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Self training. Basic finance

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2
102
a) 𝐴 = 1+0.02804 + (1+0.02636)2 = 98.7734
𝐡=
3
3
103
+
+
= 101.5295
2
(1 + 0.02458)3
1 + 0.02804 (1 + 0.02636)
b)
98.7734 =
2
102
+
1
(1 + π‘Œπ‘‡π‘€)
(1 + π‘Œπ‘‡π‘€)2
1
1+π‘Œπ‘‡π‘€
Denote
=π‘₯
2 + 102π‘₯ 2 − 98.7734 = 0
π‘₯1 =
−2+√22 −4×102×(−98.7734)
2×102
=
π‘₯2 =
−2−√22 −4×102×(−98.7734)
2×102
< 0 => Not accepted
1
1+π‘Œπ‘‡π‘€
−2+200.75
204
= 0.974
1
= 0.974 => π‘Œπ‘‡π‘€ = 0.974 − 1 = 0.026377 = 2.6377%
π‘Œπ‘‡π‘€π΄ = 2.6377%
π‘Œπ‘‡π‘€π΅ =
c) 𝐷𝐴 =
𝐷𝐡 =
3
3
103
+
+
= 101.547
2
(1 + 0.0246484)3
1 + 0.0246484 (1 + 0.0246484)
2
102
+2∗(1+0.026377)2 ]
1+0.026377
[1∗
= 1.981
98.7734
3
[1 ∗ 1 + 0.0246484 + 2 ∗
3
103
+3∗
]
2
(1 + 0.0246484)
(1 + 0.0246484)3
= 2.914
101.5295
βˆ†π‘ƒπ‘Ÿπ‘–π‘π‘’
+0.2%
d)
𝐴=
𝐡=
π‘ƒπ‘Ÿπ‘–π‘π‘’
βˆ†π‘Ÿ
= − 1+π‘Ÿ × π· = − 1+0.026 × 1.981 = −0.3862%
βˆ†π‘ƒπ‘Ÿπ‘–π‘π‘’
βˆ†π‘Ÿ
+0.2%
=−
×𝐷 =−
× 2.914 = −0.5688%
π‘ƒπ‘Ÿπ‘–π‘π‘’
1+π‘Ÿ
1 + 0.0246
New YTM of A= 2.6%+0.2%=2.8%
2
102
New Price of 𝐴 = 1+0.028 + (1+0.028)2 = 98.3934
Actual percentage change is
98.3934−98.7734
×
98.7734
100% = −0.3847%
New YTM of B= 2.46%+0.2%=2.66%
3
3
103
New Price of 𝐡 = 1+0.0266 + (1+0.0266)2 + (1+0.0266)3 = 100.9542
Actual percentage change is
e) πΆπ‘œπ‘›π‘£π‘’π‘₯𝑖𝑑𝑦 =
100.9542−101.5295
×
101.5295
100% = −0.56662%
1
𝐢𝐹1
𝐢𝐹2
𝐢𝐹𝑛
[1∗2∗(1+π‘Ÿ)
1 +2∗3∗(1+π‘Ÿ)2 +β‹―+𝑛∗(𝑛+1)∗(1+π‘Ÿ)𝑛 ]
(1+π‘Ÿ)2
𝐢𝐹1
𝐢𝐹2
𝐢𝐹𝑛
+
+β‹―+(1+π‘Ÿ)
𝑛
(1+π‘Ÿ)1 (1+π‘Ÿ)2
1
2
102
+2∗3∗
[1 ∗ 2 ∗
]
(1 + 0.026)1
(1 + 0.026)2
(1 + 0.026)2
πΆπ‘œπ‘›π‘£π‘’π‘₯𝑖𝑑𝑦𝐴 =
= 5.62
98.7734
βˆ†π‘ƒπ‘Ÿπ‘–π‘π‘’
π‘ƒπ‘Ÿπ‘–π‘π‘’
= −π·π‘š ∗ βˆ†π‘Ÿ +
1
2
∗ 𝐢 ∗ βˆ†π‘Ÿ2 = −1.981 ∗
1
1 + 0.026377
∗ 0.002 +
1
∗ 5.62 ∗ 0.0022
2
= −0.384%
πΆπ‘œπ‘›π‘£π‘’π‘₯𝑖𝑑𝑦𝐡 =
βˆ†π‘ƒπ‘Ÿπ‘–π‘π‘’
π‘ƒπ‘Ÿπ‘–π‘π‘’
1
3
3
103
[1 ∗ 2 ∗
+2∗3∗
+3∗4∗
]
1 + 0.0246
(1 + 0.0246)2
(1 + 0.0246)2
