs primarily as a result of mechanical work
47.
Compare the metallic iron atom Fe and the ferric ions Fe 2+ and Fe3+. Which has the
smallest atomic radius? (Assume that all are at the same temperature.)
a.
Fe
c. Fe2+
b.
Fe3+
d. they have the same radii
48.
When Fe++ changes to Fe+++ in a reaction:
a.
it losses a proton
c. it gains a proton
b.
it gains an electron
d. it losses an electron
49.
Which of the following is a line defect in a lattice crystal structure?
a.
tilt boundary
c. screw dislocation
b.
vacancy
d. Schottky imperfection
50.
Cesium (Cs) and sodium (Na) both have the same valence (+1), yet with chlorine (Cl),
cesium has a coordination of 8 in CsCl, while sodium has a coordination number of only 6
in NaCl. What is the main reason for this difference?
a.
the atomic weight of Cs is larger than the weight of Na
b.
Cs forms covalent bonds in CsCl
c.
Cs contains more electrons than Na
d.
Cs is too large to be coordinated by only 6 chloride ions
51.
Which of the following materials is not a visco-elastic material?
a.
plastic
c. metal
b.
rubber
d. glass
52.
Polymers that favor crystallization are least likely to have which of the following:
a.
an atactic configuration of side groups
b.
small side groups
c.
only one repeating unit
d.
small chain length
53.
Which crystal structure possesses the highest number of close-packed planes and closepacked directions?
a.
simple cubic
c. close-packed hexagonal
b.
body-centered cubic
d. face-centered cubic
54.
What is transformed in a eutectoid reaction?
a.
one solid is transformed into two solids of different composition
b.
a solid becomes a liquid at the eutectic temperature
c.
a liquid becomes a solid at the solidus temperature
d.
a solid becomes a liquid at the liquidus temperature
55.
On an alloy phase diagram, what is the solidus temperature?
a.
the point at which all solids completely reach the liquid stage
b.
the temperature of the liquid phase at which the first solid forms for a given
overall composition
c.
the temperature of the solid phase at which the first liquid forms for a
given overall composition
d.
the temperature at which the solid is at equilibrium
56.
What are the most common slip planes for face-centered cubic and body-centered cubic
structures, respectively?
a.
face-centered: (111), body-centered: (110)
b.
face-centered: (100), body-centered: (110)
c.
face-centered: (110), body-centered: (111)
d.
face-centered: (111), body-centered: (100)
57.
Which of the following statements is false?
a.
ceramics are inorganic, nonmetallic solids that are processed or used at high
temperatures.
b.
metals are chemical elements that form substances that are opaque, lustrous and
good conductors of heat and electricity.
c.
most metals are strong, ductile and malleable. In general, they are
heavier than most other substances.
d.
polymers are formed from many atoms with low molecular weight, bonded
together by primary valence bonds.
58.
Comparing the face-centered cubic lattice with the hexagonal close-packed lattice, which
of the following features describes the hexagonal close-packed structure only?
a.
it has the closest packed lattice structure
b.
its coordination number is 12
c.
its deformation properties are more directional
d.
its stacking order is ABCABC
59.
Which of the following accurately describes differences between crystalline polymers and
crystals?
I. Crystalline polymers are made of
folded chains of
atoms unlike simple crystals.
II.
Crystal size can be increased by raising the
crystallization temperature only in polymers.
III.
White
simple crystal may be totally crystallized,
a polymer can reach only partial crystallization.
a.
I only
c. III only
b.
II only
d. I and III
60.
What is the atomic packaging factor for simple cubic crystal?
a.
0.48
c. 0.52
b.
1.00
d. 1.92
61.
How many atoms are in the unit cell of a body-centered cubic structure?
a.
1
c. 3
b.
2
d. 4
62.
How many atoms are there per units cell for a face-centered cubic structure?
a.
1
c. 3
b.
2
d. 4
63.
What is the first coordination number of a body-cubic structure?
a.
4
c. 6
b.
8
d. 10
64.
What is the first coordination number if a face-centered cubic structure?
a.
2
c. 4
b.
8
d. 12
65.
Which of the following statement is false?
a.
b.
c.
d.
both copper and aluminum have a face-centered cubic crystal structure.
both magnesium and zinc have a hexagonal close-packed crystal structure.
all of the alkali metals have a body-centered cubic crystal structure.
both lead and cadmium have a hexagonal close-packed crystal structure.
66.
How are the close-packed planes in a face-centered cubic metal designated?
a.
(100)
c. (200)
b.
(110)
d. (111)
67.
Which is Fick’s first law for one-dimensional, steady diffusion? C, is the volume
concentration of atoms; x, is the distance along diffusion occurs; D, is the diffusion
coefficient; and J is the flux or current density.
a.
J = -D ∂C/∂x
c. J = C ∂D/∂x
b.
J = -∂C/D∂x
d. J = 2D ∂C/D∂x
68.
Which of the following are true about Fick’s first law of diffusion?
I. It is only applicable to liquids, not solids.
II. The law states that the flux moves from high to low concentration.
III. J, the flux may be in units
of cm³/cm²s.
a.
I only
c. III only
b.
II only
d. II and III
69.
A substance that losses electron during redox act is:
a.
oxidizing agent
c. reducing agent
b.
catalyst
d. solvent
70.
A substance which changes the speed of a chemical action without itself being changed is
called:
a.
catalyst
c. reactant
b.
additive
d. product
71.
It is also called the “laughing gas”.
a.
Methane
c. Cyanic acid
b.
Nitrous oxide
d. Ethane
72.
Which of the following is not an important criterion for forming a complete binary solid
solution?
a.
the difference in radii should be less than 15%.
b.
the constituent elements must have the same crystal structure.
c.
the atoms should be close to one another in the periodic table.
d.
the difference in atomic number should be small.
73.
How can an ordered solid solution be distinguished from a compound?
a.
In an ordered solid solution, the solute atoms occupy interstitial position within the
lattice.
b.
The solute atoms in an ordered solid solution substitute for atoms in the parent
lattice.
c.
The atoms in an ordered solid solution form layers in the lattice structure.
d.
When heated, an ordered solid solution becomes disordered before
melting.
74.
It is a mixture of two or more non-volatile liquids in which separation takes place very
slowly.
a.
suspension
c. solutions
b.
colloids
d. emulsion
75.
This type of solution contains enough solute a solvent can hold at a given temperature and
pressure.
a.
unsaturated solution
b.
supersaturated solution
c.
saturated solution
d.
dilute solution
76.
It is the property of a solution that depends on the number on solute particles present not
on the nature of the particles.
a.
boiling point
c. vapor pressure
b.
colligative
d. osmotic pressure
77.
It is the transfer of solvent molecules through a semi-permeable membrane to equalize
the solute concentration on both sides of the membrane.
a.
osmotic pressure
c. evacuation
b.
osmosis
d. transformation
78.
Carrier mobility depends on:
a.
resistivity
b.
conductivity
c.
recombination rate
d.
temperature and the regularity of the crystal structure
79.
The movement of charges from an area of high carrier concentration to an area of low
carrier concentration is called:
a.
gradient
c. recombination
b.
diffusion
d. lifetime
80.
The process of one substance mixing with another because of molecular motion.
a.
saturation
c. adhesion
b.
absorption
d. diffusion
81.
The freezing point of water is 0°C. Its melting point is:
a.
slightly less than 0°C
c. 0°C
b.
slightly more than 0°C
d. 32°C
82.
The materials with the highest heat conductivities are the:
a.
gases
c. liquids
b.
woods
d. metals
83.
The quantum number n of the lowest energy state of a hydrogen atom is:
a.
0
b.
depends on the orbit size
c.
1
d.
depends on the electron speed
84.
The number of quantum number needed to determine the size and shape of the
probability cloud of an atomic electron is:
a.
1
c. 3
b.
2
d. 4
85.
Each probability cloud in an atom can be occupied by:
a.
one electron
b.
two electrons with spins in the same direction
c.
two electrons with spins in opposite direction
d.
any number of electrons
86.
The chemical process which occurs when the water is added to cement is:
a.
hydration
c. oxidation
b.
Brownian movement
d. plastic flow
87.
Superheated vapor behaves
a.
just as gas
b.
just as ordinary vapor
c.
just as steam
d.
approximately as a gas
88.
The molecular volume of any perfect gas at 600 x 10³ N/m² and 27°C will be
a.
41.7 m³/kg mol
c. 85.3 m³/kg mol
b.
4.17 m³/kg mol
d. 2.085 m³/kg mol
89.
Antifreeze chemicals are
a.
same as refrigerants
b.
those that are added to refrigerants for better performance
c.
those that lower down the freezing point of liquids
d.
those that do not freeze at all
90.
Clog point of an oil refers to
a.
the point of maximum contamination of oil
b.
the level of impurities beyond which oil ceases to flow
c.
the temperature at which oil solidifies
d.
the temperature at which paraffin and waxes in oil start precipitating
91.
Which of the following gas can be used to measure the lowest temperature?
a.
nitrogen
c. oxygen
b.
helium
d. hydrogen
92.
In actual gases, molecular collisions are
a.
plastic
b.
elastic
c. inelastic
d. inplastic
The opposite of alkali:
a.
acid
b.
fluid
c. none of these
d. substance
93.
94.
A kilo mole of methane is 16 kg. compute the density of methane at 20oC and 6 – atm
pressure:
a.
2.66 kg/m3
c. 6.02 kg/m3
b.
3.33 kg/m3
d. 4.80 kg/m3
95.
A tank having a capacity of 2 cu. ft. is filled with oxygen which has a gauge pressure of 60
psi when the temp. is 47oC. At a later time it is found that because of the leak the
pressure has dropped to 50 psi and the pressure has decreased to 27 oC. What is the
amount of oxygen that has leak out:
a.
None of these
c. 0.0915
b.
