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Test 1
Question 1
Your answer is CORRECT.
Small internal cell structures are best visualized with a
A)
light microscope.
B)
dark-field microscope.
C)
transmission electron microscope.
D)
scanning electron microscope.
Question 2
Your answer is CORRECT.
The lipopolysaccharide (LPS) that is found in the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria is also
known as
A)
exotoxin.
B)
teichoic acid.
C)
murein.
D)
endotoxin.
Question 3
Your answer is CORRECT.
Chemotaxis is a process by which bacteria
A)
move toward an attractant or away from a repellent.
B)
avoid phagocytosis.
C)
respond to the presence of oxygen in the environment.
D)
move on solid surfaces by means of type IV fimbriae.
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Question 4
Your answer is CORRECT.
Proteins that are loosely attached to the cytoplasmic membrane are called __________ proteins.
A)
peripheral
B)
integral
C)
external
D)
internal
Question 5
Your answer is CORRECT.
A feature unique to some archaeal plasma membranes is that they
A)
consist of a lipid bilayer that lacks integral membrane proteins.
B)
consist of a lipid bilayer with embedded proteins.
C)
contain sterols such as cholesterol.
D)
consist of a lipid monolayer.
Question 6
Your answer is CORRECT.
The general protein secretion pathway of bacteria
A)
translocates proteins across the plasma membrane.
B)
places integral membrane proteins in the cytoplasmic membrane.
C)
works with proteins that have an amino-terminal signal peptide.
D)
a and b
E)
b and c
Question 7
Your answer is INCORRECT.
Which of the following is not a major class of growth factors?
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A)
amino acids
B)
purines and pyrimidines
C)
vitamins
D)
nucleic acids
Question 8
Your answer is CORRECT.
Organisms that can use carbon dioxide as their sole or principal source of carbon are
A)
auxotrophs.
B)
autotrophs.
C)
prototrophs.
D)
heterotrophs.
Question 9
Your answer is CORRECT.
Which of the following is not considered a macronutrient?
A)
carbon (C)
B)
calcium (Ca)
C)
potassium (K)
D)
cobalt (Co)
Question 10
Your answer is INCORRECT.
Media containing some ingredients of unknown chemical composition are called __________ media.
A)
undefined
B)
complex
C)
defined
D)
synthetic
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Question 11
Your answer is CORRECT.
A growth medium that distinguishes among different groups of bacteria on the basis of their biological
characteristics is called a __________ medium.
A)
selective
B)
differential
C)
enrichment
D)
transport
Question 12
Your answer is CORRECT.
Which of the following best describe the energy source of a chemoorganotroph.
A)
glucose
B)
carbon dioxide
C)
oxidized metals
D)
light
E)
none of the above
Question 13
Your answer is CORRECT.
The exponential growth rate of a bacterial culture is affected by all of the following except
A)
the genetic potential of the organism
B)
the composition of the growth medium
C)
the number of cells initially inoculated into the culture vessel
D)
the condition of incubation.
Question 14
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Your answer is CORRECT.
The total number of viable microorganisms remains constant in stationary phase because
A)
there is a balance between cell division and cell death
B)
there is a cessation of cell division even though the cells may remain metabolically active
either there is a balance between cell division and cell death or there is a cessation of cell division
C)
even though the cells may remain metabolically active
D)
none of the above
Question 15
Your answer is CORRECT.
Cells may enter stationary phase because of
A)
the depletion of an essential nutrient.
B)
a lack of available oxygen.
C)
the accumulation of toxic waste products.
D)
all of the above
Question 16
Your answer is CORRECT.
Which of these methods can be used to determine the number of viable microorganisms in a sample?
A)
light scattering in a spectrophotometer
B)
measuring total cell mass
C)
measuring colony forming units per ml
D)
counting a known volume of cells in a hemocytometer
Question 17
Your answer is CORRECT.
Which of the following is a reason for the occurrence of a lag phase in a bacterial growth curve?
