Tests of Big book (biology)
CHAPTER 1
1- The mechanism by which organisms maintain the stability of internal environment is
known as:
A- Homeostasis *
B- Normal health
C- Structural adaptation
D- Osmoregulation
E- Blood circulation
2- The ability to move is an example of:
A- Homeostasis
B- Reproduction
C- Growth and development
D- Adaptation
E- Response to stimuli*
3- The amount of sugar in our blood is always maintained 3.2 - 6.1 mmol/l. It is an example
of:
A- Homeostasis*
B- Reproduction
C- Growth and development
D- Adaptation
E- Response to stimuli
4- The next higher level of biological organization above the organism is:
A- Molecular genetic
B- Cellular
C- Population-species*
D- Ecosystem
E- Biosphere
5- What level of organization is studied by epidemiology and parasitology?
A- Molecular genetic
B- Cellular
C- Population-species
D- Ecosystem*
E- Biosphere
6- One of the lipid function is:
A- Provide different kinds of movements
B- Store large amount of energy over long period of time*
C- Contain genetic information
D- Provide lubrication
7- Which of the following is a major element found in cell:
A- Copper
B- Zinc
C- Sulfur*
D- Iodine
E- Fluorine
8- Which of the following is a minor element found in cell:
A- Oxygen
B- Carbon
C- Sulfur
D- Zinc*
E- Sodium
9- The most prevalent compound in a living cell:
A- Protein
B- Nucleic acid
C- Water*
D- Lipid
E- polysaccharide
10- The largest biomolecule in a living cell:
A- Glycogen
B- Protein
C- Cholesterol
D- Deoxyribonucleic acid*
E- Triglyceride
11- Amino acid is a structural component of:
A- Nucleic acid
B- Protein*
C- Sucrose
D- Starch
E- Fat
CHAPTER 2
1- The virus capsid is composed of:
A- DNA
B- RNA
C- Proteins*
D- Both DNA & RNA
E- None
2- Disease(s) caused by viruses:
A- Influenza
B- Rubella
C- Polio
D- Ebola
E- All are correct*
3- Viroid consist of:
A- Protein
B- DNA
C- RNA*
D- Peptidoglycan
E- Lipid
4- Prion is a molecule of:
A- Protein*
B- DNA
C- RNA
D- Peptidoglycan
E- Lipid
5- Example of prion disease is:
A- Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
B- Fatal familial insomnia
C- Kuru
D- Scrapie
E- All are correct*
6- Viruses range in size from:
A- 1-100 nm
B- 20-300 nm*
C- 10-100 micrometer
D- 400-1000 nm
E- 1-10 micrometer
7- A fully formed infectious viral particle is called:
A- Viroid
B- Virusoid
C- Virion*
D- Capsid
E- Prion
8- Which of the following statements applies to viruses?
A- They can be observed using a light microscope
B- They can multiply outside the host cells
C- Release of a virus from its host cell is always associated with lysis of the cell
D- Viruses are complexes of nucleic acid and proteins*
9- Which of the following statements is not true of prokaryotes?
A- Most prokaryotes are multicellular*
B- Prokaryotic cells do not have a nucleus
C- Prokaryotic cells have circular DNA
D- Prokaryotic cells have flagella
E- Prokaryotic cells have ribosomes
10- The Prokaryotic genome is contained in the:
A- Capsule
B- Endospore
C- Pilus
D- Nucleoid region
E- Ribosomes*
11- Genetic recombination has led to antibiotic resistance through the transfer of:
A- Pili
B- Spores
C- Plasmids*
D- Enzymes
E- All of the above
12- In bacteria genetic recombination is provided by:
A- Binary fission
B- Meiosis
C- Conjugation*
D- Fertilization
E- Recombination is absent
CHAPTER 3
1. Organelles present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are:
B. Ribosomes *
D. Mitochondria
A. Endoplasmic reticulum
E. All of the above
C. Lysosomes
2. As a rule DNA in eukariotyc cells is in chromosomes. Some cell organelles contain DNA
also. These are:
C. Endoplasmic reticulum
D. Ribosomes
A. Lysosomes
B. Golgi complex
E. Mitochondria*
3. Centrioles were removed from the cell by micromanipulator. Which cell process is
destroyed?
A. Protein synthesis
B. Cell respiration
C. Carbohydrate metabolism
D. Cell division*
E. Fat metabolism
4. Golgi complex consists of tubules, vesicles, and cisternae. It produces:
A. Chromosomes
D. Secondary lysosomes
E. Mitochondria
B. Ribosomes
C. Primary lysosomes*
5. Ribosomes consist of proteins and rRNA. What is the place of biogenesis of ribo- somes?
A. Golgi complex
B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D. Microtubules
E. Nucleolus*
C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
6. There are two types of endoplasmic reticulum: smooth and rough. Which function is
common for both?
A. Protein synthesis
B. Biosynthesis of carbohydrates
C. Lipid biosynthesis
D. Synthesis of glycogen
E. Transport*
7. What do we call the double set of chromosomes, specific for the species?
A. Genome
C. Metaphase plate
D. Karyotype *
E. Genotype
B. Idiogram
8. Ten human chromosomes have nucleolar organizer regions, which are responsible for
the formation of nucleoli. These chromosomes are:
A. Telocentric
B. Submetacentric
C. Metacentric
E. Acrocentric *
D. Centromeric
9. There are several types of the chromosomes in human karyotype. Chromosomes with
slightly unequal arms are:
A. Submetacentric *
C. Acrocentric
E. Telocentric
B. Centromeric
D. Metacentric
10. There are different types of the chromosomes in photo of metaphase plate. Which of
them have equal arms?
A. Metacentric *
C. Acrocentric
E. Centromeric
B. Submetacentric
D. Telocentric
11. Chemical composition of the chromosomes is:
C. Glycolipids
D. Glycoproteids
A. Polypeptides
E. Nucleoproteids *
B. Amino acids
12. The similar chromosomes in males and females are termed as:
A. Autosomes *
C. Heterosomes
D. Homologous
E. Non-homologous
B. Sex chromosomes
CHAPTER 4
1. There are 100 monomers in a protein molecule. How many nucleotides (fragment of
double strand DNA) specify this protein?
A. 100
B. 200
C. 300
D. 600 *
E. 900
2. All amino acids, with the exceptions of methionine and tryptophan are encoded by more
than one codon. This feature is referred to as:
A. Universality of genetic code
B. Colinearity
C. Degeneracy of genetic code *
D. Specificity of genetic code
E. Triplet nature of genetic code
3. Action of some antibiotics on microorganisms is based on the arrest of translation. It
means the arrest of synthesis of: A. DNA
C. rRNA
E. mRNA
B. tRNA
D. Polypeptide chain *
4. Both DNA and RNA consist of nucleotides. RNA differs from DNA by the presence of:
A. Adenine
C. Guanine
E. Phosphate group
B. Ribose *
D. Cytosine
5. The majority of structural genes in eukaryotes consist of sequences coding the information (exons) and intervening noncoding sequences (introns). Which molecule is formed
on these genes directly after transcription?
A. Pre-mRNA *
C. snRNA
E. rRNA
B. mRNA
D. tRNA
6. In eukaryotes, pre-mRNA produced directly after transcription should be trans-formed
in mature mRNA. This process of maturation is referred to as:
A. Translation
C. Splicing
E. Reparation
B. Processing *
D. Termination
7. Monomer of a DNA molecule is:
A. Amino acid
C. Polypeptide
E. Nucleotide *
B. Nitrogenous base
D. Deoxyribose
8. mRNA molecule has 200 nitrogenous bases. How many nucleotides does it have?
A. 50
C. 200 *
E. 600
B. 100
D. 400
9. Three triplets (UAA, UAG, UGA) do not specify amino acids. These triplets are termed:
A. Introns
C. Anticodons
E. Exons
B. Codons
D. Terminators *
10. All types of RNA are synthesized on DNA template. Enzyme that carries out the transcription is:
A. Phosphatase
C. Nuclease
E. Polimerase *
B. Lipase
D. Protease
11. Recognizing of mRNA triplets (i.e., deciphering of genetic code) during the trans-lation
occurs under the complementary principle by three-nucleotide sequence of tRNA. This
sequence is:
A. Anticodon *
C. Promoter
E. Intron
B. Codon
D. Exon
12. Synthesis of primary protein structure is termed:
A. Transcription
C. Replication
E. Reparation
B. Translation *
D. Termination
13. Ribosomes synthesize polipeptides (translation). In post-translation period the following occurs:
A. Replication
C. Splicing
E. Reparation
B. Processing
D. Folding *
14. Which cell organelles provide formation of primary protein structure?
A. Ribosomes *
C. Lysosomes
E. Nucleus
B. Golgi complex
D. ER
15. A cell contains three types of RNA: mRNA, tRNA, rRNA. Synthesis of all these mole-cules
occur in:
A. Lysosomes
C. Nucleus *
E. Golgi complex
B. Ribosomes
D. Smooth ER
16. A mRNA molecule has 110 phosphate groups. How many nucleotides does it consist of?
A. 55
C. 220
E. 440
B. 110 *
D. 330
17. Structural genes of eukaryotes have exons and introns. Introns are removed during the
maturation of mRNA. This process is termed:
A. Processing
C. Reparation
E. Replication.
B. Splicing *
D. Termination
CHAPTER 5
1. Active synthesis of proteins, carbohydrates and lipids in the cell takes place at the:
A. Anaphase
C. Metaphase
E. Prophase
B. Interphase *
D. Telophase
2. Human somatic cells are diploid (2n), but polyploid cell of the red bone marrow
(megakaryocytes) may have 64 n chromosomes. What is the mechanism of its forma-tion?
A. Endomitosis *
C. Mitosis
E. Meiosis
B. Polyteny
D. Amitosis
3. An electron photomicrograph shows the cell with separating centrioles and forming
mitotic spindle. Chromatin threads are situated in the cytoplasm. The nuclear enve-lope
and nucleoli are absent. This is typical for:
A. Anaphase
C. Metaphase
E. Prophase *
B. Interphase
D. Telophase
4. At which phase of mitosis does a human cell have 92 single-chromatid chromo-somes?
A. Interphase
C. Metaphase
E. Anaphase *
B. Prophase
D. Telophase
5. At which stage of the cell cycle do we usually study a human karyotype to diagnose
chromosomal disorders?
A. Interphase
C. Metaphase *
E. Anaphase
B. Prophase
D. Telophase
6. Pairing of homologous chromosomes and crossing over take place in meiosis in:
A. Prophase I *
C. Metaphase I
E. Anaphase II
B. Prophase II
D. Anaphase I
7. Meiosis is a reduction division. What set of hereditary information has a cell after the
second meiotic division?
A. In 2c
C. 2n 1c
E. 2n 2c
B. 1 n 1c *
D. 2n 4c
8. In humans, mammals and other chordates sexual reproduction takes place by fusion of
large immobile ovum and small motile sperm. This kind of sexual reproduction is:
A. lsogamy
C. Oogamy *
E. Polyteny
B. Schizogony
D. Conjugation
9. Formation of egg in humans takes:
A. 1 month
C. 1-2 years
E. 12-45 years *
B. 28 days
D. 5-7 years
10. Tissue sample of the ovary shows large cells with paired homologous chromosomes
and points of crossing over in some of them. At what period of gametogenesis are the cells?
A. Multiplication
C. Maturation *
B. Growth
D. Formation
11. Oogenesis starts at embryogenesis but the cells don't complete meiosis and become
dormant. At which stage of meiosis are oocytes stored in the ovaries?
A. Prophase I *
C. Anaphase I
E. Interphase
B. Metaphase I
D. Telophase I
12. In some species ovum can start to develop without fertilization. Such way of reproduction is called:
A. Gametogenesis
C. Oogamy
E. Copulation
B. Parthenogenesis *
D. Polyteny
13. Tissue sample of the ovary shows the resting cells that accumulate nutritive substances. At what period of gametogenesis are the cells?
A. Multiplication
B. Growth *
C. Maturation
D. Formation
14. Process of oogenesis starts at the:
A. Embryonic period *
C. 5th-7th year
E. 14"'-e year of life
B. 2"d-3'd year of life
D. 12"'-13"' year
15. Tissue sample of the fetal ovary demonstrate small cells. Some of them undergo mi-totic
division. What stage of ovogenesis is observed?
A. Multiplication *
B. Growth
C. Maturation
D. Formation
16. The stage of female gamete at the time of ovulation is:
A. Oogonium
C. Secondary oocyte *
B. Primary oocyte
D. Polar body
E. Mature ovum
CHAPTER 6
1. Fetus gets nourishment and oxygen through the:
A. Yolk sac
C. Placenta *
B. Allantois
D. Amnion
2. Fertilization in human female occurs in the:
A. Fallopian tube *
C. Uterus
B. Vagina
D. Ovary
3. Mesoderm gives rise to:
A. Epidermis
C. Intestinal lining
B. Liver
D. Muscles *
4. Embryo reaches the uterus from the fallopian tube in about:
A. 24 hours
B. 4-5 days *
C. 7 days
D. 14 days
5. Germ layers are formed during:
A. Copulation
C. Gastrulation *
B. Cleavage
D. Fertilization
6. At the time of ovulation in a human female, all the following are true except that:
A. Meiosis is at metaphase 11 stage
B. First polar body has just been expelled
C. Zona pellucida has broken down *
D. Fertilization is possible
7. Cleavage of the zygote gives rise to:
A. Blastula *
C. Gastrula
B. Neurula
D. Foetus
8. Heart develops from embryonic:
A. Ectoderm
B. Endoderm
C. Mesoderm *
D. Both mesoderm and endoderm
9. Human eggs are:
A. Alecital *
B. Mesolecital
C. Microlecital
D. Macrolecital
10. Amount of yolk and its distribution are changed in the egg. Which one is affected?
D. Fertilization
A. Pattern of cleavage *
B. Formation of zygote
C. Number of blastomeres
11. Which one is produced by mesoderm?
A. Striated muscles and notochord *
B. Heart and brain
C. Spinal cord and notochord
D. Brain and notochord
12. When do the three germ layers differentiate?
A. Histogenesis
B. Gastrulation *
C. Cleavage
D. Fertilization
13. Growth pattern is allometric in:
A. Fish
B. Locust
C. Humans *
D. Insects
14. Growth is unlimited in:
A. Insects
C. Mammals
B. Birds
D. Fish *
E. Humans
15. Bones enlarge by:
A. Auxetic growth
C. Multiplicative
B. Accretionary growth growth
D. Appositional growth *
E. All these modes
16. Decreased defense against pathogens in aging is due to the atrophy of:
A. Thyroid gland
C. Thymus *
B. Parathyroid glands
D. Pituitary gland
17. In aging, there is:
A. Decrease in calcium content of arteries and cartilage
B. Increase in calcium content of arteries and cartilage *
C. Decrease in blood urea
D. Decrease in cholesterol content of cornea and lens
18. Science about death is:
A. Gerontology
C. Thanatology *
B. Geriatry
D. Valeology
E. Adrenal cortex
CHAPTER 7
1. Auricle-dental displasia is autosomal dominant disorder, which is characterized bu. the
lack of molars and some other defects. There is a normal child in family where the mother
is healthy and the father is ill. What is the risk of having the second child with displasia?
A. 50% *
B. 100%
C. 75%
D. 25%
E. 0%
2. Healthy parents have a deaf child with albinism (two recessive characters). What is the
genotype of the parents?
A. AABB and AABB
B. AaBb and AABB
C. aaBB and aaBB
D. AaBb and AaBb *
E. AAB6 and AaBb
3. A normal woman and a man suffering from aniridia (absence of iris, autosomal dominant character) have five children with aniridia. What is the chance of having a nor- mal
child in this family?
A. 0% *
B. 25%
C. 50%
E. 100%
D. 75%
4. Albinism is a recessive character. Which marriage has a 50% risk of an affected child?
A. AA and aa
B. Aa and aa *
C. Aa and Aa
E. AA and AA
D. Aa and AA
5. A healthy couple has a child suffering from microcephaly (a recessive character). What is
the chance of having the next child healthy?
A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75% *
E. 100%
6. Anophthalmos (the lack of eyeballs) is a recessive character. Heterozygotes have small
eyeballs (incomplete dominance). A couple is heterozygoes. What is the chance of having a
child with normal eyes?
A. 0%
B. 25% *
C. 50%
D. 75%
E. 100 %
7. A father is deaf and has albinism (recessive characters). A mother is healthy and diheterozygous. Which ratio will help to calculate the chances of their children to be healthy?
A. 3:1
B. 1:1
C. 1:1:1:1 *
D. 9:7
E. 9:3:3:1
8. Parents are healthy heterozygous carriers of recessive genes for diabetes and defect of
lenses. What ratio will help to calculate the risk of having an affected child?
A. 1:1
B. 3:1
C. 9:3:3:1*
D. 15:1
E. 9:7
9. A man with AB(IV) Rh- blood has a wife with B(III) Rh+ blood. Her father has 0(1) Rh
blood. There are children with B (III) Rh- and 0(1) Rh+blood groups in this family. A forensic expert determined that one child is illegitimate. Which character permits to exclude
the paternity?
A. ABO blood groups *
B. ABO and Rh blood groups
C. Rh-factor
D.plasma proteins
E. Rh-factor and plasma protein
10. Children have 0(1) and AB(IV) blood groups. Their parents should have:
A. 0(1) and A(lI)
B. 0(1) and B(III)
C. A(II) and B(III)*
D. A(II) and AB(IV)
E. AB(IV) and 0(I)
11. Healthy parents with A(II) and B(III) blood groups have a child sick with phenylketonuria (recessive character) and 0(1) blood group. What is the genotype of this child?
A. IOIO aa*
B. IAIO aa
C.IBIO aa
D. IAIB Aa
E. IOIO AA
12. Rh-factor inheritance is very important in obstetrics practice. In which situation is
there a chance of newborn hemolytic disease because of Rh-conflict?
A. First pregnancy of Rh+woman with Rh-fetus
B. First pregnancy of Rh- woman with Rh+ fetus C. Second pregnancy of Rh+ woman with
Rh- fetus
D. Second pregnancy of Rh- woman with Rh+ fetus *
E. Pregnancy of Rh-woman with Rh- fetus
13. Deafness is caused by different recessive genes a and b situated in different homologous chromosomes. A deaf man with aaBB genotype married a deaf woman with AAbb
genotype. They have four children. How many of them are deaf?
A. Nobody*
B. 1/4
C. Half
D. 3/4
E. All of them
14. A patient is sick with the Marfian's syndrome. This syndrome is an example of the
following genetic phenomenon:
A. Complementarity
B. Epistasis
C. Polymeric genes
D.Pleiotropy *
E. Codominance
15. There are several types of hereditary glaucoma (high intraocular pressure). One type is
determined by a dominant gene, another one by a recessive gene. A father is sick and
diheterozygous (AaBb), a mother is sick and homozygous (aabb). What is the risk of having
an affected child in this family?
A. 0
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75% *
E. 100%
16. Biosynthesis of an interferon molecule is controlled by two dominant non allele genes.
What type of interaction is between these genes?
A. Complementarity*
B. Epistasis
C. Polymeric interaction
D. Incomplete dominance
E. Complete dominance
17. Cystinuria is an autosomal recessive disorder, characterized by formation of stones in
the kidneys. Heterozygous persons have an elevated level of cystin in urine. What type of
gene interaction is present?
A. Complete dominance
B. Incomplete dominance*
C. Complementarity
D. Epistasis
E. Codominance
18. Hereditary deafness is determined by two recessive genes d and e. For normal hearing
both dominant alleles (D and E) are required. Parents are heterozygous. What phenotypic
ratio can we use to calculate the risk in this family?
A. 9:3:3:1
B. 1:1:1:1
C. 9:7*
D. 13:3
E. 15:1
19. A healthy couple has a son sick with haemophilia. The maternal grandfather suffers
from haemophilia also. What is the mode of this trait inheritance?
A. X-linked recessive *
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked dominant
D. Autosomal dominant
E. Y-linked
2O. A healthy woman married a man sick with haemophilia. There were no cases of haemophilia in her family history. What is the risk for their child to be affected?
A. 0 *
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75 %
E. 100%
21. Hypertrichosis (excessive hair growth) of auricles is determined by Y-linked gene. What
is the chance for an affected father to have an affected son?
A. 0
B. 25 %
C. 50 %
D. 75 %
E. 100 % *
22. There is a recessive X-linked gene in humans that cause death of an embryo at the early
stage of development. What zygote will be eliminated?
A. XaY *
B. XAXa
C. XAY
D. XAXA
23. Hypoplasia of dental enamel is X-linked dominant disorder. A mother has normal teeth
(XhXh), a father is affected. This feature is inherited by:
A. Daughters only *
B. All children
C. Sons only
D. Half of the daughters
E. Half of the sons
24. Anhydrotic ectodermal dysplasia (absence of sweat glands, dental defects) is the Xlinked recessive character. What are expected phenotypes of the offspring if a man is
affected and a woman is healthy but has an affected father?
A. Half of the daughters and sons are affected *
B. All children are healthy
C. All children are affected
D. All daughters are affected
E. All sons are affected
25. Genes situated in the same chromosome form a group of linkage. How many groups of
linkage are in a healthy man?
A. 46
B. 24 *
C. 23
D. 22
E. 2
26. The characters that are inherited through the sex chromosomes are termed sex-linked.
Choose the sex-linked characters:
A. Rh-factor
B. Color blindness *
C. ABO blood groups
D. Phenylketonuria
E. Polydactyly
27. The genotype of an individual is BC bc; the distance between genes B and C is 20
centiMorgans. Produced gametes are:
A. BC:Bc:bC:bc-= 40 %: 10%: 10 %: 40% *
B. Bc:BC:bc:bC=40%:10%:10%:40%
C. BC: bC:Bc:bc= 25%: 25%: 25%: 25%
D. BC:bc= 50%: 50%
E. Bc:BC:bc:bC=10%:40%:10%:40%
CHAPTER 8
1. Endemic goiter is common in some geographical regions as a result of low iodine in diet.
This is an example of:
A. Gene mutation
B. Recombination
C. Modification *
D. Structural chromosomal aberration
E. Numerical chromosomal aberration
2. A patient has chromosomal disorder, caused by extra chromosome 21 in all cells. What is
the primary underlying defect of the disease?
A. Failure of meiotic division in parents*
A. Failure of mitotic division during embryogenesis
B. Congenital infection
C. Teratogenic exposure
D. Gene mutation
3. In human DNA adenine was replaced by cytosine. What type of mutation took place?
A. Gene mutation*
B. Deletion
C. Polyploid
D. Translocation
E. Inversion
4. Replacement of nucleotides in DNA results in:
A. Single gene disorders*
B. Chromosomal disorders
C. Anomaly of autosomes
D. Anomaly of sex chromosomes
5. Two nucleotides in a DNA molecule were lost after X-ray irradiation. It is an example of
the following mutation:
A. Deletion *
B. Duplication
D. Translocation
C. Inversion
E. Replication
6. Talidomid intake by a pregnant women in 50-s of XX century led to the birth of
thousands of children with congenital defects of skeleton (absence of limbs). This
congenital defect is a result of:
A. Modification*
B. Trisomy
D. Triploidy
C. Monosomy
E. Gene mutation
7. A woman suffering from toxoplasmosis during pregnancy has a child with multiple
congenital defects. It is a result of:
A. Carcinogenesis
B. Teratogenesis*
C. Biological mutogenesis
D. Chemical mutogenesis
E. Recombination
8. Sickle cell anemia is a common hereditary disease in South Africa. The main symp- tom
of the disease is a crescent shape of RBC because of replacement of glutamin by valin in
hemoglobin 13-chain. The underlying hereditary defect is:
A. Gene mutation*
B. Structural chromosomal defect
C. Crossing over
D. Numerical chromosome mutation
E. Recombination
9. A blue-eyed girl has a brown spot in the right iris. It is a result of:
A. Genome mutation
B. Chromosomal aberration
C. Somatic mutation*
D. Gene mutation
E. Germinal mutation
10. A patient with a mosaic type of the Down's syndrome has about 50% of cells with a normal karyotype and 50% of cells with trisomy 21.The disease is a result of mistake in:
A. First meiotic division
B. Second meiotic division
C. Mitosis*
D. Amitosis
E. Endomitosis
11. After X-ray irradiation the segment of a DNA molecule turns around and joins in a reverse direction. It is:
A. Inversion*
B. Deletion
C. Duplication
D. Translocation
E. Replication
12. There are three copies of the 13th chromosome in the karyotype of a child with multiple congenital defects. The type of the mutation is:
A. Polyploidy
B. Trisomy *
C. Nullesomy
D. Monosomy
E. Chromosomal aberration
13. A chromosome has the following linear order of genes ABCDEHKTM. After the mutation there is the following order of genes CDEHKTM. The type of the mutation is:
A. Inversion
B. Deletion*
C. Duplication
D. Translocation
E. Monosomy
14. Cytogenetic studying of an aborted embryo showed 45 chromosomes, one copy of the
3rd chromosome. Type of the mutation is:
A. Chromosomal aberration
B. Point mutation
C. Nullisomy
D. Polysomy
E. Monosomy*
15. Gene mutation changes:
A. Number of the chromosomes in the diploid set
B. Number of the haploid sets D. Structure of a gene
C. Structure of a chromosome E. Number of genes
D. structure of gene*
E. Number of genes
16. Polyploidy is one of the genome mutations. It is:
A. Structural changes of the chromosomes
B. Duplication of a chromosome part
C. Increase in the entire haploid sets of chromosomes*
D. Decrease in the entire haploid sets of chromosomes
E. Two extra chromosomes in the diploid set
17. Factors of different nature have a mutagenic effect. The chemical mutagen is:
A. Water
B. Ethyl alcohol
C. Nicotine
D. Colchicine*
E. Sodium chloride
18. Factors of different nature have mutagenic effect. The biological mutagens are:
A. Helminths
B. Bacteria
C. Viruses*
D. Toxoplasma
19 An example of the disease that develops as a result of gene mutation is:
A. Haemophilia*
B. Patau syndrome
C. Cat cry syndrome
D. Down syndrome
E. Klinefelter syndrome
20. An aborted embryo has 69 chromosomes. It is an example of:
A. Haploidy
B. Polyploidy*
C. Trisomy
D. Monosomy
E. Duplication
CHAPTER 9
1. Autosomal-recessive pattern of inheritance is characterized by:
A. Small number of affected individuals
B. Horizontal transmission of disease
C. Healthy parents of an affected child are heterozygous carriers of the mutant gene
D. The chance of having of a healthy child for heterozygous couple is 75%
E. All of the above *
2. Pedigree of a family demonstrates affected individuals of both sexes in each genera-tion.
It is typical for the following pattern of inheritance:
A. Y-linked
D. X-linked recessive
B. Autosomal-recessive
E. X-linked dominant
C. Autosomal-dominant *
3. A young healthy couple has two children suffering from the Taay-Sachs disease (a
storage disorder with accumulation of lipids). It became clear that parents were
consanguineous. What is the most possible pattern of inheritance of the disease?
A. Y-linked D. X-linked recessive
B. Autosomal-recessive *
E. X-linked dominant
C. Autosomal-dominant
4. A healthy woman has affected sons with the same hereditary disorder in her two
marriages. Both of her husbands are healthy. What is the most possible pattern of
inheritance of the disease?
A. Y-linked
D. X-linked recessive *
B. Autosomal-recessive
E. X-linked dominant
C. Autosomal-dominant
5. A healthy woman is the carrier of color blindness. Her husband is healthy. What is the
risk of having an affected child in this family?
A. 0%
D. 50% of all children
B. 50% of daughters
E. 75% of all children
C. 50% of sons *
6. A family is characterized by hereditary deafness transmitted in generations. Which
method helps to detect the pattern of inheritance of the disease?
A. Genealogic *
D. Population statistic
E. Biochemical
B. Twins method
C. Cytogenetic
7. The twins method of human genetics is the method of:
A. Diagnosis of chromosomal disorders
B. Diagnosis of inborn errors of metabolism
C. Detection of the pattern of inheritance
D. Detection of the influence of genotype and environment on the character *
E. Calculation of genes frequency in population
8. If H (coefficient of heredity) is 55%, the character:
A. Equally depends on a genotype and environment *
B. Depends on a genotype only
C. Depends on environment only
D. Depends on the environment but influenced by a genotype
E. Depends on a genotype but influenced by environment
9. What karyotype abnormality have persons with the Shereshevsky - Turner syn-drome?
A. Absence of one X chromosome *
B. Absence of one 21" chromosome
C. Absence of one 15" chromosome
D. Extra 21" chromosome
E. Extra 18' chromosome
10. The epithelial cells of a male patient have two Barr bodies. It indicates the:
A. Shereshevsky - Turner syndrome
B. Klinefelter syndrome *
C. Patau syndrome
D. "Superfemale" syndrome
E. "Supermale" syndrome
11. Which chromosomal disease in males is characterized by one drumstick in the nu-cleus
of the neutrophile leukocytes? A. Shereshevsky - Turner syndrome
B. Down syndrome
E. "Supermale" syndrome
C. Klinefelter syndrome *
D. "Superfemale" syndrome
12. Which of the following conditions is the result of abnormal number of autosomes?
A. Klinefelter syndrome
D. Shereshevsky - Turner syndrome
B. Patau syndrome *
E. Haemophilia
C. "Superfemale" syndrome
13. A forensic expert has made a conclusion that the blood spots at the place of crime
belong to a woman. Which blood component has been studied?
A. Blood plasma
D. RBC
E. Leukocytes *
B. Blood serum
C. Platelets
14. Diagnosis of the Edwards syndrome is made by the:
A. Twins method
D. Biochemical method
B. Pedigree analysis
E. Cytogenetic method *
C. Population statistic method
15. Diagnosis of haemophilia, phenylketonuria,diabetes mellitus is made by the:
A. Twins method
D. Biochemical method *
B. Pedigree analysis
E. Cytogenetic method
C. Population statistic method
16. A person has balanced translocation (no clinical manifestations) of long arm of the 21
chromosome to 22". What disease is of high risk in his children?
A. Shereshevsky - Turner syndrome
D. Klinefelter syndrome
B. Edwards syndrome .
C. Patau syndrome
E Down syndrome *
17. Ideal population is characterized by:
A. Unlimited number of individuals
B. Random mating (panmixia)
C. Absence of mutations and migrations
D. Constant ratio between AA, Aa and as genotypes
E. All of the above *
18. Small population (1,500-4,000 individuals) with frequency of consanguineous marriages about 80-90% is:
A. Deme *
D. Ideal population
B. Isolate
E. Biocenosis
C. Pure line
19. Gene drift is characterized by:
A. Homozygocity of the population
B. High frequency of one of the alleles in population
C. Low frequency of one of the alleles in population
D. All of the above *
20. Genetic structure of the population is changed by the following factors:
A. Assortative mating
D. Genetic drift
B. Migration
E. All of the above *
C. Isolation
21. Frequency of the gene A is 0.6; frequency of the gene a is 0.4. What is the frequency of
Aa genotype in this population?
A. 0.6
D. 0.48 *
B. 0.4
E. 0.64
C. 0.24
22. DNA diagnosis is applicable for:
A. Diagnosis of single gene disorders
D. Cancer detection
B. Diagnosis of infectious disorders
E. All of the above *
C. Paternity dispute cases
23. Polymerase chain reaction includes:
C. Extension of DNA
A. DNA denaturation
B. Primer annealing
D. All of the above *
CHAPTER 10
1. The following form of Entamoeba histolytica is pathogenic for humans:
A. Forma magna *
C. Cyst
B. Forma minuta
D. Pre-cystic form
2. Which material is used for balantidiasis laboratory tests?
A. Duodenum content
D. Urine
E. Vaginal discharges
B. Blood
C. Faeces *
3. Number of nuclei in cyst of amoeba is an important criterion in discrimination be-tween
Entamoeba histolytica and:
A. Trichomonas hominis
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Entamoeba coli *
D. Entamoeba gingivalis
E. Balantidium coil
4. The rounded cysts with two unequal nuclei, covered with thick envelope were discovered in water samples from the pig farm sewage. They are cysts of:
A, Giardia lamblia
B, Entamoeba histolytica
C. Balantidium coli *
D. Entamoeba coil
E. Trichomonas hominis
5. Direct infection from a sick person is possible in:
C. Leishmaniasis
A. Amoebiasis *
D. Trypanosomiasis
E. Toxoplasmosis
B. Malaria
6. Keeping personal hygiene rules is particularly significant for prevention of:
A. Amoebiasis *
C. Leishmaniasis
E. Chagas' disease
B. Malaria
D. Trichomoniasis
7. Toxoplasma gondii may develop in the following intermediate hosts, EXCEPT:
A. Humans
C. Birds
E. Fish *
B. Cattle
D. Pigs
8. Which of the following Protozoans may affect brain and eyes in human?
A. Leishmania tropica
C. Plasmodium vivax
E. Entamoeba gingi
B. Giardia lamblia
D. Toxoplasma gondii valis *
9. Which of the following infections during pregnancy may be manifested as congeni-tal
disorders and mental retardation in the newborn?
A. Toxoplasmosis *
C. Trichomoniasis
E. Leishmaniasis
B. Trypanosomiasis
D. Malaria
10. Toxoplasma is characterized by ALL mentioned below, EXCEPT for:
A. Have a wide range of hosts
B. Cat is a definitive host
C. Sick person is a main source of infection *
D. Spread widely
E. Endozoites are crescent-shaped
11. Cats are definitive hosts for Toxoplasma, because in its organism ... occurs:
A. Endodyogeny
C. Gametogony *
B. Schizogony
D. Sporogony
12. A person has preliminary diagnosis of toxoplasmosis. What material should be used for
laboratory diagnosis of the disease?