0.0583
d. 0.153
96.
In two molecules of Ba(OH)2 there are _______________ oxygen atoms:
a.
one
c. four
b.
two
d. seven
97.
In a compound MnCl2 there are _______________ different types of atoms:
a.
five
c. three
b.
two
d. four
98.
In a compound Ba3(PO4)2 there are a total of _____________ atoms:
a.
Five
c. Thirteen
b.
Twelve
d. Ten
99.
Removal of electrons from the neutral atoms increases the positive charge resulting in a
positively ion called _____________:
a.
proton
c. anion
b.
cation
d. none of these
100.
To determine the molecular formula we must know ______________:
a.
weight percent composition only
b.
molecular weight only
c.
both molecular weight and weight percent composition
d.
weight percent composition and atomic weight
101.
One isotope if the element Uranium has 143 neutrons. Uranium has an atomic number of
92. The mass number of this isotope is _________:
a.
143
c. 235
b.
82
d. 51
102.
Covalent compounds composed of two elements are called __________:
a.
diatomic
c. binary
b.
polyatomic
d. bielementary
103.
In ionic compounds, anions and cations are mixed so that the number of electrons lost in
cation formation is ________ to the number of electrons gained in anion formation:
a.
one half
c. one third
b.
equal
d. greater
104.
Which is the most toxic?
a.
O2
b.
N2
c. CO2
d. CO
105.
A 2-liter sample of argon gas at STP is expanded into a 5-liter flask, with the temperature
held constant. What will be the new pressure of the gas?
a.
0.4 atm
c. 1.0 atm
b.
2.4 atm
d. 0.2 atm
106.
Nitrogen oxides from automobiles are chiefly associated with a pollution problem called
_____________:
a.
acid rain
c. smog
b.
green house effect
d. annoying
107.
Why is water a liquid, even though it has a low molecular weight?
a.
it is a hydride
b.
due to dipole forces
c.
oxygen is a group of elements
d.
due to hydrogen bonding
108.
Which of the following would you expect to have a highest melting point?
a.
mercury
c. potassium
b.
sodium chloride
d. toe
109.
An increase in vapor pressure is accompanied by a decrease in _________:
a.
volatility
c. temperature
b.
boiling point
d. partial pressure
110.
Neoprene belongs to which class?
a.
plastic
b.
elastic
c. elastic-plastic
d. rubber-like plastic
111.
What is the number of semi-conductors in periodic table?
a.
3
c. 5
b.
7
d. 13
112.
The process of zinc coating used extensively for protecting steel from atmospheric
deterioration is called:
a.
anodizoing
c. galvanizing
b.
parkerising
d. colourizing
113.
The properties or effects produced, not essentially in the same order are:
a.
grain refinement
c. temper brittleness
b.
hardenablity
d. rust resistance
When the following pairs correctly represents the alloying elements and properties or
effect produced by it?
a.
a – (ii)
c. c – (iii)
b.
b– (iv)
d. c– (iv)
114.
Which of the following material has density closer to that of gold?
a.
lead
c. chromium
b.
tungsten
d. nichrome
115.
Thermosetting polymers are generally:
a.
injection molded
c. cast molded
b.
extruded
d. none of the above
116.
Which of the ff. method can NOT be used for thermoplastic materials?
a.
extrusion
c. injection molding
b.
blow molding
d. all of the above
117.
Ligancy is:
a.
the number of atoms (or ions) surrounding and touching a central atom
b.
a covalent bond between two atoms
c.
the angle between the two closest directional bonds of an atom
d.
none of the above
118.
The melting point of carbon is about:
a.
800 oC
c. 2150 oC
b.
3500 oC
d. 6600 oC
119.
Gel is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
a polymer having side groups distributed randomly along s vinyl polymer chain
a polymer having secondary chains branching from the molecular chains
particles linked together and containing a fluid is its interstices a solid
framework of colloidal
a polymer in which the repeating unit of each molecule has vinyl group
120.
What is the formula of the compound Carbon Diselinide consisting of Carbon (C) and
Selenium (Se)?
a.
CSe2
c. (CSe)2
b.
CSe
d. C2Se
121.
In preparing a metallographic iron specimen the grain boundaries are made most visible
by which of the following steps?
a.
grinding the sample with silicon carbide abrasive
b.
polishing the sample with powdered diamond dust in oil
c.
etching the sample in 2% solution of nitric acid in alcohol
d.
mounting the sample in an epoxy mold
122.
The ratio of oxygen available to the oxygen required for stabilization of sewerage is called:
a.
relative stability
b.
oxygen-ion concentration
c.
concentration factor
d.
biochemical oxygen
123.
The crystalline structure of metals can be modified by several processes. Plastic
deformation of the crystalline structure resulting in a misalignment of atoms, dislocations
and large stresses, and strains in small regions are characteristics of which process?
a.
cold forming
c. tempering
b.
twinning
d. isostatic pressing
124.
It has the highest melting point of all metals
a.
tungsten
c. silver
b.
copper
d. aluminum
125.
The formula for Dinitrogen Pentoxide is
a.
N2O5
b.
(NO)5
c. NO5
d. none of these
126.
Polymers that favor crystallization are least likely to have which of the ff?
a.
an atactic configuration
b.
small sides group
c.
only in repeating unit
d.
small chains lengths
127.
Coke may be prepared commercially by the destructive distillation of:
a.
anthracite coal
c. peat
b.
bituminous
d. lignite
128.
Reactions generally proceed faster at high temperatures because of which of the ff:
a.
the molecules are less energetic
b.
the molecules collide more frequently
c.
the activation energy is less
d.
the molecules collide more frequently and the activation energy is less
129.
Which of the following statements regarding organic substances is false?
a.
organic substances generally dissolve in high concentration acids
b.
all organic matter contain carbon
c.
organic matter is generally stable at very high temperature
d.
organic matters generally do not dissolve in water
130.
A deuteron is:
a.
a neutron plus two protons
b.
a nucleus containing a neutron and a proton
c.
an electron with positive charge
d.
a helium nucleus
131.
Determine the molecular weight of the potassium hexachloroiridate (lV) K2 lrCl6 atomic
mass: K = 39.1, lr = 192.22, Cl = 35.453
a.
500 g/mole
c. 458.21 g/mole
b.
483.12 g/mole
d. 485.32 g/mole
132.
How much 58.0 % sulfuric acid solution is needed to provide 150 g H2SO4?
a.
295 g
c. 250 g
b.
259 g
d. 249 g
133.
How many kg of Ca3(PO4) must be treated with carbon and sand in an electric furnace to
make kg of phosphorous?
a.
4.95 kg
c. 5.49 kg
b.
5.01 kg
d. 4.5 kg
134.
How many grams of 5% NaCl solution by weight are necessary to yield 3.2 g NaCl?
a.
46 kg
c. 45 kg
b.
64 kg
d. 50 kg
135.
How many grams solute are required to prepare 1 liter of 1 MPb(NO 3)2? Molecular weight
of Pb(NO3)2 = 331.2:
a.
330 g
c. 332.1 g
b.
331.2 g
d. 345 g
136.
The density of 2.03 M solution acetic acid in water is 1.017 g/ml. Calculate the molality of
the solution:
a.
22.7 m
c. 0.27 m
b.
2.27 m
d. 0.0227 m
137.
An aqueous solution boils at 100.5 °C. What is the freezing point of the solution?
a.
–0.182 °C
c. 1.82 °C
b.
–1.82 °C
d. 0.018 °C
138.
A sample gas occupies 2 liters at 760 mmHg. What is its volume at 1.25 atm at the same
temperature?
a.
1.06 liters
c. 0.160 liter
b.
1.60 liters
d. 10.6 liters
139.
The most satisfactory way to separate and identify sugars is to use:
a.
Buret reagent
c. Fractional crystallization
b.
Chromatography
d. Benedict’s solution
140.
In a crystal structure, what is an interstitial atom?
a.
a different element at a lattice point
b.
an extra atom setting at a non-lattice point
c.
an atom is missing at a lattice point
d.
a line defect
141.
Which one of the following is most likely to prove that a substance is inorganic?
a.
the substance is heated together with copper oxide and the resulting
gases are found to have no effect on limestone
b.
the substance evaporates in room temperature and pressure
c.
analysis shows that the substance contains hydrogen
d.
the substance floats in water
142.
By weight, atmospheric pressure is approximately 23.15% oxygen and 76.85% nitrogen.
What is the partial pressure of oxygen in the air at standard temperature and pressure?
a.
3.8 psia
c. 3.4 psia
b.
4.4 psia
d. 3.1 psia
143.
Twenty grams of oxygen gas (02) are compressed at a constant temperature of 30 degree
C to 5% of their original volume. Find the work done on the system.
a.
944 cal
c. 924 cal
b.
1124 cal
d. 1114 cal
144.
Water boils when
a.
its saturated vapor pressure equals the atmospheric pressure
b.
its vapor pressure equals 76 cm of mercury
c.
d.
its temperature reaches 212 centigrade
its vapor pressure is 1 gram per sq. cm.
145.
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a.
Both lead and cadmium have a hexagonal close-packed crystal structure.
b.
Both magnesium and zinc have hexagonal close-packed crystal structure.
c.
Both copper and aluminum have face-centered cubic crystal structure
d.
All of the alkali metals have a body-centered cubic crystal structure.
146.
How many dependents properties are required to completely fix the equilibrium state of a
pure gaseous compound?
a.
4
c. 2
b.
3
d. 1
147.
100 grams of water are mixed with 150 g alcohol (ρ = 790 kg/m3). What is the specific
volume of the resulting mixture, assuming that the two fluids mix completely?
a.
0.63 cm3/g
c. 0.82cm3/g
b.
1.20 cm3/g
d. 0.88 cm3/g
148.
In an ideal gas mixture of constituents i and j, what is the mole fraction x1, equal to?
a.
b.