(1 + 0.0246)3
101.5295
= −π·π‘š ∗ βˆ†π‘Ÿ +
1
2
∗ 𝐢 ∗ βˆ†π‘Ÿ2 = −2.914 ∗
1
∗ 0.002 + ∗ 10.99 ∗ 0.0022
1 + 0.0246484
2
= −0.5666%
1
a) Risk-free asset payoff π΄π‘Ÿπ‘“ = (1) with price π‘žπ‘Ÿπ‘“ ≤ 1
1
b)
(1) π‘ž1 = 4𝑝1 + 2𝑝2 + 0𝑝3 = 2
(2) π‘ž2 = 0𝑝1 + 0𝑝2 + 4𝑝3 = 2
(3) π‘žπ‘Ÿπ‘“ = 𝑝1 + 𝑝2 + 𝑝3 ≤ 1
From (2) 𝑝3 = 0.5
From (1) 𝑝2 = 1 − 2𝑝1
Plug into (3): π‘žπ‘Ÿπ‘“ = 𝑝1 + 1 − 2𝑝1 + 0.5 ≤ 1
−𝑝1 + 1.5 ≤ 1
= 10.99
1
−𝑝1 ≤ −0.5
𝑝1 ≥ 0.5
From (1) 𝑝1 = 0.5 − 0.5𝑝2
0.5 − 0.5𝑝2 ≥ 0.5
−0.5𝑝2 ≥ 0
𝑝2 ≤ 0
Price 𝑝2 cannot be negative => 𝑝2 = 0
𝑝1 = 0.5
𝑝3 = 0.5
π‘žπ‘Ÿπ‘“ = 0.5 + 0 + 0.5 = 1
Price of the second Arrow security if zero. This can provide arbitrage opportunity
If we short sell 𝐴1 and 𝐴2 , we would receive π‘ž1 + π‘ž2 = 4
We invest this into 4 risk-free assets and in the next period we receive 4 units no matter what ist he state of the
world
4
0
In the future we have liaibilities of 𝐴1 = (2) and 𝐴2 = (0)
0
4
In the states 1 and 3 we just have zero profit
In the state 2 we have 2 units of profit risklessly
c) 𝐴1 = 4𝑝1 + 2𝑝2 = 2
𝐴2 = 4𝑝3 = 1
𝐴3 = 1𝑝1 + 1𝑝2 + 1𝑝3 = 1
4𝑝3 = 1
𝑝3 =
1
= 0.25
4
1𝑝1 + 1𝑝2 + 0.25 = 1
1𝑝1 + 1𝑝2 = 0.75
4(0.75 − 𝑝2 ) + 2𝑝2 = 2 => 3 − 4𝑝2 + 2𝑝2 = 2
−2𝑝2 = −1
𝑝2 = 0.5
1𝑝1 + 0.5 = 0.75
𝑝1 = 0.25
Risk-free rate is π‘Ÿπ‘“ =
1
1
𝑝1 +𝑝2 +𝑝3
− 1 = − 1 = 0%
1
bo
I
NPV
PV
a) c1= -(1+r)c0+w1
c1= -1.1c0 +110
Approximately should invest 57 in one project and get 90 in t=1
90
Value of the company after investment= 100 + (1.1 − 57) = 124.8181
b) Rate of return=
120
−
100
1 = 0.2 = 20%
120
Value of the company after investment=Current Value + NPV=100 + ( 1.1 − 100) = 109.0909
c) The two shareholders would agree on the amount of investment only under the conditions of the
perfect capital market. The shareholder who wants to consume more today can borrow at 10%, and the
shareholder who wants to consume more tomorrow can invest at 10%.