A. Feces
C. Blood *
B. Sputum
D. Urine
13. Serological tests are used for the diagnosis of:
E. Balantidiasis
A. Giardiasis
C. Amoebiasis
B. Toxoplasmosis *
D. Trichomoniasis
14. Life cycle of Malaria parasite in human organism finishes at the follhizo ntowings stage:
C. Ookinete
A. Gametocytes *
E. Schizonts
B. Gametes
D. Sporozoites
15. Plasmodium malariae is the agent of:
C. Benign quartan malaria *
A. Benign tertian malaria
D. Ovate malaria
B. Malignant tertian malaria
16. Infective stage of Plasmodium for humans is:
A. Sporozoites *
C. Schizonts
E. Gametes
B. Merozoites
D. Gametocytes
17. Incubation period of malaria corresponds to the following stage of malaria parasite in
human organism:
A. Sporogony
D. Schizogony in RBC
B. Tissue schizogony *
E. Endodyogeny
C. Gametogony
18. Individual preventive measures against malaria include:
A. Protection from mosquitos *
B. Identification and treatment of sick persons
C. Follow rules of personal hygiene
D. Flies and cockroaches control
19. Malaria fever attack starts along with the following stage of malaria parasite:
A. Tissue schizogony
D. Merozoites penetrate into RBC
B. Gametocytes formation
E. Mature schizonts formation
C. Merozoites release from RBC *
20. 48-hour duration of RBC schizogony is characteristic for ALL species of malaria parasites EXCEPT:
A. Plasmodium malariae *
C. Plasmodium falciparum
B. Plasmodium ovale
D. Plasmodium vivax
21. Which parasites from mentioned below inhabit the human small intestine?
A. Balantidium coli
D. Leishmania donovani
B. Giardia lomblia *
E. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Trichomonas vaginalis
22. An ability of parasites to produce harmful effect and to cause a disease is:
A. Pathogenicity *
D. Preying
B. Mutualism
E. Commensalism
C. Parasitism
23. Sexual transmission is possible in:
A. Giardiasis
D. Leishmaniasis
B. Toxoplasmosis
E. Trypanosomiasis
C. Trichomoniasis *
24. Parasites inhabiting inner organs of the host are:
A. Ectoparasites
D. Obligatory parasites
B. Endoparasites *
E. True parasites
C. Optional parasites
25. Preventive measures against giardiasis include:
A. Washing hands
D. Treatment of the patients
B. Washing fruits and vegetables
C. Boiling of water
E. All of the above*
26. Trophozoites of which protozoans are infective for human:
A. Trichomonas vaginalis *
B. Giardia lamblia
D. Balantidium coli
C. Entamoeba histolytica
E. Entamoeba coli
27. Laboratory diagnosis of giardiasis is done using:
A. Microscopy of duodenum content *
D. Microscopy of blood smear
B. Serologic tests
E. Sputum microscopy
C. Infection of laboratory animals
28. Diseases that affect both humans and animals are termed as:
A. Zoonosis
C. Anthropozoonosis *
E. Nature foci
B. Anthroponosis
D. Vector-born
29. Nature foci diseases:
A. Exist in certain biogeocenosis independently on human presence
B. Agents circulate among wild animals
C. Exist on territories with certain geographic conditions
D. Leishmaniasis is an example
E. All of the above *
30. Control of leishmaniasis includes all EXEPT for:
A. Extermination of sand flies
D. Extermination of street dogs
B. Extermination of rodents
E. Treatment of sick persons
C. Control of mosquitoes *
31. Blood sucking insects are vectors for ALL diseases EXCEPT for:
A. Cutaneus leishmaniasis
D. African trypanosomiasis
B. Visceral leishmaniasis
E. American trypanosomiasis
C. Giardiasis *
32. African sleeping sickness is caused by:
A. Leishmania tropica
D. Trypanosoma cruzi
B. Giardia lamblia
E. Trypanosoma gambiense *
C. Leishmania donovani
33. South American trypanosomiasis vector is:
A. Sand fly
E. Flea
C. Mosquito
B. Tsetse fly
D. Triatomine bug*
CHAPTER 11
1. The armed tapeworm larvae are agents of:
A. Taeniasis
C. Paragonimiasis
E. Hymenolepiasis
B. Taeniarhynchiasis
D. Cysticercosis *
2. Laboratory diagnosis of taeniasis is based on:
A. Demonstration of eggs in perianal mucus
B. Demonstration of proglottides in faeces *
C. Serodiagnosis
D. Larvoscopy of blood
E. Biopsy of striated muscles
3. White proglottides 20 x 7 mm in size, with a large number of uterus branches (20 to 34
branches) were discovered in faeces. These may be proglottides of:
A. Fasciola hepatica
D. Taeniarhynchus saginatus*
B. Opisthorchis felineus
E. Hymenolepis nano
C. Taenia solium
4. Cysticercosis in human may result from:
A. Echinococcosis
D. Taeniarhynchiasis
B. Hymenolepiasis
E. Fascioliasis
C. Taeniasis *
5. Which of the following larvae may inhabit the brain?
A. Beef tapeworm
C. Dwarf tapeworm
E. Cat fluke
B. Pork tapeworm *
D. Liver fluke
6. It is possible to get infected with diphyllobotriasis by eating:
A. Crabs and crawfish
D. Improperly cooked fish *
B. Unwashed vegetables
E. Contaminated water
C. Improperly cooked meat
7. Human being may get infected with hymenolepiasis through:
A. Fish
B. Dirty hands, contaminated vegetables and fruit *
C. Mosquito bites
D. Crabs and crawfish
E. Insufficiently roasted beef
8. What is the pathogenic action of the dwarf tapeworm?
A. Liver, lungs and brain affection
B. Malignant anemia
C. Intestine villi destruction, intoxication *
D. Anemia, neurological disorders, vermiform appendix inflammation
E. Eyelids and face edema, fever and muscle pain
9 Laboratory diagnosis of echinococcosis includes:
A. Immunological tests *
C. Muscle biopsy
B. Faeces examination
D. Urine ovoscopy
10. Anemia due to the lack of the vitamin B12 is a symptom of:
A. Taeniasis
C. Hymenolepiasis
B. Taeniarhynchiasis
D. Echinococcosis
E. Diphyllobothriasis *
11. Human being is a definitive host only in case of?
A. Taeniasis
C. Hymenolepiasis
B. Alveococcosis
D. Echinococcosis
E. Diphyllobothriasis *
12. From the diseases listed below choose cestodosis with a natural focus:
A. Fascioliasis
D. Diphyllobothriasis *
g. Hymenolepiasis
E. Taeniasis
C. Opisthorchiasis
13. Examination of FRESH faeces is essential for laboratory diagnosis of:
A. Diphyllobothriasis
D. Hymenolepiasis *
B. Fascioliasis
E. Taeniarhynchiasis
C. Opisthorchiasis
14. Migration via lungs is typical for:
A. Enterobius vermicularis
D. Echinococcus granulosus
B. Trichocephalus trichiurus
E. Taenia solium
C. Ascaris lumbricoides *
15. Intestinal obstruction is a possible complication of:
A. Hymenolepiasis
C. Opisthorchiasis
E. Enterobiasis
B. Fascioliasis
D. Ascariasis *
16. Whipworm eggs get matured in:
A. Three weeks
C. One week
E. 25 to 30 days *
B. 4 to 6 hours
D. One day
17. Which of the following refers to enterobiasis preventive measures?
A. Keeping personal hygiene rules *
D. Veterinary examination of beef
B. Veterinary examination of pork
E. Consuming properly cooked meat
C. Consuming properly cooked fish
18. Lemon-shaped eggs 50 x 25 pm in size with corks on the both poles were revealed in
human faeces. Clinical manifestations include appendix inflammation. The possible
agent is:
A. Cat fluke
B. Ascaris
C. Pinworm
D. Whipworm *
E. Echinococcus
19. Through the skin it is possible to get:
A. Ascariasis
B. Teniasis
C. Entetrobiasis
D. Opistorchiasis
E. Ancylostomiasis*
20, A natural reservoir of trichina worms is:
A. Cattle
B. Fish
C. Boars *
D. Birds
E. Crabs
21. The infective stage in ancylostomiasis is:
A. Phynn
D. Oncosphere
B. Plerocercoid
E. Filariform larva *
C. Metacercaria
22. Main manifestations of trichina worm infection are:
A. Affection of the liver, lungs, brain
B. Malignant 812 deficient anemia
C. Anemia, inflammation of appendix
D. Destruction of the intestinal villi, intoxication
E. Swelling of the face and eyelids, pain in the muscles, high temperature *
23. A patient has been admitted to the hospital with complains of pain and swelling of the
right foot. A thread-like thickening with a blister at its end is seen under the skin. The
patient is two weeks from Yemen where he sometimes drank unboiled water. Which
disease can be suspected?
A. Schistosomiasis
C. Paragonimiasis
E. Dracunculiasis *
B. Trichinellosis
D. Hymenolepiasis
24. Main manifestations of ancylostoma infection are:
A. Affection of the liver, lungs, brain
B. Malignant Bel deficient anemia
C. Anemia, abdominal pain, failure of digestion *
D. Destruction of the intestinal villi, intoxication
E. Swelling of the face and eyelids, pain in the muscles, high temperature
25. Laboratory diagnosis of fascioliasis is:
A. Muscle biopsy
D. Immunologic tests
B. Ovoscopy of faeces *
E. Ovoscopy of sputum
C. Larvoscopy of faeces
26. Laboratory diagnosis of hymenolepiasis is:
A. Ovoscopy of foeces *
B. Ovoscopy of sputum
C. Muscle biopsy
D. Demonstration of larvae in blood
E. Serodiagnosis
27. Laboratory diagnosis of trichinellosis is:
A. Ovoscopy of faeces
B. Muscle biopsy *
C. Demonstration of eggs in faeces
D. Ovoscopy of urine
E. Ovoscopy of perianal scrape
28. Laboratory diagnosis of echinococcosis is:
A. Immunological tests *
B. Demonstration of larvae in muscles
C. Demonstration of larvae in faeces
D. Ovoscopy of urine
E. Ovoscopy of perianal scrape
29. Laboratory diagnosis of diphyllobothriasis is:
A. Ovoscopy of faeces *
B. Larvoscopy of muscles
C. Larvoscopy of faeces
D. Ovoscopy of urine
E. Ovoscopy of perianal scrape
30. Diagnosis of dracunculiasis is:
A. Larvoscopy of faeces
D. Ovoscopy
B. Larvoscopy of muscles
E Presence of visible threads under the skin
C. Demonstration of eggs in faeces *
31. Immunological tests are the method of diagnosis for.
A. Taeniasis
C. Taeniarynchiasis
E. Enterabiasis
B. Cycticercosis *
D. Opisthorchiosis
32. Oval colorless transparent eggs have been detected during the laboratory examination
of faeces. There are 4 dark blastomeres inside the eggs_ What is the species of helminths?
A. Fasciola hepatica
B. Opisthorchis felineus
E. Hymenolepis nana
C. Diphyllobothrium latum
D. Ancylostoma duodenale *
33. During the laboratory examination of faeces grayish widely oval operculated eggs have
been detected. The size of the eggs is about 70-75 pm. What is the species of helminths?
A. Fasciola hepatica
B. Opisthorchis felineus
C. Diphyllobothrium latum *
D. Ancylostomo duodenale
E. Hymenolepis nana
CHAPTER 12
1. A spider is about 2 cm, round black with two rows of red spots on dorsal side of the
abdomen, covered with tiny black hairs. Identify this animal:
A. Karakurt spicier *
C. Solifugae
E. Tarantula
B. Scorpion
D. Mite
2. The patient who went to Carpathians was diagnosed with spring-summer encepha-litis.
Through the bite of which arthropod agent this disease can be transmitted?
A. Mosquito
B. Taiga tick
C. Argasid tick (Ornithodorus papillipes)
D. Itch mite
E. Dog-tick *
3. A 35-year-old man found in the crevices of the apartment of adobe house arthro-pods
with four pairs of walking legs, dark gray oval body and slightly pointed anterior end.
Define this arthropod:
A. Ornithodorus papillipes *
D. Sarcoptes scabiei
B. Ixodes persulcatus
E. Dermacentor nuttalli
C. Ixodes ricinus
4. A patient is sick with tick-borne relapsing fever. Through the bite of which tick could he
become infected?
A. Argasidae ticks *
C. Ixodidae ticks
E. Dermacentor ticks
B. Sarcoptes scabies
D. Gamasidae mites
5. 14-year-old boy complains of itching of the skin between the fingers which increases at
night. During the skin examination were discovered gray thin strips and rash look-ing as
small dots. What parasite most likely causes this disease?
A. Ixodes ricinus
C. Ornithodorus papilD. Dermacentor pictus
B. Sarcoptes scabiei lipes *
E. Ixodes persulcatus
6. A patient has inflammatory alteration of facial skin. Microscopic examination of le-sions
has revealed arthropodes 0.2-0.5 mm in size. They have vermiform body with four pairs of
short appendages in the middle part of the body. These arthropods cause:
A. Demodicosis *
C. Myiasis
B. Scabies
D. Pediculosis
E. Phthiriasis
7. Which organism is a mechanical vector of cysts of Protozoa and agents of gastrointestinal disorders?
A. Fleas
C. Bed bugs
B. House flies *
D. Sand-flies
E. Wohlfahrtia fly
8. Sand flies are specific vectors of:
A. Japanese encephalitis
C. Anthrax
B. Taiga encephalitis
D. Spotted fever
E. Leishmaniasis*
9, Medical importance of Wohlfahrtia fly is a:
A. Specific vector of leishmaniasis
B. Mechanical vector of intestinal disorders
C. Vector of plague
D. Larva is an agent of myiasis *
E. Vector of trypanosomiasis.
10. Aedes mosquitoes are the vectors of:
A. Malaria
B. Japanese encephalitis *
C. Anthrax
D. Leishmaniasis
E. Trypanosomiasis.
11. Which of the following is an agent of accidental myiasis?
A. Dermacentor
D. House fly larva *
B. Wohlfahrtia fly larva
E. Demodex
C. Itch mite
12. House flies are vectors of:
A. Trypanosomiasis
B. Intestinal infections *
C. Leishmaniasis
D. Relapsing fever
E. Plague
13. Which of the following insects is a South American trypanosomiasis vector?
A. Tsetse fly
C. House fly
E. Kissing bug *
B. Wohlfahrtia fly
D. Bed bug
14. Which of the following insects is a vector of malaria?
A. Anopheles mosquito *
C. Aedes mosquito
E. Sand flies.
B. Culex mosquito
D. All mosquito species
15. Head louse feeds on:
A. Epidermis
D. Human blood *
B. Contents of the sebaceous glands
E. Lymph
C. Hair
16. Medical importance of the head louse is:
A. Endoparasite
B. Causative agent of phthiriasis
C. Vector of relapsing fever *
D. Vector of encephalitis
E. Causative agent of myiasis
17. Causative agents of epidemic typhus in an organism of the louse are present in:
A. Hemolymph
B. Gut *
C. Saliva
D. On the surface of the body
E. Mouth parts
18. Transmission mechanism of epidemic typhus is:
A. Through saliva of the lice while biting
B. Through the inoculation of lice excrements in the wound *
C. By crashing the lice and inoculation of hemolymph
D. With contaminated food
19. The head and body lice are causative agents of:
A. Relapsing fever
C. Myiasis
B. Epidemic typhus
D. Phthiriasis
E. Pediculosis*
20. The pubic louse is the causative agent of:
A. Scabies
C. Pediculosis
E. Relapsing fever
B. Phthiriasis *
D. Typhus
21. Transmission mechanism of lice-borne relapsing fever is:
A. Through the bite of the head louse
B. Through the bite of the body louse
C. Through the bite of the pubic louse
D. By crashing louse and inoculating of its hemolymph *
E. Through the bite of the Wohlfahrtia fly
22. The bed bug is:
A. Ectoparasite *
C. Causative agent of pediculosis
B. Vector of tularemia
D. Vector of plague
E. Mechanical vector of intestinal infections
23. Medical importance of the body louse is:
A. Endoparasite
D. Vector of typhoid
B. Vector of plague
E. Causative agent of phthiriasis
C. Vector of epidemic typhus *
24. Causative agents of lice-borne relapsing fever in organism of the lice are present in:
A. Hemolymph *
B. Gut
C. Saliva
D. On the surface of the body
E. Mouth parts
25. Medical importance of fleas:
A. Agents of phthiriasis
B. Vectors of plague *
C. Vectors of intestinal disorders
D. Vectors of Chagas' disease
E. Agents of pediculosis
CHAPTER 13
1. Progressive changes in organisms that persist over time is:
A. Evolution *
D. Isolation
B. Natural selection
E. Heredity
C. Hardy-Weinberg principle
2. Analogous organs indicate
A. Common descendent
D. Natural selection
B. Parallel evolution
E. None of the above
C. Convergent evolution *
3. Which of the following factors is most likely to contribute to gene flow between
populations?
A. Random mating
C. Mutation
B. Migration *
D. Inbreeding
E. Genetic drift
4. Congenital defects of the skin are:
A. Polydactyly
C. Brachydactyly
E. Cleft palate
B. Cleft lip
D. Hypertrichosis *
5. Heterodontous teeth are typical for:
E. Mammals *
A. Reptiles
C. Bony fish
B. Birds
D. Amphibians
6. Which pair of arterial arches gives the origin to carotid arteries?
A. First
D. Fourth
B. Second
E. Fifth
C. Third *
7. How many arterial arches are in a human embryo?
A.2
D.5
B. 3
E. 6 *
C. 4
8. Incomplete septum in the ventricle is typical for:
A. Fish
D. Birds
B. Amphibians
E. Mammals
C. Reptiles *
9. All types of kidneys are present in vertebrates embryogenesis EXCEPT:
A. Pronephros
C. Metanephros
B. Mesonephros
D. Protonephridia *
10. The hindbrain develops into:
A. Forebrain
C. Mesencephalon
B. Mesencephalon and diencephalon
D. Cerebellum
E. Myelencephalon and metencephalon *
11. The ichtyopsidic type of cerebrum refers to:
A. Human
D. Birds
B. Fish *
E. Mammals
C. Reptiles
12. For the first time archicortex appears in:
A. Fish
D. Birds
B. Amphibians
E. Mammals
C. Reptiles *
13. Mesonephros ... in male Anamniota.
A. Reduces
B. Transforms into ureter
C. Transforms into sperm duct
D. Partially transforms into testis appendix
E. Functions *
14. Ancestral congenital defects of the circulatory system are:
A. Acardia
B. Ventricle septa! defect
C. Persistence of two arches of aorta - "aortal ring"
D. Persistence of Botallo duct
E. All of the above *
15. There are South and North strains in Plasmodium vivax that differ in the duration of the
incubation period. In the South strain it is short, and in the North one is long. This reflects
the selection:
E. Driving
B. Stabilizing
D. Sexual
C. Artificial
A. Disruptive*
CHAPTER 14
1. A male has straight black hair and overhanging skin fold of superior eyelid-epican-thus.
What race does he most probably represent?
A. Mongoloid *
C. Europid
E. Ethiopian
B. Negroid
D. Australoid
2. For human it is hard to stay at the altitude of over 7,000 meters above sea level with-out
oxygen tanks. What is the limiting factor for surviving in this case?
A. Level of ultraviolet irradiation
D. Temperature
B. Partial pressure of oxygen in the air *
E. Gravity
C. Humidity level
3. What physiological changes will be observed in habitants of the high land?
A. Increasing of the hemoglobin level *
B. Increasing of the leukocytes number
C. Decreasing of the leukocytes number
D. Decrease heart rate
E. Increased diameter of the blood vessels
4. The human population with such characteristics as elongated body, reduced muscle
volume, long limbs, slim chest, increased sweating, decreased level of metabolism and fat
production. To which adaptive types this population belongs to?
A. Tropical *
C. Desert
E. Intermediate
B. Arctic
D. Mountain
5. After arriving in Pamir researchers from Australia have complained of nervous disorders, loss of appetite, weakness for several months. What process has been disrupted in
extreme conditions?
A. Adaptation *
C. Tachyphylaxis
E. Reparation
B. Tolerance
D. Stress
6. Ability of organisms to produce antibiotics and phytoncides is an example of:
A. Neutralism
C. Symbiosis
E. Allelopathy *
B. Predation
D. Competition
7. Adaptation to high rate of life, liability of mental reactions, tolerance to stress is characteristic to adaptive ecological type of humans:
A. Arid
C. Arctic
E. Urban *
B. Tropical
D. Temperate climate
8. Formation of different adaptive ecological human types reflects the selection:
A. Artificial
C. Stabilizing
E. Sexual
B. Disruptive *
D. Driving
9. The most potent natural carcinogen aflatoxin B is produced by:
A. Fungi of Aspergillus species *
B. Ergot fungus
D. Death cap
C. Fly agaric
E. Water hemlock
10. Passively poisonous is:
A. Honey bee
C. Lion fish
E. Meadow viper
B. Tiger centipede
D. Salamandra *
11. Rattle snakes are identified by the:
A. Rattle sound *
C. Big eyes
E. Shock sound
B. Black body
D. Long body
12. King cobra is found in:
A. India *
B. Japan
C. Europe
D. Africa
E. Arabia
13. Black mamba's back skin color is:
A. Red
B. Brownish *
C. Black
D. White
E. Yellow
100 new tests from the last summarized (8th of May)
1.A patient suffering from wasting fever with increasing body temperature to 40°C was
delivered to the infections department of the hospital. Those attacks repeated rhythmically
every 48 hours. The doctor diagnosed malaria. What technic is used for that diagnosis
specification?
a. Serologic examinations
b. Leukogram investigation
c. Big blood drop investigation to determine pathogen *
d. The cerebrospinal fluid punctate investigation e The lymphatic nodes punctate
investigation
2.During the examination of the cell structure a globular monomembranous organelle,
which contains hydrolytic enzymes, was found. This organelle is known to provide
intracellular digestion and protective reactions of the cell, What organelle is it?
A. Centriole
b. Endoplasmic reticulum.
c. Ribosome.
d. Lysosome*
e. Mitochondrion.
3.A man of 40-years old, who lives in the pise-walled house, came to the lab. He found in
the wall chink the dark-grey arthropods, which have long oviform body and somewhat
pointed front end of body. The arthropod's mouth part was located on abdomen surface of
the body. Those arthropods were with 4 pairs of walking legs. What kind of arthropod was
detected?
a. Sorcoptes scabiei
b. Ixodes persulcatus
c. Ornithodoros popilipes *
d. todes ricinus
e. Dermacentor nuttalli
4.The patient entered to gastroenterology department with chronic colitis. Laboratory
analysis was prescribed. Stool sample demonstrated a lot of rounded (10 mkm) cysts with
4 nuclei. Which of protozoan do they belong to?
a. Entamoeba gingivalis
b. Entomoebo histolytica *
c. Balantidium coli
d. Giordia intestinalis
e. Entomoeba coli
5. The visitor of a Japanese restaurant suddenly got a feel lip and tongue paresthesias,
followed by facial and extremity paresthesias and numbness. Than salivation, nausea,
vomiting, and diarrhea with abdominal pain were developed. It was considered that
afflicted individual suffered from the passively poisonous animal's toxin. Which animals of
the following list are belong to "passively poisonous"?
a. Bee
b. Spider
c. Salamander
d. Scorpion
e. Puffer Fish*
6.During the postembiyonal development in a man's organism some age-related changes
occur. They are skin elasticity loss, visual and hearing impairment. What do we call the
period of individual development when such changes occur?
a. Juvenile.
b. First mature.
c. Ageing *
d. Youthful
e. Youth.
7. The ulcerative lesions were formed on the man's skin. It is knowing that he was travelled
the Middle East countries. He was suffering from sand-fly bites every day there. The ulcers
contents microscopic analysis revealed nonflagelated protozoa. What disease can be
suspected?
a. Demodecosis
b. Visceral leishmaniasis
c. Cutaneous leishmaniasis *
d. Myasis
e. Scables
8. The patient was in the hospital with complaints of severe itching, burning skin, poor
sleep, loss of appetite, feverish condition. He was attacked by sand-flies. Sand flies are
blood-sucking Dipteran encountered in sandy areas.The sand fly Phlebotomus papatasii is
the vector of:
a. Malaria.
b. Leishmaniasis. *
c. Tularemia.
d. Japanese encephalitis.
e. Clonorchlasis.
9. A hunter killed a bear and prepared it for eating. In addition, he ate some of that fresh
meat. Approximately two to three weeks later. the hunter experienced fever, diarrhea, and
muscle pain. A muscle squash was made from the softened meat tissue. Encapsulated.
colled larvae were revealed. What is your identification of the objects in meat?
a. Trichinello spiralis
b. Trichuris trchiura *
c. Enterobius vermicularis
d. Ancylostomo duodenole
e. Accuris (‫)قابل خواندن نبود‬
10. A patient appealed to the doctor, complaining of general weakness, and indigestion. He
brought the segments of tapeworm, which he had found in his bed. Which helminth had a
patient?
a. Hymenolepis nana
b. Echinococcus granulosus
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Toeniorhynchus saginatus
e. Toenia solhum*
11. Cross-sections of adult worms with the female residing in the gynecophoral canal of the
male were observed on biopsied sections of the patient's intestine. Eggs with the
prominent lateral spine were found within the female. What parasitic representative was
found in the patient?
a. Fasciola hepatica
b. Schistosoma mansoni *
c. Paragonimus westermani
d. Trichiunis trichura
e. Opisthorchis felineus
12. During the mitotic division in a cell we can observe the separation of chromatids
towards the opposite poles. What stage of the cell cycle takes place in the cell?
a. Telophase.
b. Interphase.
c. Prophase.
d. Anaphase. *
e. Metaphase.
13. A baby boy has deformations of the cerebral and facial cranial parts, microphthalmia,
an ear deformation and cleft plate. The baby's karyotype is 47, XY,13+. What disease is it?
a. Klinefelter's syndrome.
b. Patau syndrome. *
c. Turner's syndrome.
d. Edward's syndrome.
e. Down's syndrome.
14. A 28-year-old man came to a doctor complaining of epigastric pain. During detailed
examination of a patient it was revealed that he is engaged in boating and sometimes
drinks unboiled water from a river or a lake. A doctor suspected that the cause of complaint
of a patient is the presence of helminth in his body. What helminth is this?
a. Fasciola hepatica *
b. Paragonimus ringeri
c. Opistorchis felineus
d. Diphyllobothrium latum
e. Clonorchis sinensis
15. Sickle-sell anemia, when erythrocytes are in the form of a sickle, is widespread among
the population of some districts in tropic Africa. What biological phenomenon is this
disease based on?
a. Transduction.
b. Gene mutation. *
c. Modification.
d. Chromosomal aberration.
e. Chromosomal mutation.
16. Cross-sections of adult worms with the female residing in the gynecophoral canal of the
male were observed on biopsied sections of the patient's intestine. Eggs with the
prominent lateral spine were found within the female. What parasitic representative was
found in the patient?
a. Trichiuris trichura
b. Opisthorchis felineus
C. Fasciola hepatica
d. Paragonimus westermani
e. Schistosoma mansoni *
17. A 40-year-old woman consulted a doctor. The round shape cysts with 8 nuclei were
found in her feces during microscopic examination. What is the ecological characteristic of
the protozoans form those cysts?
a. Free-living organism
b. Commensal
c. Exoparasite
d. Parasite *
e. Accidental parasite
18. The patient sees a doctor about headaches, muscle pain, joint pain, chills, vomiting, and
abdominal pain. After examination of the patient the diagnosis of tick-borne relapsing fever
was established. How was patient infected by the disease?
a. By means of dog tick bite
b. By means of soft tick bite *
c. By means of housefly mite bite
d. By means of itch mite bite
e. By means of hard tick bite
19. A patient came to a stomatological section complaining of pain in the chewing muscles.
It was known from anamnesis that he was fond of hunting and often ate meat of wild
animals. The encysted larva of what parasite was found in the result of muscle biopsy of the
patient?
a. Ancylostoma duodenale
b. Strongyloidesstercoralis
c. Dracunculus medinensis
d. Wuchereria bancrofti
e. Trichinella spiralis*
20. A 38-year-old woman sees a doctor about indigestion and general weakness. She found
on her bedclothes the actively moving segments of a tapeworm. What helminth is in the
patient's body?
a. Echinococcus granulosus
b. Diphyllobothrium latum
c. Hymenolepis nana
d. Taenia saginata *
e. Paragonimus ringeri
21. A patient suffering from wasting fever with increasing body temperature to 40°C was
delivered to the infections department of the hospital Those attacks repeated rhythmically
every 48 hours. It is known that patient has returned from South Africa recently. He had
been staying there for 3 years. What is theprobable causative agent of this disease?
a. Agent of four-days' malaria
b. Agent of Gambian trypanosomiasis
c. Agent of toxoplasmosis
d. Agent Rodesian trypanosomiasis
e. Agent of three-days' malaria *
22. The same genotype in a human can cause the development of a feature with different
degrees of manifestation that depends on the interaction of this gene with the others and
on the influence of environmental conditions. What do we call the degree of phenotypical
manifestation of the character controlled by a definite gene?
a. Penetrance.
b. Polymery.
c. Mutation.
d. Inheritance.
e. Gene expression.*
23. During examination of a 14-year-old girl a doctor found on her pubis grey insects with a
wide short body. Their size was 1,1-13 millimeter. Which of below mentioned species can
describe above animals belong to?
a. Pulex irritans
b. Phthirus pubis *
c. Triatoma infestans
d. Pediculus humanus capitis
e. Cimex lectularius
24. During the examination of the woman's epithelium of the cheek mucosa it was
established that in most cells the nuclei had two Barr bodies. What provisional diagnosis
can we make in this case?
a. Monosomy on X chromosome.
b. Trisomy on X chromosome. *
c. Trisomy on the 21st chromosome.
d. Trisomy on the 13th chromosome.
e. Trisomy on the 18-th chromosome.
25. During the examination of the cell structure a globular monomembranous organelle,
which contains hydrolytic enzymes, was found. This organelle is known to provide
intracellular digestion and protective reactions of the cell. What organelle is it?
a. Centriole.
b. Lysosome. *
c. Ribosome.
d. Endoplasmic reticulum.
e. Mitochondrion.
26. During the postembiyonal development in a man's organism some age-related changes
occur. They are skin elasticity loss, visual and hearing impairment. What do we call the
period of individual development when such changes occur?
a. Youthful.
b. First mature.
C. Youth.
d. Ageing. *
e. Juvenile.
27. It is known that the information about the amino acid sequence in the protein molecule
is written in the form of a nucleotide sequence. There are 4 types of nucleotides in the DNA
molecule. Different amino acids are codified by a different number of triplets from one to
six. What do we call this characteristic of the genetic code?
a. Triplet nature.
b. Collinearity.
c. Universality.
d. Degeneracy. *
e. Specifity.
28. The patient sees a doctor about fever, headache, muscle and joint aches, and enlarged
lymph nodes. The African trypanosomiasis was diagnosed after examination of the patient.
What insect could transmit agent of this disease?
a. Cimex lectularius.
b. Musca domestica.
c. Wohlfahrtia magnifica.
d. Stomoxys calcitrans.
e. Glossina palpalis.
29. A baby, ill with hemophilia, has been born to healthy parents, but the mother's
grandfather had hemophilia, too. What type of inheritance does this feature have?
a. Dominant, X-linked.
b. Autosomal-recessive.
C. Autosomal-dominant.
d. Y-linked.
e. Recessive, X-linked.*
30. The farmer was delivered to the hospital as a result of the snake attack. He tells doctor
that it was snake Vipera berus. Which action of the Vipera berus venom on the human
body:
a. Sleep-reducing
b. Anesthetic
c. Hemolytic *
d. Sleep-inducing
e. Neuroparalytic
31. The patient sees a doctor about fever, headache, muscle and joint aches, and enlarged
lymph nodes. After laboratory analysis the African trypanosomiasis was diagnosed. Which
matter was used for laboratory diagnosis of that African trypanosomiasis?
a. Muscles
b. Hepatocytes
c. Blood
d. Nerve cells
e. Epidermis
32. The first step in diagnosing diseases provoked by the disorder of metabolism is the
application of express-methods which are based on a simple quality reaction of
determining metabolites in blood or urine. The second step is to confirm the diagnosis for
which exact chromatography methods of enzymes and amino acids study are used. What
genetic m od can be applied?
a. Population-statistical.
b. Study of twins.
c. Cytogenetic.
d. Hibridization of somatic cell.
e. Biochemical.*
33. During examination of a 22-year-old man a doctor found on his head grey insects. Their
length was about 2,9 millimeters. There were deep incisures on the both sides of the animal
body. Which of below mentioned species can describe above insects belong to?
a. Blatta orientalis
b. Pulex irritans
c. Triatoma infestans
d. Pediculus humanus capitis *
e. Cimex lectularius
34. The patient was in the hospital with complaints of severe itching, burning skin, poor
sleep, loss of appetite, feverish condition. He was attacked by black flies. Black flies are the
insects that can be the vectors of humans' diseases agent. What diseases agent can be
transmitted by the black flies of the genus Simulium:
a. Loiasis.
b. Onchocerciasis. *
c. Malaria.
d. Brugiasis.
e. Wuchereriasis.
35. During the pedigree analysis of a family with such an inherited pathology as
transgression of enamel formation, it was found that the disease appeared in each
generation. It is inherited by daughters from fathers. What type of inheritance can we
observe in this case?
a. Y-linked.
b. Recessive, X-linked.
c. Dominant, X-linked. *
d. Autosomal-dominant.
e. Autosomal-recessive.