P
i
P P
i
j
PV
i i
RT
c.
T
i
T T
i
j
d.
Z
i
Z Z
i
j
149.
Which of the following statements is false?
a.
Ceramics are inorganic, non-metallic solids that are processed or used at high
temperatures
b.
Most metals are strong, ductile and malleable. |In general, they are heavier than
most other substances.
c.
Oxides. Carbides and nitrides are considered to be with in the class of
materials known as glasses.
d.
Metals are chemical elements that from substances that are opaque, lustrous and
good conductors of heat and the electricity.
150.
Whish are the oxidizing and reducing agent in the following reaction?
2CCl4 + K2CrO4 
+ 2KCl
a.
Oxidizing agent: oxygen; reducing agent: chloride
b.
Oxidizing agent: chromium; reducing agent: chloride
c.
Oxidizing agent: oxygen; reducing agent: chloride
d.
There are no oxidizing or reducing agents in the reaction
2Cl2CO + CrO2Cl2
151.
When 0.5 g of a liquid is completely evaporated and collected in a 1 liter manometer, the
pressure is 0.25 atm and the temperature is 27 deg C. Assume ideal gas behavior, find the
molecular weight, the gas constant is
R = 0.0821 l-atm/mole K
a.
49.2 g/mole
c. 2.2 g/mole
b.
12.3 g/mole
d. 64.0 g/mole
152.
Which of the following reactions relate to the softening procedure in water purification?
a.
2H2O + O2  2H2O2
b.
Ca(HCO3)2 + Ca(OH)2  2CaCO3 + H2O
c.
d.
528.
CO2 + Ca (OH)2  CaCO3 + H2O
NaOH + HCl  NaCl + H2O
153.
One method of removing moisture from air is to cool the air so that the moisture
condenses or freeze out. To what temperature must air at 100 atm be cooled at constant
pressure in order to obtain in a humidity ratio of 0.0001?
a.
58 degree F
c. 35 degree F
b.
47 degree F
d. 22 degree F
154.
A blue color obtained as a result of the borax bead test indicates the presence of:
a.
cobalt
c. aluminum
b.
magnesium
d. nickel
155.
In a crystal structure, what is an interstitial atom?
a.
A different element at a lattice joint
b.
An extra atom setting at a non-lattice joint
c.
An atom missing at a lattice joint
d.
A line defect
156.
The most satisfactory way to separate and identify sugar is to use
a.
Biuret reagent
c. Chromatography
b.
Frantional crystallization
d. Benedict’s solution
157.
Which one of the following is most likely to prove that a substance is inorganic?
a.
The substance evaporates in room temperature and pressure
b.
The substance is heated together with copper oxide and the resulting
gases are found to have no effect on limestone
c.
Analysis shows that the substance contains hydrogen
d.
The substance floats in water
158.
Which of the following statements is TRUE for an ideal gas, but not for a real gas?
a.
PV = nRT
b.
An increase in temperature causes increases in the kinetic energy of the gas
c.
The total volume of molecules in a gas is nearly the same as the volume of
the gas as a whole
d.
No attractive forces exist between the molecules of a gas
159.
Which of the following statements is true for real gas, but not for an ideal gas?
a.
pV – nRT
b.
an increase in temperature causes an increase in the kinetic energy of the gas
c.
the total volume of molecules in a gas is nearly the same as the volume of
the gas as a whole
d.
no attractive forces exist between the molecules of a gas
160.
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a.
In general, as reaction products are formed, they react with each other and reform
reactants.
b.
At equilibrium, the net reaction rate is zero
c.
The differential rate low is the mathematical expression that shows how
the rate of a reaction depends on volume
d.
The net at which a reaction proceeds from the left to right is equal to the forward
rate minus the reverse rate
161.
What is the first coordination number of BODY-CENTERED cubic structure?
a.
10
c. 6
b.
4
d. 8
162.
For an ideal gas, what is the specific molar entropy change during an isothermal process in
which the pressure change from 200 kPa to 150 kPa called?
a.
b.
2.39 J/mole-K
2.78 J/mole-K
c. 2.00 J/mole-K
d. 3.12 J/mole-K
163.
The ores from which the zinc is obtained is:
a.
Sphalerite
c. Pyrite
b.
Magnetite
d. Dolomite
164.
Tin is produced from
a.
Cassiterite
b.
Bauxite
c. Sphalerite
d. Magnetite
165.
Determine the volume occupied by 4 grams of oxygen at STP. Molecular weight of oxygen
is 32. Standard molar volume of any gas 22.4 liters/mol.
a.
4.8 liters
c. 2.8 liters
b.
3.6 liters
d. 1.4 liters
166.
Determine the formula weight of potassium hexachloroiridate (IV), K2IrCl6. Atomic
weights: K = 39.098; Ir = 1922.22; Cl = 35.453
a.
86.089
c. 387.344
b.
285.799
d. 483.14
167.
A seated tank contains oxygen at 27 deg C at a pressure of 2 atm. If the temperature
increases to 100 deg C. What will be the pressure inside the tank?
a.
4.92 atm
c. 2.49 atm
b.
4.29 atm
d. 9.24 atm
168.
An ideal gas at 0.60 atmosphere and at 87 deg C occupies 0.450 liter. How many moles
are in the sample? (R = 0.0821 1-atm/mole-K)
a.
0.0198 mole
c. 0.0091 mole
b.
0.0002 mole
d. 0.0378 mole
169.
When 50 L of air at STP is isothermally compressed to 10 L, how much heat must flow
from the gas? (Patm = 100 lPa).
a.
8.35 kJ
c. 8.05 kJ
b.
8.23 kJ
d. 8.48 kJ
170.
How much 58% sulfuric acid solution is needed to provide 150 gram of H2SO4?
a.
240 grams
c. 180 grams
b.
215 grams
d. 259 grams
171.
At STP a gas occupies 0.213 liters. How many moles are there in this sample of gas?
a.
0.9050 mole
c. 0.0890 mole
b.
0.0089 mole
d. 0.0095 mole
172.
A liter of sample of air at 1 atm. Pressure is allowed to expand isothermally into a 20 liters
vessel. What will its new pressure be?
a.
0.25 atm.
c. 2.0 atm.
b.
1.5 atm.
d. 0.5 atm.
173.
In the periodic table of elements, which of the following is NOT a transition metals?
a.
copper
c. silver
b.
sodium
d. nickel
174.
In the periodic table of elements, which one of the following elements DOES NOT belong
to group IIA?
a.
calcium
c. radium
b.
sodium
d. magnesium
175.
A cylinder contains oxygen (O2) at a pressure of 10 atm and a temperature of 300°K. The
volume of the cylinder is 10 liters. What is the mass of oxygen? MW of O° is 32 g/mole.
a.
120.08 g
c. 130.08 g
b.
125.08 g
d. 135.08 g
176.
When 10.0 g of silicon dust, Si, is exploded with 100.0 g of oxygen, O 2 , forming silicon
dioxide, SiO2, how many grams of O2 remain uncombined? The reaction of the equation is:
Si + 02  SiO2. The MW of Si = 28, MW of O2 = 32
a.
85.8 g
c. 87.8 g
b.
86.5 g
d. 88.5 g
177.
Which of the following is NOT related to crystallization?
a.
hot working
c. elastic modulus
b.
cold working
d. melting temperature
178.
What is the molarity of a solution of 600 g of H2SO4 (which has a specific gravity of 1.83)
dissolved in 3 l of water?
a.
1.84 M
c. 3.09 M
b.
2.04 M
d. 4.00 M
179.
0.064 kg of octane vapor (MW = 114) is mixed with 0.91 kg of air (MW = 29.0) in the
manifold of an engine. The total pressure in the manifold is 86.1 kPa, and the temperature
is 290°K. Assume octane behaves ideally. What is the total volume of this mixture?
a.
0.652 m3
c. 0.895 m3
b.
0.722 m3
d. 0.563 m3
180.
0.064 kg of octane vapor (MW = 114) is mixed with 0.19 kg of air (MW = 29.0) in the
manifold of an engine. The local pressure in the manifold is 86.1 kPa, and the temperature
is 290°K. Assume octane behaves ideally. What is the partial pressure of the air in the
mixture?
a.
64.8 kPa
c. 48.6 kPa
b.
84.6 kPa
d. 46.8 kPa
181.
The RMS velocity of hydrogen gas at N.T.P. is approximately
a.
3838 m/s
c. 4839 m/s
b.
1839 m/s
d. 839 m/s
182.
What is the RMS velocity of 275°K argon (MW = 39.9) molecules?
a.
313.7 m/sec
c. 616.7 m/sec
b.
515.7 m/sec
d. 414.7 m/sec
183.
What is the RMS velocity of oxygen at 700F?
a.
448 m/sec
c. 479 m/sec
b.
568 m/sec
d. 864 m/sec
184.
What is the molarity of ethanol in 90% proof whisky? Density of alcohol = 98g/ml.
a.
8.73 M
c. 8.37 M
b.
3.78 M
d. 7.83 M
185.
Two liquids mixed together with densities of 500 kg/m 3 and 1500 kg/m3 until the 100liter
container was full and their joint density becomes 500 kg/m 3. What are the masses of two
liquids?
a.
49 kg, 50 kg
c. 32 kg, 46kg
b.
35 kg, 45 kg
d. 30kg, 50 kg
186.
Acid turns litmus paper into ________.
a.
red
c. blue
b.
yellow
d. green
187.
A mixture of 35% ethyl alcohol, 15% sulfuric acid, and 50% water, the molecular weight
of the ethyl alcohol is 46. What is the MOL concentration of ethyl alcohol if the total
mixture concentration is 3.724?
a.
0.314
c. 0.625
b.
0.288
d. 0.204
188.
The molecular diameter of CO is 3.19 x 10–8 mm at 300 K and the given pressure of the
100 mm Hg. What is the mean free path of the gas in the cm?
a.