d) Shareholder on the left wants to consume approximately 85 today. He must borrow 85-43 = 42 000
EUR at 10%
Shareholder on the right wants to consume approximately 40 today. He can lend 43-40 = 3 000 EUR at
10%
e) Yes, both would agree but the shareholder on the right most likely would change his optimal
consumption
a) Variances: 𝜎21 = 0.42 = 0.16, 𝜎22 = 0.22 = 0.04
Covariances: 𝜎1,2 = 𝜌1,1 × πœŽ1 × πœŽ2 = −0.5 ∗ 0.4 ∗ 0.2 = −0.04
(
0.16
−0.04
−0.04
)
0.04
b) Portfolio:
Expected return: πœ‡π‘ = 𝑀1 πœ‡1 + 𝑀2 πœ‡2 + (1 − 𝑀1 − 𝑀2 )πœ‡π‘Ÿπ‘“
Variance of portfolio return: πœŽπ‘2 = 𝑀12 𝜎12 + 𝑀22 𝜎22 + 2𝑀1 𝑀2 𝜎1,2
Min πœŽπ‘2 = 𝑀12 𝜎12 + 𝑀22 𝜎22 + 2𝑀1 𝑀2 𝜎1,2
s.t Μ…Μ…Μ…Μ…
πœ‡π‘ = 𝑀1 πœ‡1 + 𝑀2 πœ‡2 + (1 − 𝑀1 − 𝑀2 )πœ‡π‘Ÿπ‘“
Where Μ…Μ…Μ…Μ…
πœ‡π‘ is the required return (investor wants to receive this return, e.g. 10% or 15%)
FOCs:
π‘‘πœŽπ‘2
𝑑𝑀1
π‘‘πœŽπ‘2
𝑑𝑀2
= 2𝑀1 𝜎12 + 2𝑀2 𝜎1,2 = 0
= 2𝑀2 𝜎22 + 2𝑀1 𝜎1,2 = 0
From (1):
𝑀1 = −
𝑀2 𝜎1,2
𝜎12
Plug into the constraint:
Μ…Μ…Μ…Μ…
πœ‡π‘ = −
Μ…Μ…Μ…Μ…
πœ‡π‘ = −
𝑀2 𝜎1,2
𝜎12
𝑀2 𝜎1,2
𝜎12
Μ…Μ…Μ…Μ…
πœ‡π‘ − πœ‡π‘Ÿπ‘“ = −
πœ‡1 + 𝑀2 πœ‡2 + (1 +
𝑀2 𝜎1,2
𝜎12
πœ‡1 + 𝑀2 πœ‡2 + πœ‡π‘Ÿπ‘“
𝜎1,2
𝜎12
πœ‡1 + πœ‡2 +
Μ…Μ…Μ…Μ…Μ…−πœ‡
πœ‡π‘ π‘Ÿπ‘“
(πœ‡1 −πœ‡π‘Ÿπ‘“ )+(πœ‡2 −πœ‡π‘Ÿπ‘“ )
𝜎2
1
𝑀1 = −
𝜎1,2
𝜎12
𝜎12
πœ‡1 + 𝑀2 πœ‡2 + πœ‡π‘Ÿπ‘“ + πœ‡π‘Ÿπ‘“
Μ…Μ…Μ…Μ…
πœ‡π‘ − πœ‡π‘Ÿπ‘“ = 𝑀2 (−
𝑀2 = − 𝜎1,2
𝑀2 𝜎1,2
(− 𝜎1,2
Μ…Μ…Μ…Μ…Μ…−πœ‡
πœ‡π‘ π‘Ÿπ‘“
=−
𝑀2 𝜎1,2
𝜎12
𝑀2 𝜎1,2
πœ‡π‘Ÿπ‘“ 𝜎1,2
𝜎12
−
− 𝑀2 ) πœ‡π‘Ÿπ‘“
𝜎12
− πœ‡π‘Ÿπ‘“ 𝑀2