36. The ulcerative lesions were formed on the man's skin. It is knowing that he was
travelled the Middle East countries. He was suffering from sand-fly bites every day there.
The ulcers contents microscopic analysis revealed nonflagelated protozoa. What disease
can be suspected?
a. Cutaneous leishmaniasis *
b. Scabies
c. Visceral leishmaniasis
d. Myasis
e. Demodecosis
37. A patient appealed to the doctor, complaining of general weakness, and indigestion. He
brought the segments of tapeworm, which he had found in his bed. Which helminth had a
patient?
a. Hymenolepis nana
b. Echinococcus granulosus
c. Taenia solium *
d. Taeniarhynchus saginatus
e. Diphyllobothrium latum
38. It is known that the information about the amino acid sequence in the protein molecule
is written in the form of a nucleotide sequence. There are 4 types of nucleotides in the DNA
molecule. Different amino acids are codified by a different number of triplets - from one to
six. What do we call this characteristic of the genetic code?
a. Triplet nature.
b. Degeneracy. *
c. Collinearity.
d. Universality.
e. Specifity.
39. The same genotype in a human can cause the development of a feature with different
degrees of manifestation that depends on the interaction of this gene with the others and
on the influence of environmental conditions. What do we call the degree of phenotypical
manifestation of the character controlled by a definite gene?
a. Penetrance.
b. Gene expression. *
c. Inheritance.
d. Mutation.
e. Polymery.
40. A baby boy has deformations of the cerebral and facial cranial parts, microphthalmia,
an ear deformation and cleft plate. The baby's karyotype is 47, XY,13+. What disease is it?
a. Down's syndrome.
b. Klinefelter's syndrome.
c. Edward's syndrome.
d. Turner's syndrome.
e. Patau syndrome.*
41. The patient sees doctor about his disease: the chronic rheumatoid arthritis. The
apitherapy was prescribed by the doctor for the base treatment supporting. The apitherapy
is a method based on some venomous animals' products utilization. Which animal is used
for apitherapy ?
a. King cobra
b. Texas diamond-back
c. Blunt-nosed viper
d. Honey bee *
e. Russell's viper
42. During anaphase the monochromatic chromosomes are placed on the poles of the cell.
How many chromosomes does the cell have during anaphase?
a. 69.
b. 23.
c. 96.
d. 46.
e. 92.*
43. Some people with good clinical health can feel the anemia symptoms in the conditions
of high mountains. During their blood test we can find sickle-shaped erythrocytes. What
genotype can a person with occasional symptoms of sickle-cell anemia have?
a. XCXC.
b. a a.
c. A a. *
d. A A.
e. XCY.
44. A man (35 years old) appealed to the doctor, complaining of epigastric pain. The patient
likes fishing a lot, and often eats raw fish. Eggs of helminths were found in patient's feces.
The eggs had dark color and oval shape with operculum on the one pole (size 30x15mkm).
Which helminthiasis did the patient have?
a. Dicrocoeliosis
b. Opisthorchiasis *
c. Paragonimosis
d. Schistosomiasis
e. Fasciolosis
45. a doctor about fever, The patient sees malaise, anorexia, muscle aches, headache and
nausea. The Russian spring-summer encephalitis was diagnosed after examination of the
patient. How was patient infected by the disease?
a. By means of soft tick bite
b. By means of sand fly bite
c. By means of hard tick bite *
d. By means of malaria mosquito bite
e. By means of itch mite bite
46. The man entered the hospital after returning to Ukraine from a tourist trip to Africa
with the next symptoms: paroxysmal attacks of chills, fever and sweating. Patient told to
the doctor that these attacks last a day or two at a time and recur every 36 to 48 hours.
Laboratory examination of a patient's stained blood specimen showed the presence of ringlike and crescent-like forms within red blood cells. What is the most credible agent of the
patient's disease?
a. Trypanosoma rhodesience
b. Plasmodium falciparum
c. Schistosoma haematobium
d. Plasmodium vivax *
e. Wuchereria bancrofti
47. A 19-year-old woman returned from a Costa been suffering from crampy Rica had
abdominal pain and diarrhea for over a week. Microscopic examination of a concentrated
wet-mount preparation of stool sample revealed oval eggs, with some being more broadly
oval than others. Eggshell was thick and mammilated. What parasitic disease can be
suspected in the patient?
a. Enterobiasis *
b. Filariasis
c. Trichinosis
d. Ancylostomiasis
e. Ascariasis
48. A 19-year-old woman returned from a Costa been suffering from crampy Rica had
abdominal pain and diarrhea for over a week. Microscopic examination of a concentrated
wet-mount preparation of stool sample revealed oval eggs, with some being more broadly
oval than others. Eggshell was thick and mammilated. What parasitic disease can be
suspected in the patient?
a. Enterobiasis *
b. Filariasis
c. Trichinosis
d. Ancylostomiasis
e. Ascariasis
49. An intensive aerobic process of the energy formation and accumulation in high energy
bond ATP takes place in the cells of muscular tissue. In which organelle does this process
occur?
a In the centriole.
b. In the mitochondrion. *
c. In the lysOsome.
d. In the peroxisome.
e. In the endoplasmic reticulum.
50. Some people with good clinical health can feel the anemia symptoms in the conditions
of high mountains. During their blood test we can find sickle-shaped erythrocytes. What
genotype can a person with occasional symptoms of sickle-cell anemia have?
a. a a.
b. A A.
c. XCXC.
d. XCY.
e. A a.*
51. Inclination to diabetes mellitus is provoked by the autosomal-recessive gene. This gene
becomes apparent only in 30 % of homozygous individuals. What genetic regularity is
observed in this case?
a. Pleiotropy.
b. Incomplete penetrance. *
c. Complementarity.
d. Gene expressiveness.
e. Discontinuity.
52. A patient consulted a doctor because of complaints of general weakness, pain in bowels,
indigestion. The intestinal infection caused by Protozoa was suspected as a result of
laboratory analysis. The intestinal pathogens usually transmitted through the
contaminated food, water, hand. They can also be transmitted with the mechanical vectors.
There are mechanical and biological vectors of disease pathogens among insects.
Mechanical vectors of protozoan diseases are:
a. Wohlfahrtia magnifica.
b. Musca domestica. *
c. Pulex irritans.
d. Phlebotomus papatasii.
e. Glossina palpalis.
53. A hunter killed a bear and prepared it for eating. In addition, he ate some of that fresh
meat. Approximately two to three weeks later, the hunter experienced fever, diarrhea, and
muscle pain. A muscle squash was made from the softened meat tissue. Encapsulated, coied
larvae were revealed. What is your identification of the objects in meat?
a. Trichinella spiralis
b. Trichuris trichiura *
c. Enterobius vermicularis
d. Ancylostoma duodenaie
e. Ascaris lumbricoides
54. A 5-year-old boy has epigastric pain and allergy. After his detailed examination a doctor
suspected helminthiasis and recommended laboratory analysis of a child's feces. There
were determined oval-shaped, yellow eggs with operculum on one of the poles. Egg's size
was 134x79 micrometers.What helminth did the boy have?
a. Fasciola hepatica *
b. Trichocephalus trichiurus
c. Taenia solium
d. Enterobius vermicularis
e. Dicrocoelium lanceatum
55. In the nucleus the molecule of immature MRNA transforms to the molecule of the
mature MRNA which is shorter than the immature MRNA. What do we call the combination
of stages in this transformation?
a. Transmission.
b. Recognition.
c Processing. *
d. Replication.
e. Termination.
56. During the examination of the man's epithelium of the cheek mucosa it was established
that in most cells the nuclei had Barr bodies. What syndrome is it typical of?
a. Turner's syndrome.
b. Down's syndrome.
c. Trisomy on X chromosome.
d. Edward's syndrome.
e. Klinefelter's syndrome.*
57. In a family of students from Africa a baby with signs of anemia was born. The baby died
within a short time. It was found that the baby's erythrocytes were shaped like a sickle.
What genotypes may the parents have if they have a light form of anemia?
a. AA and AA.
b. Aa and aa.
c. Aa and AA.
d. aa and aa.
e. Aa and Aa.*
58. A patient appealed to the doctor, complaining of general weakness, and indigestion. He
brought the segments of tapeworm, which he had found in his bed. Which helminth had a
patient?
a. Echinococcus granulosus
b. Taeniarhynchus saginatus
c. Taenia solium *
d. Hymenolepis nana
e. Diphyllobothrium latum
59. A baby was born with abnormalities of the external and internal organs development.
During the check up the following abnormalities were found: epicanthus, shortened
extremities, a small skull, impaired development of the cardiovascular system. On these
grounds the provisional diagnosis of Down's syndrome was made. What genetic method
can confirm this pathology?
a Pedigree analysis.
b. Blochemical.
c. Study of twins.
d. Population statistical.
e. Cytogenetic.*
60. A pig farm worker complains of paroxysmal abdominal pain, liquid feces with mucus
and blood, headache, weakness, fever. The ulcers from 1 mm up to several cm in diameter
were revealed during large intestine examination. Feces microscopic examination
demonstrated oval unicellular organisms with cilia. What disease can be suspected?
a. Amebiasis
b. Trichomoniasis
c. Gardiasis
d. Balantidiasis *
e. Taeniasis
61. The large unicellular organisms have been observed in the vagina smear of a female
patient with the symptoms of the inflammatory process.of urogenital apparatus. The cell
bodies of the organisms were pear-shaped with pointed posterior part, large nucleus and
undulating membrane. What protòzoans were found in the smear?
a. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
b. Toxoplasma gondii
C. Trichomones hominis
d. Trichomonas vaginalis *
e. Lamblia intestinalis
62. A patient came to the doctor complaining of intense itching at the area of elbow, wrist,
abdomen, between the hand fingers, that gets worse at night. The medical examination of
the patient's skin showed the presence there the rash and thin grey stripes. What
pathogenic organism can produce such symptoms?
a. Ornithodoros papillipes
b. Ixodes ricinus
c. Sarcoptes scabiei *
d. Ixodes persulcatus
e. Dermacentor pictus
63. The treatment of a patient with pneumonia didn't relieve his condition. He began
complaining of stomachache, vomiting, indigestion, worsening of his general state. The
analysis of the feces revealed oval-shaped helminth's eggs covered with a thick tuberculate
envelope. What diagnosis can be made basing on the above mentioned data?
a. Enteroblasis
b. Trichuriasis
c. Ascariasis *
d. Fascioliasis
e. Diphyllobothriasis
64. A 25-year-old man arrived to Ukraine from Africa and was admitted to a hospital soon
because of attacks of wasting fever and body temperature rising up to 40°c every 48 hours.
What disease are these symptoms characteristic of?
a. Chagas disease
b. Three-day's malaria *
C. Balantidiasis.
d. Scabies
e. Myasis
65. In an experimental lab a pig's kidney has been grafted to a cow. What do we call this
way of transplantation?
a. Homotransplantation.
b. Ksenotransplantation. *
c. Autotransplantation.
d. Allotransplantation.
e. Explantation.
66. The 1-st year students of medical university in Ukraine have investigated poisonous
animals' diversity during medical biology lesson. The tarantulla was distinguished like
actively poisonous animals because it is armed by the special devices for poison production
and inoculation into the human body. Which structure the venom glands of spiders are
opened into?
a. Antennae
b. Chelicera *
c. Pedipalp
d. Stinger at the telson
e. Walking legs
67. During the cell division we can see the maximum amount of condensed chromosomes.
At what stage of the cell cycle is the process of the cell division stopped?
a. Prophase.
b. Metaphase. *
c. Telophase.
d. Anaphase.
e. Interphase.
68. During examination of a 22-year-old man a doctor found on his head grey insects. Their
length was about 2,9 millimeters. There were deep incisures on the both sides of the animal
body. Which of below mentioned species can describe above insects belong to?
a. Blatta orientalis
b. Pulex irritans
C. Pediculus humanus capitis *
d. Triatoma infestans
e. Cimex lectularius
69. During mitotic cell division a scientist can see the phase when the nuclear envelope and
nucleolus disappear, the centrioles are placed on the opposite poles of the cell and
chromosomes are in the form of a thread ball freely placed in the cytoplasm. What stage of
the mitotic cycle takes place in the cell?
a. Telophase.
b. Metaphase.
c. Prophase.*
d. Interphase.
e. Anaphase.
70. The patient was delivered to the hospital with symptoms of meningitis (e.g., fever,
headache, and a stiff neck). During patient's examination spring-summer encephalitis was
diagnosed. Patient was infected through the bite of the:
a. Dermacentor pictus
b. Sarcoptes scabiei
c. Ixodes ricinus *
d. Ixodes persulcatus
e. Ornithodoros papillipes
71. Urologist examined a patient with complaint of pain during urination. It was suspected
that helminthosis is a reason of this state and recommended laboratory analysis of
patient's day urinary specimens. Large eggs with terminal spine were found there. What is
the most credible diagnosis in this case?
a. Paragonimiasis
b. Clonorchiasis
c. Opistorchiasis
d. Taeniasis
e. Schistosomiasis *
72. During examination of a 22-year-old man a doctor found on his head grey insects. Their
length was about 2,9 millimeters. There were deep incisures on the both sides of the animal
body. Which of below mentioned species can describe above insects belong to?
a. Pediculus humanus capitis *
b. Blatta orientalis
c. Triatoma infestans
d. Cimex lectularius
e. Pulex irritans
73. White helminths 40 mm long with a thin filiform anterior part of the body were found
in the appendix during surgery. After the preliminarily examination of the patient's feces
oval-shaped eggs with two prominent plugs on the poles were found. What helminth was
found during the operation?
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Enterobius vermicularis
c. Strongyloides stercoralis
d. Ancylostoma duodenale
e. Trichocephalus trichiurus*
74. The gastroenterology department with chronic colitis. Laboratory sample
demonstrated a lot of rounded (10 mkm) cysts with 4 nuclei. Which of protozoan do they
patient entered to analysis was prescribed. Stool belong to?
a. Giardia intestinalis
b. Balantidium coli
c. Entamoeba histolytica *
d. Entamoeba coli
e. Entamoeba gingivalis
75. A 35 year-old man was delivered to the hospital. He couldn't see by one eye. It is known
from anamnesis that patient used to eat pork very often. After radiologic examination and
serologic findings, there was made a diagnosis of cysticercosis. What helminth is an agent
of cysticercosis?
a. Taenia solium *
b. Trichinella spiralis
c. Trichocephalus trichiurus
d. Taeniarhynchus saginatus
e. Diphyllobothrium latum
76. As a result of the abnormalities in the chromosomes divergence in meiosis, the
secondary oocyte which contains only 22 autosomes has been formed. What disease can a
baby have after the impregnation of this secondary oocyte by a normal spermatozoon?
a. Turner's syndrome. *
b. Edward's syndrome.
c. Trisomy on the X-chromosome.
d. Down's syndrome.
e. Klinfelter's syndrome.
77. The 1-st year students of medical university in Ukraine have investigated Ukrainian
poisonous animals diversity and their medical value. Some of poisonous animals were
included into the group of actively poisonous armed animals. Choose that animal Latin
Name from mentioned below:
a. Cyanea capillata
b. Vipera lebetina
c. Vipera ursini
d. Naja haje
e. Physalia physalis
78. It is known that the genetic code is degeneracy and has triplet nature. What nucleotide
can be changed in the codifying triplet without a loss of its sense?
a. First.
b. Second or third.
c. Second.
d. First or second.
e. Third.*
79. In the genetic consultation of a 14-year-old girl a provisional diagnosis of Turner's
syndrome was made. What karyotype does the girl have?
a. 46, XX.
b. 46, XY.
c. 47, XXY.
d. 45, XO. *
e. 47, XY.13+.
80. The patient sees a doctor about painful ulcers like sores that last for a prolonged period.
The destroying tissue larvae of some Arthropods were found after sores investigation. This
infestation with larvae or maggots is known as myiasis. Larvae of what insect is the cause
of myiasis?
a. Wohlfahrtia magnifica. *
b. Glossina palpalis.
c. Phlebotomus papatasii.
d. Stomoxys calcitrans.
e. Musca domestica.
81. Under the influence of gamma-radiation a fragment of the chromosome has turned by
180° degrees. What chromosomal mutation has taken place?
a. Deletion. *
b. Inversion.
c. Duplication.
d. Interchromosomal translocation.
e. Intrachromosomal translocation.
82. A dead boy has been born in the hospital by the woman who suffered protozoan
disease. Which protozoan disease could provoke fetus death?
a. Toxoplasmosis *
b. Visceral leishmaniasis
C. Amebiasis
d. Balantidiasis
e. Trichomoniasis Clear
83. During the examination of the woman's epithelium of the cheek mucosa it was
established that in most cells the nuclei had two Barr bodies. What provisional diagnosis
can we make in this case?
a. Trisomy on X chromosome. *
b. Monosomy on X chromosome.
c. Trisomy on the 18-th chromosome.
d. Trisomy on the 21st chromosome.
e. Trisomy on the 13th chromosome.
84. Parents with ill child came to the infectious disease physician. They worked in one of
the Asian countries for a long time. Child has earthy colored skin, loss of appetite, laxity,
enlarged liver, spleen, peripheral glands. What protozoan is a causative agent of child's
illness?
a. Trichomonas hominis
b. Leishmania tropica
c. Trypanosoma gambiense
d. Lamblia interstinalis
e. Leishmania donovani*
85. During the examination of the cell structure a globular monomembranous organelle,
which contains hydrolytic enzymes, was found. This organelle is known to provide
intracellular digestion and protective reactions of the cell. What organelle is it?
a. Ribosome.
b. Lysosome. *
c. Mitochondrion.
d. Centriole.
e. Endoplasmic reticulum.
86. Human contamination by nematodes can happen thought the skin. Invasive filariform
larva from what of listed below nematodes penetrate the can subcutaneous tissues of
human, enter capillaries and are carried passively through the bloodstream?
a. Wuchereria bancrofti
b. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Trichinella spiralis
d. Ancylostoma duodenale
e. Enterobius vermicularis
87. Children with normal hearing have been born by deaf and dumb parents with the
genotype DDee and ddEE. What is the form of gene interaction between the genes D and E?
a. Polymery.
b. Complete dominance.
c. Complementarity. *
d. Codominance.
e. Epistasis.
88. A patient came to a dermatologist complaining of roughness scaly skin and acne on his
face. The mobile parasitic arachnids were found during the laboratory examination of the
sample of follicular tissues and oils from patient’s face. What animal the patient was
infected by?
a. Itch mite
b. Bedbug
c. Wohlfahrtia fly
d. Human flea
e. Follicle mite*
89.The patient was in the hospital with complaints of severe itching, burning skin, poor
sleep, loss of appetite, feverish condition. He was attacked by sand-flies. Sand flies are
blood-sucking Dipteran encountered in sandy areas.The sand fly Phlebotomus papatasii is
the vector of:
a. Clonorchiasis.
b. Leishmaniasis.*
c. Tularemia.
d. Malaria.
e. Japanese encephalitis.
90.Cross-sections of adult worms with the female residing in the gynecophoral canal of the
male were observed on biopsied sections of the patient`s intestine. Eggs with the
prominent lateral spine were found within the female. What parasitic representative was
found in the patient?
a. Schistosoma mansoni*
b. Opisthorchis felineus
c. Paragonimus westermani
d. Fasciola hepatica
e. Trichiuris trichura
91.A 40-year-old woman consulted a doctor. The round shape cysts with 8 nuclei were
found in her feces during microscopic examination. What is the ecological characteristic of
the protozoans form those cysts?
a. Accidental parasite
b. Parasite*
c. Commensal
d. Exoparasite
e. Free-living organism
MINISTRY OF PUBLIC HEALTH OF UKRAINE
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, SCIENCE, YOUTH, AND SPORTS
OF UKRAINE
SUMY STATE UNIVERSITY
MEDICAL INSTITUTE
Test Items for Licensing Examination
Krok-1 General Medical Training
MEDICAL BIOLOGY
for medical students
Sumy
2011
Test Items for Licensing Examination: “Krok-1 General Medical Training: Medical Biology” (For Medical Students) / Compiler
O. Yu. Smirnov. – Sumy: Electronic Edition, 2011. – 74 pp.
Physiology and Pathophysiology Department
Medical Institute of the Sumy State University
This book includes 293 test items in cytogenetics, classical genetics, molecular genetics, medical genetics, population genetics, general biology, protozoology, helminthology, and entomology.
Comments and notes are given to some test problems. Special attention is
given to errors in tests.
© Compiling, revision, and comments. O. Yu. Smirnov, 2011
smirnov-o-yu@yandex.ua
http://med.sumdu.edu.ua/
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
3
Smirnov O.Yu.
CONTENTS
Introduction
Cytology and Cytogenetics
Classical Genetics
Molecular Genetics
Medical Genetics
Population Genetics and Evolution
General Biology
Protozoans
Helminths
Arthropods
Mixed Questions on Parasitology
4
4
15
20
28
47
48
53
60
70
74
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
4
Smirnov O.Yu.
INTRODUCTION
All tests were received from the Testing center of Ministry of Public Health
of Ukraine during exams and from the Collection of tasks for preparing for
test examination in natural science “Krok-1 General Medical Training”
(V. F. Moskalenko, O. P. Volosovets, I. E. Bulakh, O. P. Yavorovskiy,
O. V. Romanenko, and L. I. Ostapyuk, eds. – K.: Medicine, 2006), and then
were reviewed and reorganized. Many mistakes in these tests were corrected (for example, we use the term “DNA repair” in this book instead of
“reparation”, “Edwards' syndrome” instead of “Edward's syndrome” etc.).
Comments and notes are given to some test problems. Special attention is
given to errors in tests.
Five answers from which only one answer is correct are given to each
test. Correct answer is noted by plus. Working with tests, close marks near
answers by a piece of paper. Choose the answer (finished statements) that
fits best and then check your answer.
Year in which certain question was used during State examination
“Krok-1” is given in brackets.
Oleg Smirnov
CYTOLOGY AND CYTOGENETICS
1. The cell of the laboratory animal was overdosed with Roentgen
rays. As a result albuminous fragments formed in the cytoplasm.
What cell organoid will take part at their utilization? (2003)
+ Lysosomes
– Endoplasmic reticulum
– Ribosome
– Golgi complex
– Cells centre
2. Moving of the daughter chromatids to the poles of the cell is
observed in the mitotically dividing cell. At what stage of the mitotic cycle is this cell? (2003, 2005, 2006)1
– Telophase
+ Anaphase
– Prophase
– Metaphase
– Interphase
1
In the book "Collection of tasks…" this question is written as follows: During the mitotic division in a cell we can observe the separation of chromatids towards the opposite poles. What
stage of the cell cycle takes place in the cell?
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
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Smirnov O.Yu.
3. During the postsynthetic period of mitotic cycle the synthesis of
proteins – tubulins, which take part in the mitosis formation, was
destroyed. It can cause the impairment of: (2004)
– duration of mitosis
– chromosome spiralization
– chromosome despiralization
+ chromosome separation
– cytokinesis
4. Karyotyping of healthy man cells is carried out. A small acrocentric odd chromosome was found in the karyotype. What chromosome is it? (2004)
– Group A chromosome
– Group B chromosome
– X chromosome
+ Y chromosome
– Group C chromosome
5. The study of mitotic cycle phases of an onion root revealed the
cell, in which the chromosomes are situated in the equatorial
plane, forming a star. What stage of the cell mitosis is it? (2004)1
– Interphase
+ Metaphase
– Prophase
– Anaphase
– Telophase
6. Oval and round organelles with double wall are seen at the
electron micrograph. The outer membrane is smooth, the inner
membrane folded into cristae contains the enzyme ATP synthetase. These are: (2005)2
– ribosomes
– centrioles
– Golgi complex
– lysosomes
+ mitochondria
7. A tissue sample of benign tumor was studied under the electron
microscope. A lot of small (15–20 nm) spherical bodies, consist1
In the book "Collection of tasks…" this question is written as follows: During the analysis of
the mitotic stage in the onion root cells, a cell, in which spiralized chromosomes were placed
in the equatorial zone, was revealed. What mitotic stage is the cell at?
2
In the book "Collection of tasks…" this question is written as follows: The electronograms of
the rat's liver cells demonstrate some bimembraneous oval structures, the internal membrane
of which forms cristae. What organelles are these?
6
Smirnov O.Yu.
ing of two unequal subunits were detected. These are: (2005, 2006)
– microtubules
– Golgi complex
– mitochondria
+ ribosomes
– smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
8. Analysis of amniotic fluid that was obtained as a result of amniocentesis (puncture of amniotic sac) revealed cells with the nuclei that contain sex chromatin (Barr's body). What can it be evidence of? (2006)
– Genetic disorders of fetus development
– Development of male fetus
– Polyploidy
+ Development of female fetus
– Trisomy
9. In course of practical training students studied a stained blood
smear of a mouse with bacteria phagocytosed by leukocytes.
What cell organella completes digestion of these bacteria? (2007)
– Ribosomes
+ Lysosomes
– Granular endoplasmic reticulum
– Golgi apparatus
– Mitochondrions
10. Golgi complex exports substances from a cell due to the fusion
of the membrane saccule with the cell membrane. The saccule
contents flows out. What process is it? (2008)
– Active transport
– All answers are false
– Facilitated diffusion
+ Exocytosis
– Endocytosis
11. Life cycle of a cell includes the process of DNA autoreduplication. As a result of this process monochromatid chromosomes become bichromatid. This phenomenon is observed within the following period of the cell cycle: (2008, 2009)
– G1
– G2
+S
– G0
–M
12. While studying maximally spiralized chromosomes of human
7
Smirnov O.Yu.
karyotype the process of cell division was stopped in the following
phase: (2008, 2011)1
– prophase
– anaphase
– interphase
+ metaphase
– telophase
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
13. Normal actively dividing cells of human red bone marrow are
analyzed. What number of cell's chromosomes is typical for G1
period? (2010)
+ 46
– 48
– 23
– 45
– 47
14. A cell at the stage of mitotic anaphase was treated by colchicine that inhibits chromosome separation to the poles. What type
of mutation will be caused? (2010)
– Duplication
– Inversion
– Translocation
+ Polyploidy
– Deletion
15. On an electron micrograph a scientist has identified a structure formed by eight histone proteins and a part of DNA molecule
which makes about 1,75 revolutions around the molecules. Which
structure has been identified? (2011)
– Chromosome
– Elementary fibril
+ Nucleosome
– Chromatid
– Half-chromatid
16. The cell cycle is known to consist of several subsequent
stages. At one of the stages the synthesis of DNA happens. What
do we call this period of the cell cycle?
– Presynthesis period (G1) of interphase
+ Synthesis period (S) of interphase
– Mitosis
1
In the book "Collection of tasks…" this question is written as follows: During the cell division
we can see the maximum amount of condensed chromosomes. At what stage of the cell cycle
is the process of the cell division stopped?
8
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
– Premitotic period of interphase
– Postsynthesis period (G2) of interphase
Smirnov O.Yu.
17. In a cell the chromosomes are in the condition of maximum
spiralization and are placed along the equatorial zone. What period of mitosis is described?
– Prophase
– Telophase
+ Metaphase
– Anaphase
– Prometaphase
18. An intensive aerobic process of energy formation and accumulation in the form of high energy ATP bonds takes place in the
cells of muscular tissue. In which organelle does this process occur?
– In the peroxisome
– In the endoplasmic reticulum
– In the lysosome
+ In the mitochondrion
– In the centriole
19. During mitotic cell division a scientist can see the phase when
the nuclear envelope and nucleolus disappear, the centrioles are
placed on the opposite poles of the cell and chromosomes are in
the form of a thread ball freely placed in the cytoplasm. What
stage of mitotic cycle is the cell at?
– Metaphase
+ Prophase
– Anaphase
– Interphase
– Telophase
20. During the cell cycle regular changes in quantity of genetic
material happen. What is the period, when the replication of DNA
happens, called?
– Anaphase
– Prophase
– Metaphase
+ Interphase
– Telophase
21. Microfilaments and microtubules are known to include tubulin
proteins, which take part in the formation of the division spindle.
In what period of the mitotic cycle are tubulin proteins synthesized?
9
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
– Postmitotic period of interphase
– Mitosis
– Synthesis period (S) of interphase
+ Postsynthesis period (G2) of interphase
– Presynthesis period (G1) of interphase
Smirnov O.Yu.
22. In order to analyse the karyotype, a cell culture was influenced by colchicine, which destroys the spindle of division. At
what stage was the mitosis stopped?
+ Metaphase
– Prophase
– Anaphase
– Telophase
– Prometaphase
23. During the whole life of a human in some adult cells mitosis is
not observed, and the quantity of DNA stays permanent. What do
we call these cells?
+ Neurons
– Hepatocytes
– Eye cornea epitheliocytes
– Red bone marrow cells
– Germinal epithelium
24. During the examination
electronic microscope there
consists of cisterns, canals,
malemma. What organelle is
– Centriole
– Mitochondrion
+ Endoplasmic reticulum
– Lysosome
– Peroxisome
of pancreatic gland cells under an
has been found an organelle which
closets and is connected with plasit?
25. During the examination of the cell structure, a globular
monomembranous organelle, which contains hydrolytic enzymes,
was found. This organelle is known to provide intracellular digestion and protective reactions of the cell. What organelle is it?1
– Endoplasmic reticulum
– Centriole
+ Lysosome
– Ribosome
1
In the book "Collection of tasks…" another similar question is also present: In a cell a ballshaped monomembranous organelle that contains hydrolytic enzymes has been studied. What
organelle is it?
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
10
Smirnov O.Yu.
– Mitochondrion
26. There is an organelle near the nucleus which consists of two
cylinders built of microtubules. The cylinders are situated perpendicularly to each other. The organelle is a component of the mitotic spindle of division in animal cells. What organelle is this?
– Mitochondrion
– Ribosome
– Endoplasmic reticulum
+ Centrosome1
– Lysosome
27. In the presynthesis period (G1) of the cell cycle the synthesis
of DNA doesn't occur, that's why the number of DNA molecules is
equal to the number of chromosomes. How many DNA molecules
does any human somatic cell in the presynthesis period (G1)
have?
– 23
– 92
+ 46
– 69
– 48
28. During an experiment the culture of the cells divided by mitosis was influenced by the substance which destroyed the spindle
of division. Which substance was used in the experiment?
– Penicillin
+ Colchicine
– Histamine
– Methanol
– Iodine
29. During anaphase chromosomes (each containing one chromatid)2 are placed on the poles of the cell. How many chromosomes does the cell have during the anaphase?
– 96
– 46
– 23
– 69
+ 92
1
There is a mistake in this question in the book "Collection of tasks…" – the term "centriole" is
used in this book. Structure that contains a pair of cylinders (i. e. a pair of centrioles) is called
the centrosome.
2
There is a mistake in this question in the book "Collection of tasks…" – incorrect word combination "monochromatic chromosomes" is used in this book.
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
11
Smirnov O.Yu.
30. According to the rule of the permanent chromosomes number,
each animal species can be characterized by a specific and permanent number of chromosomes. What mechanism provides this
feature during sexual reproduction?
– Repair
– Translation
+ Meiosis
– Mitosis
– Cytokinesis
31. To diagnose human chromosomal disorders in order to analyse
the karyotype, a cell culture is influenced by colchicine – a substance which destroys the spindle of division. At what mitotic
stage is the karyotype studied?
– Telophase
– Interphase
– Prophase
+ Metaphase
– Anaphase
32. A cell includes ball-shaped mono-membranous organelles that
include proteolytic enzymes. Organelles size is 0.2–1 micrometers. Their formation is connected with Golgi apparatus. What organelles are these?
– Centrioles
– Ribosomes
– Plastids
– Mitochondria
+ Lysosomes
33. In a nucleus there are non-constant structures that disappear
at the beginning of cell division and appear again at the end of it.
They include protein and RNA. They take part in the formation of
ribosome subunits. What are these structures called?
+ Nucleoli
– Nucleosomes
– Polysomes
– Microfibrils
– Microtubules
34. There is an organelle in human cells. The functions of this organelle are the formation of lysosomes, the secretion of glycoproteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and the formation of yolk granules
during the oocytes maturation. What is this organelle called?
– Lysosome
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
12
Smirnov O.Yu.
– Endoplasmic reticulum
+ Golgi apparatus
– Peroxisome
– Ribosome
35. A cell was affected by a substance which broke the integrity of
lysosome membranes. What can happen to the cell as a result?
– Specialization
– Differentiation
– Reproduction
– Transformation
+ Autolysis
36. The nuclei of cells were affected by a substance which destroyed the histone structure. What components of the cells will
change as a result of this intervention in the first place?
– Mitochondria
– Nuclear membrane
– Ribosomes
+ Chromosomes
– Cell membranes
37. Under the influence of gamma-radiation a fragment of a
chromosome has turned by 180°. What chromosomal mutation
has taken place?
– Duplication
– Deletion
+ Inversion
– Intrachromosomal translocation
– Interchromosomal translocation
38. During the G2 phase (postsynthesis period) of the cell cycle
the synthesis of tubulin proteins which take part in the production
of the division spindle was impaired. What process can be disturbed?
– Chromosome despiralization
– Chromosome spiralization
+ Disjunction1 of daughter chromosomes
– Formation of ribosome subunits
– Formation of nucleolus
39. A patient has an acute pancreatitis which can develop into
pancreas autolysis. The dysfunction of what organelles can cause
this pathology?
1
In the book "Collection of tasks…" the term "divergence" is used (this is a mistake).
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
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Smirnov O.Yu.
+ Lysosomes
– Mitochondria
– Ribosomes
– Centrioles
– Microtubules
40. Human karyotype is studied when a cell is at metaphase.
What do we call the substance that can stop the cell division at
this stage?