2.86 x 10-3
c. 6.86 x 10-6
-3
b.
6.86 x 10
d. 6.86 x 10-9
189.
The molecular diameter of CO is 3.19 x 10-8 at 300 K and pressure of 100 mmHg. What is
the number of biomolecular collisions?
a.
1.02x1024
c. 2.12x1020
26
b.
2.12x10
d. 1.12x1027
190.
At STP, the density of chlorine is 3.22 kg/m3. What weight of gas is contained in a flask of
100 cm3 at 24°C and 100 kPa?
a.
0.321 gram
c. 0.563 gram
b.
0.420 gram
d. 0.292 gram
191.
Hydrogen peroxide solution for hair bleaching is usually prepared by mixing 5.0 g of
hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) molecular weight = 43 g/mole) per 100 ml of solution. What is
the molarity of this solution?
a.
1.0 M
c. 2.0 M
b.
1.5 M
d. 2.5 M
192.
The miller indices of a crystal is (2,1,0) what does (2,1,0) mean?
a.
(2,1,0) 1/5 : 1/7 : 1/40
b.
(2,1,0) 1 ½ : 1/1 : 1/
c.
(2,1,0) 1/9 : 1/6 : 1/10
d.
(2,1,0) 1/2 : 1/6 : 1/
193.
What radioactive delay is described by the capture of electron from the inner shells?
a.
Beta decay
c. electron capture
b.
Gamma decay
d. electromagnetic radiation
194.
One-half of a molecular weight of a perfect gas exists at a pressure of 100 psia. A heat
transfer of 200 BTU at constant volume causes the temperature to change by 100°F. Find
the specific heat for constant pressure processes on a molar basis.
a.
8 BTU/pmole-°R
c. 4 BTU/p/mole-°R
b.
6 BTU/pmole-°R
d. 12 BTU/pmole-°R
195.
Are hydrocarbons containing one or more carbon – carbon triple bonds?
a.
acid
c. alkenes
b.
alkali
d. alkynes
196.
Determine the specific gravity of carbon dioxide (150°F, 20 psi) using STP air as a
reference:
a.
1.7
c. 1.85
b.
1.8
d. 1.87
197.
What is the subject which covers the retirement of pure metals from their ores?
a.
Oreic Metallurgy
b.
Refinement Metallurgy
c.
d.
Extractive Metallurgy
Pure Metallurgy
198.
The energy change that a occurs when electron is added to gaseous atom or ion is called…
a.
Electromotive force
c. Electron density
b.
Electron capture
d. Electron affinity
199.
A large Molecule with two alternating Mers is know as…
a.
Monomers
b.
Elastomer
c.
Mers
d.
Copolymer or interpolymer
200.
The ore from which aluminum is obtained is
a.
Bauxite
c. Galena
b.
Cassiterite
d. Sphalerite
201.
Two thirds of the atom in molecule of water (H2O) are hydrogen. What percentage of the
weight of water molecule is the weight of the two hydrogen atoms? The atomic weight of
hydrogen is 1.008g/mole and of oxygen is 16.00 g/mole.
a.
12.19%
c. 19.00%
b.
11.19%
d. 19.12%
202.
The atomic weight of iron is 55,847 amu. If one has 6.02 g of iron. How many atoms are
present?
a.
6.49 x 1022
c. 6.49 x 1024
b.
6.49 x 1023
d. 6.49 x 1025
203.
Is accomplished by heating raw rubber with small amounts of sulfur?
a.
Polymerization
c. Sulfurization
b.
Vulcanization
d. Monomerization
204.
If 20 ml of 0.5N salt solution is diluted to 1 liter, what is the new concentration?
a.
0.02 N
c. 0.03 N
b.
0.04 N
d. 0.01 N
205.
Which one of the following elements is NOT radioactive?
a.
Californium
c. Plutonium
b.
Cobalt
d. Uranium
206.
The number of bonds in the mer that can be broken open for attachment to the other mer
is known as the:
a.
property of the mer
b.
proportionality of the mer
c.
functionality of the mer
d.
crystallinity of the mer
THERMODYNAMICS
207.
When the expansion or compression of gas takes place without transfer of heat to or from
the gas, the process is called
a.
isothermal
c. isentropic
b.
adiabatic
d. reversible
208.
The chief differences between liquids and gases are: The chief differences between liquids
and gases are:
A.
Liquids
are
practically
incompressible whereas gases are compressible
B. Liquids occupy definite volumes and have free surfaces, whereas a
given
C.
Mass of
gas expands until it occupies of any containing vessel
D.
Liquids obey the principle of fluid mechanics;
gases do not
a. all three, A, B, and C
b. B and C
c. the first two, A and B
d. none of these
209.
The ratio of the density of a substance to that density of some standard substance is
called
a.
relative density
c. specific gravity
b.
specific density
d. relative gravity
210.
The total energy in a compressible or incompressible fluid flowing across any section of a
pipeline is a function of:
a.
pressure and velocity
b.
pressure, density and velocity
c.
[ressure, velocity, density and viscosity
d.
flow energy, kinetic energy, height above datum and internal energy
211.
The fundamental reference dimension are mass, length and time. The fundamental SI
units for them are kilograms (kg), meter (m) and seconds (s). The unit of force derived
from these units is Newton (N). Consequently, the unit of pressure in N/m is called
a.
Pascal
c. Mega Pascal
b.
Gage
d. stress
212.
This law states that pressure applied at a point in a confined liquid is transmitted equally
to all other points.
a.
Boyle’s law
c. Charles’ law
b.
Lenz’ law
d. Pascal’s law
213.
If the strain rate of the fluid is linearly proportional to the applied shear stress and is zero
when the later is zero, the fluid is:
a.
Brownian
c. Archimedean
b.
Newtonian
d. Bernoullian
214.
A fluid for which the constant proportionality (the viscosity) does not change with rate of
deformation is said to be:
a.
Newtonian fluid
c. compressible fluid
b.
incompressible fluid
d. ideal fluid
215.
If the shear stress in a fluid varies linearly with the velocity gradient, which of the
following describes the fluid?
a.
it has a constant viscosity
b.
it is a Newtonian gas
c.
it is a perfect gas
d.
it is at constant temperature
216.
The ratio of the change in pressure to the relative change in density, and measures the
compressibility of a material is known in fluid mechanics as:
a.
bulk modulus of elasticity
b.
compression index
c.
compression ratio
d.
modulus of volume
217.
Refers to the formula giving the terminal velocity of spherical articles in liquid.
a.
Buckingham-Pi
c. Newton’s law
b.
Archimedes’ law
d. Stroke’s law
218.
This is the mechanical energy balance based on the first law of thermodynamics. It
includes potential energy (PE), kinetic energy (KE), flow energy, losses and shaft work
inputs, but omits thermal energy. Similar to the Euler equation, though written in
differential form.
a.
Manning equation
c. Bernoulli’s equation
b.
Kutter equation
d. Hazen-Williams equation
219.
This formula relates the head loss with friction factor (f), the length to diameter ratio
(L/D), and the kinetic energy v²/2g.
a.
Chezy
c. Manning
b.
Kutter
d. Dracy-Weisback
220.
This law is used for diffusional flow, and closely parallels conductive heat transfer. The
form of the formula is Q = kIA where Q is the volume flow rate, k is the coefficient of
permeability, I is the gradient, and A is the cross-sectional area of the flow.
a.
Darcy’s law
c. Newton’s law
b.
Chezy’s law
d. Bernoulli’s law
221.
Refers to the gradient at which flow in a pipe of a particular diameter will carry away any
solids in it.
a.
critical
c. sub-critical
b.
self-cleansing
d. super critical
222.
A law that states that in a perfect fluid, the pressure exerted on it anywhere gets
transmitted in all directions.
a.
Archimedes’ law
c. Stoke’s
b.
Darcy’s
d. Pascal’s law
223.
If the relative density of oil is 0.75, its density is
a.
750 MPa
c. 750 N/m²
b.
750 Pa
d. 750 kg/m³
224.
The first law of thermodynamics is based in which of the following principles?
a.
conservation of mass
b.
action-reaction
c.
the enthalpy-entropy relationship
d.
conservation of energy
225.
At constant pressure, it is the increase in enthalpy per unit of mass when the temperature
is increased one degree with its volume held constant is called:
a.
specific weight
c. isotropic process
b.
adiabatic process
d. isentropic process
226.
The equation of state of the gas for isothermal conditions:
a.
PV = constant
c. PVK = constant
n
b.
PV = constant
d. none of these
227.
The equation of state of the gas for isentropic conditions:
a.
PV = constant
c. PVK = constant
b.
PVn = constant
d. none of these
228.
The equation of state of the gas for adiabatic conditions:
a.
PV = constant
c. PVK = constant
b.
PVn = constant
d. none of these
229.
In analyzing the steady flow of compressible fluids, the process involved which there is no
change in temperature is involved is called:
a.
isothermal process
c. adiabatic process
b.
isentropic process
d. stagnation process
230.
The process involved in the analysis
heat is added or taken away from the
a.
isothermal process
c.
b.
isentropic process
d.
231.
The process involved in the analysis of a steady flow of compressible fluids is also a
frictionless adiabatic process is called:
a.
isothermal process
c. adiabatic process
b.
isentropic process
d. stagnation process
232.
During an adiabatic, internally reversible process, which is true about the change in
entropy?
a.
it is always zero
b.
it is always greater than zero
c.
it is always less than zero
d.
it is temperature dependent
233.
The compressibility (change in volume due to change in pressure) of a liquid is inversely
proportional to its volume of elasticity is known as:
a.
bulk modulus
c. modulus of elasticity
b.
shear modulus
d. strain modulus
234.
Cavitation occurs when the pressure in the liquid falls below the _________ of that liquid.
a.
vapor pressure
c. atmospheric pressure
b.
turbine speed
d. peripheral speed
235.