− πœ‡π‘Ÿπ‘“ 𝑀2
− πœ‡π‘Ÿπ‘“ ) = 𝑀2 (−
𝜎1,2
𝜎12
Μ…Μ…Μ…Μ…Μ…−0.02
πœ‡π‘
0.04
(0.08−0.02)+(0.05−0.02)
0.16
)=
(πœ‡1 −πœ‡π‘Ÿπ‘“ )+(πœ‡2 −πœ‡π‘Ÿπ‘“ )
𝜎2
1
(πœ‡1 − πœ‡π‘Ÿπ‘“ ) + (πœ‡2 − πœ‡π‘Ÿπ‘“ ))
=
Μ…Μ…Μ…Μ…Μ…−πœ‡
πœ‡π‘ π‘Ÿπ‘“
𝜎2
(πœ‡1 −πœ‡π‘Ÿπ‘“ )+(πœ‡2 −πœ‡π‘Ÿπ‘“ )𝜎 1
1,2
Μ…Μ…Μ…Μ…Μ…−0.02
πœ‡π‘
0.015
=
Μ…Μ…Μ…Μ…Μ…−0.02
πœ‡π‘
(0.08−0.02)+(0.05−0.02)
0.16
0.04
=
Μ…Μ…Μ…Μ…Μ…−0.02
πœ‡π‘
0.18
For example, if Μ…Μ…Μ…Μ…
πœ‡π‘ = 10%, then 𝑀1 = 0.44 and 𝑀2 = 5.33 and π‘€π‘Ÿπ‘“ = 1 − 0.44 − 5.33 = −4.77
if Μ…Μ…Μ…Μ…
πœ‡π‘ = 6%, then 𝑀1 = 0.22 and 𝑀2 = 2.66 and π‘€π‘Ÿπ‘“ = 1 − 0.22 − 2.66 = −1.88
(c) Equation for the portfolio frontier:
2
Μ…Μ…Μ…Μ…Μ…−0.02
πœ‡π‘
Min πœŽπ‘2 = (
0.18
a)
(100 − 𝑐0 ) × 1.06 = 𝑐1
𝑐1 = 106 − 1.06𝑐0
Slope of CML is -1.06
c1= -(1+r)c0+w1
c1= -1.06c0 +106
CML=-1.06
2
Μ…Μ…Μ…Μ…Μ…−0.02
πœ‡π‘
) 𝜎12 + (
0.015
) 𝜎22 + 2
Μ…Μ…Μ…Μ…Μ…−0.02
πœ‡π‘
0.015
×
Μ…Μ…Μ…Μ…Μ…−0.02
πœ‡π‘
0.015
𝜎1,2
1
π‘ˆ(𝑐0 , 𝑐1 ) = ln(1 + 𝑐0 ) + ln(1 + 𝑐1 )
4
π‘‘π‘ˆ
1
=
𝑑𝑐0 𝑐0 + 1
π‘‘π‘ˆ
1
=
𝑑𝑐1 4𝑐1 + 4
-
πœ•π‘ˆ
πœ•π‘0
πœ•π‘ˆ
πœ•π‘1
=−
1
𝑐0 +1
1
4𝑐1 +4
=−
4𝑐1 +4
𝑐0 +1
At the optimum the slope of the indifference curve must be equal to the slope of CML:
−
4𝑐1 +4
𝑐0 +1
= −1.06
4𝑐1 + 4 = 1.06(𝑐0 + 1)
𝑐1 =
1.06𝑐0
4
+
1.06−4
4
= 0.265𝑐0 − 0.735
Plug into the CML:
0.265𝑐0 − 0.735 = 106 − 1.06𝑐0
1.325𝑐0 = 106.735
𝑐0∗ = 80.55
𝑐1∗ = 20.61
Check:
I have 100 and consume 80.55, the rest (100-80.55 = 19.45) is invested at 6%. Next year I receive 20.61
exactly what I want to consume.