– Methanol
– Iodine
+ Colchicine
– Potassium chloride
– Ethanol
41. During the inspection of a girl's karyotype a shortened arm of
the 20th pair chromosome was found. What do we call this mutation?
– Duplication
+ Deletion
– Inversion
– Translocation
– Monosomy on the 20th chromosome
42. Mitosis is the basic mechanism of a cell that provides the development of organisms, their regeneration and reproduction. It
is possible because this mechanism is responsible for:
– Formation of polyploid cells
– Crossing-over
+ Equal distribution1 of chromosomes between daughter cells
– Irregular distribution1 of chromosomes between daughter cells
– Change of genetic information
43. Influenced by some chemical substances, the process of ribosome subunits formation has been impaired in a cell. In consequence this will stop the synthesis of:
– carbohydrates
+ proteins
– lipids
– DNA
– RNA
44. Under the influence of gamma-radiation a fragment of a
chromosome was lost. What chromosomal mutation is it?
1
In the book "Collection of tasks…" the term "divergency" is used (this is a mistake).
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
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Smirnov O.Yu.
+ Deletion
– Duplication
– Inversion
– Intrachromosomal translocation
– Interchromosomal translocation
45. In a cytogenetic laboratory the karyotype of a healthy man
was studied. 46 chromosomes were seen in each somatic cell.
How many autosomes does each cell include?
– 23
– 22
+ 44
– 46
– 92
46. The study of the female karyogram shows that the centromere
in X chromosome is placed near the centre. What do we call such
chromosome?
– Telocentric
– Subacrocentric1
+ Submetacentric
– Acrocentric
– Metacentric
1
such term is not used in the world.
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
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Smirnov O.Yu.
CLASSICAL GENETICS
47. Woman applied to the medico-genetic consulting centre for information about the risk of haemophilia in her son. Her husband
has been suffering from this disease since birth. Woman and her
parents are healthy (don't have haemophilia). Is the boy likely to
have the disease in this family? (2004)
– 25% of the boys will be ill
– All boys will be ill
+ All boys will be healthy
– 50% of the boys will be ill
– 75% of the boys will be ill
48. A woman with O (I) blood group has born a child with AB
blood group. Woman's husband has A blood group. What genetic
interaction explains this phenomenon? (2006)
+ Recessive epistasis
– Polymery
– Complementation
– Codominance
– Incomplete dominance
49. A couple came for medical genetic counseling. The man has
hemophilia, the woman is healthy and there were no cases of
hemophilia in her family. What is the risk of having a sick child in
this family? (2005)
– 25%
+ 0%
– 100%
– 75%
– 50%
50. It is known that the gene responsible for development of
blood groups according to ABO system has three allelic variants.
If a man has IV blood group, it can be explained by the following
variability form: (2010)
– phenocopy
– phenotypic
– genocopy
– mutational
+ combinative
51. A woman with III (B) rh– blood group has borne a child with II
(A) blood group. The child is diagnosed with hemolytic disease of
newborn as a result of rhesus incompatibility. What blood group
16
is the child's father likely to have? (2007)
– I (O), Rh+
– I (O), rh–
– II (A), rh–
+ II (A), Rh+
– III (B), Rh+
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
Smirnov O.Yu.
52. Hypertrichosis of auricles is caused by a gene that is localized
in Y-chromosome1. Father has this feature. What is the probability that son will have this anomaly? (2006)2
– 25%
– 35%
– 0%
+ 100%
– 75%
53. Hartnup disease is caused by point mutation of only one gene
which results in disturbance of tryptophane absorption in the
bowels and its resorption in the renal tubules. It is the reason for
disorder of both digestive and urination systems. What genetic
phenomenon is observed in this case? (2008)
+ Pleiotropy
– Semidominance3
– Complementary interaction
– Codominance
– Polymery
54. A family of students who came from Africa got a child with
anemia signs. The child died soon. Examination revealed that the
child's erythrocytes have abnormal semilunar shape. Specify
genotypes of the child's parents: (2010)4
– aa × aa
1
This information is out of date. According to more careful study, this trait is autosomal (some
families hid their affected female members).
2
In the book "Collection of tasks…" another similar question is also present: An excessive ear
pilosis (hypertrichosis) is determined by the gene, which is localized in Y chromosome. A man
has got this feature. What is the probability of his having a son with such a feature? Answers:
75%; 0%; 25%; 35%; 100%. Authors propose the answer "100%" as correct but this is mistake. When you ask about probability that parents will have a son with a feature, you should to
calculate this probability among ALL children and correct answer must be 50%. Hence authors
do not propose correct answer at all.
3
Incomplete dominance.
4
In the book "Collection of tasks…" this question is written as follows: In a family of students
from Africa a child with signs of anemia was born. The child died within a short time. It was
found that the child's erythrocytes were shaped like a sickle. What genotypes may the parents
have if they have a light form of anemia?
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Smirnov O.Yu.
– Aa × aa
– Aa × AA
– AA × AA
+ Aa × Aa
55. One of the parents is suspected of having phenylketonuria recessive gene. What is the risk of giving birth to a child with inborn
phenylketonuria? (2011)
– 50%
+ 0%
– 100%
– 25%
– 75%
56. A boy has I (I0I0) blood group and his sister has IV (IAIB) blood
group. What blood groups do their parents have? (2008)
+ II (IAI0) and III (IBI0)
– II (IAIA) and III (IBI0)
– I (I0I0) and III (IBI0)
– I (I0I0) and IV (IAIB)
– III (IBI0) and IV (IAIB)
57. Inclination to diabetes mellitus is provoked by the autosomal
recessive gene. This gene becomes apparent only in 30% of homozygous individuals. What genetic regularity is observed in this
case?
– Discontinuity
– Complementarity
– Gene expressiveness
+ Incomplete penetrance
– Pleiotropy
58. Children with normal hearing have been born by deaf and
dumb parents with the genotype DDee and ddEE. What is the
form of gene interaction between the genes D and E?
+ Complementarity
– Complete dominance
– Epistasis
– Polymery
– Codominance
59. Some people with good clinical health can feel anemia symptoms in the conditions of high mountains. During their blood test
we can find sickle-shaped erythrocytes. What genotype can a
person with occasional symptoms of sickle-cell anemia have?
– XcXc
18
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Smirnov O.Yu.
– aa
– AA
+ Aa
– XcY 1
60. The same genotype in a human can cause the development of
a feature with different degrees of manifestation that depends on
the interaction of this gene with the others and on the influence
of environmental conditions. What do we call the degree of phenotypic manifestation of the character controlled by a definite
gene?
– Inheritance
– Penetrance
+ Gene expression2
– Mutation
– Polymery
61. A husband is a homozygous by a dominant gene which causes
polydactyly. His wife is a homozygote by recessive allele of this
gene. Which of the below mentioned genetic regularities can be
apparent in their children as for their having polydactyly?
– The law of segregation
+ The law of dominance3
– The law of independent assortment
– Linkage of genes
– Sex-linked inheritance
62. Healthy parents have a son with phenylketonuria4, but owing
to a special diet he has normal development. What type of variability is his normal development connected with?
– Mutational variability
– Combinative variability
+ Modificative variability
– Genotype variability
– Inherited variability
63. Parents with a normal phenotype gave birth to an ill with albinism child (the feature that is inherited by the autosomal reces-
1
C c
C
Other possible answers: X X , X Y.
This answer (in the book "Collection of tasks…") is not good. The answer "expressivity" is
better.
3
There is a mistake in this question in the book "Collection of tasks…" – incorrect word combination "The law of unit characters" is used in this book.
4
There is a mistake in this question in the book "Collection of tasks…" – incorrect phrase
"Parents with normal health have an ill with phenylketonuria son" is used in this book.
2
19
sive type). What genotype do the parents have?
– AA and aa
– AA and AA
– AA and Aa
+ Aa and Aa
– aa and aa
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
Smirnov O.Yu.
64. Alcaptonuria1 is inherited as an autosomal recessive feature.
Parents with a normal phenotype have a baby with alcaptonuria.
What genotype do parents have?
– aa and aa
– AA and AA
– AA and Aa
– Aa and aa
+ Aa and Aa
65. The intensity of human skin pigmentation is controlled by a
few pairs of nonallelic dominant genes. It was found that if the
quantity of the genes increases, the pigmentation become more
intensive. What do we call this type of genes' interaction?
– Epistasis
– Pleiotropy
+ Polymery
– Codominance
– Complementary
66. A child is ill with phenylketonuria. The child's parents are
healthy. What genotype may the parents have?
– AA and aa
+ Aa and Aa
– aa and aa
– Aa and aa
– Aa and AA
67. Endemic goiter is widespread among Transcarpathian population due to iodine deficiency in food. What form of variability is
this case based on?
– Mutation
+ Modification
– Combinative
– Hereditary
– Genotypical
1
In the book "Collection of tasks…" another similar question is also present: Galactosemia is
an autosomal recessive character. What genotypes may healthy parents have if their baby has
galactosemia?
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Smirnov O.Yu.
MOLECULAR GENETICS
68. RNA polymerase II is blocked due to amanitine poisoning (poison of death-cup). It disturbs: (2003, 2006)
+ synthesis of mRNA
– primers synthesis
– synthesis of tRNA
– reverse transcription
– maturation of mRNA
69. Genetic structure of eukaryote is "exon–intron–exon". This
structure-functional organization of gene caused transcription peculiarities. What will be pro-mRNA according to the scheme? (2003,
2004)
– Exon-exon-intron
– Intron-exon
– Exon-intron-exon
– Exon-intron
+ Exon-exon
70. Part of the DNA chain turned 180 degrees as a result of
gamma radiation. What type of mutation took place in the DNA
chain? (2003, 2005, 2006)
+ Inversion
– Deletion
– Translocation
– Doubling
– Replication
71. An experiment proved that UV-radiated cells of patients with
xeroderma pigmentosum restore the native DNA structure slower
than cells of healthy individuals as a result of repair enzyme defect. What enzyme helps this process? (2006)
– Primase
– RNA ligase
– DNA polymerase III
+ Endonuclease
– DNA gyrase
72. Nowadays about 50 minor bases have been found in the tRNA
structure besides the main four nitrogenous bases. Choose the
minor nitrogenous base: (2006)
– cysteine
+ dihydrouracil
– cytosine
– uracil
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Smirnov O.Yu.
– adenine
73. A patient's organism has decreased concentration of magnesium ions that are necessary for attachment of ribosomes to the
granular endoplasmic reticulum. It is known that it causes disturbance of protein biosynthesis. What stage of protein biosynthesis
will be disturbed? (2007, 2008, 2009, 2010)
– Amino acid activation
– Termination
– Transcription
– Replication
+ Translation
74. RNA of the AIDS virus penetrated into a leucocyte and forced
a cell to synthetize a viral DNA by means of reverse transcriptase.
This process is based upon: (2007)
– replication
+ reverse transcription
– operon repression
– reverse translation
– operon depression
75. Labelled amino acids alanine and tryptophane were injected to
a mouse in order to study localization of protein synthesis in its
cells. The labelled amino acids will be accumulated near the following organellas: (2007, 2008, 2010)
– agranular (smooth) endoplasmic reticulum
– lysosomes
– Golgi apparatus
+ ribosomes
– cell center
76. In some regions of South Africa there is a spread of sickle-cell
anemia, in which erythrocytes have shape of a sickle as a result
of substitution of glutamic acid by valine in the hemoglobin molecule. What is the cause of this disease? (2007)
– Genomic mutation
– Crossing over
– Transduction
– Disturbance of mechanisms of genetic information realization
+ Gene mutation
77. It was found that some compounds, for instance fungi toxins
and some antibiotics can inhibit activity of RNA polymerase. What
process will be disturbed in a cell in the case of inhibition of this
enzyme? (2008, 2011)
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Smirnov O.Yu.
+ Transcription
– Replication
– Translation
– Processing
– Repair
78. It was proved that a molecule of immature mRNA (precursor
mRNA) contained more triplets than amino acids found in the
synthesized protein. The reason for that is that translation is
normally preceded by: (2008)
– initiation
– replication
+ processing
– repair
– mutation
79. It was revealed that T lymphocytes were affected by HIV. Virus enzyme – reverse transcriptase (RNA-dependent DNA polymerase) – catalyzes the synthesis of: (2008, 2011)
– viral DNA on DNA matrix
+ DNA on the matrix of virus mRNA
– mRNA on the matrix of virus protein
– DNA on virus ribosomal RNA
– virus informational RNA on the matrix of DNA
80. You are studying functioning of a bacterial operon. The operator has been released from the repressor. Immediately after this
the following process will start in the cell: (2009)
– processing
+ transcription
– replication
– translation
– repression
81. According to the model of double DNA helix that was suggested by Watson and Crick, it was established that one of chains
would not be lost during replication and the second chain would
be synthesized complementary to the first one. What mechanism
of replication is it? (2010)1
+ Semiconservative
– Analogous
– Dispersed
1
In the book "Collection of tasks…" this question is written as follows: DNA double spirals,
which were formed as a result of replication, consist of one maternal chain and one daughter
chain. What do we call this way of replication?
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Smirnov O.Yu.
– Identical
– Conservative
82. Protein synthesis includes several subsequent stages. It is
preceded by the synthesis of immature mRNA. What do we call
this process?
– Termination
– Replication
– Elongation
– Translation
+ Transcription
83. It is known that the genetic code is degenerate and has triplet
nature. What nucleotide can be changed in the coding triplet
without loosing its sense?
– Second
– First
+ Third
– Second or third
– First or second
84. It was determined that the mRNA triplet sequence totally corresponded to the amino acid sequence in the polypeptide chain.
What do we call this characteristic of the genetic code?
– Universality
– Triplet nature
– Specificity
– Degeneracy
+ Collinearity1
85. Polypeptide which has been synthesized on the ribosome includes 54 amino acids. How many codons did mRNA, used as a
matrix during the synthesis, have?
– 44
– 27
– 108
– 162
+ 54 2
86. Different physical and chemical factors can destroy the structure of DNA. What do we call the ability of the cells to regenerate
the DNA structure?
1
or colinearity.
There is a mistake in this question. Correct answer must be 55 because we must add the
stop codon.
2
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Smirnov O.Yu.
– Transduction
– Transcription
– Replication
+ Repair
– Transformation
87. An influenza virus penetrated into a cell. The mechanism of
protein biosynthesis was reorganised for the virus protein synthesis to occur:
+ on the polyribosomes
– in the nucleus
– in the lysosomes
– in the peroxisomes
– in the centriole
88. One of the main characteristics of a living being is an ability to
reproduction. On what level of living organisms organization does
this process happen on the basis of matrix biosynthesis?
–Organismic
– Subcellular
– Cellular
– Tissue
+ Molecular
89. In the nucleus the molecule of immature mRNA transforms to
the molecule of the mature mRNA, which is shorter than the immature mRNA. What do we call the combination of stages in this
transformation?
– Replication
+ Processing
– Recognition
– Transmission
– Termination
90. Some mRNA triplets (UAA, UAG, UGA) code no amino acids,
but in the process of reading of information they serve as terminators, in other words, they are able to stop the translation. What
are they?
+ Stop codons
– Operators
– Anticodons
– Exons
– Introns
91. According to the hypothesis of lactose operon (Jacob, Mono,
1961), in Escherichia coli the lactose, which gets into a cell from
25
Smirnov O.Yu.
the environment, acts as an inducer. In what way does the lactose induce the synthesis of enzymes that decompose it, that is
turn on the operon?
+ It combines with the repressor protein
– It combines with the operator1 gene
– It combines with the regulator gene
– It combines with the promoter
– It combines with the structural gene
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
92. During the synthesis period (S) of the cell cycle, the redouble
of DNA quantity takes place. This process occurs as a result of:
– denaturation of DNA
– dissociation of DNA
+ replication of DNA
– DNA repair
– coagulation of DNA
93. Under the influence of mutagen the composition of some triplets in a gene was changed but the cell continued the synthesis of
the same protein. What characteristics of the genetic code can it
be connected with?
– Specificity
– Universality
– Triplet nature
+ Degeneracy
– Collinearity2
94. Protein-repressor has been found in a cell. What gene codifies
the amino acid sequence of this protein?3
– Promoter
– Terminator
+ Regulator
– Modifier
– Operator
95. The gene which codifies the polypeptide chain consists of 4
exons and 3 introns. When processing is over, the mature mRNA
consists of nucleotides, which are complementary to:
– 3 introns
– 2 exons and 1 intron
1
In the book "Collection of tasks…" – the term "operator gene" is used. Correct term is "gene
operator" or "operator".
2
or colinearity.
3
It should be emphasised that promoter, terminator, and operator are NOT genes, but they
are regulatory regions of genes!
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Smirnov O.Yu.
– 1 exon and 1 intron
+ 4 exons
– 4 exons and 3 introns
96. The transcription is taking place in human cells. RNA polymerase enzyme moving along the DNA molecule has reached a
specific nucleotide sequence; after that the transcription ended.
What do we call this DNA site?
– Operator
+ Terminator
– Promoter
– Repressor
– Regulator
97. The work of bacterium operon is being studied. A gene operator has been released from the protein-repressor. What do we call
the process which begins right after that?
– Amino acids activation
– Translation
– Replication
– Processing
+ Transcription
98. It is known that the information about the amino acid sequence in the protein molecule is written in the form of nucleotide
sequence. There are 4 types of nucleotides in the DNA molecule.
Different amino acids are codified by a different number of triplets
– from one to six. What do we call this property of the genetic
code?
– Triplet nature
– Universality
– Collinearity1
+ Degeneracy
– Specificity
99. The operator is known to be responsible for joining the RNA
polymerase enzyme and initiating the transcription. At that site
deletion of two nucleotide pairs has taken place. What consequences could it have?
+ Lack of protein synthesis
– Formation of abnormal proteins
– Synthesis of protein in unlimited quantities
– Formation of normal protein
1
or colinearity.
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Smirnov O.Yu.
– Short finish of protein synthesis
100. During translation a few ribosomes, placed along the mRNA
molecule at a certain distance from one another, join each mRNA
simultaneously. What do we call the translation complex that
consists of one mRNA molecule and some ribosomes which are
placed on it?
– Centrosome
– Lysosome
– Phagosome
– Nucleosome
+ Polysome
101. Human cells were influenced by ultraviolet radiation, and as a
consequence of this the DNA molecules had been changed1. Nevertheless, by means of specific enzymes the DNA structure was
renewed. What do we call this phenomenon?
– Replication
– Duplication
+ Repair
– Initiation
– Termination
102. Sickle-sell anemia, when erythrocytes are in the form of a
sickle, is widespread among the population of some districts in
tropic Africa. What biological phenomenon is this disease based
on?
+ Gene mutation
– Chromosomal aberration
– Modification
– Chromosomal mutation
– Transduction
1
In the book "Collection of tasks…" the word "destroyed" is used (this is a mistake).
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Smirnov O.Yu.
MEDICAL GENETICS
103. Patient experienced increased susceptibility of the skin to the
sunlight. His urine after some time became dark-red. What is the
most likely cause of this? (2003)
– Pellagra
– Albinism
– Hemolytic jaundice
+ Alkaptonuria
– Porphyria
104. Examination of initial molecular structure of hemoglobin revealed substitution of the glutamic acid by valine. What inherited
pathology is it typical for? (2003, 2004, 2005, 2006)
– Thalassemia
+ Sickle-cell anemia
– Hemoglobinosis
– Minkowsky–Shauffard disease
– Favism
105. 46 chromosomes were revealed on karyotype examination of
the 5-year old girl. One of the 15th pair of chromosomes is longer
than usual due to joining a part of chromosome of the 21 pair1.
What type of mutation does this girl have? (2003)
– Insufficiency2
– Deletion
– Duplication
– Inversion
+ Translocation
106. Healthy parents have got a fair-haired, blue-eyed girl. Irritability, anxiety, sleep and feeding disturbance developed in the
first months of the infant's life. Neurological examination revealed
developmental lag. What method of genetic investigation should
be used for the exact diagnosis? (2003, 2006)
– Population-statistical
– Cytological
– Twin study (Gemellary)
– Genealogical
+ Biochemical
1
During the exam in 2003, this question had the phrase "due to connected chromosome from
the 21 pair", but in this case karyotype must have 45 chromosomes (apparent mistake). We
changed this question according the book "Collection of tasks…" (question No. 103).
2
Another possible answer – "aneuploidy".
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107. The examination of a youth with mental retardation revealed
eunuchoid body construction and genitals underdevelopment. The
cells of the oral cavity contained chromatin. What method of genetic investigation should be performed to make more specified
diagnosis? (2004)
– Population-statistic
– Dermatoglyphics
– Biochemical
+ Cytological
– Clinico-genealogical
108. A 18-year-old man with asthenic body constitution (tall, narrow shoulders, broad pelvis) and with poor hair on his face came
to the geneticist. There was marked mental retardation. The preliminary diagnosis was Klinefelter's syndrom. What method of
medical genetics can confirm the diagnosis? (2004)1
– Dermatoglyphics
– Population-statistic
– Genealogic
+ Cytogenetic
– Twin study
109. A 40-year-old pregnant woman underwent amniocentesis.
The examination of fetus karyotype revealed 47,XY+21. What pathology of the fetus was found out? (2004)
– Phenylketonuria
– Patau's disease
– Klinefelter's syndrome
+ Down's syndrome
– Schereschevsky–Turner's disease
110. A woman who was sick with rubella during the pregnancy
gave birth to a deaf child with hare's lip and cleft palate. This
congenital defect is an example of: (2005)
– genocopy
– Down's syndrom
1
In the book "Collection of tasks…" this question is written as follows: An 18-year-old young
man is tall and has narrow shoulders, a large pelvis, an adult woman pattern of hair distribution, and oxyphonia. Mental retardation is also present. Based on these symptoms, the provisional diagnosis of Klinefelter's syndrome was made by a doctor. What genetic method can
confirm the diagnosis? Answers: a) Cytogenetic; b) Pedigree analysis; c) Study of twins;
d) Biochemical; e) Population-statistical. Also in this book another similar question is present:
A teenager with the provisional diagnosis of Klinefelter's syndrome came for advice to a genetic consultation. What genetic method does the doctor have to apply to make a correct diagnosis?
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Smirnov O.Yu.
– Edwards' syndrom
– Patau's syndrom
+ phenocopy
111. An individual is characterized by rounded face, broad forehead, a mongolian type of eyelid fold, flattened nasal bridge,
permanently open mouth, projecting lower lip, protruding tongue,
short neck, flat hands, and stubby fingers. What diagnosis can be
put to the patient? (2005, 2006)
– Alkaptonuria
+ Down's syndrome
– Super male
– Turner's syndrome
– Klinefelter's syndrome
112. A 32 y.o. man is tall, he has gynecomastia, adult woman pattern of hair distribution, high voice, mental deficiency, sterility.
Provisional diagnosis is Klinefelter's syndrome. In order to specify
diagnosis it is necessary to analyze: (2007)
– spermatogenesis
– genealogy
– blood group
+ karyotype
– leukogram
113. Autopsy of a newborn boy revealed polydactylia, microcephaly, cheiloschisis and uranoschisis as well as hypertrophy of
parenchimatous organs. These defects correspond with the description of Patau's syndrome. What is the most probable cause of
this pathology? (2007)1
– Partial monosomy
+ Trisomy of the 13th chromosome
– Nondisjunction of sex chromosomes
– Trisomy of the 21th chromosome
– Trisomy of the 18th chromosome
114. Examination of cell culture got from a patient with lysosomal
pathology revealed accumulation of great quantity of lipids in the
lysosomes. What of the following diseases is this disturbance
1
In the book "Collection of tasks…" this question is written as follows: The pathoanatomic inspection of a newborn boy's dead body showed the following abnormalities: polydactyly, microcephaly, a cleft lip and cleft palate, hypertrophy of the parenchymal organs. These symptoms are typical of Patau syndrome. What is the cause of this disease? Answers: a) Trisomy
st
th
th
on the 21 chromosome; b) Trisomy on the 18 chromosome; c) Trisomy on the 13 chromosome; d) Trisomy on X chromosome; e) Monosomy on X chromosome.
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typical for? (2007)
– Galactosemia
– Phenylketonuria
+ Tay–Sachs disease
– Gout
– Wilson disease
115. Examination of a 12-year-old boy with developmental lag revealed achondroplasia: disproportional constitution with evident
shortening of upper and lower limbs as a result of growth disorder
of epiphyseal cartilages of long tubular bones. This disease is:
(2008, 2011)
– congenital
– acquired
– inherited, sex-linked
– inherited, recessive
+ inherited, dominant
116. Medical examination at the military registration and enlistment office revealed that a 15-year-old boy was high, with
eunuchoid body proportions, gynecomastia, female pattern of pubic hair distribution. The boy had also fat deposits on the thighs,
no facial hair, high voice, subnormal intelligence quotient. Which
karyotype corresponds with this disease? (2009, 2011)
+ 47, XXY
– 47, XXX
– 46, XY
– 46, XX
– 45, XO
117. A 1.5-year-old child has mental and physical lag, decolorizing
of skin and hair, decrease in catecholamine concentration in
blood. When a few drops of 5% solution of trichloroacetic iron had
been added to the child's urine it turned olive green. Such alterations are typical for the following pathology of the amino acid metabolism: (2009)1
– albinism
– xanthinuria
+ phenylketonuria
1
In the book "Collection of tasks…" this question is written as follows: A few months after birth
a child developed symptoms of the CNS disorder. The skin and hair became lighter. The solution of 5% trichloroacetic ferric lactase, added to fresh urine, gives it olive-green coloring.
What kind of hereditary disorder is characterized by these manifestations? Answers: tyrosinosis; alcaptonuria; fructosuria; phenylketonuria; albinism.
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Smirnov O.Yu.
– alkaptonuria
– tyrosinosis
118. A 28-year-old female patient consulted a gynecologist about
sterility. Examination revealed underdeveloped ovaries and
uterus, irregular menstrual cycle. Analysis of the sex chromatin
revealed two Barr's bodies in most somatic cells. What chromosome disease is most likely? (2009, 2011)1
– Turner's syndrom
+ Triple X syndrom
– Klinefelter's syndrom
– Patau's syndrom
– Edwards' syndrom
119. A couple had a child with Down's syndrom. Mother is 42
years old. This disease is most probably caused by the following
impairment of prenatal development: (2010)
– blastopathy
+ gametopathy
– embryopathy
– non-specific fetopathy
– specific fetopathy
120. Cytogenetic examination of the patient with reproductive
dysfunction revealed normal karyotype 46,XY in some cells, but
most cells have karyotype of Klinefelter's syndrom – 47,XXY.
Such cell heterogeneity is called: (2010, 2011)
+ mosaicism
– duplication
– inversion
– monomorphism
– transposition
121. During a prophylactic medical examination a 7-year-old boy
was diagnosed with daltonism. His parents are healthy and have
normal color vision, but his grandfather on his mother's side has
the same abnormality. What is the type of the abnormality inheritance? (2003, 2006, 2009)
– Autosomal dominant
– Sex-linked dominant
1
In the book "Collection of tasks…" this question is written as follows: A 28-year-old woman
saw a physician because of infertility. Underdevelopment of the ovary and the womb, disorder
of the menstrual cycle were diagnosed. During the test of buccal epithelium cells it appeared
that most of their nuclei had two Barr bodies. The neutrophil nuclei had two "drumsticks" each.
What provisional diagnosis can we make in this case?
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Smirnov O.Yu.
+ Sex-linked recessive
– Autosomal recessive
– Incomplete dominance1
122. A married couple consulted a specialist at the genetic consultation about probability of having children with haemophilia. Both
spouses are healthy, but the wife's father has haemophilia. In this
family hemophilia may be passed to: (2009)
– daughters only
– all the children
– half of daughters
+ half of sons
– both sons and daughters
123. The study of the genealogy of a family with hypertrichosis
(hirsutism or pilosis) has demonstrated that this trait is manifested in all generations only in men and is inherited by son from
his father. What is the type of hypertrichosis inheritance? (2003,
2004, 2005)2
– Autosomal-recessive
– X-linked recessive
+ Y-linked3
– Autosomal-dominant
– X-linked dominant
124. After the genealogy analysis a geneticist came to the conclusion: a feature is manifested in each generation, men and women
inherit the feature with equal frequency, parents in the equal way
give this feature to their offspring. What type of inheritance does
the investigated feature have? (2004)4
+ Autosomal-dominant inheritance
– X-linked dominant inheritance
– X-linked recessive inheritance
– Autosomal-recessive inheritance
– Y-linked inheritance
125. A healthy woman has three sons affected by color blindness
1
In the book "Collection of tasks…" – "semidominance".
In the book "Collection of tasks…" this question is written as follows: In a family pedigree hypertrichosis (excessive pilosis of the auricle) is observed. This feature appears in each generation and is typical only of men. What type of inheritance does this feature have?
3
This information is out of date. According to more careful study, this trait is autosomal.
4
In the book "Collection of tasks…" this question is written as follows: Due to the results of the
pedigree analysis a geneticist found out that a feature becomes apparent in each generation,
a male and a female inherit this feature with the same frequency, both parents transmitting this
feature to their children. What type of inheritance does this feature have?
2
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Smirnov O.Yu.
who were born after her two marriages. Children of her both husbands are healthy. What is the most possible pattern of inheritance of this disease? (2005)
+ X-linked recessive
– Autosomal-recessive
– Y-linked
– Autosomal-dominant
– X-linked dominant
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
126. A geneticist analyzed the genealogy of a family and found
that both males and females may have the illness, not across all
the generations, and that healthy parents may have ill children.
What is the type of illness inheritance? (2006)
+ Autosomal-recessive
– Y-linked
– X-linked recessive
– Autosomal-dominant
– X-linked dominant
127. As a result of prophylactic medical examination a 7 year old
boy was diagnosed with Lesch–Nyhan syndrome (only boys fall ill
with it). The boy's parents are healthy but his grandfather by his
mother's side suffers from the same disease. What type of disease inheritance is it? (2008)
– Autosomal recessive
– Dominant, sex-linked
– Autosomal dominant
+ Recessive, sex-linked
– Y-linked
128. Sex chromosomes of a woman didn't separate and move to
the opposite poles of a cell during gametogenesis (meiosis). The
ovum was impregnated with a normal spermatozoon. Which
chromosomal disease can be found in her child? (2011)
– Patau's syndrome
+ Turner's syndrome
– Cat cry syndrome
– Edwards' syndrome
– Down's syndrome
129. A man suffering from a hereditary disease married a healthy
woman. They got five children, three girls and two boys. All the
girls inherited the father's disease. What is the type of the disease inheritance? (2009)
– Autosomal recessive
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
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– Y-linked
– Recessive, X-linked
+ Dominant, X-linked
– Autosomal dominant
130. During the examination of the woman's epithelium of the
cheek mucosa it was established that in most cells the nuclei had
two Barr bodies. What provisional diagnosis can we make in this
case?
– Trisomy on the 13th chromosome
– Trisomy on the 21st chromosome
+ Trisomy on X chromosome
– Trisomy on the 18th chromosome
– Monosomy on X chromosome
131. As a result of the abnormalities in the chromosomes disjunction1 in meiosis, a secondary oocyte, which contains only 22
autosomes, has been formed. What disease can the baby have
after the impregnation of this secondary oocyte by a normal
spermatozoon?
– Klinefelter's syndrome
+ Turner's syndrome
– Trisomy on the X-chromosome
– Down's syndrome
– Edwards' syndrome
132. During the observation of a baby boy a pediatrician noticed
that the baby's crying was similar to a cat's cry. Besides, the
baby had microcephaly and abnormality in heart development. By
means of the cytogenetic method it was found that the baby's
karyotype was 46, XY, 5p–. At what mitotic stage was the karyotype of the baby examined?
+ Metaphase
– Prometaphase
– Prophase
– Anaphase
– Telophase
133. During the examination of the man's epithelium of the cheek
mucosa it was established that in most cells the nuclei had Barr
bodies. What syndrome is it typical of?
– Turner's syndrome
+ Klinefelter's syndrome
1
In the book "Collection of tasks…" the term "divergence" is used (this is a mistake).
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
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Smirnov O.Yu.
– Trisomy on X chromosome
– Down's syndrome
– Edwards' syndrome
134. A human has galactosemia – a disease of accumulation.
Which genetic method can we use to diagnose the case?
– Cytogenetic
+ Biochemical
– Population-statistical
– Study of twins
– Pedigree analysis
135. One of the forms of rickets is inherited in the autosomal
dominant way. This disease is a result of:1
– Aneuploidy
– Changes in the number of chromosomes
– Chromosomal mutations
– Polyploidy
+ Gene mutations
136. A baby was born with abnormalities of the external and internal organs development. During the check up the following abnormalities were found: epicanthus, shortened extremities, a
small skull, impaired development of the cardiovascular system.
On these grounds the provisional diagnosis of Down's syndrome
was made. What genetic method can confirm this pathology?
– Pedigree analysis
– Population-statistical
– Study of twins
+ Cytogenetic
– Biochemical
137. Both a mother and a father are phenotypically healthy. They
have a sick baby in whose blood and urine phenylpyruvic acid has
been found, which indicates phenylketonuria. What is the type of
the inheritance of this disease?
– Autosomal dominant
+ Autosomal recessive
– Recessive, X-linked
– Y-linked
– Dominant, X-linked
138. The first step in diagnosing diseases provoked by the disor1
This question has bad answers because aneuploidy and polyploidy are changes in the number of chromosomes, and these three types of mutations are chromosomal mutations.
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der of metabolism is the application of express methods1 which
are based on a simple quality reaction of determining metabolites
in blood or urine. The second step is to confirm the diagnosis, for
which exact chromatographic methods of enzymes and amino acids study are used. What genetic method can be applied?