Which statement is true for a fluid?
a.
it cannot sustain a shear force
b.
it cannot sustain a shear force at rest
c.
it is a liquid only
d.
it has a very regular molecular structure
236.
A fluid either liquid or gas, tangential or shearing force always come into being whenever
motion takes place, thus giving rise to fluid friction because these forces oppose to
movement of one particle past another.
a.
real fluid
c. ideal fluid
b.
compressible fluid
d. incompressible fluid
237.
One atmospheric pressure is equal to:
a.
1013 mbars
b.
10.3 m of H2O
238.
of a steady flow of compressible fluids in which no
flow system is called:
adiabatic process
stagnation process
c. 760 mm of Hg
d. all of these
The pressure exerted by the atmosphere in every surface with which it comes in contact is
known as:
a.
atmospheric pressure
c. absolute pressure
b.
vapor pressure
d. gage pressure
239.
Under normal condition at sea level, the atmospheric pressure is most nearly:
a.
101.3 kPa
c. 103.1 kPa
b.
110.3 kPa
d. 130.1 kPa
240.
Which of the following is most accurate about a streamline?
a.
it is a path of fluid particle
b.
it is a line normal to the velocity vector everywhere
c.
it is fixed in space in steady flow
d.
it is defined for non-uniform flow only
241.
Absolute pressure is computed by the equation:
a.
Pabs = Patm + Pgage
c. Pabs = Pgage – Patm
b.
Pabs = Patm – Pgage
d. none of these
242.
All of the following is true about absolute pressure except:
a.
absolute pressure can be negative
b.
absolute pressure is the sum of atmospheric and gage pressure
c.
absolute pressure is measured above the absolute zero
d.
absolute pressure can never be negative
243.
Under which conditions is mass conserved in fluid flow?
a.
the fluid is baratropic
b.
the flow is adiabatic
c.
the flow is isentropic
d.
it is always conserved
244.
Under which of the following conditions is Bernoulli’s equation valid?
a.
all points evaluated must be on the same streamline
b.
the fluid must be incompressible
c.
the fluid must be inviscid
d.
all of the above
245.
Select the correct statement:
a.
local atmospheric pressure depends upon the deviation of locality only
b.
local atmospheric pressure is always
c.
standard atmospheric pressure is the mean
d.
standard atmospheric pressure is 720 mm Hg abs
246.
Which of the following is true for water at a reference temperature where enthalpy is zero?
a.
internal energy is negative
b.
entropy is non-zero
c.
specific volume is zero
d.
vapor pressure is zero
247.
What is the value of the work done for a closed, reversible, isometric system?
a.
positive
c. negative
b.
zero
d. positive or negative
248.
How does an adiabatic process compare to an isentropic process?
a.
adiabatic: heat transfer=0; isentropic: heat transfer ≠ 0
b.
adiabatic: heat transfer≠0; isentropic: heat transfer = 0
c.
adiabatic: reversible; isentropic: not reversible
d.
both heat transfer = 0; isentropic: reversible
249.
Which of the following thermodynamic cycles is the most efficient?
a.
Brayton
c. Rankine
b.
Carnot
d. Rankine with reheat
250.
The ideal, reversible Carnot cycle involves four basic processes. What type of processes
are they?
a.
two isothermal and two isentropic
b.
all isothermal
c.
two adiabatic and two isentropic
d.
all adiabatic
251.
Which of the following is not an advantage of a superheated, closed Rankine cycle over an
open Rankine cycle?
a.
lower equipment cost
c. increased boiler life
b.
increased turbine life
d. increased efficiency
252.
The bulk modulus of elasticity, K, for a gas constant temperature T is given by:
a.
P (p)
c. R (T)
b.
P/p
d. none of these
253.
The continuity equation:
a.
relates mass rate flow along a stream
b.
relates the relationship between work and energy
c.
requires that the flow must be laminar
d.
relates the momentum concept
254.
What is the Arrhenius equation for the rate of a thermally activated process? (A = reaction
constant; T = absolute temperature; R = gas constant; Q = activation energy)
a.
rate = A℮-Q/RT
c. rate = A℮Q/RT
b.
rate = A℮-QRT
d. rate = A℮QRT
255.
An adiabatic process in a system is one in which:
a.
no heat enters or leaves the system
b.
the system does not work nor is work done on it
c.
the temperature of the system remains constant
d.
the pressure of the system remains constant
256.
A Carnot engine that operates between the absolute temperature T1 and T2:
a.
is 100% efficient
b.
has the maximum efficiency possible under these circumstances
c.
has an efficiency of T1/T2
d.
has an efficiency equal to the actual engine that operates between T1 and T2
257.
Which of the following engines is normally the least efficient?
a.
gasoline engine
c. diesel engine
b.
gas turbine
d. Carnot engine
258.
A refrigerator
a.
produces coldness
b.
causes heat to vanish
c.
removes heat from a region and transport it elsewhere
d.
changes heat to coldness
259.
Heat is absorbed by the refrigerant in a refrigerator when it:
a.
melts
c. vaporizes
b.
condenses
d. is compressed
260.
How much heat is required to change 100 lbs of ice at 10°F to steam at 212°F? Assume
the following:
specific heat of ice = 0.5
BTU/lb∙°F
heat of fusion of ice = 144 BTU/lb
specific heat of water = 1 BTU/lb∙°F
heat of vaporization of water = 970 BTU/lb
a.
125,000 BTU
c. 130,500 BTU
b.
150,000 BTU
d. 110,500 BTU
261.
What will be the pressure in KPa, at height of 2000 m in an isothermal atmosphere?
Assuming T=20°C and Patm = 100 KPa
a.
87
c. 79
b.
82
d. 71
262.
What pressure differential, in Pascals, exists at the bottom of a 3 m vertical wall when the
temperature inside is 20°C and outside is 20°C. Assume equal pressure at the top.
a.
15
c. 9
b.
12
d. 6
263.
The mass of water vapor per unit volume of air.
a.
absolute humidity
c. relative humidity
b.
specific humidity
d. critical humidity
264.
When gas is heated at constant pressure, the process called
a.
Isometric
c. polytropic
b.
Isobaric
d. isothermal
265.
When gas is heated at constant volume, the process is called
a.
isotropic
c. isometric
b.
isobaric
d. adiabatic
266.
An engine cycle containing two adiabatic and two isothermal processes.
a.
Carnot cycle
c. Diesel cycle
b.
Rankine cycle
d. Otto cycle
267.
It is the condition, pressure and temperature at which a liquid and its vapor are
indistinguishable.
a.
dew point
c. relative humidity
b.
absolute humidity
d. critical point
268.
States that a heat engine cannot transfer heat from a body to another at higher
temperature unless external energy is supplied to the engine.
a.
first law of thermodynamics
b.
Planck’s law
c.
second law of thermodynamics
d.
third law of thermodynamics
269.
Entropy is the measure of
a.
the change in enthalpy of a system
b.
randomless or disorder
c.
the internal energy of a gas
d.
the heat capacity of a substance
270.
The amount of heat passing through a body of 1m² cross-section and 1m thick in 1 hour
at a temperature difference of 1°C.
a.
quantity of heat
c. latent heat of solid
b.
specific heat
d. thermal conductivity
271.
This heated air, being lighter, rises and circulates through the house or is forced through
by a fan called
a.
vacuum
c. steam
b.
vapor
d. forced convection
272.
Is one whose pressure is higher that the saturation pressure corresponding to its
temperature.
a.
compressed gas
c. combustion
b.
compressed liquid
d. expansion ratio
273.
Is one whose temperature is below the saturation temperature corresponding to its
pressure.
a.
sub-cooled liquid
c. compression
b.
condensation
d. constant volume process
274.
It is a chart on which enthalpy is the ordinate and entropy is the abscissa.
a.
Ericson cycle
c. Charles’ law
b.
Mollier chart
d. Bernoulli’s chart
275.
Is one with rigid boundaries exchanging neither energy nor mass with its surroundings.
a.
entropy
c. isolated system
b.
ideal gas
d. heat
276.
Which of the following give the optimum intermediate pressure in case of two stage
compression?
a.
p4 = (p1 +p2)/2
c. p2 = √p1p2
b.
p3 = p1 +(p1+p2)/2
d. p = p1 + √(p1² +p3²)
277.
In the polytropic process we have the PVⁿ= constant, if the value of n is infinitely large,
the process is called?
a.
constant pressure process
b.
constant temperature process
c.
adiabatic process
d.
constant volume process
278.
The thermodynamic cycle used in a thermal power plant is
a.
Ericsson
c. Carnot
b.
Brayton
d. Rankine
279.
For the same heat input and the same compression ratio
a.
b.
c.
d.
280.
none of the above
ΔH = CU ΔT
c. ΔH = (C/CV) ΔT
ΔH = CP ΔT
d. ΔH = CP ΔT
dS = du + pd (1/p)
c. S = u +pVs
dS = TdqH
d. dS = dqH/t
In a polytropic process, if the work done in heat unit is w, then the amount of heat
transferred is given by
a.
b.
283.
efficiency depends mainly on working substance
Entropy, for reversible flow, is given by the relation
a.
b.
282.
Otto cycle is less efficient compared to Diesel cycle
The change in enthalpy for small temperature change, ΔT, for an ideal gas is given by the
relation
a.
b.
281.
both Otto cycle and Diesel cycle are equally efficient
W
ΤW
c. (τ - 1)W/(n – τ)
d. (τ –n)W/(τ –1)
A heat exchange process wherein the product of pressure and volume remains constant is
called
a.
heat exchange process
c. throttling process
b.
284.
isentropic process
The S.I. unit for pressure is
a.
mm of water column
b.
Pascal
d. hyperbolic process
c. dynes/cm²
d. all of the above
285.