1
(b) π‘ˆ(80.55. 20.61) = ln(1 + 80.55) + 4 ln(1 + 20.61) = 5.1695
CML 𝑐1 = 106 − 1.06𝑐0
𝑐1 = 50
1) Find 𝑐0 from CML
50 = 106 − 1.06𝑐0
1.06𝑐0 = 56 => 𝑐0 = 52.8301
2) Find 𝑐0 from utility function
1
ln(1 + 𝑐0 ) + ln(1 + 50) = 5.1695
4
ln(1 + 𝑐0 ) + 0.982956 = 5.1695
ln(1 + 𝑐0 ) = 5.1695 − 0.982956 = 4.1865
1 + 𝑐0 = 𝑒 4.1865 = 65.7921
𝑐0 = 64.7921
The optimality condition is −
4𝑐1∗ +4
𝑐0∗ +1
= −1.06
Check both cases
a) In two years we have 𝐴 = (
0
420
) and 𝐡 = (
)
420
0
Prices 𝑝𝐴 = 180 and 𝑝𝐡 = 220
Pure discount bond brings the payoff of 𝐷𝐡 = (
100
)
100
Price of DB must be such that there is no arbitrage opportunity (based on the law of one price)
𝑝𝐷𝐡 =
100
420
× 220 +
100
420
× 180 = 52.38 + 42.86 = 95.2381
b)
i) Annually: 95.2381 × (1 + π‘Ÿ)2 = 100 => π‘Ÿ = (
100
)
0.5
95.2381
− 1 = 2.4695%
4
π‘Ÿ
ii) Semi-annually: 95.2381 × (1 + ) = 100 => π‘Ÿ = 2 × [(
2
iii) Monthly: 95.2381 × (1 +
π‘Ÿ
12
)
24
= 100 => π‘Ÿ = 12 × [(
iv) Continuously: 95.2381 × π‘’ 2π‘Ÿ = 1 00 => 𝑒 2π‘Ÿ =
lim (1 +
π‘š→∞
π‘Ÿ
π‘š
)
π‘š×𝑛
100
95.2381
1
4
100
95.2381
) − 1] = 2.4544%
1
24
100
95.2381
) − 1] = 2.4420%
=> 2π‘Ÿ = ln
100
95.2381
=> π‘Ÿ = 2.4395%
= 𝑒 π‘Ÿπ‘›
c) Assume there are three asset prices: 𝑝1 , 𝑝2 and 𝑝3
Discrete returns: π‘Ÿ2 =
𝑝2 −𝑝1
𝑝1
, π‘Ÿ3 =
𝑝3 −𝑝2
𝑝2
, average return π‘ŸΜ… = √π‘Ÿ2 × π‘Ÿ3 , discrete returns are not additive
𝑝
𝑝
π‘Ÿ2 +π‘Ÿ3
𝑝1
𝑝2
2
Cont. returns: π‘Ÿ2 = ln ( 2), π‘Ÿ3 = ln ( 3) , average return π‘ŸΜ… =
, cont returns are additive
With the help of additivity we can compute variances, covariances and other statistical characteristics of the asset
returns
a) 𝐢𝐡1 =
3
1+0.02
103
+ (1+0.02)2 = 2.94 + 99 = 101.94
𝐢𝐡2 =
100
= 82.03
1.0210
3
103
+2∗
2.94
99
1 + 0.02
(1 + 0.02)2
= 1×
+2×
= 0.02884 + 1.942319 = 1.97
101.94
101.94
101.94
1∗
𝐷1 =
𝐷2 =
100
1.0210
10∗
82.03
= 10
b) 𝑃 = 20 × 101.94 + 30 × 82.03 = 2038.8 + 2460.9 = 4499.7
𝐷𝑃 = 𝑀1 × π·1 + 𝑀2 × π·2 =
2038.8
4499.7
× 1.97 +
2460.9
4499.7
× 10 = 0.8926 + 5.4690 = 6.3616
c) At t = 10
𝐹𝑉 = 20 × (3 × 1.029 + 103 × 1.028 ) + 30 × 100 = 5485.32
or 𝐹𝑉 = 4499.7 × 1.0210
At t = 6.36
𝐹𝑉 = 20 × (3 × 1.025.36 + 103 × 1.024.36 ) + 30 ×
100
1.0210−6.36
= 5103.85
or 𝐹𝑉 = 4499.7 × 1.026.36
d) Sketch discuss later
e)
3
103
+2∗
1 + 0.025
(1 + 0.025)2
= 1.95
101.94
1∗
𝐷1 =
𝐷2 =
100
1.02510
10∗
82.03
= 9.52
Price change 𝐷𝑃 = 𝑀1 × π·1 + 𝑀2 × π·2 =
2038.8
4499.7
× 1.95 +
2460.9
4499.7