+ Biochemical
– Study of twins
– Cytogenetic
– Population-statistical
– Hybridization of somatic cells
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
139. During the checkup of an 18-year-old boy some physical and
psychical development defects are found. They are as follows:
eunuchoidism, female lipopexia and an adult woman pattern of
hair distribution, muscular hypoplasia, mental deficiency. Using
the cytogenetic method, the karyotype of the patient was determined. Which karyotype was it?
– 47, XY, 21+
– 45, XO
– 47, XY, 18+
– 47, XYY
+ 47, XXY
140. A patient with a normal karyotype has some abnormalities of
the fingers (arachnodactyly), skeleton, cardiovascular system,
disorders in the development of connective tissue, a lens defect.
What provisional diagnosis can we make?
– Edwards' syndrome
– Down's syndrome
– Turner's syndrome
– Patau syndrome
+ Marfan's syndrome
141. A baby boy has deformations of cerebral and facial cranial
parts, microphthalmia, an ear deformation, and cleft palate2. The
baby's karyotype is 47, XY, 13+. What disease is it?
– Edwards' syndrome
– Klinefelter's syndrome
+ Patau syndrome
– Down's syndrome
– Turner's syndrome
1
quick tests.
There is a mistake in this question in the book "Collection of tasks…" – the word "plate" is
used in this book.
2
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Smirnov O.Yu.
142. A 10-year-old girl has got shortened extremities, a small
skull, a face anomaly, the mongolian type of eyelid fold, epicanthus, mental deficiency, disorders of the heart and vascular structure. In a genetic clinic the girl's karyotype was determined. What
was the girl's karyotype?
– 45, XO
– 47, XX, 13+
– 47, XX, 18+
+ 47, XX, 21+
– 47, XXX
143. An 18-year-old girl has a body disproportion: wide shoulders,
a narrow pelvis, shortened low extremities, aliform skin folds on
the neck, underdevelopment of the ovaries. During the laboratory
analysis neither "drumsticks" in the neutrophil nuclei nor Barr
bodies in the nuclei of the buccal epithelium cells were found. Using the dermatoglyphics method it was determined that the atd
palmar angle was equal to 66°. What provisional diagnosis can
we make?1
+ Turner's syndrome
– Down's syndrome
– Klinefelter's syndrome
– Patau syndrome
– Edwards' syndrome2
144. The skin of a newborn boy is covered with a thick layer of
keratinized scales (ichthyosis). It looks like reptile skin. After the
investigation of the pedigree of his family it was revealed that this
feature occurs in each generation only in males. Which of the below mentioned biological regularities becomes apparent in this
case?
– The law of independent assortment
– The law of unit characters
– The law of segregation
+ Sex-linked inheritance
– Linkage of genes
145. Three forms of Down's syndrome – trisomic, translocation,
1
In the book "Collection of tasks…" another similar question is also present: An 18-year-old
girl complained to a doctor of the absence of menstruation. The patient had such features: 140
cm in height, a short neck with typical folds ("neck of sphinx"), wide shoulders, a narrow pelvis,
absence of secondary sexual characters, underdeveloped ovaries. What was the provisional
diagnosis of the girl?
2
Another possible answer: Morris's syndrome.
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Smirnov O.Yu.
and mosaic – are known. What genetic method do we have to use
to distinguish these forms?
– Population-statistical
– Study of twins
– Pedigree analysis
– Biochemical
+ Cytogenetic
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
146. The checkup of an 18-year-old girl showed underdevelopment of the ovaries, wide shoulders, a narrow pelvis, shortened
extremities, and a "neck of sphinx". The girl was mentally
healthy. The case was diagnosed as Turner's syndrome. What
changes in the chromosomes' quantity is this disease connected
with?
– Trisomy on the 18th chromosome
– Trisomy on X chromosome
– Trisomy on the 13th chromosome
+ Monosomy on X chromosome
– Trisomy on the 21st chromosome
147. A proband, his three sons, his brother and father have ichthyosis. His sisters and two daughters do not have this sign. What
is the character of the inheritance of this sign?
+ Holandric
– Autosomal recessive
– Autosomal dominant
– Dominant, X-linked
– Recessive, X-linked
148. The analysis of the fetus's amniotic fluid cells for the presence of sexual chromatin shows that the majority of their nuclei
have two Barr bodies each. Which inherited disease can this baby
have?
– Down's syndrome
+ Trisomy on X chromosome
– Turner's syndrome
– Patau syndrome
– Edwards' syndrome
149. A man with the problem of sterility appealed to a genetic
consultation. During the analysis of the cheek mucosa epithelium
one Barr body was found in each nucleus of most cells. In neutrophil nuclei they found one "drumstick" in each. Which syndrome can cause such phenomenon?
– Patau syndrome
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
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– Turner's syndrome
– Trisomy on X chromosome
– Down's syndrome
+ Klinefelter's syndrome
150. A healthy woman who had viral roseola during pregnancy
gave birth to a deaf baby with a normal karyotype and genotype.
The baby's deafness is a manifestation of:
+ Phenocopy
– Gene mutation
– Genocopy
– Combinative variability
– Chromosomal aberration
151. During the analysis of the buccal mucosa epithelium of a
male patient two Barr bodies in each nucleus of most cells were
found and in neutrophil nuclei two "drumsticks" in each were
found. What syndrom is it typical of?
– Patau syndrome
– Turner's syndrome
+ Klinefelter's syndrome
– Down's syndrome
– Edwards' syndrome
152. A girl with the provisional diagnosis of Turner's syndrome
came for advice to a genetic consultation. Which genetic method
can confirm this diagnosis?
– Pedigree analysis
+ Cytogenetic
– Hybrid
– Biochemical
– Study of twins
153. Pedigree analysis showed that the proband's disease occurred in each generation, affected a relatively big number of
sibs, both men and women. What type of inheritance does it point
out?
– Y-linked
– Autosomal recessive
– Dominant, X-linked
– Recessive, X-linked
+ Autosomal dominant
154. During the cytogenetic analysis a patient was found to have
cells with chromosome number 46, XY and 47, XXY in the same
proportions. What did the doctor diagnose?
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
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Smirnov O.Yu.
– Down's syndrome
– Morris's syndrome
– Patau syndrome
+ Klinefelter's syndrome
– Turner's syndrome
155. A 14-year-old girl has some abnormalities: her height is
lower than that of the girls of the same age, the signs of puberty
are absent, her neck is very short, her shoulders are wide. During
the cytogenetic analysis the lack of one X chromosome was
found. The girl has normal intellectual development. What disease
does the girl have?
+ Turner's syndrome
– Down's syndrome
– Edwards' syndrome
– Patau syndrome
– Klinefelter's syndrome
156. A patient has mental deficiency, a short stature, and the
mongolian type of the eyelid fold. The microscopical examination
of the patient's karyotype revealed the presence of trisomy on
the 21st chromosome. What do we call the disease which is
caused by this chromosomal abnormality?
+ Down's syndrome
– Klinefelter's syndrome
– Turner's syndrome
– Edwards' syndrome
– Patau syndrome
157. During the analysis of the woman's buccal mucosa epithelium
cells no sex chromatin1 was found. Which of the below mentioned
diseases can it be?
– Edwards' syndrome
– Klinefelter's syndrome
– Down's syndrome
+ Turner's syndrome
– Patau syndrome
158. During the cytogenetic analysis in the cells of an abortive fe1
In the book "Collection of tasks…" – "sexual chromatin". Similar question is present in the
Section "Pathophysiology": A doctor consulted a woman with defects of physical and sexual
development. Microscopy of mucosa cells in the oral cavity did not reveal any sex chromatin in
the nuclei. What kind of chromosomal pathology does it characterize? Answers:
Shereshevskiy–Turner syndrome; Down's syndrome; Recklinghausen's disease; Klinefelter's
syndrome; trisomy on X chromosome.
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tus only 44 chromosomes were found due to the absence of both
chromosomes from the 3rd pair. What type of mutation occurred?
– Monosomy
– Chromosomal aberration
– Gene mutation
– Polyploidy
+ Nullisomy
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
159. By means of the cytogenetic analysis the karyotype 47, XX,
13+ of a child with plural defects of the skull, extremities, and internal organs was determined. What syndrome did the baby
have?
– Edwards' syndrome
+ Patau syndrome
– Klinefelter's syndrome
– Down's syndrome
– Turner's syndrome
160. During the examination of an 18-year-old girl such features
as underdeveloped ovaries, wide shoulders, a narrow pelvis,
shortened low extremities, a "neck of sphinx" were determined.
There was no mental deficiency. A doctor suspected Turner's syndrome. With what genetic method can this diagnosis be confirmed?
+ Cytogenetic
– Population-statistical
– Study of twins
– Pedigree analysis
– Biochemical
161. In 1950s in Western Europe women who had taken thalidomide (soporific) bore a few thousands of babies with underdevelopment or absence of extremities and transgression of the skeleton. What nature did the pathology have?
– Genocopy
– Chromosomal mutation
+ Phenocopy
– Chromosomal aberration
– Gene mutation
162. A baby has such pathology: anomaly of the lower jaw and
the larynx development accompanied by voice changes resembling a cat's cry. Moreover, the baby has microcephaly, heart
trouble, and four fingers. A likely cause of such anomaly is the
deletion of:
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
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Smirnov O.Yu.
– short arm of the 11th chromosome
– short arm of the 7th chromosome
– short arm of the 9th chromosome
+ short arm of the 5th chromosome
– short arm of the 21st chromosome
163. During the examination of a newborn the diagnosis of Down's
syndrome was made. What is the main cause of this pathology?
– Trisomy on the 13th chromosome
+ Trisomy on the 21st chromosome
– Trisomy on X chromosome
– Monosomy on the 1st chromosome
– Nondisjunction1 of sex chromosomes.
164. A patient has phenylpyruvic acid in the blood and urine.
Based on this the diagnosis of phenylketonuria is made. What genetic method is used?
– Pedigree analysis
– Population-statistical
– Study of twins
+ Biochemical
– Immunological
165. The male karyotype is 47, XXY. He has endocrine hypertrophy: underdevelopment of testicles and absence of spermatogenesis. What disease do these symptoms suggest?
– Edwards' syndrome
– Patau syndrome
+ Klinefelter's syndrome
– Turner's syndrome
– Down's syndrome
166. A child, ill with hemophilia, has been born to healthy parents,
but the mother's grandfather had hemophilia, too. What type of
inheritance does this feature have?
– Y-linked
– Autosomal recessive
– Dominant, X-linked
+ Recessive, X-linked
– Autosomal dominant
167. In a maternity hospital a child with numerous development
anomalies of the internal organs, such as the heart, kidneys, di1
Attention! Incorrect word "undivergence" is used in the book "Collection of tasks…" (this is a
mistake, this word does not exist).
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Smirnov O.Yu.
gestive system, was born. A doctor suspected Edwards' syndrome. What genetic method can confirm this diagnosis?
– Biochemical
– Dermatoglyphic
– Study of twins
– Pedigree analysis
+ Cytogenetic
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
168. In the genetic consultation a provisional diagnosis of Turner's
syndrome of a 14-year-old girl was made. What karyotype does
the girl have?
– 47, XY, 13+
– 46, XX
– 47, XXY
– 46, XY
+ 45, XO
169. In a maternity hospital a child with numerous development
anomalies was diagnosed with Patau syndrome. What genetic
method can confirm this diagnosis?
– Pedigree analysis
– Biochemical
– Population-statistical
+ Cytogenetic
– Study of twins
170. A healthy woman, who had had viral roseola during pregnancy, gave birth to a baby with a cleft lip and cleft palate. The
baby has a normal karyotype and genotype. This anomaly can be
the result of:
+ Influence of teratogenic factor
– Gene mutation
– Chromosomal aberration
– Chromosomal mutation
– Combinative variability
171. There is ichthyosis in the family pedigree. This feature appears in each generation and is typical only of male. What type of
inheritance does this feature have?
– Recessive, X-linked
– Autosomal dominant
– Autosomal recessive
+ Y-linked
– Dominant, X-linked
172. During the pedigree analysis of a family with such an inher-
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ited pathology as transgression of enamel formation, it was found
that the disease appeared in each generation. It is inherited by
daughters from fathers. What type of inheritance can we observe
in this case?
+ Dominant, X-linked
– Recessive, X-linked
– Autosomal dominant
– Autosomal recessive
– Y-linked
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
173. "Cat's cry" syndrome is characterized by the underdevelopment of laryngeal muscles, "miaowing" voice timbre, psychomotoric immaturity1 of a child. This disease is the result of:
– duplication of a fragment of the 5th chromosome
– translocation of the 21st chromosome on the 15th
+ deletion of the short arm of the 5th chromosome
– deletion of the short arm of the 21st chromosome
– inversion of a fragment of the 21st chromosome
174. A sick child has disturbance of lipid exchange, which is accompanied by the increase of lipid concentration in the blood serum and the accumulation of the substance in the nerve cells.
Some dysfunctions of the higher nervous system are also present. What hereditary disease can such symptoms be typical of?
+ Tay–Sachs disease
– Edwards' syndrome
– Phenylketonuria
– Marfan's syndrome
– Hemophilia
175. What method of genetic examination most likely makes it
possible to diagnose Shereshevskiy–Turner syndrome?
– Genealogical
– Demographic-statistical
+ Identification of sex chromatin
– Bigeminal
– Dermatoglyphics
176. A 20-year-old tall young man of asthenic constitution, who
demonstrates signs of hypogonadism, gynecomastia, and diminished production of semen, has been found having a 47, XXY
karyotype. What do we call such chromosomal syndrome?
1
Attention! In the book "Collection of tasks…" the incorrect word "immaturation" is used (this
word does not exist).
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
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Smirnov O.Yu.
– Shereshevskiy–Turner
– Whiskott–Oldrich
– Loui–Barr
+ Klinefelter
– Down's syndrome
177. The frequency of heterozygotes with a genome of phenylketonuria in the population of Ukraine is 3%. What method of genetical investigation is used for revealing early phenylketonuria of
a newborn?
– Cytogenetic
– Population-statistical
– Genealogical
– Dermatoglyphics
+ Biochemical
178. A 15-year-old boy suffers from alkaptonuria. His urine turns
black after settling. Hereditary metabolic disorder of which substance is taking place?
– Uric acid
+ Tyrosine
– Cysteine
– Alanine
– Urea
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
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Smirnov O.Yu.
POPULATION GENETICS AND EVOLUTION
179. A married couple came to the genetic counseling. The husband suffers from the insulin-dependant diabetes; the wife is
healthy. What is the probability that this couple will have an insulin-dependant child? (2009)
– The same as throughout the population
– Lower than throughout the population
– 100%
+ Higher than throughout the population
– 50%
180. A malarial plasmodium – the pathogen of vivax malaria – has
two strains: southern and northern. They differ by the duration of
their incubation period: the southern has short and the northern
– long one. What selection works in this case? (2004)
– Artificial
– Sexual
+ Cutting
– Moving
– Stabilizing
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
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Smirnov O.Yu.
GENERAL BIOLOGY
181. On autopsy of a still-born infant abnormalities have been revealed: ventricles are not separated, a single arterial trunk originates from the right part. For what class of vertebrates is such
heart construction characteristic? (2005)
– Fishes
– Birds
– Mammals
+ Amphibian
– Reptiles
182. At the laboratory experiment the leukocyte culture was
mixed with staphylococci. Neutrophile leukocytes engulfed and
digested bacterial cells. This process is termed: (2005)
– facilitated diffusion
– diffusion
– osmosis
+ phagocytosis
– pinocytosis
183. Examination of a newborn boy's genitalia revealed an urethral hiatus that opens on the underside of his penis. What malformation is it? (2010)
– Cryptorchidism
– Monorchism
– Epispadia
– Hermaphroditism
+ Hypospadias
184. A highly injured person has gradually died. Please choose the
indicator of biological death: (2005)
– disarray of chemical processes
+ autolysis and decay of the cells
– absence of movements
– absence of palpitation and breathing
– loss of consciousness
185. A woman who was infected with toxoplasmosis during pregnancy has born a child with multiple congenital defects. This is a
result of: (2005, 2006)
+ teratogenesis
– chemical mutagenesis
– biological mutagenesis
– recombination
– cancerogenesis
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
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186. For the purpose of myocardium infarction treatment a patient
was injected with embryonal stem cells derived from the same
patient by means of therapeutic cloning. What transplantation
type is it? (2008)
– Isotransplantation
+ Autotransplantation
– Allotransplantation
– Heterotransplantation
– Xenotransplantation
187. Continuous taking of some drugs foregoing the pregnancy increase the risk of giving birth to a child with congenital defects.
What is this effect called? (2008)
– Mutagenic effect
– Blastomogenic effect
+ Teratogenic effect
– Fetotoxical effect
– Embryotoxical effect
188. A young man complains about urination disorder. Examination of the external genitals revealed that the urethra was split on
top side and urine could flow out of this orifice. What anomaly of
the external genitals development is it? (2009)
+ Epispadia
– Phimosis
– Hypospadia
– Hermaphroditism
– Paraphimosis
189. A patient in a transplantation centre underwent heart transplantation. The organ was taken from a donor who died in a road
accident. Foreign heart can be rejected as a result of development of transplantation immunity. It is usually prevented by
means of: (2010)
+ immunosuppressors
– X-ray therapy
– chemotherapy
– enzymes
– ultrasound
190. An alcoholic woman has born a girl with mental and physical
developmental lag. Doctors diagnosed the girl with fetal alcohol
syndrom. What effect is the cause of the girl's state? (2010)
– Malignization
– Carcinogenic
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Smirnov O.Yu.
– Mechanic
+ Teratogenic
– Mutagenic
191. At a definite stage of embryogenesis the mother's and fetus's
circulatory systems are becoming physiologically connected. What
provisional organ fulfils this function?
– Amnion
– Yolk sac
+ Placenta
– Serosa
– Allantois
192. At the stage of blastocyst the beginning of a human embryo
implantation into the womb wall was recorded. What term of embryogenesis does it occur at?
– 10–12 days
– 3–4 days
+ 6–7 days
– 24–26 days
– 30–35 days
193. In a human embryo the anlage of axis organs has begun.
What is this development stage called?
– Blastula
– Zygote
– Cleavage
+ Neurula
– Gastrula
194. During the postembryonic development of a human two lordoses and two kyphoses are formed. It can be explained as the
human ability to:
– sit
+ walk vertically
– swim
– creep
– lie
195. During the postembryonic development in a man's organism
some age-related changes occur. They are skin elasticity loss,
visual and hearing impairment. What do we call the period of individual development when such changes occur?
+ Aging
– Adolescence
– First mature
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Smirnov O.Yu.
– Juvenile
– Youth
196. Antibiotic actinomycin D is known to have no toxic effect on
the maternal organism, on the other hand, it impairs the formation of tissues and organs of ectodermic origin in the embryo organism. A woman was taking actinomycin D during pregnancy.
What organs or systems of the fetus can be impaired as a result?
– Sex glands
– Skeleton muscles
– Locomotion system
– Urogenital system
+ Nervous system
197. A patient has been badly burnt, as a result he has skin defects. To liquidate these defects the surgeons have grafted a
piece of skin from another part of the patient's body. What way of
transplantation is it?
– Homotransplantation
– Explantation
– Allotransplantation
– Xenotransplantation
+ Autotransplantation
198. In a transplantation center a 40-year-old patient has been
transplanted a kidney which was taken from a donor perished in
an automobile accident. To avoid graft rejection, the patient's
graft immunity is suppressed with the help of:
– Antibiotics
– Vitamins
+ Immunodepressants
– Antiseptics
– Immunostimulants
199. In an experimental laboratory a pig's kidney has been
grafted to a cow. What do we call this way of transplantation?
– Explantation
– Autotransplantation
– Allotransplantation
+ Xenotransplantation
– Homotransplantation
200. In a transplantation centre a patient has been transplanted a
heart. What cells of the immune system can influence the graft
cells?
– Macrophages
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
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Smirnov O.Yu.
– Plasma cells
– T lymphocytes
+ B lymphocytes
– Lymphoblasts
201. In some unicellular organisms, for example, in amoebae, nutrition happens by means of phagocytosis. In what human cells is
phagocytosis the way of protection of the organism from foreign
agents (for example, microorganisms)?
+ Leucocytes
– Erythrocytes
– Epitheliocytes
– Myocytes
– Thrombocytes
202. In a human organism some abnormalities, connected with
the disorder of teeth differentiation and changes in their number
(the homodent tooth system), were found. What type of evidence
of human evolution can such abnormalities belong to?
– Cytological
– Rudiments
– Recapitulation
+ Atavisms
– Biochemical
203. During the ontogenesis there appear some changes in a human organism: the vital capacity of his lungs decreases, his arterial pressure increases, and the progress of atherosclerosis takes
place. What do we call the period of individual development in
which all these changes happen?
– Youth
+ Elderly
– Adolescence
– Juvenile
– First mature
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
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PROTOZOANS
204. Parents with an ill child consulted the infection disease doctor. They had been working in one of the Asian countries for a
long time. The child has sallow skin, loss of appetite, laxity,
enlarged liver, spleen, peripheral lymph nodes. What protozoan
illness can be suspected? (2003, 2006)
+ Visceral leishmaniasis
– Toxoplasmosis
– Amebiasis
– Lambliasis
– Balantidiasis
205. Patients with similar complaints applied to the doctor: weakness, pain in the intestines, and disorder of GIT. Examination of
the faeces revealed that one patient with four nucleus cysts
should be hospitalized immediately. For what protozoa are such
cysts typical? (2003, 2004)
– Balantidium
+ Dysenteric amoeba
– Lamblia
– Intestinal amoeba
– Trichomonas
206. Two weeks since the blood transfusion a recipient has developed fever. What protozoal disease can it be? (2004)
– Trypanosomiasis
+ Malaria
– Leishmaniasis
– Toxoplasmosis
– Amebiasis
207. A journalist's body temperature has sharply increased in the
morning three weeks after his mission in India; it was accompanied with shivering and bad headache. A few hours later the temperature decreased. The attacks began to repeat in a day. He was
diagnosed with tropical malaria. What stage of development of
Plasmodium is infective for anopheles female? (2005)
– Sporozoites
– Schizonts
+ Gametocytes
– Merozoites
– Microgamete
208. Slime, blood and protozoa 30–200 microns long have been
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Smirnov O.Yu.
revealed in man's feces. The body is covered with cilia and has
correct oval shape with a little bit narrowed anterior and wide
round shaped posterior end. At the anterior end a mouth is visible. In cytoplasm there are two nuclei and two small vacuoles.
What are the described features typical for? (2005, 2006)
+ Balantidium
– Lamblia
– Intestinal amoeba
– Trichomonas
– Dysenteric amoeba
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
209. A businessman came to India from South America. On examination the physician found that the patient was suffering from
Chagas disease. What was the way of invasion? (2005, 2006)
– Through dirty hands
– With contaminated fruits and vegetables
– As a result of mosquito's bites
– After contact with a sick dog
+ As a result of bug's bites
210. A duodenal content smear of a patient with indigestion contains protozoa 10–18 mcm large. They have four pairs of flagella,
two symmetrically located nuclei in the broadened part of body.
What kind of the lowest organisms is it? (2006)1
– Dysentery ameba
– Intestinal ameba
– Trichomonas
+ Lamblia
– Balantidium
211. A lymph node punctate of a patient with suspected protozoal
disease was examined. Examination of the stained specimen
(Romanowsky's stain) revealed some crescent bodies with
pointed end, blue cytoplasm and red nucleus. What protozoans
were revealed in the smears? (2007)
– Visceral leishmania
+ Toxoplasmas
– Malarial plasmodia
– Trypanosomes
1
In the book "Collection of tasks…" this question is written as follows: During the examination
of duodenal aspirates of a patient with indigestion pear-shaped protozoans measuring 10–18
micrometers with 4 pairs of flagella were found. On a large scale there were 2 symmetrically
placed nuclei. Which of the protozoans parasitized within the patient's body? Answers: Entamoeba coli; Entamoeba histolytica; Trichomonas hominis; Giardia intestinalis; Balantidium coli.
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
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– Dermotropic leishmania
212. A patient has symptoms of inflammation of urogenital tracts.
Examination of a vaginal smear revealed big mononuclear, pearshaped organisms with the pointed spike at the posterior end of
the body, big nucleus and undulating membrane. What protozoa
were found in the smear? (2007)
– Trypanosoma gambiense
– Trichomonas hominis
+ Trichomonas vaginalis
– Trichomonas buccalis
– Lamblia intestinalis
213. A gynaecologist was examining a patient and revealed symptoms of genital tract inflammation. A smear from vagina contains
pyriform protozoa with a spine, flagella at their front; there is
also an undulating membrane. What disease can be suspected?
(2008)
+ Urogenital trichomoniasis
– Intestinal trichomoniasis
– Toxoplasmosis
– Balantidiasis
– Lambliasis
214. A woman delivered a dead child with multiple developmental
defects. What protozoan disease might have caused the intrauterine death? (2009)1
– Leishmaniasis
+ Toxoplasmosis
– Amebiasis
– Lambliasis2
– Malaria
215. A patient working at a pig farm complains about paroxysmal
abdominal pain, liquid feces with admixtures of mucus and blood,
headache, weakness, and fever. Examination of large intestine
revealed ulcers from 1 mm up to several cm large, feces contained oval unicellular organisms with cilia. What disease should
be suspected? (2010, 2011)
– Amebiasis
– Lambliasis
1
In the book "Collection of tasks…" this question is written as follows: A woman gave birth to a
dead baby with a lot of failures of development. What protozoan disease could cause the fetus's death?
2
Another possible answer – "Giardiasis".
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+ Balantidiasis
– Toxoplasmosis
– Trichomoniasis
216. The examination of a patient showed that he had toxoplasmosis. Which material was used for diagnosing the disease?
– Feces
+ Blood
– Urine
– Duodenal contents
– Phlegm
217. A patient was taken to a hospital with complaints of general
weakness, pain in bowels, indigestion. The feces examination revealed cysts with 4 nuclei. Which protozoan are these cysts most
typical of?
– Giardia intestinalis
– Entamoeba coli
– Balantidium coli
– Entamoeba gingivalis
+ Entamoeba histolytica
218. A patient complained of general weakness, bad appetite, and
nausea. After the examination in the duodenal aspirates pearshaped protozoans with 4 pairs of flagella and two nuclei were
found. Which disease could the patient be ill with?
– Trichomoniasis
– Leishmaniasis
+ Giardiasis
– Toxoplasmosis
– Malaria
219. A patient consulted a doctor because of complaints of general
weakness, pain in bowels, indigestion, frequent cases of bloody
diarrhea (3–5 times a day). Laboratory analysis showed that the
patient's feces contained vegetative forms of protozoans with an
unstable body shape. Their cytoplasm contained food vacuoles
with erythrocytes. What representative of Protozoa was found in
the patient's feces?1
– Giardia intestinalis
– Balantidium coli
– Entamoeba coli
– Trichomonas vaginalis
1
Similar question can have answers with common English names of causative agents.
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+ Entamoeba histolytica
220. A patient with attacks of wasting fever and the body temperature rising up to 40° C was admitted to an infectious department of a hospital. The attacks repeated rhythmically every 48
hours. It was known from anamnesis that the patient had recently returned from South Africa where he had been staying for
3 years. What was the causative organism of the disease?
– Agent of Gambian trypanosomiasis
– Agent of giardiasis
– Agent of quartan malaria1
– Agent of toxoplasmosis
+ Agent of tertian malaria2
221. A patient with bile ducts inflammation was admitted to a gastrointestinal department. In the bile active pear-shaped protozoans with 2 nuclei and 4 pairs of flagella were found. What protozoan disease did the patient have?
+ Giardiasis
– Toxoplasmosis
– Balantidiasis
– Trichomoniasis
– Amebiasis
222. Cysts with 8 nuclei were found in the feces examined through
a microscope. Which protozoans did those cysts belong to?
– Balantidium coli
+ Entamoeba coli
– Giardia intestinalis
– Trichomonas hominis
– Toxoplasma gondii
223. Some antelopes were brought to the Kyiv zoo from Africa.
Trypanosoma gambiense were found in their blood. Are these antelopes epidemically dangerous?
– Dangerous to domestic animals and human
– Dangerous only to human
+ Are not epidemically dangerous at all
– Dangerous to other antelopes
– Dangerous only to predators
224. Having returned from Turkmenia, a patient with ulcers on his
face came to a doctor. The doctor diagnosed cutaneous leishma1
2
In the book "Collection of tasks…" incorrect word combination "four-days' malaria" is used.
In the book "Collection of tasks…" incorrect word combination "three-days' malaria" is used.
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niasis. How did the disease agent get into the patient's organism?
+ By the inoculable way
– By the respiratory way
– By a direct contact
– By a sexual contact
– By food
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
225. Cysts were found in the feces of a restaurant worker. They
had 4 nuclei of the same size. Which of the protozoans did the
cysts belong to?
– Entamoeba coli
– Balantidium coli
+ Entamoeba histolytica
– Trichomonas vaginalis
– Toxoplasma gondii
226. A patient has typical symptoms of malaria: wasting fever,
exhaustion. These attacks repeat after certain intervals of time.
What stage of Plasmodium is in the patient's blood?
– Ookinete
– Oocysts
– Sporozoites
– Sporocysts
+ Merozoites1
227. A doctor is staying in one of Asian countries taking care of
10-year-old sick children. The symptoms of the disease are: exhaustion, fever, anemia, hepatomegaly, and splenomegaly. As
there are a lot of mosquitoes in this country, the children are
likely to be sick with:
+ visceral leishmaniasis
– balantidiasis
– toxoplasmosis
– giardiasis
– amebiasis
228. A woman who had two miscarriages came to a maternity
welfare centre2. Which protozoan illness could provoke the miscarriages?
– Balantidiasis
1
This answer is not good (it's difficult to find merozoites on the slide, because they are present
in the blood before the attack during very short period). Correct answer must be "trophozoites".
2
In the book "Collection of tasks…" incorrect word combination "women's consultating centre"
is used.
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– Trichomoniasis
+ Toxoplasmosis
– Giardiasis
– Amebiasis
229. In the feces of a person ill with chronic colitis round cysts
with 4 nuclei, 10 micrometers in diameter were found. Which of
the protozoans do they belong to?
– Entamoeba gingivalis
– Entamoeba coli
+ Entamoeba histolytica
– Giardia intestinalis
– Balantidium coli
230. A patient with a provisional diagnosis of liver abscess was delivered to a surgical department of a hospital. The patient was
staying in Ukraine. He had stomach disorder, indigestion, and
frequent bloody diarrhea. The patient hadn't consulted a doctor
before. Which protozoan illness could the patient be ill with?
– Malaria
– Trypanosomiasis
– Leishmaniasis
+ Amebiasis
– Toxoplasmosis
231. In the woman's anamnesis there were two miscarriages. The
third pregnancy ended in a birth of a baby with a lot of malformations (upper extremities were absent and lower extremities were
underdeveloped). The presence of what protozoans in the
woman's body could cause such abnormalities?
– Entamoeba histolytica
– Giardia intestinalis
– Balantidium coli
– Trichomonas hominis
+ Toxoplasma gondii
232. During the checkup of restaurant workers doctors often notice as-symptomatic parasitosis: a totally healthy person is a carrier of cysts which infect other people. The parasitism of which
parasites makes it possible?
+ Entamoeba histolytica
– Plasmodium vivax
– Trypanosoma gambiense
– Leishmania donovani
– Leishmania infantum
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HELMINTHS
233. During regular examination of schoolchildren it was revealed
that a 10 year old girl had asymmetric oval eggs with a larva in
the scrape from her perianal folds. What diagnosis should be
made? (2010)
– Ascariasis
– Trichocephalosis
+ Enterobiosis
– Amebiasis
– Ankylostomiasis
234. Microscopic examination of the sputum of a patient with
pneumonia occasionally revealed some larvae. Eosinophiles were
detected on blood examination. What helminthiasis can be diagnosed? (2003, 2006)
– Enterobiosis
– Paragonimiasis
+ Ascariasis
– Opisthorchiasis
– Trichocephaliasis
235. The guide of the scientific expedition in India was native who
always was with his dog. What invasive disease can be transmitted by the dog if it is the source of invasion? (2003)
– Dicroceliasis
– Teniasis
+ Echinococcosis
– Fascioliasis
– Paragonimiasis
236. A 10-year-old child complains of weakness, nausea, irritability. Helminths of white color and 5–10 mm long were found on
the underwear. On microscopy of the scrape from the perianal
folds achromic ova of the unsymmetrical form were revealed. Indicate what helminth is parasitising on the child? (2003, 2005)
– Ascaris lumbricoides
– Ancylostoma duodenale
– Trichina
+ Enterobius vermicularis
– Trichuris
237. A female patient consulted a physician about digestive disorder and extended abdominal pain. Examination revealed drastic
decrease in hemoglobin concentration. It is known from the an-
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amnesis that while living in the Far East the patient used to eat
freshly salted caviar. Some relatives living with her had the similar condition. What is the most likely diagnosis? (2004, 2009)1
– Ascariasis
– Trichiniasis
– Echinococcosis
– Teniasis
+ Diphyllobothriasis
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
238. The examination of a foreigner revealed intestinal schistosomiasis. How could the patient be infected? (2004)
– Through dirty hands
– While eating meat
– While eating fish
+ During river swimming
– Through insects bites
239. A group of men applied to the doctor complaining of rising
temperature, headache, swelling of face and eyelids, myalgia.