A)
The cells may be old and depleted of ATP, essential cofactors, and ribosomes that must be
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synthesized before growth can begin.
The medium may be different from the previous growth medium so that the cells must synthesize
B)
new enzymes to use different nutrients.
C)
The organisms may have been injured and require time to recover.
D)
All of these are potential reasons.
Question 18
Your answer is INCORRECT.
Quorum sensing
A)
is a phenomenon in which bacteria monitor their own population density.
B)
depends on the sensing of signal molecules called autoinducers.
C)
plays an important role in formation of biofilms by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
D)
all of the above
Question 19
Your answer is CORRECT.
The cell's genome is stored in
A)
the cytoplasmic membrane.
B)
the nucleus or nucleoid.
C)
the cytoplasm.
D)
none of the above.
Question 20
Your answer is CORRECT.
Changes in cellular characteristics are transmitted to offspring through the process of
A)
chemical signaling.
B)
reproductive initiative.
C)
evolution.
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D)
none of the above.
Question 21
Your answer is CORRECT.
Catalysts involved in the acceleration of the rate of biological reactions are called
A)
catalytic converters.
B)
growth agents.
C)
evolutionary molecules.
D)
enzymes.
Question 22
Your answer is INCORRECT.
Microbial sterilization is used to
A)
decrease the possibility of contaminants growing in a culture.
B)
kill bacteria but not necessarily viruses or other microbes.
C)
kill all microbes in or on objects.
D)
clean a work area.
Question 23
Your answer is CORRECT.
Genetic engineering could best be described as
A)
the creation of life from nonlife.
B)
the artificial manipulation of genes and gene products.
C)
treatment of diseases with synthetic drugs.
D)
the expansion of biomass to meet specific needs.
Question 24
Your answer is CORRECT.
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The ultimate downfall of the theory of spontaneous generation was the result of work by
A)
Pasteur.
B)
Koch.
C)
Hooke.
D)
van Leeuwenhoek.
Question 25
Your answer is CORRECT.
Chemolithotrophy involves
A)
oxidation of organic compounds.
B)
oxidation of inorganic compounds.
C)
reduction of organic compounds.
D)
metabolic autotrophy.
Question 26
Your answer is CORRECT.
Microbial ecology is the study of
A)
microbial processes in the soil that benefit plant growth.
B)
the diversity and activities of marine microorganisms.
C)
the grouping and classifying of microorganisms.
D)
microorganisms in their natural environments.
Question 27
Your answer is CORRECT.
The structure that confers structural strength on the cell and protects it from osmotic lysis is known as the
A)
cytoplasmic membrane.
B)
cell wall.
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C)
ribosome.
D)
cytoplasm.
Question 28
Your answer is CORRECT.
The process whereby microorganisms are used to help clean up pollution created by human activities is
known as
A)
biodecontamination
B)
bioremediation
C)
biosanitation
D)
bioprocessing
Question 29
Your answer is CORRECT.
Disease-causing prokaryotes are found exclusively among the
A)
Archaea.
B)
Bacteria.
C)
fungi.
D)
viruses.
Question 30
Your answer is CORRECT.
In which of the following habitats might an extremophile be isolated?
A)
garden soil at neutral pH
B)
boiling hot springs
C)
human skin
D)
a freshwater pond
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Question 31
Your answer is CORRECT.
The cytoplasmic membrane could best be described as
A)
an impermeable barrier.
B)
a passive conduit for intracellular transport.
C)
a highly selective permeability barrier.
D)
slightly permeable to water but impermeable to metabolic solutes.
Question 32
Your answer is CORRECT.
The periplasm is a(n)
A)
part of the outer cell membrane of gram-negative organisms.
B)
part of the inner cell membrane of gram-negative organisms.
C)
region between the cytoplasmic membrane and the outer membrane of gram-negative Bacteria.
D)
alternate name for the inner cell membrane of any prokaryotic cell.
Question 33
Your answer is CORRECT.
Which of the following statements is false?
A)
The flagellar protein subunit is flagellin.