Sterling cycle has
a.
two isothermal and two adiabatic process
b.
two adiabatic and two isentropic process
c.
two adiabatic and two constant pressure processes
d.
two isothermal and two constant volume processes
286.
Brayton cycle has
a.
two isentropic and two constant volume processes
b.
two isentropic and two constant pressure processes
c.
one constant pressure, one constant volume, two adiabatic processes
d.
two isothermal, a constant volume and a constant pressure processes
287.
Diesel cycle consists of
a.
isentropic, isothermal, constant volume, constant pressure processes
b.
two constant volume, one constant pressure, one isothermal process
c.
two isotropic, one constant volume, one constant pressure process
d.
two constant pressure, one constant volume, one isentropic process
288.
Ericsson cycle has
a.
two isothermal and two constant volume processes
b.
two isothermal and two isentropic process
c.
two adiabatic, constant volume and constant pressure process
d.
two isothermal and two constant pressure processes
289.
Brayton cycle cannot be used in reciprocating engines even for same adiabatic
compression ratio and work output because
a.
Otto cycle is highly efficient
b.
Brayton cycle is less efficient
c.
Brayton cycle is for slow speed engines only
d.
large volume of low pressure air cannot be efficiently handled in
reciprocating engines
290.
Which cycle is generally used for gas turbines?
a.
Otto cycle
c. Dual cycle
b.
Rankine cycle
d. Brayton cycle
291.
The constant pressure gas turbine works on the principle of
a.
Carnot cycle
c. Rankine cycle
b.
Bell – Coleman cycle
d. Brayton cycle
292.
Which of the following provides the basis for measuring thermodynamic property of
temperature?
a.
first law of thermodynamics
b.
second law of thermodynamics
c.
third law of thermodynamics
d.
zeroth law of thermodynamics
293.
Under ideal conditions, isothermal, isobaric, isochoric and adiabatic processes are
a.
dynamic process
c. quasi-static process
b.
stable process
d. static process
294.
Isentropic flow is
a.
b.
c.
d.
perfect gas flow
irreversible adiabatic flow
ideal fluid flow
reversible adiabatic flow
295.
Exhaust gases from an engine possess
a.
solar energy
c. chemical energy
b.
kinetic energy
d. stored energy
296.
The extension and compression of helical spring is an example of
a.
isothermal cycle
c. irreversible process
b.
adiabatic process
d. reversible process
297.
Which of the following relations is not applicable in a free expansion process?
a.
heat supplied = zero
b.
heat rejected = zero
c.
work done = zero
d.
change in temperature = zero
298.
An ideal engine absorbs heat a temperature of 127 °C and exhaust heat at a temperature
of 77 °C. Its efficiency will be
a.
50%
c. (127-77)/127 %
b.
33%
d. 13%
299.
The triple point of a substance is the temperature and pressure at which
a.
the solid and liquid phases are in equilibrium
b.
the liquid and gaseous phases are in equilibrium
c.
the solid, liquid and the gaseous phases are in equilibrium
d.
the solid does not melt, liquid does not boil and the gas does not
condensate
300.
According to Clausius Inequality statement for any cycle of process, reversible or
irreversible
a.
cyclic δQ/T > 0
c. cyclic δQ/T = 0
b.
cyclic δQ/T < 0
d. cyclic δQ/T ≤ 0
301.
A heat engine has the following specifications: Power developed = 50 kW, Fuel burned per
hour = 3 kg, Heating value of fuel = 75,000 kJ per kg, Temperature limits = 627°C and
27°C
This engine is
a.
real
c. costly
b.
impossible
d. cheaper
302.
A heat engine is supplying heat at the rate of 30,000 J/s and gives an output of 9 kW. The
thermal efficiency of the engine is
a.
43%
c. 55%
b.
50%
d. 30%
303.
According to Clausius statement,
a.
heat flows from hot substance to cold substance
b.
heat flows from hot substance to cold substance, unaided
c.
heat can flow from cold substance to hot substance with the aid of external work
d.
both (b) and (c)
304.
Select the cycle that consists of two isothermal and constant volume process.
a.
Joule cycle
c. Otto cycle
b.
Diesel cycle
d. Ericsson cycle
305.
“It is impossible to construct a heat engine that operates in a cycle and receives a given
quantity of heat from a high temperature body and equal amount of work” The above
statement is known as
a.
Gay Lussac law
c. Kelvin – Planck law
b.
Kinetic theory
d. Joule – Thomson law
306.
Which of the engine is used for fighter bombers?
a.
turbo prop
c. ramjet
b.
turbojet
d. pulsejet
307.
In a diesel engine, fuel is injected
a.
at the beginning of compression stroke
b.
before the end of compression stroke
c.
at the end of compression stroke
d.
after the end of compression stroke
308.
Which is not correct for calculating air standard efficiency?
a.
all processes are reversible
b.
specific heat remains unchanged at all temperature
c.
no account of the mechanism of heat transfer is considered
d.
gases dissociate at higher temperature
309.
A Bell – Coleman cycle is a reversed
a.
Stirling cycle
b.
Brayton cycle
c. Joule cycle
d. Carnot cycle
310.
According to Prettlier Thomson effect
a.
it is possible to construct a heat engine that operates in a cycle and receives a
given quantity of heat from a high temperature body and does equal amount of
work
b.
it is possible to construct a device that operates in a cycle and produces no effect
other than the transfer of heat from a cooler body to hotter body
c.
heat can be converted into work
d.
work can’t be converted into heat
311.
A control volume refers to
a.
a specified mass
b.
a reversible process
c. an isolated system
d. a fixed region in space
312.
The Beattie – Bridgeman equation of state is quite accurate in cases of
a.
all pressures above atmospheric pressures
b.
densities less than about 0.8 times the critical density
c.
near critical temperature
d.
near critical pressure
313.
Which of the following statement about Van der Waal’s equation is correct?
a.
it is valid for all pressure and temperature
b.
it represents a straight line on pv versus v plot
c.
it has three roots of identical value at the critical point
d.
the equation is valid for diatomic gases only
314.
A hydrometer scale for measuring the relative density (specific gravity) of liquids:
a.
Beckman scale
c. Baume scale
b.
Beaufort scale
d. Buckley scale
315.
Energy can neither be destroyed nor created, law of:
a.
none of these
b.
conservation of energy
c.
conservation of momentum
d.
conservation of mass
316.
A sealed tank contains 27oC at a pressure of 2 atm. If the temperature increases to 100 oC
the pressure inside the tank will be:
a.
4.15 atm.
c. 1.60 atm.
b.
0.54 atm.
d. 2.49 atm.
317.
The negative sign is for a gage reading called:
a.
transmission of pressure
c. vapor pressure
b.
vacuum pressure
d. pressure head
318.
Total energy in a compressible or incompressible fluid flowing across any suction in a
pipeline is a function of:
a.
pressure and velocity
b.
flow energy, kinetic energy, height above datum and internal energy
c.
pressure, density and velocity
d.
pressure, velocity and volume
319.
Is one whose pressure is higher than the saturation pressure corresponding to the
temperature:
a.
combustion
c. expansion ratio
b.
compression liquid
d. compressed gas
320.
An instrument which is used to determine the specific gravity of a substance
a.
substance
c. hydrometer
b.
throttling calorimeter
d. odometer
321.
Assuming that the barometer reads 760 mm Hg, what is the absolute pressure for 90 cm
Hg gage?
a.
74.213 kPa
c. 221.24 kPa
b.
48 kPa
d. 358 kPa
322.
During an adiabatic, internally reversible process, what is TRUE about the change in
entropy?
a.
it is temperature dependent
b.
it is always less than zero
c.
it is always zero
d.
it is always greater than zero
323.
An instrument which used to measure small pressure
a.
venture
c. orifice
b.
aneroid
d. manometer
324.
The stress in a 90 cm. diameter pipe having a wall thickness of 9.5 cm. and a static head
of 70 m of water is:
a.
3.25 MPa
c. 32.5 MPa
b.
32.5 Kpa
d. 325 Kpa
325.
An open chamber rests on the ocean floor in 49 cm. of sea water (sp. gr. = 1.03) What air
pressure in Kpa must be maintained inside to exclude water:
a.
495.1 Kpa
c. 500.5 KPa
b.
490.5 Kpa
d. 496.7 Kpa
326.
For a heat engine operating between two temperatures (T2 > T1), what is the maximum
efficiency attainable?
a.
1 – T1 /T2
c. 1 – T2 / T1
b.
T1 / T2
d. 1 – (T1)2 / T2
327.
When property changes cease, the bodies are said to be in:
a.
change in volume
c. slug
b.
triple point
d. thermal equilibrium
328.
A device produces 37.5 joules per cycle. There is one power stroke per cycle. Calculate the
power output if the device is run at 45 rpm.
a.
4.69 W
c. 27.56W
b.
28.125 W
d. 14.063 W
329.
What height of mercury column is equivalent to a pressure of 100 psig? Density of
mercury is 848 lb/ft3.
a.
14 ft
c. 12 ft
b.
17 ft
d. 11 ft
330.
A piston and cylinder arrangement contains saturated water vapor at 110 deg C. The
vapor is compressed in a reversible, adiabatic process until the pressure is 1.6 MPa. What
is the work done by the system per kilogram of water?
a.
–330 KJ/kg
c. –509 KJ/kg
b.
–637 KJ/kg
d. –432 KJ/kg
331.
What is the efficiency of an Otto cycle with a compression ratio of 6:1? The gas used is
air:
a.
0.512
c. 0.800
b.
0.488
d. 0.167
332.
During an adiabatic, internally reversible process, what is TRUE about the change in
entropy:
a.
it is temperature dependent
b.
it is always less than zero
c.
it is always zero
d.
it is always greater than zero
333.
One leg of mercury U-tube manometer is connected to a pipe containing water under a
gage pressure of 14.2 lb/in2. The mercury in this leg stands 20 in. below the water. What
is the height of mercury in the other leg which is open to the air? Specify gravity of
mercury is 13.6?
a.