From the history it became known that they all were hunters and
they often ate meat of wild animals. What is the most likely diagnosis? (2004)
+ Trichinosis
– Teniasis
– Filariasis
– Taeniarhynchosis
– Cysticercosis
240. A patient consulted an urologist about pain during urination.
Analysis of his urine taken in the daytime revealed eggs with a
characteristic sharp point. It is known from the anamnesis that
the patient has recently returned from Australia. Some relatives
living with her had the similar condition. What is the most likely
diagnosis? (2009, 2011)
– Intestinal schistosomiasis
+ Urogenital schistosomiasis
– Opisthorchiasis
– Dicroceliasis
– Japanese schistosomiasis
1
In the book "Collection of tasks…" this question is written as follows: A woman came to a
doctor complaining of general weakness, epigastric pain, indigestion. After the examination of
the patient anemia connected with vitamin B12 deficiency was found. It was known from anamnesis that living in the Far East she used to eat caviar. Laboratory analysis showed that the
feces contained eggs of helminth which were oval-shaped, yellow, and had an operculum on
one of the poles. What disease did the patient have?
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241. A man has worked in an African country for 3 years. A month
after his return to Ukraine he consulted an ophthalmologist and
complained about eye ache, eyelid edema, lacrimation, and temporary visual impairment. Underneath the eye conjunctiva the
doctor revealed helminths 30–50 mm long with elongated filiform
body. What diagnosis might be suspected? (2009)
– Enterobiasis
– Trichocephaliasis
+ Filariasis
– Diphyllobothriasis
– Ascariasis
242. In the perianal folds of a 5-year-old girl, her mother has
found some white "worms" that caused itch and anxiety in the
child. The "worms" were sent to the laboratory. During examination the physician saw white filiform helminths 0.5–1 cm long,
with pointed ends, some helminths had twisted ends. What is the
most likely diagnosis? (2009)
– Ascariasis
– Opisthorchiasis
– Diphyllobothriasis
– Teniasis
+ Enterobiasis
243. Two days after consumption of smoked pork a patient got
face and eyelid edemata, gastrointestinal disturbances, abrupt
temperature rise, muscle pain. Blood analysis showed full-blown
eosinophilia. What helminth could the patient is infected with?
(2007)
– Ascarid
– Whipworm
+ Trichina
– Pinworm
– Hookworm
244. A patient complains of pain in the area of his liver. Duodenal
intubation revealed yellowish, oval, narrowed at the poles eggs
with an operculum at the end. Size of these eggs is smallest
among all helminth eggs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
(2007)
+ Opisthorchiasis
– Diphyllobothriasis
– Teniasis
– Beef tapeworm infection
– Echinococcosis
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245. A child complains of general weakness, loss of appetite,a
troubled sleep, itching in the perianal area. The provisional diagnosis is enterobiasis. In order to specify this diagnosis it is necessary to perform: (2007)
– duodenal contents analysis
– roentgenoscopy
– immune diagnostics
– biopsy of muscle tissue
+ scraping from perianal folds
246. A male patient has fever and enanthesis. As a result of the
examination involving serological tests he has been diagnosed
with Fasciola hepatica. It was found out that the patient had been
infected through raw river water. Which stage of Fasciola life cycle is invasive for humans? (2011)
+ Adolescaria
– Cysticercus
– Metacercaria
– Miracidium
– Ovum
247. During the microscopy of the scrape of the anal mucosa of a
child asymmetric colorless eggs were found. Which helminth did
those eggs belong to?
– Ancylostoma duodenale
– Ascaris lumbricoides
+ Enterobius vermicularis
– Trichocephalus trichiurus
– Hymenolepis nana
248. During the operation white helminths 40 mm long with a thin
filiform anterior part of the body were found in the appendix. After the preliminarily examination of the patient's feces ovalshaped eggs with two prominent plugs on the poles were found.
What helminth was found during the operation?
– Ancylostoma duodenale
– Enterobius vermicularis
– Ascaris lumbricoides
+ Trichocephalus trichiurus
– Strongyloides stercoralis
249. It is well known that some of the helminths at the larval
stage parasitize in the muscles of fish. What helminthiasis may a
person get if he eats raw fish?
– Ascariasis
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– Taeniasis
– Enterobiasis
– Trichinosis
+ Diphyllobothriasis
250. A helminth 2 m long was found in the feces of a patient after
drug treatment. The helminth's body consisted of segments, has
a little head with hooks and four suckers. Which helminth did the
patient have?
+ Taenia solium
– Taenia saginata
– Hymenolepis nana
– Echinococcus granulosus
– Diphyllobothrium latum
251. A worker of a live-stock farm was made a provisional diagnosis of echinococcosis. The diagnosis was confirmed during a surgery. From what animal could the patient get the disease?
– A sheep
– A pig
+ A dog
– A rabbit
– A caw
252. A patient has severe indigestion. Ripe and immovable segments of a tapeworm are found in his feces; the uterus of each of
them has 7–12 lateral branches. Which helminth does the patient
have?
– Diphyllobothrium latum
– Taenia saginata
– Hymenolepis nana
+ Taenia solium
– Echinococcus granulosus
253. After the dissection of a woman's dead body larvae of
helminths – cysticerci 1 were found in the tissue of the brain.
Which helminth did the larvae belong to?
– Alveococcus multilocularis
– Taenia saginata
– Echinococcus granulosus
– Hymenolepis nana
+ Taenia solium
254. A 35-year-old man came to a doctor complaining of epigas1
In the book "Collection of tasks…" – "cysticercus were found" (this is a mistake).
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tric pain. As it appeared, the patient was fond of fishing and often
ate raw fish. Eggs of helminths were found in the patient's feces.
The eggs were dark and oval-shaped with an operculum on one of
the poles, 30×15 micrometers in size. Which helminthiasis did the
patient have?
+ Opisthorchiasis
– Paragonimiasis
– Fascioliasis
– Schistosomiasis
– Ancylostomiasis
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
255. A child doesn't sleep well; sometimes he scratches the area
around the anus. After the examination of the child's nightwear
white filiform helminths 1 cm long were found. During the microscopic examination of a specimen from perianal folds of the child
small ovoid asymmetrical colourless eggs were observed. What is
the helminth, which parasitizes in the child's organism, called?
– Trichinella spiralis
– Ascaris lumbricoides
– Strongyloides stercoralis
+ Enterobius vermicularis
– Trichocephalus trichiurus
256. Fragments of a helminth were found in the feces of a patient
after drug treatment. These fragments had a tapelike segmented
structure. The width of the segments exceeded their length. In
the centre of the segment there was a rosette-shaped uterus.
Which helminth did the patient have?
+ Diphyllobothrium latum
– Taenia solium
– Taenia saginata
– Alveococcus multilocularis
– Hymenolepis nana
257. A sick child had recurrent diarrhea, epigastric pain, nausea,
vomiting. Once after the child's vomiting his mother found a spindle-shaped helminth 20 cm long. Which disease could cause such
a condition?
– Trichuriasis
+ Ascariasis
– Ancylostomiasis
– Dracunculiasis
– Trichinosis
258. A microscopy revealed yellow-brown knobby-coated eggs of
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helminths with a thick wall in the feces of a schoolboy. Which
helminth did the eggs belong to?
– Trichocephalus trichiurus
– Enterobius vermicularis
+ Ascaris lumbricoides
– Hymenolepis nana
– Diphyllobothrium latum
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
259. A mother of a 5-year-old girl found filiform helminths 0.5–1
cm long with sharp tips on the child's nightwear. She brought
them to a laboratory. Which disease did these parasites cause?
– Ascariasis
– Diphyllobothriasis
– Taeniasis
+ Enterobiasis
– Opisthorchiasis
260. The treatment of a patient with pneumonia didn't relieve his
condition. He began complaining of stomachache, vomiting, indigestion, worsening of his general state. The analysis of the feces
revealed oval-shaped helminth's eggs covered with a thick tuberculate envelope. What diagnosis can be made basing on the
above mentioned data?
– Fascioliasis
– Trichuriasis
– Diphyllobothriasis
– Enterobiasis
+ Ascariasis
261. A patient with the preliminary diagnosis of trichinosis was
admitted to a hospital. Consuming of what food could cause that
disease?
+ Pork
– Beef
– Fish
– Crayfish
– Crab
262. A woman came to a doctor complaining of indigestion. In her
feces flat white moving segments constantly appeared. Laboratory examination revealed that they were long, narrow proglottids
with a longitudinal canal of the uterus which had 17–35 lateral
branches on each side. Which of the helminths did the woman
have in her intestines?
– Hymenolepis nana
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– Taenia solium
+ Taenia saginata
– Diphyllobothrium latum
– Echinococcus granulosus
263. A hunter drank raw water from a pond. Which of helminthiasis may the man get?
– Opisthorchiasis
+ Fascioliasis
– Paragonimiasis
– Clonorchiasis
– Taeniasis
264. A 35-year-old man was taken to a hospital. He failed to see
with one of his eyes. It was known from anamnesis that he used
to eat pork. After the radiologic examination and serologic findings he was diagnosed with cysticercosis. What helminth is an
agent of cysticercosis?
– Taenia saginata
+ Taenia solium
– Trichocephalus trichiurus
– Trichinella spiralis
– Diphyllobothrium latum
265. A patient came to a doctor complaining of general weakness
and indigestion. He brought segments of a tapeworm found on his
bedclothes. Which of the helminths did the patient have?
– Hymenolepis nana
– Taenia solium
+ Taenia saginata
– Diphyllobothrium latum
– Echinococcus granulosus
266. A patient came to a doctor complaining of allergy and epigastric pain. Oval-shaped, yellow eggs measuring 135×80 micrometers with an operculum on one of the poles were found in the feces during the stool examinations. What disease did the patient
have?
+ Fascioliasis
– Taeniasis
– Opisthorchiasis
– Diphyllobothriasis
– Echinococcosis
267. During the examination a patient was diagnosed with opisthorchiasis. With what food could the patient get the agent of op-
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isthorchiasis?
– Cysticercosis beef
– Dirty vegetables
– Cysticercosis pork
– Dirty fruit
+ Undercooked fish
268. A patient, who came to Ukraine from Australia, consulted a
doctor complaining of pain during urination. The analysis of his
day urine specimens revealed large terminally spitted eggs. What
helminth did the patient have?
– Opisthorchis felineus
– Schistosoma mansoni
– Schistosoma japonicum
+ Schistosoma haematobium
– Dicrocoelium lanceatum
269. During the examination of a man who has recently come
back from Africa schistosomiasis is diagnosed. How could the
pathogenic organism penetrate into the organism of the patient?
– While eating pork
– While eating fish
+ While swimming in the river
– Through dirty hands
– In case of mosquitoes' bites
270. A tourist who was staying in Eastern Asia had been hospitalized to a therapeutic department with suspected pneumonia. During the examination of the patient's sputum and feces the eggs of
Paragonimus ringeri were found. With what food could the patient
get the pathogenic organism?
+ Undercooked crabs
– Unboiled water
– Undercooked fish
– Undercooked pork
– Dirty fruit and vegetables
271. Larvae of roundworms (Nematoda) have been found in the
sputum of a patient with the provisional diagnosis of pneumonia.
What species of the roundworm is this?
– Fasciola hepatica
– Paragonimus ringeri
+ Ascaris lumbricoides
– Taenia solium
– Echinococcus granulosus
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272. A patient came to a stomatological department complaining
of pain in the chewing muscles. It was known from anamnesis
that he was fond of hunting and often ate meat of wild animals.
The encysted larva of what parasite was found in the result of
muscle biopsy of the patient?
– Ancylostoma duodenale
– Taenia solium
– Dracunculus medinensis
+ Trichinella spiralis
– Wuchereria bancrofti
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ARTHROPODS
273. A sick man with high temperature and a lot of tiny wounds
on the body has been admitted to the hospital. Lice have been
found in the folds of his clothing. What disease can be suspected?
(2005, 2006)
– Scabies
– Malaria
– Plague
– Tularemia
+ Epidemic typhus
274. During the examination of a patient with bleeding wounds
the doctor found out that the tissue was damaged by maggots,
there were local maturations. The diagnosis of what insect caused
the disease? (2004)
– House fly
– Tsetse fly
– Stable fly
+ Blow fly (Wohlfahrtia magnifica)
– Triatomic bug
275. A patient with suspicion on epidemic typhus was admitted to
the hospital. Some arachnids and insects have been found in his
flat. Which of them may be a carrier of the pathogen of epidemic
typhus? (2005, 2006)
+ Lice
– Spiders
– Houseflies
– Bedbugs
– Cockroaches
276. According to the data of WHO, for about 250 millions of Earth
population fall ill with malaria. This disease is mostly spread in
tropical and subtropical regions. Range of its spread falls into the
areal of the following mosquitoes: (2007)
+ Anopheles
– Mansonia
– Aëdes
– Culex
– Culiseta
277. While on holiday in the countryside, a boy found a spider
with the following morphological characteristics: body length of 2
cm, round black abdomen with two rows of red dots on its dorsal
side; four pairs of segmented extremities covered with tiny black
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hairs. Identify this arthropod: (2008, 2009)
– Solpuga
+ Karakurt spider
– Scorpion
– Mite
– Tarantula
278. A patient has acne and inflammatory alterations on facial
skin. Microscopic examination of scrapings from the affected areas has revealed living porrect vermiform arthropods 0.2–0.5 mm
large with four pairs of short extremities in the front part of their
bodies. What is the laboratory diagnosis? (2008, 2010, 2011)
– Pediculosis
– Myiasis
– Scabies
+ Demodicosis
– Phthiriasis
279. A doctor revealed tissues injury on patient's scalp with localized suppurations and diagnosed his disease as myiasis. This infestation is caused by larvae of the following insect: (2010)
– malarial mosquito
– kissing bug
+ Wohlfahrtia fly
– sand fly1
– stable fly (Stomoxys calcitrans)
280. A patient came to a doctor with complaints of itchy skin especially between the fingers and at the bottom of his abdomen.
Sinuous passages with disseminations on their ends were found
on the patient's skin. What disease did these symptoms point
out?
– Pediculosis
+ Scabies
– Toxoplasmosis
– Malaria
– Myiasis
281. In some regions of the world the cases of malaria became
more frequent. What insect is a carrier of the agent of malaria?
– Culex mosquito
– Phlebotomus sandfly
1
During the exam in 2010, this answer was "mosquito", but in appropriate Russian question
answer was "sand fly" (Phlebotomus).
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– Simulium black fly
+ Anopheles mosquito
– Aëdes mosquito
282. Grey insects measuring 1–1.2 mm with a short wide body
covered with setae were observed on the pubis of some boys during the medical checkup. What insects were these?
– Sarcoptes scabiei
– Pulex irritans
– Pediculus humanus capitis
– Cimex lectularius
+ Phthirus pubis
283. A man lives in the area of dermal leishmaniasis distribution.
He hasn't been inoculated against this disease because of his
having contraindication against it. What insects' bites should this
man avoid?
– Mosquitoes
– Fleas
– Gadflies
+ Sand flies
– Stable flies
284. Grey arthropods measuring 3 mm in length with three pairs
of legs were found on a patient's head. The arthropods had deep
incisures on each side of the body. What arthropods did the patient have?
– Cimex lectularius
– Sarcoptes scabiei
+ Pediculus humanus capitis
– Pulex irritans
– Demodex folliculorum
285. After the examination a patient was diagnosed with tickborne relapsing fever. How was he infected?
+ By means of a soft tick's bite
– By means of an itch mite's bite
– By means of a hard tick's bite
– By means of a housefly mite's bite
– By means of a dog tick's bite
286. A patient came to a doctor complaining of itching between
the fingers and on the abdomen, which intensified at night. After
the examination of his skin rash and thin grey stripes were found.
What pathogenic organism could produce such symptoms?
– Ixodes ricinus
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
73
Smirnov O.Yu.
+ Sarcoptes scabiei
– Ornithodorus papillipes
– Dermacentor pictus
– Ixodes persulcatus
287. A 40-year-old man who lives in a pise-walled house came to
a laboratory. He found dark-grey arthropods with a long oval
body and a somewhat pointed front end in the wall chink. The
mouth apparatus of the arthropod were placed in the notch of the
abdomen surface. The arthropod had 4 pairs of ambulatory legs,
the sexual opening was placed at the level of the first pair of legs.
What arthropod is it?
– Ixodes ricinus
– Ixodes persulcatus
+ Ornithodorus papillipes
– Sarcoptes scabiei
– Dermacentor nuttali
288. A child complained of itching in the occipital and temporal
parts of the head. After the examination of his head surface ulcers on the head skin and white nits on the hair were found. What
arthropod was parasitizing on the child's head?
– Wohlfahrtia fly
– Body louse
– Human flea
+ Head louse
– Crab louse
289. After the examination a patient was diagnosed with Russian
spring-summer encephalitis. How was the patient infected?
– By means of an itch mite's bite
– By means of a malaria mosquito's bite
– By means of a soft tick's bite
– By means of a sand fly's bite
+ By means of a hard tick's bite
290. A patient came to a dermatologist complaining of ulcers
which appeared on his face and neck skin surface. After the laboratory examination of the ulcers mobile parasitic arachnids were
found. What animal infected the patient?
+ Follicle mite
– Itch mite
– Human flea
– Bedbug
– Wohlfahrtia fly
Krok-1 Tests – Medical Biology
74
Smirnov O.Yu.
MIXED QUESTIONS ON PARASITOLOGY
291. Mosquitoes bites caused the appearance of ulcers on the human's skin; the ulcers were observed under a microscope. The ulcer's contents analysis revealed nonflagellated protozoans. What
disease is this?
+ Cutaneous leishmaniasis
– Visceral leishmaniasis
– Malaria
– Scabies
– Myiasis
292. During the examination of a patient a doctor found small ulcers with rough edges on the patient's skin. The patient had just
returned from an Asian country where there were a lot of mosquitoes. What disease can be suspected?
– Trypanosomiasis
– Toxoplasmosis
– Malaria
+ Cutaneous leishmaniasis
– Scabies
293. During the checkup of schoolgirls colorless asymmetric oval
eggs with larvae inside were found in the scrape of perianal folds
of a 10-year-old girl. What disease does it indicate?
– Amebiasis
– Ascariasis
+ Enterobiasis
– Trichuriasis
– Ancylostomiasis
ЕЛЕКТРОННЕ НАВЧАЛЬНЕ ВИДАННЯ
ТЕСТОВІ ЗАВДАННЯ
для складання державного ліцензійного іспиту
"Крок-1. Загальна лікарська підготовка"
З МЕДИЧНОЇ БІОЛОГІЇ
(англійською мовою)
для самостійної роботи студентів
спеціальності 7.110101 "Лікувальна справа"
Укладач Олег Ювеналійович Смірнов, канд. біол. наук,
старший науковий співробітник, доцент
Комп'ютерне верстання О. Ю. Смірнова
Medical Biology tests
Theme 1
11. To the illuminating part of the microscope belong:
a) Reflecting mirrors. *
b) Microscope base.
c) Objective lens.
d) Eyepiece lens.
12. To the optical part of the light microscope belongs:
a) Objective lens. *
b) Eyepiece lens.
c) Reflecting mirror.
d) Microscope base.
e) Coarse adjustment knob.
13. To the mechanical part of the light microscope belongs:
a) Microscope (magnification) tube.*
b) Condenser.
c) Nosepiece.
d) Diaphragm.
14. The magnification of the light microscope high power objective lens is:
a) x 7.
b) x 10.
c) x 40.
d) x 90. *
15. The fine adjustment knob of the light microscope provides:
a) Distinct focusing of the specimen reflection. *
b) Light field decrease.
c) Light field increase.
d) Initial focusing of the specimen reflection.
16. The field of vision in the light microscope is partially well-lit and partially dark when:
a) The power objective lenses are dirty.
b) The eyepiece lens is dirty.
c) The object slide is dirty.
d) The objective has not been fixed into the rotating nosepiece. *
17. An image can be distinctly seen at low magnification but cannot be seen at medium
magnification of the light microscope because:
a) The cover glass is dirty.
b) The cover glass is under the object glass.
c) The eyepiece lenses are dirty.
d) The objective lens is out of focus. *
18. The coarse adjuster of the light microscope provides:
a) Back reflection of the object.
b) Direct reflection of the object.
c) Precise reflection of the object.
d) Initial focusing of the object. *
19. The binocular adjustment of the light microscope gives:
a) Direct image. *
b) Mirror image.
c) Three-dimensional image.
20. There are three major parts of the light microscope: mechanical, optical, and
illuminative. Which of the constructive details is not a mechanical system part?
a) Nosepiece.
b) Microscope base.
c) Microscope (magnification) tube.
d) Condenser. *
e) Coarse adjuster.
21. The eyepiece lens belongs to the optical system of the light microscope. Where is it
located?
a) In the upper part of the microscope tube. *
b) On the microscope base under the microscope stage.
c) Fixed into the lower part of the condenser.
d) On the side of the microscope base.
Theme 2
33. To prokaryotes belong:
a) Fungi.
b) Plants.
c) Bacteria.*
d) Lichens.
34. Bilayer membrane is inherent in:
a) Mitochondria. *
b) Nucleus. *
c) Ribosomes. *
d) Chloroplasts.
e) Lysosomes.
35. Prokaryotic cell ribosomes are characterized by:
a) 80S-ribosomes.
b) 70S-ribosomes. *
36. The primary function of mitochondria is:
a) ATP synthesis. *
b) Carbohydrate synthesis.
c) Protein synthesis.
d) Lipid synthesis.
37. The function of smooth endoplasmic reticulum is:
a) Protein synthesis.
b) Carbohydrate synthesis.
c) Lipid synthesis. *
d) Nucleic acid synthesis.
38. All the following statements are true of the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane except
for:
a) The model visualizes plasma membrane as a sea of lipid that takes the form of a
phospholipid layer.
b) The functional elements of this membrane model are the proteins found in lipid bilayer.
c) Proteins may perform enzymatic, receptor, or transport functions. *
d) Proteins are arranged in a continuous layer in the cell membrane.
e) Cholesterol content is the major factor in membrane fluidity determination.
39. All the following statements are true regarding mitochondria except for:
a) Mitochondrial proteins are primarily synthesized by the nuclear genome.
b) Mitochondria and bacteria similarities have led to the view that mitochondria evolved
from bacteria.
c) Mitochondrial genes follow normal Mendelian inheritance. *
d) Mitochondria are formed by means of preexisting mitochondria division exclusively.
e) Mammalian mitochondrial DNA is maternally inherited.
40. Which of the following statements characterizes ribosomes correctly?
a) They consist entirely of RNA.
b) They are highly active when observed in the cytoplasm as single units.
c) They differ in response to antibiotics depending on whether they are eukaryotic or
prokaryotic by origin. *
d) They move along tRNAs and read the genetic message transcribed from DNA.
e) They are composed of two equal subunits.
41. All the following statements are true of endoplasmic reticulum except for:
a) It is involved in the synthesis of exportable proteins only. *
b) It is found in all eukaryotic cells.
c) It is involved in lipid synthesis.
d) It varies in density depending on the cell functional activity.
e) It continues with the nuclear envelope.
Theme 3
33. Which of the following elements belong to microelements?
a) Fe, Cu, Cl, Mg. *
b) Ni, Zn, I, F.
c) 0, N, H, C.
34. Which of the following elements are referred to biogenic?
a) Fe, Cu, Cl, Mg.
b) Ni, Zn, P, I.
c) 0, N, H, C. *
35. Which of the following substances enter into the protein composition?
a) Water.
b) Nucleic acids.
c) Amino acids. *
36. Which of the following substances constitute ribosomes?
a) rRNA.
b)Protein.
c) ATP.
d) mRNA. *
37. DNA is a:
a) Nucleic acid.
b) Amino acid.
c) Deoxyribonucleotide. *
d) Biological polymer.
e) Nucleotide.
f) Double helix.
38. DNA is present in:
a) Lysosomes.
b) Nucleus. *
c) Mitochondria.
d) Chloroplasts.
Theme 4
28. What enzyme is involved in primary mRNA synthesis?
a) Aminoacyl-TRNA-synthetase.
b) DNA-dependent RNA-polymerase. *
c) DNA-dependent DNA-polymerase.
d) RNA-dependent DNA-polymerase.
29. The nucleotide triplet, which interrupts transcription, is called:
a) Promoter.
b) Operator.
c) Terminator.
30. The informative sections of a structural gene are called:
a) Exons. *
b) Introns.
c) Codons.
31. What substances from the listed below are amino acids?
a) Methionine. *
b) Glycerol.
c) Serine.
d) Uracil.
32. How are the nucleotide triplets, which do not code amino acids but terminate
polypeptide chain synthesis on RNA-matrix, called?
a) Terminators. *
b) Cistrons.
c) Operators.
d) Nonsense codons.
33. The translation process in a cell takes place:
a) In the ribosomes.
b) In the rough endoplasmic reticulum membranes.
c) In the nucleus.
d) in the cytoplasm.
34. The transcription process in the cell takes place:
a) In the nucleus.
b) In the mitochondrion.
c) In the rough endoplasmic reticulum membranes.
d) In the outer nuclear membrane. *
35. Nonsense codons are:
a) UAA. *
b) UAG. *
c) CAC.
d) AUA.
e) AGU.
f) UGA. *
36. How is the process of a complementary mRNA copy being made of a DNA molecule
called?
a) Transcription.
b) Activation.
c) Translation.
d) Repression.
e) Transamination.
37. How is the process of amino acids combining with tRN. called?
a) Transcription.
b) Translation. *
c) Activation.
d) Repression.
e) Transamination.
38. How is the process of the formation of a specific am acids sequence in accordance with
the codons on mRNA called:
a) Translation.
b) Activation.
c) Transamination.
d) Repression.
e) Transcription.
Theme 5
21. What is the chemical nature of repressor?
a) Carbohydrate.
b) Lipid.
c) Protein. *
d) RNA.
22. Protein-repressor is necessary for:
a) Operon functioning. *
b) Transcription regulation.
c) RNA replication regulation.
d) Amino acids transportation.
23. Chromatin is a:
a) Complex of RNA and protein.
b) Complex of DNA and protein. *
c) Complex of DNA, RNA, and protein.
d) Complex of DNA and RNA.
24. What types of heterochromatin are distinguished?
a) Constitutional.
b) Facultative. *
c) Adaptive.
25. What type of chromatin is functionally active in an interphase cell?
a) Euchromatin. *
b) X-chromatin.
c) Constitutional chromatin.
d) Facultative chromatin.
26. How is the protein, which is coded by the regulator gene, called?
a) Repressor. *
b) Operator.
c) Corepressor.
d) Promoter.
27. How are the genes, responsible for the production of polypeptides making up an
enzyme or a group of enzymes, called?
a) Operator genes.
b) Structural genes.*
c) Regulator genes.
28. How is the gene, which regulates structural genes by switching them on or off, called?
a) Operator gene.
b) Regulator gene.*
C) Repressor.
d) Promoter.
Theme 6
21. At what mitosis stage is karyotype usually defined?
a) Anaphase. *
b) Interphase.
c) Prophase.
d) Telophase.
e) Metaphase.
22. Chromosomes are located in the equatorial plane of a mitotically divided cell in the:
a) Anaphase.
b) Prophase.
c) Telophase.
d) Metaphase.*
23. Mitosis is:
a) Indirect cell fission. *
b) Direct cell fission.
24. The cell cycle of a specialized cell can be ended by:
a) Fission into two daughter cells.
b) Coalescing with another cell. *
c) Death.
25. Interphase periods are:
a) G,- presynthesis. *
b) S- synthesis. *
c) G,- postsynthesis. *
d) Telophase.
26. DNA quantity is doubled in a cell during the:
a) Presynthesis period (G1) of interphase.
b) Postsynthesis period (G2) of interphase.
c) Synthesis period (S) of interphase. *
d) Metaphase.
e) Prophase.
27. The nuclear envelope disintegrates during such cell cycle stage:
a) Metaphase.
b) Prophase. *
c) Telophase.
d) Synthesis period (S) of interphase.
e) Anaphase.
28. Cell organelles duplication takes places at such cell cycle stage:
a) Prophase.
b) Synthesis period (S) of interphase.
c) Postsynthesis period (G2) of interphase.
d) Presynthesis period (G1) of interphase.*
e) Anaphase.
f) Telophase.
g) Metaphase.
Tests problems for Chapter 1
1. Different investigation methods are used for the analysis of cell structure. What
microscope is typically used during cell ultrastructure analysis?
A. Electronic. *
B. Light.
C. Phase.
D. Stereoscopic.
E. Infrared.
2. For the exhausting investigation of animal cells under the light microscope immersion oil
is used. What light microscope objective magnification is typically used in this case?
A. 7.
B. 8.
C. 10.
D. 40.
E. 90. *
3. In the light microscope objective magnification is 40, ocular -10, binocular adjustment 1.5. What is the total magnification of this light microscope optic system?
A. 100.
B. 200.
C. 300.
D. 400.
E. 600. *
4. An object was investigated under the light monocular microscope with the magnification
x 400. The ocular magnification was x 10. Which of the stated below magnifications of the
objective was used?
A. 10.
B. 20.
C. 40. *
D. 60.
E. 100.
5. There are membranous and non-membranous organelles in an animal cell. Which of the
below mentioned organelles is non- membranous?
A.Peroxisome.
B. Endoplasmic reticulum.
C. Ribosome. *
D. Golgi apparatus.
E. Lysosome.
6. The ribosomes of eukaryotic and procaryotic cells have different coefficient of
sedimentation. What coefficient of sedimentation is typical of bacteria ribosomes?
A. 40S.
B. 50S.
C. 70S. *
D. 80S.
E. 90S.
7. There is no nucleus in a procaryotic cell. What do we call the place in a bacteria cell
where genetic information is localized?
A. Centrosome.
B. Lysosome.
C. Polysome.
D. Nucleoid. *
E. Membrane.
8. A two-membrane organelle is shown in a cell electron diffraction pattern. The internal
membrane of this organelle forms cristae. What do we call this organelle?
A. Peroxisome.
B. Lysosome.
C. Mitochondrion. *
D. Nucleus.
E. Plastid.
9. Different transfer RNA play an important role in the translation process. Which of the
below mentioned substances are transported by these molecules in a cell?
A. Nucleotides.
B. Nucleosides.
C. Amino acids. *
D. Messenger RNA.
E. Ribosomal RNA.
10. Some physical agents can disturb the structure of a DNA molecule. In particular,
ultraviolet irradiation provokes pyrimidine dimers formation in DNA. What nitrogenous
bases are involved in this process?
A. Adenine and thymine.
B. Guanine and cytosine.
C. Adenine and guanine.
D. Thymine and cytosine. *
E. Guanine and thymine.
11. Different chemical factors can provoke disturbances in the DNA molecule structure.
There are special mechanisms for correction in the cell., What do we call this process?
A. Reparation. *
B. Translation.
C. Transcription.
D. Replication.
E. Termination.
12. The posttranscriptional modifications of messenger RNA take place in the eukaryotic
cell nucleus. In particular, splicing of the primary RNA transcript occurs in order to excise
the nucleotide sequences corresponding to introns. What do we call the informative parts
of the primary RNA transcript?
A. Replicons.
B. Introns.
C. Anticodons.
D. Exons. *
E. Stop codons.
13. A messenger RNA nucleotide triplet sequence corresponds to the amino acid sequence
in the polypeptide chain. 61 triplets code different amino acids. 3 triplets (UAA, UAG, UGA)
code no amino acids, but are able to terminate translation. What do we call them?
A. Stop codons. *
B. Anticodons.
C. Replicons. AK
D. Exons.
E. Introns.
14. Different enzymes participate in nucleic acids synthesis in a cell. Which of the below
mentioned enzymes realizes transcription?
A. Aminoacyl- tRNA- synthetase.
B. DNA-dependent-DNA polymerase.
C. DNA-dependent-RNA polymerase. *
D. RNA-dependent-DNA-polymerase.
E. Endonuclease.
15. The information about amino acid sequence in a polypeptide is written as nucleotide
sequence in the DNA molecule. What do we call the unit of genetic code?
A. Codon. *
B. Muton.
C. Transcripton
D. Replicon.
E. Anticodon.
16. Chromosomes disperse to the poles of a human somatic cell during the mitosis
anaphase. How many chromosomes and DNA molecules does the cell have?
A.46 chromosomes, 92 DNA molecules.
B. 92 chromosomes, 92 DNA molecules. *
C. 23 chromosomes, 23 DNA molecules.
D. 46 chromosomes, 46 DNA molecules.
E. 92 chromosomes, 46 DNA molecules.
17. During the postsynthesis period (G2) of interphase a toxic substance inhibited tubulin
proteins synthesis. What process the somatic cell will be disturbed as a result of this event
in the first place?
A. Cytokinesis.
B. Division spindle formation. *
C. Chromosome spiralization.
D. DNA reparation.
E. DNA replication.
18. During the microscopic analysis of fibroblasts division in the cell culture spiralled
chromosomes were found in the equatorial plane of the cell. What mitotic stage is this cell
at?
A. Metaphase. *
B. Telophase.
C. Anaphase.
D. Prophase.
E. Interphase.
19. Ribosome subunits formation was blocked in the cell with the help of some drugs. It will
lead to disturbances in this cell the synthesis of:
A. DNA.
B. RNA.
C. Carbohydrates.
D. Lipids.
E. Proteins. *
20. The hypothesis of lactose operon (Jacob, Mono, 1961) predicted that lactose
penetration into cells can induce the formation of enzymes, which decompose it. In which
cell was this process described first?
A. Fibroblast.
B. Neuron.
C. Hepatocyte.
D. Spermatozoon.
E. Bacteria Escherichia coli. *
21. Some physical factors provoke disturbances in the DNA molecule structure, but by
means of specific enzymes the structure can be renewed. What do we call this process?