× 9.52 = 0.8835 + 5.2065 = 6.09
NPV
I
PV
a) π‘ƒπ‘Ÿπ‘œπ‘—π‘’π‘π‘‘1 =
42
30
− 1 = 0.4 = 40%
π‘ƒπ‘Ÿπ‘œπ‘—π‘’π‘π‘‘2 =
21
− 1 = 0.05 = 5%
20
π‘ƒπ‘Ÿπ‘œπ‘—π‘’π‘π‘‘3 =
52
− 1 = 0.4 = 4%
50
b) π΄π‘£π‘’π‘Ÿπ‘Žπ‘”π‘’ π‘Ÿπ‘’π‘‘π‘’π‘Ÿπ‘› =
115
100
− 1 = 0.15 = 15%
max amount can consume today: 100
max amount of consumption in t=1: 115
c) Should invest in project 1 (invest 30 and get 42) since rate of return higher than interest rate
NPV = 42/1.1 - 30
PV = 42/1.1
d) (𝑀0 − 𝑐0 ) × (1 + π‘Ÿ) = 𝑐1
(𝑀0 − 𝑐0 ) × (1 + π‘Ÿ) = 𝑐1
𝑀0 = 100 + 𝑁𝑃𝑉 = 100 + 𝑃𝑉 − 𝐼
(𝑀0 − 𝑐0 ) × (1 + 0.1) = 𝑐1
Assume we do not know what is 𝑀0
We know that the point 𝑐0 = 70 and 𝑐1 = 42 belongs to the CML
42
(𝑀0 − 70) × 1.1 = 42 => 𝑀0 = + 70 = 108.18
1.1
𝑀1 = 108.18 × 1.1 = 119
𝑐1 = 119 − 1.1𝑐0
Max amount today: If 𝑐1 = 0, 𝑐0 =
119
1.1
= 108.18
Max amount tomorrow: If 𝑐0 = 0, 𝑐1 = 119
e) 119 − 1.1𝑐0 = 𝑐1
π‘‘π‘ˆ
1
=
𝑑𝑐0 𝑐0 + 1
π‘‘π‘ˆ
1
=
𝑑𝑐1 10𝑐1 + 10
-
πœ•π‘ˆ
πœ•π‘0
πœ•π‘ˆ
πœ•π‘1
=−
1
𝑐0 +1
1
10𝑐1 +10
=−
10𝑐1 +10
𝑐0 +1
= −1.1
10𝑐1∗ + 10 = 1.1(𝑐0∗ + 1)
10(𝑐1∗ + 1) = 1.1(𝑐0∗ + 1)
(𝑐1∗ + 1) =
𝑐1∗ =
1.1(𝑐0∗ +1)
10
1.1(𝑐0∗ +1)
−
10
1
𝑐1∗ = 0.11𝑐0∗ + 0.11 − 1 = 0.11𝑐0∗ − 0.89
Plug into CML:
119 − 1.1𝑐0∗ = 0.11𝑐0∗ − 0.89
1.1𝑐0∗ + 0.11𝑐0∗ = 119 + 0.89
1.21𝑐0∗ = 119.89
𝑐0∗ =
119.89
1.21
= 99.08
𝑐1∗ = 0.11 × 99.08 − 0.89 = 10
Need to borrow 99.08 – (100 – 30) = 29.08 in period 0
Investor has 100 today
Invest 30 into the project that brings tomorrow 42
The rest amount (100- 30) he consumes today
Additionally he borrows 29.08 today and in total consumes 70 + 29.08 = 99.08
Tomorrows comes and he receives 42. But he must repay 29.08*1.1 = 32. He can consume tomorrow
only 42 – 32 = 10
a) 1 year forward rate t=1
(1 + π‘Ÿ1 )(1 + 𝑓1,1 ) = (1 + π‘Ÿ2 )2
𝑓1,1 =
(1 + 0.00323)2
− 1 = 0.0059 = 0.59%
1 − 0.00053
5-year forward rate t=2
5
(1 + π‘Ÿ2 )2 (1 + 𝑓5,2 ) = (1 + π‘Ÿ7 )7
1
𝑓5,2
(1 + 0.01153)7 5
=(
) − 1 = 0.0149 = 1.49%
(1 + 0.00323)2
t=10
5
(1 + π‘Ÿ10 )10 (1 + 𝑓5,10 ) = (1 + π‘Ÿ15 )15
1
𝑓5,10
(1 + 0.01678)15 5
=(
) − 1 = 0.0213 = 2.13%
(1 + 0.01452)10
t=15
5
(1 + π‘Ÿ15 )15 (1 + 𝑓5,15 ) = (1 + π‘Ÿ20 )20
1
𝑓5,15
(1 + 0.01745)20 5
=(
) − 1 = 0.1011 = 10.11%
(1 + 0.01678)15
t=20
5
(1 + π‘Ÿ20 )20 (1 + 𝑓5,20 ) = (1 + π‘Ÿ25 )25
1
𝑓5,20
(1 + 0.01637)25 5
=(
) − 1 = 0.1577 = 15.77%
(1 + 0.01745)15
t=25
5
(1 + π‘Ÿ25 )25 (1 + 𝑓5,25 ) = (1 + π‘Ÿ30 )30
1
𝑓5,25
(1 + 0.01673)30 5
=(
) − 1 = 0.0961 = 9.61%
(1 + 0.01637)25
b) ?