3.6 ft
c. 3.2 ft
b.
1.5 ft
d. 2.6 ft
334.
Five moles of water vapor at 100 degree C and 1 atmosphere are compressed isobarically
to from liquid at 100 degree C. The process is reversible and the ideal gas laws apply.
Compute the work, in joules, done on the system.
a.
10.5 MJ
c. 6 MJ
b.
15 MJ
d. 6 kJ
335.
Gas is enclosed in a cylinder with a weighted piston as the top boundary. The gas is
heated and expands from s volume of 0.40 m3 at a constant pressure of 200 KPa. Find the
work done on the system.
a.
16 KJ
c. 14 KJ
b.
10 KJ
d. 12 KJ
336.
For a heat engine operating between two temperature (T2>T1), what is the maximum
efficiency attainable?
529.
a.
T
1 1
T
2
c.
T
1 2
T
1
b.
T
1
T
2
d.
1
(T )²
1
T
2
337.
A 20 liter sample of gas exerts a pressure of 1 atm. At 25 deg C. If its is expanded into a
40-liter vessel that is held at 100 deg C, what will be its final pressure?
a.
0.50 atm.
c. 0.315 atm.
b.
1.0 atm.
d. 0.63 atm.
338.
A 36 inch petcock is anchored by a thrust block at a point where the flow makes a 20
degree change in direction. The water flow rate is 185 ft/sec. The water pressure is 2,880
lb/ft2 everywhere in the penstock. What is the resultant force on the thrust block?
a.
8,900 lb
c. 2,800 lb
b.
29,800 lb
d. 120,300 lb
339.
As cylinder and piston arrangement contains saturated water vapor at 110 degree C. The
vapor is compresses in a reversible adiabatic process until the pressure is 1.6 MPa. Find
the work done by the system per kilogram of water:
a.
–432 kJ/kg
c. –300 kJ/kg
b.
–637 kJ/kg
d. –509 kJ/kg
340.
A reversible thermodynamic system is made of follow the Carnot cycle between the
temperature limits of 650 degree F, and 150 degree F. 300 BTU of heat are supplied per
cycle to the system. What is the change in entropy during the heat addition?
a.
0.27 BTU/degree R
c. 1.30 BTU/degree R
b.
0.46 BTU/degree R
d. 0.75 BTU/degree R
341.
A mercury barometer at the base of Mt. Makiling reads 654 mm and at the same time
another barometer at the top of the mountain reads 480 mm. Assuming sp. weight of air
to be constant at 12N/m3. What is the approximate height of Mt. Makiling?
a.
1,934.5 m
c. 4,168.2 m
b.
3,508.4 m
d. 2,647.7 m
342.
In a diesel engine, the cylinder compresses air from approximately standard pressure and
temperature to about one-sixteenth the original volume and a pressure of about 50 atm.
What is the temperature of the compressed air?
a.
853 K
c. 893 K
b.
863 K
d. 878 K
343.
If atmospheric air is 14.7 psia and 60°F at sea level, what is the pressure at 12,000 feet
altitude if the air is compressed isothermally?
a.
11.64 psia
c. 19.54 psia
b.
9.53 psia
d. 19.63 psia
344.
An ideal gas in a cylinder is compressed adiabatically to one third its original volume.
During the process 45 J of work is done on the gas by the compressing agent. By how
much did the internal energy of the gas change in the process?
a.
55 J
c. 40 J
b.
50 J
d. 45 J
345.
Which of the following relationships is true for an ideal gas going through a reversible
adiabatic process?
a.
cvdT + pdV = 0
c. cpdT + pdV = 0
b.
cvdT – Vdp = 0
d. du + dh = ds
346.
Air at 400°F and 50 psia is compressed isothermally to one-tenth of its original volume,
What is the final pressure?
a.
100 psia
c. 375 psia
b.
1000 psia
d. 500 psia
347.
A gas is compressed in a reversible process from 15 psia and 68°F to 75 psia. If the
compression process follows a polytropic relationship with n = 1.4, what work is done by
the gas during the compression?
a.
1.7 x 106 ft-lb/pmole
c. –1.2 x 106 ft-lb/pmole
b.
–1.7 x 106 ft-lb/pmole
d. 1.2 x 106 ft-lb/pmole
348.
For which type of process does the equation dQ = TdS hold?
a.
iothermal
c. reversible
b.
isometric
d. irreversible
349.
Which process does not belong to Carnot cycle process?
a.
Isentropic compression
b.
Irreversible adiabatic compression
c.
Reversible adiabatic expansion
d.
Constant temperature adding heat
350.
What is the sea level (g = 32.2 ft/sec2) specific weight (lb/ft3) of liquid with density of
58.3 lbm/ft3?
a.
58.3 lbm/ft3
c. 64.3 lbm/ft3
b.
48.3 lbm/ft3
d. 25.3 lbm/ft3
351.
An instrument use to measure pressure by using height-pressure relationship.
a.
hdrometer
c. manometer
b.
hygrometer
d. siphon
352.
A tank has gauge pressure of 500mmHg vacuum. Find the pressure in kPa gauge? Use a
conversion factor from mmHg to kPa (pascal = N/m2) is 133.4.
a.
66.7 kPa
c. –66.7 kPa
b.
70 kPa
d. 80 kPa
353.
A Carnot cycle operates at maximum thermal efficiency. This is one
statement in the second law of thermodynamics.
a.
True
c. Partly False
b.
False
d. Do not follow
354.
A gas has a density of 0.094 lbm/ft³ at 100 and 2 atm. What pressure is needed to
change the density to 0.270 lbm/ft³ at 250F?
a.
5.28 atm
c. 7.28 atm
b.
6.28 atm
d. 8.28 atm
355.
Find the charge in internal energy of 10 lbm of oxygen gas when the temperature changes
from 1000F to 1200F, Cv = 0.157 BTU/lbm-OR.
a.
23.55 BTU
c. 14.63 BTU
b.
15.70 BTU
d. 10.23 BTU
356.
4 lbm/sec of steam enter a turbine with velocity of 65ft/sec and enthalpy of 1350
BTU/lbm. The steam enter the condenser after being expanded to 1075 BTU/lbm and 125
ft/sec. The total heat loss from the turbine casing is 50 BTU/sec. What power is generated
by the turbine?
a.
1400 hp
c. 1500 hp
b.
1600 hp
d. 1700 hp
357.
The amount of heat required to raised the temperature of 2 kg of iron (sp.heat = 0.115
kcal/kg-0C) from 270C to 1000C is:
a.
16.8 kcal
c. 15.8 kcal
b.
18.6 kcal
d. 14.8 kcal
of the useful
358.
What is the maximum height that a vacuum pump can lift 60 0 water if the atmospheric
pressure is 14.6 psia and local gravity is 28 ft/sec2?
a.
11.64 psia
c. 19.54 psia
b.
9.53 psia
d. 19.63 psia
359.
Oil (density of 55 lbm/ft3) flows a 1 ft/sec through a 1-inch diameter pipe. A 0.2-inch
diameter orifice (Cf= 0.6) is installed. What is the indicated pressure drop?
a.
1682.7 lbf/ft2
c. 2082.7 lbf/ft2
b.
1482.7 lbf/ft2
d. 1882.7 lbf/ft2
360.
No heat can be produced without any losses of heat. This is one of the useful statement of
the second law of thermodynamics.
a.
true
c partly false
b.
partly true
d. false
361.
The draft of a ship with 4700 ft 2 of water line cross-section is 12 feet. What cargo load is
required to increase the draft 3 inches? Assume that sea water has a density of 64.0
lbm/ft3.
a.
85,400 lbm
c. 3,609,600 lbm
b.
3,684,800 lbm
d. 75,200 lbm
362.
With what terminal velocity will an air bubble 1 mm in diameter rise in a liquid of viscosity
150 cp and density 0.90 gram/cc? Pair = 0.00129 gram/cc
a.
0.42 cm/sec
c. 0.32 cm/sec
b.
0.54 cm/sec
d. 0.24 cm/sec
363.
A turbine uses
and essentially
of the steam is
a.
1240.8
b.
1540.5
364.
How many BTU’s are needed to isothermally compress 4 lbm of 240° air twice the original
pressure?
a.
–150 BTU
c. +160 BTU
b.
+140 BTU
d. –132 BTU
365.
What is the heat flow when 3 lbm of nitrogen undergo a closed system isothermal process
at 300°F from an initial volume of 40 cubic feet to final volume of 22.5 cubic feet?
a.
70 BTU
c. 80 BTU
b.
–72 BTU
d. –93 BTU
366.
What is the specific enthalpy of 4 lbs of water, which is initially 80°F and to which 240 BTU
are added?
a.
115 BTU/lb
c. 108 BTU/lb
b.
120 BTU/lb
d. 150 BTU/lb
367.
If atmospheric air is 14.7 psia and 60F at sea-level, what is the pressure at 12,000 feet
altitude if the air is compressed adiabatically?
a.
29.62 psia
c. 9.36 psia
b.
9.26 psia
d. 39.36 psia
368.
If the atmospheric air is 14.7 psia and 60°F at sea level, what is the pressure at 12,000
feet altitude if the air is compressed isothermally?
a.
11.64 psia
c. 15.54 psia
b.
9.53 psia
d. 18.63 psia
100,000 lbm/hr of steam which enter with an enthalpy of 1400 BTU/lbm
zero entrance velocity. 10,000 horsepower are developed. The exit velocity
500 fps. Expansion is adiabatic. What is the exit enthalpy?
BTU/lbm
c. 1140.5 BTU/lbm
BTU/lbm
d. 1680.4 BTU/lbm
369.