A. Replication.
B. Transcription.
C. Translation.
D. Reparation. *
E. Elongation.
22. There are 99 amino acids in the polypeptide synthesized on a ribosome in a liver cell.
What is the number of codons in the messenger RNA molecule, which were used as a
matrix during polypeptide synthesis?
A.33. *
B. 66.
C. 99.
D. 132.
E. 165.
23. The information about polypeptide chain is localized in the gene consisting of 6 introns
and 7 exons. In the process of this polypeptide chain synthesis in a cell participates mRNA,
which consists of nucleotides complementary to:
A.6 introns and 7 exons.
B. 6 introns.
C. 7 exons. *
D. 1 intron.
E. 1 exon.
24. DNA quantity is redoubled in the human somatic cell during the synthesis period (S) of
interphase. How many chromosomes does this cell have at the end of this period?
A. 23.
B. 46. *
C. 69.
D. 92.
E. 184.
25. During the presynthesis period (G1) of interphase, when transcription is taking place in
the human somatic cell, the enzyme of DNA-dependent-RNA-polymerase reached the
specific DNA molecule site; as a result transcription finished. What do we call this site?
A.Stop codon.
B. Regulator.
C. Terminator. *
D. Repressor.
E. Operator.
26. In bacteria a gene-regulator has been released from the repressor; after that
transcription was detected in the cell. What is the chemical nature of the repressor?
A. Carbohydrate.
B. Protein. *
C. Lipid.
D. Nucleic acid.
E. Amino acid.
27.Lysosomes are ball-shaped monomembranous organelles containing hydrolytic
enzymes. Lysosome membranes were broken by a chemical substance in a cell. What can
happen to the cell as a result?
A. Mitosis.
B. Transformation.
C. Autolysis. *
D. Differentiation.
E. Specialization.
28. In order to investigate a karyotype it is necessary to stop mitosis at the metaphase
stage. A substance destroying the spindle of cell division is used for this purpose. What do
we call this substance?
A. Colchicine *
B. Histidine.
C. Adenine.
D. Histamine.
E. Methionine.
29. In the human somatic cell there is an organelle participating in energy accumulation in
the form of high energy adenosine triphosphate bonds. What do we call this organelle?
A.Nucleus.
B. Lysosome.
C. Centriole.
D. Ribosome.
E. Mitochondrion. *
30. There are molecules, which consist of approximately 80 nucleotides. These molecules
are localized in the cytoplasm of both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. What do we call
such molecules?
A.DNA.
B. One DNA chain.
C. Messenger RNA.
D. Ribosomal RNA.
E. Transfer RNA.*
31. Glycocalyx is a fuzzy region on the extracellular side of membrane. Which of the
statements correctly characterizes glycocalyx?
A. It contributes to the polycationic nature of the extracellular membrane surface.
B. It is found on the epithelial cell membrane only.
C. It is partly localized on the cytosolic side of membrane.
D. It includes oligosaccharides bound to lipids and oligosaccharides bound to proteins. *
E. It is not detected with the electron microscope.
32. Proteins are important components of membranes. Which of the statements correctly
characterizes membrane pro- teins?
A. Polypeptide chains can extend across the lipid bilayer in a membrane a different number
of times.
B. Membrane proteins content in cells with different functions is constant.
C. Membrane proteins include integral proteins connected with the components of
extracellular space.
D. Membrane proteins include peripheral proteins connected with phospholipids. *
E. It is possible to remove the proteins from membrane without disturbing its function.
33. Ribosomes participate in protein synthesis. Which of the statements correctly
characterizes the ribosome?
A. It consists of three equal subunits.
B. It moves along transfer RNA and reads genetic information.
C. It is functionally active and synthesizes protein when exists in the form of a single
subunit in the cytoplasm.
D. Each subunit of ribosome consists of ribosomal RNA only.
E. Eukaryotic and prokaryotic ribosomes differ in response to antibiotics.*
34. Centrioles are cytoplasmic organelles. They are necessary to maintain mitosis in animal
cells. Which of the statements Correctly characterizes centrioles?
A. They consist of microtubule doublets only.
B. They are localized in dividing or ciliated cells only.
C. They become parts of the microtubule organizing centers. *
D. They appear in the postsynthesis period (G2) of interphase as a single pair.
E. They are necessary for transcription.
35. The interphase is a very important stage of the cell cycle. Which of the processes takes
place during interphase?
A. Cytokinesis beginning.
B. Sister kinetochores separation.
C. Nucleolus disappearance.
D. DNA replication. *
E. Separation of chromatids towards opposite poles.
Theme 7
39. What cell structure forms the acrosome?
a) Ribosome.
b) Mitochondrion.
c) Lysosome.
d) Golgi apparatus. *
40. At what gametogenesis stage does meiosis take place?
a) Reproduction.
b) Maturation. *
c) Formation.
d) Growth.
41. What male sex cells (both mature and immature) are haploid?
a) Secondary spermatocytes. *
b) Spermatids. *
c) Spermatozoa. *
d) Primary spermatocytes.
42. In what cells of mammals does the first meiotic division take place?
a) Primary spermatocytes.
b) Primary oocytes. *
c) Spermagonia.
d) Oogonia.
43. A spermatozoon is composed of:
a) Acrosome. *
b) Neck. *
c) Head. *
d) Tail. *
e) Jelly coat.
f) Polar body.
44. What immature female sex cells are diploid?
a) Oogonia.
b) Primary oocytes. *
c) Secondary oocytes.
d) Polar bodies.
45. After the first meiotic division the human female sex cells contain the following number
of chromosomes:
a) 23.
b) 46. *
c) 92.
d) 69.
46. After the first meiotic division the human female sex cells contain the following number
of DNA molecules:
a) 23.
b) 46.
c) 92.
d) 69.
47. What is the result of meiosis?
a) The number of chromosomes in each daughter cell is halved. *
b) The number of chromosomes in each daughter cell is diploid.
48. At what stage of meiotic division does crossingover take place?
a) Metaphase I.
b) Anaphase I.
c) Prophase II.
d) Prophase I. *
e) Telophase II.
49. At what spermatogenesis phase does crossingover take place?
a) Multiplication.*
b) Growth. *
c) Maturation.
d) Formation.
50. At what oogenesis phase does mitosis take place?
a) Multiplication. *
b) Growth.
c) Maturation.
Theme 8
30. What mechanism provides genetically identical embryo cells?
a) Mitotic division.
b) Meiosis.
31. Ontogenesis is the:
a) Process of individual organism development.
b) Process of the historical development of living organisms. *
32. The larval type of development is characteristic of species, whose eggs are:
a) Poor in yolk.
b) Rich in yolk. *
33. The non-larval type of development is characteristic of species, whose eggs are:
a) Poor in yolk. *
b) Rich in yolk.
34. Zygote cleavage ends with:
a) Morulation.
b) Gastrulation.
c) Blastula formation. *
35. The type of human ovum is:
a) Secondary isolecithal. *
b) Centrolecithal.
c) Mesolecithal.
d) Telolecithal.
36. The blastula cavity is called:
a) Blastoderm.
b) Blastocele. *
c) Morula.
d) Celom.
37. The second meiotic division of the ovum nucleus normally occurs:
a) Immediately after spermatozoon penetration. *
b) Before spermatozoon penetration.
c) After 2-3 days of spermatozoon penetration.
Theme 9
39. Histogenesis is the process of the formation of:
a) Organs.
b) Tissue.*
40. Provisory organs are:
a) Constant organs.
b) Temporary organs.
c) Embryonic organs. *
41. The process of neural tube formation is called:
a) Delamination.
b) Neurulation. *
c) Segmentation.
42. The type of lancelet gastrulation is:
a) Invagination. *
b) Epiboly.
c) Immigration.
d) Delamination.
43. The type of human gastrulation is:
a) Invagination.
b) Epiboly.
c) Immigration.
d) Delamination. *
44. What tissues originate from the mesoderm?
a) Nerve tissue.
b) Bony tissue.
c) Epithelial tissue.
d)Muscular tissue. *
45. The gastrula upper layer cells of the lancelet embryo are called:
a) Ectoderm. *
b) Endoderm.
c) Mesoderm.
d) Blastoderm.
46. What is the name of chordate animals, who have amnion?
a) Amniotes.*
b) Anamniotes.
47. The type of frog gastrulation is:
a) Invagination.
b) Epiboly. *
c) Immigration.
d) Delamination.
48. What tissues originate from ectoderm?
a) Neural tissue. *
b) Muscular tissue.
c) Osseous tissue.
d) Epithelium of intestine.
Tests problems for Chapter 2
1. Meiosis takes place during gametogenesis and consists of two consecutive divisions that
are called the first and second meiotic divisions. In what human cell does the first meiotic
division take place?
A. Spermatogonium.
B. Secondary spermatocyte.
C. Secondary oocyte.
D. Oogonium.
E. Primary spermatocyte.*
2. The first meiotic division prophase is the longest part of meiosis and consists of five
consecutive stages. At what stage does crossingover take place?
A. Leptotene.
B. Zygotene.
C. Diplotene.
D. Pachytene. *
E. Diakinesis.
3. A typical human spermatozoon consists of a head, a neck, and a tail. There is an acrosome
at the front of the head, it takes part in fertilization. From what organelle does the
acrosome form?
A. Mitochondrion.
B. Peroxisome.
C. Golgi apparatus. *
D. Ribosome.
E. Endoplasmic reticulum.
4. Crossing over takes place during the first meiotic division prophase. Homologous
chromosomes conjugation precedes it. During what stage of the first meiotic division
prophase does homologous chromosomes conjugation begin?
A. Zygotene. *
B. Leptotene.
C. Diplotene.
D. Diakinesis.
E. Pachytene.
5. Fertilization is the process of male and female gametes syngamy. The result of it is the
formation of a zygote with diploid chromosome number. Spermatozoon acrosomal enzyme
participates in the acrosomal reaction in order to provide fertilization. What do we call this
enzyme?
A.DNA-dependent-DNA-polymerase.
B. Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase.
C. Hyaluronidase. *
D. DNA-dependent-RNA-polymerase.
E. Aminoacyl-tRNA-synthetase.
6. During human fertilization a spermatozoon penetrates into a female gamete. What do we
call this cell?
A. Primary polocyte.
B. Primary oocyte.
C. Secondary oocyte. *
D. Ovule.
E. Secondary polocyte.
7. Implantation is embryo attachment to the uterus wall in mammals. On what day after
fertilization does implantation take place in the human body?
A. First.
B. Second.
C. Tenth.
D. Twentieth.
E. Seventh. *
8. There are 24 chromosomes in mature chimpanzee gametes. How many chromosomes
are there in chimpanzee blastomeres?
A. 12.
B. 24.
C. 36.
D. 48. *
E. 60.
9. In a frog embryo there is a plate in the external layer of cells that forms a cavity with
elevations on both sides. Which of the below mentioned frog development stages is it
typical of?
A. Cleavage.
B. Blastula.
C. Morula.
D. Neurula. *
E. Gastrula.
10. The anlage of axis organs begins at a certain stage of human embryonal development.
What do we call this stage?
A. Morula.
B. Blastula.
C. Gastrula.
D. Neurula. *
E. Zygote.
11. Extraembryonic (provisional) organs provide nutrition and gaseous metabolism of the
human embryo. What provisory organ is responsible for the fetus life support in the second
part of pregnancy?
A. Yolk sac.
B. Allantois.
C. Placenta. *
D. Chorion.
E. Amnion.
12. Extraembryonic (provisional) organs provide connection between the environment and
the embryo. What do we call the first hemopoietic organ of the human embryo?
A. Yolk sac. *
B. Placenta.
C. Allantois.
D. Chorion.
E. Amnion.
13. A period of human postembryonic development is characterized by hearing and visual
impairment, skin elasticity decrease. What do we call this period?
A. Adolescence.
B. Juvenile.
C. Youth.
D. First mature.
E. Aging. *
14. A patient has had the liver transplanted in the transplantation center. In order to
prevent graft rejection it is necessary to suppress his graft immunity with the help of:
A. Antiseptics.
B. Antibiotics.
C. Immunostimulants.
D. Immunosuppressants. *
E. Vitamins.
15. Atherosclerosis progress, blood pressure increase, and lung vital capacity decrease are
typical of a specific period of human ontogenesis. What do we call this period?
A. Elderly. *
B. First mature.
C. Juvenile.
D. Youth.
E. Adolescence.
16. Some drugs have no toxic effect on the maternal organism but can disturb the
formation of tissue and organs of ectodermic origin in the human embryo. Which of the
below mentioned fetal organs or systems is sensitive to the antibiotic actinomycin D?
A. Skeleton muscles.
B. Sex glands.
C. Nervous system.
D. Cardiovascular system. *
E. Urogenital system.
17. During human blastogenesis the number of blastomeres rapidly increases. What cell
cycle stage is absent in blastomeres?
A. Presynthesis period (G1) of interphase. *
B. Synthesis period (S) of interphase.
C. Postsynthesis period (G2) of interphase.
D.Telophase of mitosis.
E. Cytokinesis.
18. Human spermatozoon consists of a head, a neck, and a tail. What is the typical size of
this cell?
A. 10-20 micrometers.
B. 52-70 micrometers. *
C. 100-220 micrometers.
D. 520 - 700 micrometers.
E. 1000-2000 micrometers.
19. A patient has had a kidney transplanted in the transplantation center. Some cells of his
immune system can interact with the graft cells. What do we call these immune system
cells?
A.B-lymphocytes.
B. T-lymphocytes. *
C. Lymphoblasts.
D. Macrophages.
E. Plasma cells.
20. Under the influence of a mutagen some nucleotides deletion occurred in the gene
localized in the human oogonium. How many secondary oocytes can receive such a gene?
A.1. *
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.
E. 8.
Theme 10
22. Genotype is the:
a) System of interacting genes in an organism. *
b) Whole complex of signs and properties of an organism.
c) Haploid set of chromosomes.
23. Phenotype is the whole complex of signs and properties of:
a) An organism. *
b) All individuals in a population.
c) All individuals of a species.
24. The part of the chromosome, where the gene is located, is called:
a) Allele.
b) Locus. *
c) Centromere.
d) Nucleotide.
25. Allelic genes are located in:
a) Sex chromosomes.
b) Homologous chromosomes.
c) One chromosome. *
d) Different pairs of chromosomes.
26. An organism with the genotype AABb can form such types of gametes:
a) AB. *
b) Ab. *
c) aB.
d) ab.
27. The position of a gene within a DNA molecule is called:
a) Allele.
b) Locus. *
28. Healthy parents have a child with phenylketonuria. What is the probability of a healthy
child being born in this family?
a) 0 %.
b) 100 %.
c) 75 %.
d) 25 %. *
29. Healthy parents have a child with parahemophilia. What is the probability of a healthy
child being born in this family?
a) 50 %.
b) 0 %.
c) 75 %.
d) 25 %.*
Theme 11
36. What characters are more dependant on environmental conditions?
a) Monogenic. *
b) Polygenic.
37. The multiple effect of a gene is called:
a) Pleiotropy. *
b) Multiple alleles.
c) Complementarity.
d) Polymery.
38. How is the gene depressed by another gene called?
a) Suppressor. *
b) Repressor.
c) Inhibitor.
d) Coinhibitor.
e) Corepressor.
39. What animal characters are polygenic?
a) Lactation.
b) Normal hearing.
c) Feathering coloration. *
40. What blood groups can be in children if both parents have the I (0) blood group in the
AB0 system?
a) I (0). *
b) II (A).
c) III (B).
d) IV (AB).
41. What blood groups can be in children if both parents have the IV (AB) blood group in
the ABO system?
a) I (0).
b) II (A). *
c) III (B). *
d) IV (AB).*
Theme 12
29. In a family the husband with genotype XhY is hemophiliac and the wife with genotype
XHXH is healthy. What genotype can their child have?
a) XHXH
b) XHXh
c) XHY*
d) XhY
e) XhXh
30. What human characters are sex-linked?
a) Hemophilia. *
b) Eye color.
c) Hypertrichosis.
d) Hypertensia.
31. In what process can genes linkage break?
a) Mitosis.
b) Crossing-over. *
c) Meiosis. *
32. Genes are arranged in a chromosome:
a) Irregularly.
b) Orderly.
c) Linearly. *
d) In conglomerations.
e) In a definite locus.
33. What sex is homogametic in human beings?
a) Male.
b) Female. *
c) Both female and male.
34. What characters are limited by sex?
a) Voice timber. *
b) Hypertrichosis.
c) Hemophilia.
d) Skin color.
35. In a family the husband with genotype XdY is color-blind and the wife is healthy and
heterozygous for the gene determining color-blindness. What genotype can their child
have?
a) XDXD
b) XDXd*
c) XDY*
d) XdXd*
e) XdY. *
36. To holandric (Y-linked) characters belongs:
a) Hemophilia. *
b) Hypertrichosis.
C)Ichthyosis.
d) Hair color.
e) Voice timber.
37. The distance between the genes A and B is 10 Morgan units. The distance between the
genes A and C- 18 Morgan units. What distance can be between the genes B and C?
a) 18 Morgan units.
b) 8 Morgan units. *
c) 10 Morgan units.
d) 28 Morgan units.
38. The genes A and B are localized in one of the homologous chromosomes and are
absolutely linked. What types of gametes form in a diheterozygous individual?
a) AB. *
b) Ab.
c) aB.
d) ab.
Theme 13
38. Phenotypic variability is connected with:
a) Changes in genotype.
b) Changes in phenotype only. *
c) Changes in karyotype.
39. As a consequence of combinative variability there arise:
a) Changes in a gene. *
b) Changes in the number of chromosomes.
C) New combinations of genes. *
40. The mutations, which change the number of chromosomes in karyotype, are called:
a) Gene mutations.
b) Chromosome mutations.
C) Genomic mutations. *
41. Genetic variability can be classified as:
a) Environmental variability.
b)Combinative variability. *
c) Mutational variability. *
42. Genomic mutations can be classified as:
a)Polyploidy. *
b) Heteroploidy.
c) Deletion.
d) Translocation.
43. Polyploidy is:
A)Changes in the whole sets of chromosomes.
b) Changes in the gene structure.
C) Changes in the chromosome number. *
44. There are such types of changes in the chromosome structure:
a) Deletion. *
b) Inversion.*
c) Translocation. *
d) Duplication. *
e) Substitution.
f) Polyploidy.
g) Haploidy.
45. What form of gene mutation takes place if a part of nucleotide chain repeats?
a) Substitution.
b) Duplication. *
c) Insertion.
d) Deletion.
e) Inversion.
46. What form of gene mutation takes place if a part of nucleotide chain is removed from
DNA?
a) Substitution.
b) Duplication.
c) Insertion.
d) Deletion. *
e) Inversion.
Theme 14
31. Common fingerprint patterns are:
a) Lines.
b) Arches. *
c) Loops. *
d) Whorls. *
e) Ovals.
f) Spirals.
32. The atd angle in norm should not exceed:
a) 80'.
b) 75°.
c) 57. *
d) 108°.
33. What prevails among fingerprint patterns at the Down's syndrome?
a) Arches.
b) Whorls.
c) Loops. *
d) Loops and arches.
34. Monozygotic twins have:
a) No identical genotypes.
b) Identical genotypes. *
c) Identical fingerprint patterns. *
35. The anlage of fingerprint patterns in fetus development occurs:
a) Between the 2nd and 4th weeks.
b) Between the 6th and 7th weeks.
c) Between the 10th and 19th weeks. *
d) Between the 30th and 32nd weeks.
Theme 15
18. What illnesses have the autosomal-dominant type of inheritance?
a) Hemophilia.
b) Achondroplasia. *
c) Myopia.
d) Congenital deafness.
e) Sickle-cell disease.
f) Color-blindness.
19. What illnesses have the autosomal-recessive type of inheritance?
a) Hemophilia.
b) Albinism. *
c) Myopia.
d) Achondroplasia.
e) Sickle-cell disease. *
f) Color-blindness.
20. What illnesses have the sex-linked type of inheritance?
a) Hemophilia.
b) Color-blindness. *
c) Myopia.
d) Polydactyly.
e) Sickle-cell disease.
f) Ichthyosis.
g) Congenital deafness.
21. During the pedigree analysis a family with a heritable pathology – transgression of
enamel formation it was detected that the disease appeares in each generation. The disease
is transmitted from fathers to daughters. What type of inheritance can we observe in this
case?
a) Dominant, X-linked. *
b) Autosomal-dominant.
c) Autosomal-recessive.
d) Y-linked.
e) Recessive, X-linked.
22. A pedigree analysis showed that the proband's disease occurred in each generation
both in men and women, in a big number of affected sibs. What type of inheritance does it
indicate?
a) Y-linked.
b) Autosomal-recessive. *
c) Dominant, X-linked.
d) Recessive, X-linked.
e) Autosomal-dominant.
23. Due to the results of a pedigree analysis the doctor found out that: a heritable disease
becomes apparent in each generation, male and female relatives inherit this disease with
the same frequency, both parents transmit the disease to their chil- dren. What type of
inheritance does the disease have?
a) Recessive, X-linked.
b) Autosomal-recessive.*
c) Dominant, X-linked.
d) Autosomal-dominant.
e) Y-linked.
Theme 16
15. How many groups of chromosomes are located in the human karyotype according to
the Denver international classifi- cation?
a) 5.
b) 6.
c) 7. *
d) 8.
e) 9.
16. The cytogenetic method is based on:
a) The statistical analysis of genes in a population.
b) The qualitative reactions of metabolic products detected in blood.
c) The microscopic analysis of chromosomes.
17. The human Y-chromosome belongs to:
a) Metacentric.
b) Submetacentric.
c) Acrocentric. *
18. The chromosomes of group A, according to the Denver international classification, are:
a) Metacentric. *
b) Submetacentric. *
c) Acrocentric.
19. The Denver international classification is based on:
a) Chromosome size. *
b) Centromere location.
c) The location of dark and light disks in a chromosome.
20. With the help of the cytogenetic method it is possible to diagnose:
a) Phenylketonuria.
b) Down's syndrome.
c) Patau's syndrome.
d) Klinefelter's syndrome.
21. Sex chromosomes are placed:
a) Only in buccal mucosa epithelium cells.
b) Only in lymphocytes.
c) In all cells of the body. *
d) Only in gametes.
22. Detect the karyotype of a person with the Turner's syndrome:
a) 46, XX.
b) 47, XXY.
c) 45, X. *
d) 47, XXX.
23. Detect the karyotype of a newborn with "cri du chat" syndrome:
a) 47, XXY.
b) 46, XX, 9p+
c) 46, XX, 5p-*
d) 45, X.
24. Detect the karyotype of a person with the Klinefelter's syndrome:
a) 47, XXY. *
b) 47, XXX.
c) 45, X.
d) 46, XX, 5p25. Detect the karyotype of a person with the Patau's syndrome:
a) 46, XX.
b) 47, XX, 18+.
c) 47, XX, 13+ *
d) 47, XY, 13+ *
26. Detect the karyotype of a person with the Edwards' syndrome:
a) 46, XX, 9p+
b) 46, XX, 5pc) 47, XX, 18+*
d) 47, XY, 21+
27. Detect the karyotype of a person with the Down's syndrome:
a) 46, XX.
b) 47, XX, 22+
c) 47, XXX.
d) 47, XX, 21+*
28. A tall mentally retarded man with aggressive behavior, well-developed muscles, normal
sex glands, can have the following karyotype:
a) 47, XXY.
b) 47, XYY. *
c) 47, XX, 21+
d) 45, X.
29. To conduct the cytogenetic analysis one can use:
a) Buccal mucosa epithelium cells. *
b) Bone marrow cells.
c) Peripheral blood cells.
d) Pancreas cells.
e) Hardened epithelium cells.
30. With the help of the cytogenetic method one diagnoses:
a) A multifactorial disease.
b) Hereditary defects of metabolism.
c) Diseases conditioned by the quantity of sex chromosomes. *
d) Diseases conditioned by the change in autosomes quantity. *
31. The fetus' karyotype has been determined by means of amniocentesis method: 47, XX,
21+. What is the possible diagnosis according to the karyotype?
a) Edward's syndrome.
b) Patau's syndrome.
c) "Cri du chat" syndrome.
d) Down's syndrome. *
32. A full diploid chromosome number of a somatic cell is called:
a) Karyotype. *
b) Genotype.
c) Phenotype.
d) Hemizygote.
33. What genetic method makes it possible to determine the karyotype?
a) Cytogenetic. *
b) Biochemical.
c) Pedigree analysis.
d) Twin.
e) Dermatoglyphics.
Theme 17
15. X-chromatin is:
a) A condensed X-chromosome.
b) A noncondensed X-chromosome.
c) A constitutive heterochromatin.
d) A facultative heterochromatin.*
16. In women X-chromatin can be found:
a) Only in sex cells.
b) In somatic cells.
c) Only in nerve cells.
d) In all cells of the body. *
17. In the nuclei of female buccal mucosa epithelium celle two Barr's bodies were detected.
It means that in the karyotype there are:
a) Two X-chromosomes.
b) Three X-chromosomes. *
c) Four X-chromosomes.
d) Five X-chromosomes.
18. In the nuclei of the buccal mucosa epithelium cells of a girl with X-chromosome trisomy
there were detected:
a) Two Barr's bodies.
b) Three Barr's bodies. *
c) Four Barr's bodies.
d) Five Barr's bodies.
19. The method of X-chromatin determination is used for the diagnostics of:
a) Diabetes.
b) Ulcers.
c) Klinefelter's syndrome. *
d) Turner's syndrome.
e) Schizophrenia.
20. The Klinefelter's syndrome is indicated:
a) By detecting X-chromatin in somatic cells. *
b) By detecting Y-chromatin in somatic cells.
c) By detecting the percentage of all somatic cells with Barr's bodies.
d) By using the biochemical method.
e) By using the twin method.
21. One Barr's body in the buccal mucosa epithelium cells can be found in a:
a) Woman with the karyotype 46, XX. *
b) Man with the karyotype 47, XXY.
c) Man with the karyotype 46, XY.
d) Woman with the karyotype 47, XXX.
e) Man with the karyotype 47, XYY.
22. The cells, found in the amniotic fluid, have two Barr's bodies due to the:
a) Trisomy on X-chromosome. *
b) Trisomy of the chromosome from the 21st pair.
c) Monosomy on X-chromosome.
d) Trisomy of the chromosome from the 18th pair.
23. In the nuclei of the buccal mucosa epithelium cells of a ole patient X-chromatin was
found. This is possible in case of:
a) Klinefelter's syndrome. *
b) Turner's syndrome.
c) Patau's syndrome.
d) Edwards' syndrome.
24. The Turner's syndrome can be determined by:
a) Detecting X-chromatin in somatic cells.
b) Biochemical method.
c) Dermatoglyphics method.
d) Pedigree analysis.
25. The Barr's bodies in the nuclei of the buccal mucosa epithelium cells of a man with the
Klinefelter's syndrome are localized:
a) In the pre-membranous region of the nucleus. *
b) In any zone of the karyoplasm. c) Near the nucleus.
d) In the center of the karyoplasm.
26. During the microscopy of the buccal mucosa epithelium cells of a man 30 % of the cells
showed X-chromatin presence. Most likely the diagnosis was:
a) Down's syndrome.
b) Patau's syndrome.
c) Klinefelter's syndrome. *
d) Edwards' syndrome.
27. What is woman's karvotype, if there has not been found a single drumstick in her
neutrophilic leukocytes?
a) 46, XX.
b)45, X. *
c) 47, XXX.
d) 47, XX, 21+
28. In which cells does X-chromatin have the form of drum- sticks?
a) Thrombocytes.
b) Monocytes.
c) Erythrocytes.
d) Segmented neutrophils. *
29. in women with normal karyotype X-chromatin is found in:
a) 0-5 % buccal mucosa epithelium cells.
b) 5-10 % buccal mucosa epithelium cells.
c) 30-35 % buccal mucosa epithelium cells. *
d) 60-70 % buccal mucosa epithelium cells.
30. In a person with the karyotype 48, XXXX in somatic cells nuclei X-chromatin forms:
a) 2 lumps.
b)3 lumps. *
c) 4 lumps.
31. An indication to using the express method of X-chromatin diagnostics is:
a) Chronic kidney disease.
b) Sexual development malfunction in boys. *
c) Amenorrhea in women.
d) Female and male sterility.
32. Most nuclei of buccal mucosa epithelium cells of a man have 2 Barr's bodies. What is the
possible karyotype of the man?
a) 47, XXY.
b) 48, XXXY.*
c) 46, XY.
d) 49, XXXXY.
33. Genetic consultation is to be resorted to if:
a) The age of the future mother is over 35 years. *
b) The age of the future mother is 25 years.
c) There are miscarriages and still-born children in the pregnant woman's anamnesis.
d) The family has a child with a hereditary pathology.
e) The pregnant woman has lived for some time in an area of high radiation pollution.
34. What methods are used in genetic consultation?
a) Pedigree analysis.*
b) Cytogenetic.
e) Dermatoglyphics. d)Biochemical.
e) Hybridologic.
35. The test subject of hereditary pathology biochemical diagnostics can be:
a) Urine.
b) Sweat.
c) Plasma and blood corpuscles.
d) Cell cultures (fibroblasts, lymphocytes). *
e) Lymph.
f) Callous skin epithelium.
36. Prenatal diagnostics is:
a) A number of measures taken for the prevention of children diseases development after
birth.
b) A number of tests, by which it is possible to diagnose a disorder of the embryo or zygote.
c) A number of tests conducted to detect the possibility of diseases development in the
future child.
d) A number of diagnostics used to forecast the health of the future child with burdened
familial history. *
37. The methods of hereditary diseases prenatal diagnostics are:
a) Twin method.
b) Pedigree analysis.
c) Amniocentesis. *
d) Chorion biopsy.
38. The test subject of genetic consultation is a:
a) Gene.
b) Chromosome.
c) Population.
d) Patient.
39. The newborn is possible to have the Edwards' syndrome. This diagnosis can be proven
by the following genetic method:
a) Biochemical. *
b) Cytogenetic.
c) Dermatoglyphics.
d) Pedigree analysis.
Theme 18
15. A population is:
a) All the individuals of different species that have lived for a long time within a specific
territory, area.
b) All the individuals of the same species, which are united by the same gene pool and are
located on a specific territory.*
c) All the individuals that are similar by the main mor- phologic and functional traits, have
the same origin, and inhabit the same territory.
d) All the individuals that are similar by the main mor- phologic and functional traits,
karyotype, behavior reactions, have a common origin, inhabit a specific territory,
reproduce in the natural environment only between each other and have fertile
descendants.
16. Genetic characteristic of a population is:
a) Gene concentration and different genotypes frequency of the population.
b) The allele pool.
c) The phenotype of individuals of the population.
d) The gene pool. *
17. Population genetics is engaged in:
a) Studying the human populations gene pool. *
b) Studying the genotypes frequency in populations.
c) Studying the alleles concentration in the gene pool of a population.
d) Prognosing the frequency of hereditary diseases occurrence in human beings.
e) Diagnosing hereditary diseases in human beings.
18. What is typical of an ideal population?
a) A small number of individuals.
b) Random mating. *
c) Mutations absence. *
d) Natural selection presence.
e) Migration absence.*
19. In a real population:
a) There is no natural selection.
b) There is no gene flow into or out of the population.
c) Mutation processes take place. *
d) There is a large number of individuals.
20. What is the percentage of people with curly hair on the head in the population, where
the concentration of the allele determining the straight hair on the head is 0.6?
a) 36.
b) 84.
c) 48.
d) 16. *
21. What is the concentration of the dominant allele in the population, which consists of 36
% homozygotes AA, 16 % homozygotes aa, and 48 % heterozygotes Aa?
a) 0.40.
b) 0.60. *
c) 0.48.
d) 0.69.
22. The blood group by the MN system depends on the combination of the codominant
genes CM and CN. Detect the frequency of the M blood group in the human population,
where the N blood group frequency is about 0.09 ?
a) 0.7.
b) 0.3.
c) 0.49.
d) 0.42.
23. The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium formula can be used for:
a) Determining the genetic structure of a population.
b) Detecting the frequency of heterozygous carriers of hereditary diseases in a population.
*
c) Hereditary diseases diagnostics.
24. According to the modern theory of evolution a unit of microevolution is:
a) An individual.
b)A population.
c) A class.
d) A species. *
25. According to the modern theory of evolution the factors of microevolution are:
a) Artificial selection.
b) Natural selection. *
c) Genetic drift.
d) Mutations.
e) Gene migrations.
f) Isolation.
26. Population waves are:
a) Decrease of the number of individuals in a population.
b) Increase of the number of individuals in a population.
c) Periodic and nonperiodic changes of the number of individuals in a population.
d) Changes of the genetic structure of a limited population caused by spontaneous factors. *
27. Natural selection forms are:
a) Stabilizing.
b) Directional.
C) Disruptive. *
d) Individual.
28. A form of biological isolation is:
a) Ecological. *
b) Behavioral.
c) Morphophysiological.
d) Genetical.
e) Geographical.
Test problems for chapter 3
1. In case of complete dominance homozygous and heterozygous organisms have the same
phenotype, and in order to determine the organism's genotype the analyzing crossing is
used. If the analyzed organism is heterozygous, the expected distribution of progeny
phenotypes will be:
A.3: 1.
B. 1:2:1.
C. 1:1. *
D. 9:3:3:1.
E. 9: 7.
2. A man and his wife have a light form of sickle-cell disease Their child died from sicklecell disease at the age of 10 years. Which of the below mentioned forms of gene interaction
is the reason for the phenotypical difference between the parents and the child?