с)
d)
3
1−0.00053
3
1+0.00595
3
103
3
103
+ (1+0.00323)2 + (1+0.00603)3 = 107.14
+ (1+0.00595)2 + (1+0.00595)3 = 107.13
a) A4 can be a call option on A1 with strike 130
A4 can be a call option on A3 with strike 80
A5 can be a put option on A1 with strike 130
A5 can be a put option on A3 with strike 80
b) On the left hand side of the equation we have price of call (c) and price of bond with the face value of K
Their future payoffs are: max{S1 – K, 0} + K = max{S1, K}
On the right hand side we have price of put (p) and price of stock (S0)
Their future payoffs are: max{K – S1 ,0} + S1 = max {K, S1}
Since the payoffs are equal, prices of two portfolios must also be equal (call + bond and stock + put)
a)
𝑐0 = 2 − 𝐼 => 𝐼 = 2 − 𝑐0
1
1
1
5
5
5
𝑐1 = (2 − 𝑐0 )(4 + 2 − (2 − 𝑐0 )) = (2 − 𝑐0 )(4 + 𝑐0 ) = (8 − 2𝑐0 − 𝑐02 )
a) 𝐴 =
4
1+π‘Ÿ1
104
+ (1+π‘Ÿ
2
2)
= 103.845
𝐡=
2
102
+
= 99.981
1 + π‘Ÿ1 (1 + π‘Ÿ2 )2
𝐢=
5
105
105
+
+
= 100.363
2
(1 + π‘Ÿ3 )3
1 + π‘Ÿ1 (1 + π‘Ÿ2 )
𝐷=
100
= 62.275
(1 + π‘Ÿ7 )7
Subtract (B) from (A):
103.845 − 99.981 =
3.864 =
4
2
104
102
−
+
−
1 + π‘Ÿ1 1 + π‘Ÿ1 (1 + π‘Ÿ2 )2 (1 + π‘Ÿ2 )2
2
2
+
1 + π‘Ÿ1 (1 + π‘Ÿ2 )2
2
2
= 3.864 −
(1 + π‘Ÿ2 )2
1 + π‘Ÿ1
Plug into B
3.864 −
2
102
+
= 99.981
(1 + π‘Ÿ2 )2 (1 + π‘Ÿ2 )2
3.864 +
102
= 99.981
(1 + π‘Ÿ2 )2
100
= 96.117
(1 + π‘Ÿ2 )2
1
(1 + π‘Ÿ2
)2
100 2
=(
) − 1 = 0.019999
96.117
π‘Ÿ2 = 2%
2
2
= 3.864 −
(1 + 0.02)2
1 + π‘Ÿ1
2
= 1.922
1 + π‘Ÿ1
1 + π‘Ÿ1 = 1.04 => 0.04
π‘Ÿ1 = 4%
5
5
105
+
+
= 100.363
1 + 0.04 (1 + 0.02)2 (1 + π‘Ÿ3 )3
105
= 100.363 − 9.613
(1 + π‘Ÿ3 )3
1
105 3
π‘Ÿ3 = (
) − 1 = 0.05 = 5%
90.75
1
100
100 7
62.275 =
=> π‘Ÿ7 = (
) − 1 = 0.07 = 7%
7
(1 + π‘Ÿ7 )
62.275
π‘Ÿ1 = 4%, π‘Ÿ2 = 2% π‘Ÿ3 = 5% π‘Ÿ7 = 7%
Forward rate from t=3 to t=7
4
(1 + 0.05)3 ∗ (1 + 𝑓1,4 ) = (1 + 0.07)7
4
(1 + 𝑓1,2 ) =
(1 + 0.07)7
(1 + 0.05)3
1
𝑓1,4 = 1.387134 − 1 = 0.08524 ≈ 8.5%
b) πΉπ‘Žπ‘–π‘Ÿ π‘π‘Ÿπ‘–π‘π‘’ =