B)
In flagellar motion, the basal body acts as a motor.
C)
Flagella rotate at a constant speed.
D)
The hook is the wider region at the base of the flagellum.
Question 34
Your answer is CORRECT.
A major function of prokaryotic gas vesicles is
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A)
to confer buoyancy on cells by decreasing their density.
B)
to serve as a reservoir for oxygen and carbon dioxide.
C)
to keep the cell's organelles separated during flagellar motion.
D)
none of the above.
Question 35
Your answer is CORRECT.
What is the biological function of endospores?
A)
They are bacterial reproductive structures.
B)
They enable organisms to endure extremes of temperature, drying, and nutrient depletion.
C)
They are formed as evaginations of the bacterial cell walls.
D)
All of the above are endospore functions.
Question 36
Your answer is CORRECT.
Regulation of an enzyme's activity occurs
A)
before the enzyme is produced.
B)
during the production of the enzyme.
C)
when the enzyme already exists in the cell.
D)
at any point on the enzymatic production pathway.
Question 37
Your answer is CORRECT.
Siderophores
A)
bind iron and transport it into the cell.
B)
are a key component in the cytochromes.
C)
help maintain osmotic balance in seawater microbes.
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D)
develop when errors in membrane synthesis occur.
Question 38
Your answer is CORRECT.
If the change in free energy of a reaction is negative,
A)
the reaction is exergonic and requires the input of energy.
B)
the reaction is endergonic and requires the input of energy.
C)
the reaction is exergonic and energy will be released.
D)
the reaction is endergonic and energy will be released.
Question 39
Your answer is CORRECT.
If an oxidation reaction occurs, a reduction reaction must also occur because
A)
electrons cannot exist alone in solution.
B)
that is what redox means.
C)
half reactions are written that way.
D)
Actually, reduction is not necessary if oxidation occurs.
Question 40
Your answer is CORRECT.
The roadblock created by the formation of a reduced electron carrier is overcome in fermentation by the
A)
oxidation of NADH back to NAD+.
B)
reduction of NADH back to NAD+.
C)
oxidation of NAD+ back to NADH.
D)
reduction of NAD+ back to NADH.
Question 41
Your answer is CORRECT.
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The process by which two prokaryotic cells arise from one is known as
A)
conjugation.
B)
binary fission.
C)
meiosis.
D)
mitosis.
Question 42
Your answer is INCORRECT.
Population growth is measured by
A)
changes in the number of cells.
B)
changes in the weight of the cell mass.
C)
changes in the number of cells and in the weight of the cell mass.
D)
changes in the amount of nutrient in the culture medium.
Question 43
Your answer is CORRECT.
When doing a colony count,
A)
it is assumed that each colony arose from only one organism.
B)
only viable cells are counted.
C)
the medium must be suitable for colonial growth.
D)
all of the above apply.
E)
only a and b apply.
Question 44
Your answer is INCORRECT.
For most physiological experiments, it is usually most desirable for cells to be in the
A)
lag phase.
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B)
exponential phase.
C)
stationary phase.
D)
death phase.
Question 45
Your answer is CORRECT.
The partition that is a result of the inward growth of the cytoplasmic membrane and cell wall from
opposing directions is known as the
A)
divisome.
B)
septum.
C)
autolysin.
D)
colony.
Question 46
Your answer is CORRECT.
The main reactions of cell synthesis are the polymerization reactions that make macromolecules from
monomers.
A)
True
B)
False
Question 47
Your answer is INCORRECT.
With a few minor exceptions, the time required for a bacterial growth cycle is generally the same,
regardless of the bacterial species.
A)
True
B)
False
Question 48
Your answer is CORRECT.
In the stationary phase, there is no net increase or decrease in cell number.
A)
True
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B)
False
Question 49
Your answer is CORRECT.
Without microorganisms, all higher life forms on Earth would cease to exist.
A)
True
B)
False
Question 50
Your answer is CORRECT.
All microorganisms require molecular oxygen to carry on life functions.
A)
True
B)
False
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