The entrance enthalpy, velocity, and height of a 5 lbm/sec system are 1000 BTU/lbm, 100
ft/sec, and 100 feet respectively. 50 BTU/sec are lost to the surroundings. The exit
enthalpy, velocity and height are 1020 BTU/lbm, 10 ft/sec and 0 feet respectively. What is
the input horsepower?
a.
20
c. 210.8
b.
250
d. 300
370.
Gas is enclosed in a cylinder with a weighted piston as the top boundary. The gas is
heated and expands from a volume of 0.04 m3 to 0.1 m3 at a constant pressure of 150
kPa. Calculate the work done by the system.
a.
14 kJ
c. 9 kJ
b.
12 kJ
d. 15 kJ
371.
The barometer reads 29.0 inches or mercury. What s the absolute pressure if a vacuum
gage reads 9.5 psi?
a.
4.74 lbf/in2 (psi)
c. 474 lbf/in2 (psi)
2
b.
47.4 lbf/in (psi)
d. 474.4 lbf/in2 (psi)
372.
Assuming atmospheric conditions at sea level are 14.7 psia and 59°F. What is the
expected pressure at 35,000 feet altitude? Assume the temperature decreases 3.5°F per
1,000 feet altitude.
a.
6.789 psia
c. 3.456 psia
b.
4.567 psia
d. 5.678 psia
373.
Two liquids enter a mixing chamber and are discharged at 80 0F at the rate of 50 gal/min.
Liquid A enter at 1400F with a specific heat of 10 BTU/gal-0F. Liquid B enters at 650F with
specific heat of 8.33 BTU/gal-0F. What is the volume flow for liquid B?
a.
63.38 gal/min
c. 41.38 gal/min
b.
32.38 gal/min
d. 74.38 gal/min
374.
Two liquids enter a mixing chamber and are discharged at 80°F at the rate of 50 gal/min.
Liquid A enters at 140°F with a specific heat of 10 BTU/gal-°F. What is the specific heat of
the mixture?
a.
4.12 Btu/gal-°F
c. 8.62 BTU/gal-°F
b.
5.32 BTU/gal-°F
d. 6.02 BTU/gal-°F
375.
A Carnot machine operates between the hot reservoir at 200°C and a cold reservoir at
20°C. When operated as an engine it receives 1000 kJ/kg. Find the coefficient of
performance (COP) when used as refrigerator.
a.
1.77
c. 1.99
b.
1.63
d. 2.63
376.
To what height will a barometer column rise if the atmospheric conditions are 13.9 psia
and 68°F and the barometer fluid is water?
a.
676.7 inches
c. 476.7 inches
b.
576.7 inches
d. 376.7 inches
377.
One kg of air 1.2 kg/sq.cm at 30°C is compressed according to the law of PV where C =
1.36 until its volume is 0.5 cu.m. If it is compressed isothermally, what will be the % of
saving work?
a.
7.1%
c. 6.9%
b.
6.6%
d. 7.0%
378.
An artificial satellite, constructed of aluminum, encircles the earth at a speed of 9,000
m/sec. Find the ratio of kinetic energy to the energy required to raise its temperature by
600C. The melting point of aluminum is 660. Assume constant specific heat capacity of
0.2 cal/g-C.
a.
147.5
c. 337.5
b.
257.5
d. 538.7
379.
Helium ( R=0.468 BTU/lbm-R) is compressed isothermally from 14.7 psia and 68F. the
compression ratio is 4. Calculate the work done by the gas in BTU/lbm.
a.
–564
c. –567
b.
–375
d. –364
380.
A tank contains 3 cubic feet of 120 psig air at 80F. How many tires of volume 1.2 ft³ can
be inflated to 28 psig at 80F.
a.
8
c. 5
b.
4
d. 3
381.
A quantity of air 180F originally occupies 20 ft³ at 30 psig. The gas is compressed
reversibly and adiabatically to 180 psig. What is the heat flow?
a.
200 BTU
c. 100 BTU
b.
120 cal
d. 0
382.
What horsepower is required isothermally compress 800ft 3 of air per minute from 14.7
psia to 120 psia?
a.
100 hp
c. 115 hp
b.
108 hp
d. 150 hp
383.
What is the pressure 8000 feet below the surface of the ocean? Neglect compressibility.
a.
312,000 lbf/ft2 (psfg)
c. 912,000 lbf/ft2 (psfg)
2
b.
512,000 lbf/ft (psfg)
d. 712,000 lbf/ft2 (psfg)
384.
What is the sea level (g = 32.2 ft/sec2) specific weight (lbf/ft3) of liquid with density of
58.3 lbm/ft3?
a.
58.3 lbm/ft3
c. 64.3 lbm/ft3
b.
43.3 lbm/ft3
d. 25.3 lbm/ft3
385.
A 50 horsepower motor (75% efficient) drives a 900-rpm pump (90% efficient) that
moves 5 ft3/sec of gasoline (SG = 0.728). What is the specific speed?
a.
1381
c. 1679
b.
1466
d. 1569
386.
What is the pressure 8,000 feet below the surface of the ocean? Neglect compressibility.
a.
512,000 lbf/ft2 (psfg)
c. 312,000 lbf/ft2 (psfg)
2
b.
712,000 lbf/ft (psfg)
d. 912,000 lbf/ft2 (psfg)
387.
A Carnot machine operates between the hot reservoir at 2000C and a cold reservoir at
200C. When operated as an engine it receives 1000KJ/kg. Find the coefficient of
performance (COP) when used as heat pump.
a.
4.1
c. 2.63
b.
2.95
d. 2.88
388.
To what height will a barometer column rise if the atmospheric conditions are 13.9 psia
and 680F and the barometer fluid is ethyl alcohol?
a.
157.9 inches
c. 257.9 inches
b.
359.9 inches
d. 457.9 inches
389.
Assuming atmospheric conditions at sea level 14.7 psia and 59 0F. what is the expected
35,000 feet altitude? Assume the temperature decreases 3.5 0F per 1000 feet altitude.
a.
3.456 psia
c. 5.678 psia
b.
4.567 psia
d. 6.789 psia
390.
If atmosphere air is 14.7 psia and 600F at sea level. What is the pressure at 12,000 feet
altitude if the air is compressed isothermally?
a.
b.
11.64 psia
9.53 psia
c. 15.54 psia
d. 18.63 psia
391.
The efficiency of an Otto cycle is 50% and k = 1.50. what is the compression ratio?
a.
2
c. ½
b.
4
d. ¼
392.
A quality of air at 1800F originally occupies 20ft 3 at 30 psig. The gas is compressed
reversibly and adiabatically to 180 psig. What is the heat flow?
a.
200BTU
c. BTU
b.
cal
d. 0
393.
The difference between stagnation and static
What is the relative velocity in air at 700F and
a.
348.7 ft/sec
c.
b.
333.7 ft/sec
d.
394.
What is the specific enthalpy of 4 lbs of water, which is initially at 800F and to which 240
BTU are added?
a.
115 BTU/lb
c. 108 BTU/lb
b.
120 BTU/lb
d. 150 BTU/lb
395.
Determine the specific
reference.
a.
1.7
b.
1.8
pressures in pilot/static tube is 2.0 inch Hg.
14.7 psia?
444.7 ft/sec
258.7 ft/sec
gravity of carbon dioxide (150 0F , 20 psia) Using STP air as a
c. 1.85
d. 1.87
396.
What horsepower is required to isothermally compress 800ft 3 of air per minute from 14.7
psia to 120 psia?
a.
100 hp
c. 115 hp
b.
108 hp
d. 150hp
397.
Helium (R = 0.4968 BTU/lbm-0R) is compress isothermally from 14.7 psia and 68 0F. The
compression ratio is 4. Calculate the work done by the gas.
a.
–364 BTU
c. –584 BTU/lbm
b.
–357 BTU/lbm
d. –537 BTU/lbm
398.
A quantity of gas occupies 1.2 cubic feet at STP. The gas is allowed to expand to 1.5 cubic
feet and 15psia. What is the new temperature?
a.
4500R
c. 6280R
0
b.
590 R
d. 7840R
399.
A motorist equips his automobile tires with a relief-type valve so that the pressure inside
the tire never will exceed 240 kPa (gage). He starts a trip with a pressure of 200 kPa
(gage). He starts a trip with a pressure of 200 kPA (gage) and a temperature of 230C in
the tires. During the long drive, the temperature of the air in the tires reaches 83 0C. each
tire contains 0.11 kg of air. Determine the mass of air escaping each tire.
a.
6.39 x 10-3 kg
c. 2.59 x10–10 kg
–3
b.
6.39 x 10 kg
d. 2.59 x 10-5 kg
400.
Oil (density of 55 lbm/ft3) flows at 1 ft/sec through a 1 inch-diameter pipe. A 0.2 inch
diameter orifice (C=0.6) is installed. What is the indicated pressure drop?
a.
1,428.7 lbf/ft2
c. 1,882.7 lbf/ft2
b.
1652.7 lbf/ft2
d. 2,082.7 lbf/ft2
401.
A scuba diver at depth of 200 feet notices the bubbles he exhales have diameter of ½
inch. Assume the tension and water temperature remain relatively constant. What is the
pressure on the bubble at a depth of 400 feet?
a.
b.
155.0 lbf/in2 (psia)
188.0 lbf/in2 (psia)
c. 177.0 lbf/in2 (psia)
d. 166.0 lbf/in2 (psia)
402.
A Scuba diver at a depth of 200 feet notices the bubbles he exhales have diameter of ½
inch. Assume the tension and water temperature remains relatively constant what is the
pressure on the bubble?
a.
404.40 9 (psia)
c. 303.40 psia
b.
101.40 psia
d. 202.40 psia
403.
To what height will a barometer column rise if the atmospheric conditions are 13.9 psia
and 680F and the barometer fluid is ethyl alcohol?
a.
157.9 inches
c. 457.9 inches
b.
357.9 inches
d. 257.9 inches