4
1+0.04
+
4
(1+0.02)2
+
104
(1+0.05)3
= 3.8462 + 3.8447 + 89.84 = 97.5299
This bond is overpriced by the market
We can short sell this bond at 100 now
Split this amount into three parts:
Invest 3.8462 at 4% for 1 year 3.8447 at 2% for 2 years 89.84 at 5% for 3 years
After 1 year we have 4 and we can pay this amount as an obligation for the bond
After 2 years we have 4 and we can pay
After 3 years we have 104.001 and we an pay
There is a risk-free profit 0.001 from each bond
c) 𝐴 =
4
104
1+π‘Œπ‘‡π‘€
Denote
+ (1+π‘Œπ‘‡π‘€)2 = 103.845
1
1+π‘Œπ‘‡π‘€
=π‘₯
4π‘₯ + 104π‘₯ 2 − 103.845 = 0
π‘₯1 =
−4+√4 2 −4×104×(−103.845)
2×104
= 0.9802
π‘₯2 =
−4−√4 2 −4×104×(−103.845)
2×104
< 0 => Not accepted
1
1+π‘Œπ‘‡π‘€
= 0.9802 => π‘Œπ‘‡π‘€ =
1
−
0.9802
4
𝐷=
[1 ∗ 1 + 0.0202 + 2 ∗
π·π‘š =
104
(1 + 0.0202)2
103.845
4
104
+2∗
]
1+0.0202
(1+0.0202)2
[1∗
d) ) 𝐷𝐷 =
103.845
100
(1+0.07)7
7∗
62.275
1 = 2.02%
]
= 1.9622
1
1
∗ (1+0.0202) = 1.9622 ∗ (1+0.0202) = 1.9233
= 6.9
1
100
[6 ∗ 7 ∗
]
(1 + 0.07)2
(1 + 0.07)7
πΆπ‘œπ‘›π‘£π‘’π‘₯𝑖𝑑𝑦 =
= 36.684
62.275
βˆ†π‘Ÿ
π·π‘œπ‘™π‘™π‘Žπ‘Ÿ π‘‘π‘’π‘Ÿπ‘Žπ‘‘π‘–π‘œπ‘› = 𝐷 ∗ (
)∗𝑃
1+π‘Ÿ
π·π‘œπ‘™π‘™π‘Žπ‘Ÿπ·π‘’π‘Ÿπ‘Žπ‘‘π‘–π‘œπ‘› = 6.9 ∗
0.005
∗ 62.275 = 2.008
1 + 0.07
Price change with dollar duration?
π·π‘œπ‘™π‘™π‘Žπ‘ŸπΆπ‘œπ‘›π‘£π‘’π‘₯𝑖𝑑𝑦 = 𝐢 ∗ π‘–π‘›π‘–π‘‘π‘–π‘Žπ‘™ 𝑃
1
π·π‘œπ‘™π‘™π‘Žπ‘Ÿ π‘π‘Ÿπ‘–π‘π‘’ π‘β„Žπ‘Žπ‘›π‘”π‘’ = ∗ π·π‘œπ‘™π‘™π‘Žπ‘ŸπΆπ‘œπ‘›π‘£π‘’π‘₯𝑖𝑑𝑦 ∗ βˆ†π‘Ÿ 2
2
π·π‘œπ‘™π‘™π‘Žπ‘Ÿ π‘π‘Ÿπ‘–π‘π‘’ π‘β„Žπ‘Žπ‘›π‘”π‘’ =
1
∗ 36.684 ∗ 0.0052 = 0.000459 ≈ 0.0459%
2
Sharpe’s ratio:
SR for A:
SR for B:
SR for C:
(πœ‡π‘˜ −π‘Ÿπ‘“ )
πœŽπ‘˜
10%−2%
8%
20%−2%
10%
8%−2%
5%
=1
= 1.8
= 1.4
The best portfolio would consist or both investors from the risk-free asset and asset B
If there is a risk-free asset, investors are looking for the investment where
(πœ‡π‘˜ −π‘Ÿπ‘“ )
πœŽπ‘˜
is maximized
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