A. Codominance.
B. Complete dominance.
C. Overdominance.
D. Incomplete dominance. *
E. Complementarity.
3. A homozygous for a dominant gene organism has a lower degree of sign manifestation
than a heterozygous one. What is the type of gene interaction?
A. Complete dominance.
B. Incomplete dominance.
C. Codominance.
D. Overdominance. *
E. Complementarity.
4. Blood groups of the AB0 system are determined by three alleles of one gene (I 0 , I A , I
B). There are alleles IA and IB in the organism with the IV (AB) blood group. What is the
form of gene interaction in this case?
A.Complete dominance.
B. Polymery.
C. Overdominance.
D. Codominance. *
E. Epistasis.
5. The intensity of human skin pigmentation is controlled by several nonallelic dominant
genes. What is the form of gene interaction in this case?
A. Polymery. *
B. Pleiotropy.
C. Epistasis.
D. Codominance.
E. Complementarity.
6 A deaf and dumb mother has the genotype Aabb, a deaf nd dumb father - aaBB. The child
with normal hearing and genotype AaBb was born to this family. What is the form of gene
interaction in this case?
A. Complete dominance.
B. Incomplete dominance.
C. Codominance.
D. Polymery. *
E. Complementarity.
7. Gene interaction in the form of incomplete dominance was found in the case of a human
hereditary disease. Which of the below mentioned diseases can it be?
A. Albinism.
B. Hemophilia.
C. Daltonism.
D. Phenylketonuria.
E. Cystinuria. *
8. There are several forms of allelic genes interaction. At one of the forms a homozygous
and a heterozygous organisms have the same phenotype. Which of the below mentioned
forms of gene interaction can it be?
A. Complete dominance. *
B. Overdominance.
C. Incomplete dominance.
D. Complementarity.
E. Codominance.
9. In a woman the somatic cell genes A and B are localized in the same chromosome at the
distance of 20 Morgan units. The recessive alleles of the genes are localized in the
homologous chromosome. What is the probability of the formation of a gamete with the
genes A and B in this organism?
A.10 %.
B. 20 %.
C. 40 %. *
D. 80 %.
E. 100 %.
10. A man with a hereditary disease married a healthy woman. They have five children:
three girls and two boys. All girls have the disease of their father. What type of inheritance
can we observe in this case?
A. Dominant, X-linked. *
B. Autosomal-recessive.
C. Autosomal-dominant.
D. Y-linked.
E. Recessive, X-linked.
11. There is one X-chromosome in a male somatic cell. The genes localized in this
chromosome determine the manifestation of respective characters. The man with a normal
karyotype is hemizygous for the gene that determines:
A. Dark eyes.
B. Light hair.
C. Polydactyly.
D. Daltonism.
E. Phenylketonuria. *
12. Hypertrichosis (excessive auricle hairiness) is determined by the gene localized in the
Y-chromosome. What is the probability of a man with hypertrichosis having a son with this
character?
A.0 %.
B. 25 %.
C. 50 %.
D. 75 %.
E. 100 %.*
13. Every chimpanzee somatic cell contains 48 chromosomes, in which genes are localized.
How many genes linkage groups are there in a chimpanzee somatic cell?
A. 48.
B. 24. *
C. 12.
D. 6.
E. 2.
14. Enamel hypoplasia is determined by the dominant gene localized in the X-chromosome.
A wife has normal enamel, but her husband has enamel hypoplasia. What progeny will have
this anomaly?
A. All children.
B. Only daughters. *
C. Only sons.
D. Half of daughters.
E. Half of sons.
15. Chromosomal imbalance can be found at different stages of human individual
development in some cases. At what stage of ontogenesis can karyotype disturbances be
detected most often?
A. Embryonic. *
B. Neonatal.
C. Juvenile.
D. First mature.
E. Aging.
16. According to the chromosome theory of inheritance, a gene is localized in the
chromosome in a definite locus. What do we call the distance between genes in the
chromosome?
A. Morgan unit. *
B. Centimeter.
C. Decimeter.
D. Nanometer.
E. Millimeter.
17. During the investigation of the karyotype of an abortive fetus the trisomy on the
chromosome of the 18th pair was found. How many chromosomes does a somatic cell
include in this case?
A.44.
B. 45.
C. 46.
D. 47. *
E. 48.
18. Laryngeal muscles underdevelopment, psychomotor im- maturity, meowing voice
timbre are typical of "cri du chat" syndrome in a child. The disease the result of:
A.Deletion of the short arm of the chromosome of the 5th pair. *
B. Translocation of the chromosome of the 21st pair on the chromosome of the 5th pair.
C. Duplication of a part of the chromosome of the 5th pair.
D. Deletion of a part of the chromosome of the 21st pair.
E. Inversion of a part of the chromosome of the 5th pair.
19. In a cell under the influence of gamma-radiation a DNA molecule lost 2 nucleotides.
What kind of mutation has taken place?
A. Inversion.
B. Duplication.
C. Deletion. *
D. Polyploidy.
E. Monosomy.
20. In a cell under the influence of gamma-radiation a part of a DNA molecule turned by
180°. What kind of mutation has taken place?
A.Inversion. *
B. Duplication.
C. Deletion.
D. Polyploidy.
E. Translocation.
21. A child with a cleft lip, cleft palate, polydactyly, and microcephaly was born. Her
karyotype is 47, XX, 13'. The disease is the result of:
A. Inversion of a fragment of the chromosome of the 13th pair.
B. Monosomy of the chromosome of the 13th pair.
C. Monosomy of X-chromosome.
D. Polyploidy.
E. Trisomy of the chromosome of the 13th pair. *
22. A healthy woman, who had had rubella during pregnancy, gave birth to a deaf child. The
child's karyotype and genotype are normal. The child's deafness is the manifestation of:
A. Phenocopy. *
B. Gene mutation.
C. Genocopy.
D. Combinative variability.
E. Chromosome aberration.
23. A few thousands of children with extremities underdevelopment or absence were born
in the 1950s in Western Europe by the women, who had taken thalidomide. What nature
did the pathology have?
A. Monosomy.
B. Aneuploidy.
C. Phenocopy. *
D. Triploidy.
E. Gene mutation.
24. There are standard genetics symbols, which are commonly used for pedigree chart and
help to analyze it correctly. A circle or a square with an arrow in a pedigree corresponds to:
A.Sibs.
B. Proband. *
C. Monozygotic twins.
D. Dizygotic twins.
E. Affected person.
25. Pedigree analysis allows determining the type of character inheritance. Which of the
below mentioned human diseases is inherited by autosomal-recessive type?
A. Hemophilia.
B. Daltonism.
C. Ichthyosis.
D. Albinism. *
E. Polydactyly.
26. Parents with normal phenotype gave birth to a boy ill with phenylketonuria. In his
urine and blood phenylpyruvic acid was found. What is the character of phenylketonuria
inheritance?
A. Autosomal-dominant.
B. Recessive, X-linked.
C. Autosomal-recessive. *
D. Y-linked.
E. Dominant, X-linked.
27. On the basis of pedigree analysis a geneticist determined that a character is apparent in
each generation, female and male individuals inherited it equally frequently and
transmitted it to their children. What type of inheritance is it typical of?
A. Autosomal-dominant. *
B. Autosomal-recessive.
C. Recessive, X-linked.
D. Dominant, X-linked.
E. Y-linked.
28. On the basis of pedigree analysis a geneticist determined that in the family ichthyosis is
present in all men and not in women. What type of inheritance does this character have?
A.Y-linked. *
B. Dominant, X-linked.
C. Recessive, X-linked.
D. Autosomal-dominant.
E. Autosomal-recessive.
29. Resistant to vitamin D treatment rachitis is determined by a dominant gene, which is
localized in the X-chromosome. A healthy woman gave birth to a girl with the disease. The
irl's father suffered from it in childhood. What genotype does the girl have?
A. XAXa*
B. AA.
C. Aa.
D. XaXa
E. X4XA.
30. Amongst dermatoglyphics characteristics the atd palmar angle is one of the most often
used by medical geneticists for analysis. A normal atd palmar angle should not exceed:
A. 57'. *
B. 78°.
C. 80°.
D. 100°.
E. 110°.
31. Dactyloscopy investigates the skin patterns of fingers. Identical skin pattern of all
respective finger pairs is typical of:
A. A sister and a brother. *
B. Monozygotic twins.
C. Dizygotic twins.
D. Any twins.
E. Cousins.
32. A medical geneticist investigated the contribution of genotype and environmental
factors in the formation of normal and pathological human characters. What genetic
method does he have to apply to make correct conclusions?
A. Twin method.
B. Biochemical. *
C. Cytogenetic.
D. Population statistics.
E. Pedigree analysis.
33. During the clinical examination of a patient some features typical of the Turner's
syndrome were found by a physician. What genetic method can confirm the diagnosis?
A. Pedigree analysis.
B. Cytogenetic. *
C. Twin method.
D. Biochemical.
E. Population statistics.
34. The amniotic fluid contains proteins, carbohydrates, mineral salts, hormones, urea, and
discarded fetus cells. These cells may be used to determine the fetus sex. What genetic method can be applied in this case?
A.Biochemical.
B. Somatic cells hybridization.
C. Cytogenetic.
D. Hybridologic. *
E. Pedigree analysis.
35. In the genetic consultation a 2-year-old boy was preliminarily diagnosed with the
Down's syndrome. What genetic method can confirm this diagnosis?
A.Biochemical.
B. Pedigree analysis.
C. Population statistics.
D. Hybridologic.
E. Cytogenetic. *
36. A 3-year-old girl had her karyotype studied during genetic counseling and was
diagnosed with the Turner's syndrome. What karyotype does the girl have?
A. 45, X. *
B. 46, XX.
C. 47, XXY.
D. 46, XY.
E. 47, XX, 13+.
37. During fetus karyotype investigation 69 chromosomes were found in somatic cells.
Which of the below mentioned genetic methods was used?
A. Hybridologic.
B. Pedigree analysis.
C. Biochemical.
D. Dermatoglyphics.
E. Cytogenetic. *
38. “Cri du chat" syndrome is characterized by the meowing voice timbre of the child. This
feature is the most specific for the disease resulting from the deletion of the short arm of
the chromosome of the 5th pair. What genetic method can confirm the diagnosis of the
disease?
A. Biochemical.
B. Cytogenetic.
C. Pedigree analysis.
D. Population statistics.
E. Hybridologic. *
39. The analysis of the man's buccal mucosa epithelium cells shows that the majority of the
cells have one Barr's body each. What is the karyotype of this man?
A. 45, X.
B. 46, XY.
C. 47, XXY.
D. 48, XXXY. *
E. 49, XXXXY.
40. The examination has shown that a 30-year-old woman has wide thorax and shoulders, a
narrow pelvis, "sphinx' neck", underdeveloped ovaries and mammary glands. There were
no Barr's bodies in her buccal mucosa epithelium cells. What did the doctor diagnose?
A. Turner's syndrome. *
B. Klinefelter's syndrome.
C. Patau's syndrome.
D. Down's syndrome.
E. Edwards' syndrome.
41. The dominant allele of the gene determines dark, the recessive light color of human
eyes. The concentration of this dominant gene allele in a certain human population is 0.6.
The percent of people with dark eyes in this population is the following:
A. 100.
B. 90.
C. 84. *
D. 64.
E. 8.
42. The population statistics method is widely used by medi- cal geneticists. It allows
determining:
A. The age structure of a population.
B. The sex structure of a population.
C. The character of a definite pathology in an individual in a population.
D. The character of a definite pathology in a group of persons in a population.
E. The concentration of gene alleles in a population.*
43. Fetus somatic cells were obtained from the amniotic fluid and analyzed using the
cytogenetic method. The following fetus' karyotype was determined: 47, XX, 13+. What
syndrome is it typical of?
A. Patau's syndrome. *
B. Edwards' syndrome.
C. Turner's syndrome.
D. "Cri du chat" syndrome.
E. Down's syndrome.
44. Galactosemia is a disease provoked by a metabolic disorder and has autosomalrecessive character. After the examination of a child the doctor suspected galactosemia.
What genetic method can confirm this diagnosis?
A. Twin method.
B. Cytogenetic.
C. Population statistics.
D. Biochemical.*
E. Hybridologic.
45. The parents of a newborn came for advice to a genetic consultation. The Patau's
syndrome is suspected in their child. What genetic method can confirm this diagnosis?
A.Pedigree analysis.
B. Biochemical.
C. Cytogenetic. *
D. Population statistics.
E. Twin method.
46. The mass of heterochromatin localized against the nuclear membrane in nucleated cells
is called the Barr's body. Which of the statements characterizes the Barr's body correctly?
A.It is found in germ cells.
B. It is used for the determination of X-chromosomes number in cell. *
C. It is similar in a normal female and a patient with the Turner's syndrome.
D. It is not detected in normal females.
E. It corresponds to the inactivated Y-chromosome.
47. Phenylketonuria is an autosomal-recessive disease. Patient's mental retardation is
typical of this disease. Parents with normal phenotypes were informed that their third son
has phenylketonuria. What is the probability of their next child to have this disease?
A. 100 %.
B. 75 %.
C. 50 %. *
D. 25 %.
E. 0 %.
48. Many diseases developing in adults are multifactorial. Coronary artery disease and
hypertension are among them. Multifactorial characters result from:
A. Multiple environmental factors during postnatal development.
B. Multiple environmental factors during prenatal and postnatal development.
C. Multiple genes independent from environmental factors.
D. Genes interaction.
E. The interaction between environmental and multiple genes. *
49. The parents of an ill child came for advice to a genetic consultation. Their son has
development delay and unusual behavior. The examination has shown loose joints, large
ears, a prominent jaw, large testes for the age. The doctor recommended child's karyotype
investigation because the child has several characteristics typical of:
A.Klinefelter's syndrome.
B. Turner's syndrome.
C. Patau's syndrome.
D. Marfan's syndrome.
E. Chromosomal disease. *
50. It was found that in a human population the frequency of newborns with an autosomalrecessive disease - galactosemia is approximately 1 per 40000 ̟live newborns. What is the
approximate frequency of heterozygotes (carriers of the gene responsible for galactosemia
development) in this population?
A.0.0001.
B. 0.001.
C. 0.005.
D.0.01. *
E. 0.02.
Theme 19
30. The methods, used in modern ecology, are:
a) Environmental parameters measurement. *
b) Modelling.
c) Experimental.
d) Microscopic.
31. Primary producers are:
a)Autotrophs. *
b) Heterotrophs.
c) Mixotrophs.
d) Saprotrophs.
e) Coprophages.
f) Necrophages.
32. The amount of dry organic substance, created in an ecosystem or its part for certain
time on a certain area, is called:
a) Biomass. *
b) Bioproductivity. *
c) Biotransformation.*
33. Ecosystems are classified into:
a) Primary.
b) Secondary.
c) Tertiary.
d) Natural. *
e) Anthropogenic. *
34. Name the reaction of plants and animals to the duration of daylight hours:
a) Cryptobiosis.
b) Anabiosis.
c) Thermoregulation.
d) Photoperiodism. *
35. Name the organism condition, in which the vital activity procceses are decreased:
a) Death.
b) Anabiosis. *
c) Thermoregulation.
d) Photoperiodism.
36. How does high temperature affect the life processes of warm-blooded animals?
a) Increases heat emission processes. *
b) Decreases heat emission processes. *
c) Decreases thermogenesis.
d) Increases thermogenesis.
e) Starts hibernation.
f) Changes day activity.
37. How does low temperature affect the life processes of belles warm-blooded animals?
a) Increases heat emission processes. *
b) Decreases heat emission processes. *
c) Decreases thermogenesis.
d) Increases thermogenesis
e) Changes day activity.
38. Photoperiodism is:
a) The organism's reaction to the change of the time of the year.
b) The organism's reaction to the periodic changes of day and night duration.*
c) The organism's reaction to the changes of light and dark periods during a day.
39. Biosphere consists of the following Earth lavere.
a) Atmosphere.
b) Troposphere.
c) Lithosphere. *
d) Hydrosphere. *
e) Ionosphere.
f) Stratosphere.
40. Which factor is limiting for the upper bound of the atmosphere?
a) Water.
b) Air. *
c) Temperature.
d) Ultraviolet rays.
41. Which factor is limiting for the lower bound of life in the lithosphere?
a) Air. *
b) Water. *
c) Temperature. *
42. What are the living organisms, which eat tiny particles sefo of organic remains, called?
a) Coprophages.
b) Necrophages.
C) Detritophages. *
d) Predators.
e) Phytophages.
43. What is the group of interrelated plant organisms called?
a) Zooplankton.
b) Biocenosis.
c) Ecosystem.
d) Phytocenosis. *
e) Phytobenthos.
44. Determine the type of interrelations between organisms of different species, which is
beneficial for both partners:
a) Mutualism. *
b) Parasitism.
c) Commensalism.
45. Determine the type of interrelations between organisms of different species, which is
beneficial for one species and inessential for the other species:
a) Mutualism.
b) Parasitism.
c) Commensalism. *
46. Determine the type of interrelations between organisms of different species, which is
beneficial for one species but injurious for the other species:
a) Mutualism.
b) Parasitism. *
c) Commensalism.
47. What is a complex of parasitic species, which inhibit the host body, called?
a) Biocenosis.
b) Ecosystem.
c) Biotope.
d) Parasitocenosis. *
48. What trophic level in the food chain do coprophages occupy?
a) Producers.
b) Consumers.
c) Decomposers. *
49. What trophic level in the food chain do necrophages occupy?
a) Producers.
b) Consumers.
c) Decomposers. *
50. What trophic level in the food chain do detritophages occupy?
a) Producers.
b) Consumers.
c) Decomposers.*
Theme 20
1. What are the organisms, for which the parasitic way of life is the only form of existence,
called?
a) Facultative parasites.
b) Temporary parasites.
c) Endoparasites.
d) obligatory parasites. *
2. What characters are common for protozoa?
a) Pellicle presence.
b) Cuticle presence.
c) Movement organoids presence. d) Nucleoid presence.
e) Presence of a cellular mouth and a cellular pharynx.
f) The ability to produce cysts. *
3. What abilities are common for protozoa?
a) Osmotic nutrition.
b) Irritability.
c) Breathing. *
d) Eggs production.
e) Cysts production.
f) Reproduction.
4. For temporary parasites the host is a:
a) Food source. *
b) Permanent place of existence.
c) Place of reproduction.
5. Entamoeba histolytica is a:
a) Obligate parasite. *
b) Facultative parasite.
c) Endoparasite.
d) Ectoparasite.
e) Temporary parasite.
6. Entamoeba gingivalis consumes:
a) Erythrocytes.
b) Leukocytes.
c) Bacteria.
d) Epithelial cells. *
7. What is found during the microscopic analysis of feces in the course of balantidiasis?
a) Mucus.
b) Blood.
c) Pus.
d) Parasite in the form of a cyst. *
e) Parasite in the vegetative form. f) Damp mucus.
8. Which amebas are pathogenic for human beings?
a) Entamoeba histolytica. *
b) Entamoeba coli.
c) Entamoeba gingivalis.
9. Pseudopodia in amebas provide the function of:
a) Movement. *
b) Defense.
c) Reproduction. *
d) Enzymes excretion.
e) Food capturing.
10. Balantidium coli has:
a) Two pulsing vacuoles.
b) Two nuclei.
c) One nucleus.
d) Doesn't have any nuclei.
e) Cilia. *
f) A flagellum.
11. Balantidium coli is localized in the human body in the:
a) Small intestine.
b) Large intestine. *
c) Liver.
d) Heart.
12. The source of invasion of balantidiasis can be:
a)Pigs. *
b) Dogs.
c) Cats.
d) Cattle.
13. Human beings coli has: can catch amebiasis through:
a) Skin.
b) Unwashed vegetables.
c) Water. *
d) Meat.
14. Cysts can be formed by:
a) Entamoeba coli.
b) Entamoeba gingivalis.
c) Entamoeba histolytica (magna form). *
d) Entamoeba histolytica (minuta form).
e) Balantidium coli.
15. Entamoeba gingivalis in the human body is localized in the:
a) Small intestine.
b) Large intestine.
c) Decayed teeth.
d) Plaque on teeth. *
16. Public prophylaxis of amebiasis consists in:
a) Water purification.
b) Water supply control.
c) Protection from blood sucking insects.
d) Heat treatment of food and water.*
17. What is the function of the micronucleus in Balantidium coli?
a) Carries hereditary information.
b) Takes part in the growth process.
c) Takes part in the reproduction process.*
18. Entamoeba coli:
a) Has a light-sensitive eye.
b) Has a constant body shape.
c) Creates pseudopodia. *
d) Has chromatophores.
e) Creates a digestive vacuole.
19. Entamoeba histolytica has such forms:
a) Magna form. *
b) Minuta form. *
c) Cyst.
d) Pseudocyst.
20. Undigested particles are excreted from the body of balantidium coli through:
a) Cytostome.
b) Cytopharynx.
c) Cytoproct. *
d) Any place of the cell.
21. Hard particles in Entamoeba coli are excreted through:
a) Cytostome. *
b) Cytopharynx.
c) Cytoproct.
d) Any place in the cytoplasmic membrane.
Theme 21
1. Giardia lamblia is localized in the:
a) Small intestine. *
b) Large intestine.
c) Larynx.
d) Liver.
e) Stomach.
f) Pancreas.
2. The agent of African trypanosomiasis is:
a) Trypanosoma gambiense. *
b) Trypanosoma rhodesiense. *
c) Trypanosoma cruzi.
3. What can be found in the feces of a sick person?
a) Leishmania tropica.
b) Trichomonas vaginalis. *
c) Giardia lamblia. *
d) Toxoplasma gondii.
e) Trichomonas hominis. *
4. Toxoplasma gondii has:
a) One nucleus. *
b) Two nuclei.
c) Many nuclei.
d) A conoid.
e) Pseudopodia.
f) A flagellum.
5. The temporary host of Plasmodium ovale is a:
a) Human being.
b) Mammal. *
c) Tsetse fly.
d) Sandfly.
e) Mosquito.
6. Human beings can catch lambliasis through:
a) Unwashed hands.
b) Unwashed vegetables and fruits. *
c) Unchecked meat.
d) Rotten fish.
e) Unboiled water.
7. What can be localized in the human intestine?
a) Trichomonas hominis. *
b) Leishmania tropica.
c) Trichomonas vaginalis. *
d) Giardia lamblia. *
e) Toxoplasma gondii.
8. The human brain and eyes can be affected by:
a) Trichomonas vaginalis.
b) Giardia lamblia.
c) Toxoplasma gondii. *
9. Which of the below mentioned animals most probably can have cysts?
a) Trichomonas hominis.
b) Trichomonas vaginalis.
c) Giardia lamblia. *
10. Cutaneous leishmaniasis is transmitted by:
a) Anopheles representatives.
b) Culex representatives.
c) Aedes representatives.
d) Phlebotomus representatives.*
e) Glossina representatives.
11. Personal preventive measures of toxoplasmosis include:
a) Washing hands before eating. *
b) Restricted contacts with cats.
c) Heat treatment of food and water. *
d) Water purification.
12. Leishmania tropica is localized in:
a) Skin cells.
b) Viscera cells.
c) Blood cells. *
d) Nerve cells.
13. Trichomonas vaginalis in the human body causes:
a) Large liver and spleen mass.
b) Depression and sleepiness.
c) Inflammatory processes in the reproductive tracts. *
d) Anemia.
e) Diarrhea.
14. During the laboratory diagnostics of malaria in human blood there are found:
a) Schizonts. *
b) Gametocytes.
c) Sporozoites.
d) Macro- and microgametes.
e) Ookinetes.
f) Pseudocysts.
g) Endozoites.
15. The specificity of malaria prophylaxis includes:
a) Finding and treating all the affected persons.
b) Mosquitoes extermination.
c) Protection from mosquito bites.*
d) Taking antimalarial medicine with prophylactic effects.
e) Personal hygiene.
16. Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium malariae, Plasmodium falciparum, Plasmodium ovale
differ in:
a) Morphology.
b) Carriers.
c) Constant and temporary hosts.
d) The duration of development in the temporary host body.*
e) The character of the disease.
17. The erythrocyte cycle of shizogony in Plasmodium malariae lasts:
a) 24 hours.
b) 48 hours.
c) 72 hours. *
d) 96 hours.
18. Plasmodium vivax merozoites in human blood can change into:
a) Schizonts.
b) Gametocytes.*
c) Sporozoites.
d) Pseudocysts.
e) Endozoites.
19. For Giardia lamblia the following morphologic specificity is typical:
a) 10-20 µm in size.
b) 70–100 µm in size.
c) A pear-shaped body. *
d) An oval body.
e) Paired organoids and nuclei.
f) Not paired organoids and nuclei.
g) A flagellum.
h) Four pairs of flagella. *
20. Pseudocysts formation is common for:
a) Trichomonas hominis.
b) Trichomonas vaginalis.
c) Giardia lamblia.
d) Toxoplasma gondii. *
21. Vaccination is the prophylaxis of:
a) Giardiasis. *
b) Trichomoniasis.
c) Toxoplasmosis.
d) Cutaneous leishmaniasis.
22. The final host of Toxoplasma gondii is a:
a) Stray cat. *
b) Human being.
c) Mouse.
d) Hen.
e) Rabbit.
23. Visceral leishmaniasis prophylaxis consists of:
a) Mosquitoes extermination. *
b) Taking measures against flies and cockroaches. *
c) Taking measures against rodents.
d) Personal hygiene.
e) Stray dogs capture.
Theme 22:
1. Fasciola hepatica marita is localized in the liver of :
a) Cattle*
b) Human beings.*
c) The snail Lymnaea truncatula
đ) Dogs.
e) Small cattle. *
2. The invasive stage of what parasite can get into the human lungs in the percutaneous
way?
a) Fasciola hepatica.
b) Opisthorchis felineus.
c) Paragonimus ringeri. *
d) Schistosoma japonicum. *
e) Clonorchis sinensis.
3. The digestive system of trematodes:
a) Is absent. *
b) Consists of two parts. *
c) Consists of three parts.
4. The body cavity of trematodes:
a) Is absent. *
b) Is primary.
c) Is secondary.
d) Is mixed.
5. A trematode is a:
a) One-layer animal.
b) Two-layer animal.
c) Three-layer animal. *
6. For trematodes the following external features are common:
a) Flat body.
b) Leaf-like body.
c) Thread-like body.
d) Presence of suckers.
7. Human beings' invasion with fascioliasis happens through:
a) Water. *
b) Dirty hands. *
c) Dirty vegetables and fruits.
d) Consuming raw or not enough cooked fish. *
e) Consuming raw crawfish and crabs.
8. In the human bile ducts there can be found:
a) Paragonimus ringeri. *
b) Opisthorchis felineus.
c) Clonorchis sinensis.
d) Dicrocoelium lanceatum. *
e) Schistosoma haematobium. *
9. The invasive for human beings stage of Fasciola hepar is called:
a) Miracidium.
b) Sporocyst. *
c) Redia. *
d) Metacercaria. *
e) Cercaria.
10. Which trematodes have two hosts in their life cycle?
a) Fasciola hepatica.
b) Opisthorchis felineus.
c) Dicrocoelium lanceatum.
d) Paragonimus ringeri. *
e) Metagonimus yokogawai.
f) Nanophyetes salmincola.
11. By which trematodes is it possible to be invaded when eating raw fish?
a) Fasciola hepatica. *
b) Opisthorchis felineus. *
c) Dicrocoelium lanceatum. *
d) Paragonimus ringeri.*
e) Metagonimus yokogawai. *
f) Nanophyetes salmincola.*
12. By which trematodes is it possible to be invaded when eating raw crawfish?
a) Fasciola hepatica. *
b) Opisthorchis felineus. *
c) Dicrocoelium lanceatum.
d) Nanophyetes salmincola.
e) Metagonimus yokogawai.
f) Paragonimus ringeri.
13. Blood flukes oviposit in the:
a) Bronchioles.
b) Intestines. *
c) Blood vessels.
d) Bile ducts.
e) Muscles.
14. Cercaria penetrates into the human body:
a)Actively. *
b) Passively.
c) Transmissibly.
15. Schistosoma haematobium is localized in the:
a) Abdominal cavity veins.
b) Urogenital system veins. *
c) Intestine blood vessels.
16. What are the sizes of the marita of Fasciola hepatica?
a) 3-5 mm.
b) 30-50 cm.
c) 3-5 cm. *
d) 10 mm.
17. The fertilization and final development of flukes' eggs takes place in the:
a) Ovary.
b) Yolk reservoir.
c) Ootype.
d) Uterus. *
18. Which trematodes are not hermaphroditic?
a) Fasciola hepatica.
b) Dicrocoelium lanceatum.
c) Opisthorchis felineus.
d) Schistosoma haematobium. *
e) Schistosoma mansoni. *
f) Schistosoma japonicum. *
g) Paragonimus ringeri.
h) Clonorchis sinensis.
19. The first intermediate host of Dicrocoelium lanceatum is:
a) Zebrina snail representative.
b) Helicela snail representative. *
c) Melania snail representative.
d) Galba truncatula snail.
e) Formica ant representative.
20. The intermediate host of Clonorchis sinensis is a:
a) Mollusc. *
b) Fish. *
c) Crayfish.
d) Crab.
e) Ant.
21. During the diagnostics of urogenital schistosomiasis the eggs of Schistosoma
haematobium can be found:
a) Only in night urine.
b) Only in morning urine.
c) Only in day urine. *
d) In feces.
e) In phlegm.
22. The cercaria of which trematode is an invasive stage for human beings?
a) Fasciola hepatica.
b) Opisthorchis felineus.
c) Paragonimus ringeri.
d) Schistosoma haematobium. *
e) Clonorchis sinensis.
23. The invasive for human beings stage of Opisthorchis felineus is called:
a) Redia.
b) Metacercaria. *
c) Miracidium.
d) Sporocyst.
e) Cercaria.
24. Which schistosoma lay their eggs in the human intestine veins?
a) Schistosoma haematobium.
b) Schistosoma mansoni. *
c) Schistosoma japonicum. *
25. The individual prophylaxis of opisthorchiasis is based on:
a) Individual hygiene.
b) Consuming well-cooked fish.
c) Consuming well-cooked crabs.
d) Consuming boiled water.
e) Consuming well-cooked meat.
Theme 23:
1. Human beings can be invaded by Hymenolepis nana through:
a) Dirty hands. *
b) Half-cooked meat.
c) Fish.
d) Unwashed fruits and vegetables. *
2. The final host of Taenia solium is a:
a) Man. *
b) Pig.
c) Dog.
d) Cat.
3. The intermediate host of Taenia solium is a:
a) Pig. *
b) Dog. *
c) Cat.
d) Cow.
e) Man. *
4. In human beings Hymenolepis nana parasitizes in the:
a) Small intestine. *
b) Large intestine.
c) Liver.
d) Pancreas.
5. A cysticercus is a:
a) Cyst with a couple of scoleces inside.
b) Cyst filled with liquid, with scoleces of the same structure as the mature ones. *
c) Big mother cyst with smaller cysts inside.
d) Wormlike cyst.
6. People, who consume half-cooked fish, can be invaded by:
a) Echinococcus granulosus.
b) Alveococcus multilocularis.
c) Hymenolepis nana.
d) Diphyllobothrium latum. *
e) Taenia solium.
7. In man the hydatid cyst stage of Echinococcus granulosus can be localized in the:
a) Small intestine.
b) Large intestine.
c) Liver. *
d) Pancreas.
e) Lungs. *
8. The invasive stage for the first intermediate host of phyllobothrium latum is:
a) Coracidium. *
b) Procercoid.
c) Plerocercoid.
d) Cysticercus.
e) Egg.
9. The final host of Echinococcus granulosus is a:
a) Dog. *
b) Wolf. *
c) Pig.
d) Man.
e) Cow.
f) Fox. *
10. The intermediate host of Alveococcus multilocularis is:
a) Mice.
b) Men.
c) Dogs.
d) Cats.
e) Foxes.
11. Human beings can be invaded by Diphyllobothrium latum through:
a) Consuming freshly salted caviar. *
b) Unwashed vegetables.
c) Dirty hands.
d) Not enough thermal treatment of fish. *
e) Water.
12. The diagnostics of the disease caused by Echinococcus granulosus hydatid cyst is
performed by:
a) Serologic examination. *
b) Radiological examination. *
c) Microscopic analysis of feces.
d) Microscopic analysis of urine.
e) Tomography.
13. Public prevention of echinococcosis includes:
a) Washing hands before eating after contacts with dogs.
b) Thermal treatment of fish.
c) Restriction of raw meat consumption.
d) Treatment and diagnostics of dogs. *
e) Restriction of feeding dogs with slain animals viscera. *
14. Adult fish tapeworm Diphyllobothrium latum is parasitic on:
a) Cattle.
b) Men.
c) Fish. *
d) Minks.
e) Rodents.
f) Bears.
g) Cats. *
h) Foxes. *
15. Which parasite has two intermediate hosts?
a) Hymenolepis nana. *
b) Taenia solium.
c) Taenia saginata.
d) Diphyllobothrium latum.
16. In man cysticercosis is the result of autoinvasion by:
a) Diphyllobothrium latum.
b) Taenia solium. *
c) Taenia saginata.
d) Hymenolepis nana.
17. Taenia solium proglottids differ from Taenia saginata proglottids by the following
features:
a) The presence of two parts of the ovary.
b) The presence of the third part of the ovary.
c) The presence of 7-12 uterus branches in mature forms.
d) The presence of 17-35 uterus branches in mature forms. *
e) The number of testes is about several hundreds.
18. The processes of normal hemopoiesis in the host body are disordered in case of
parasitizing of:
a) Echinococcus granulosus.*
b) Taenia solium.
c) Taenia saginata.
d) Diphyllobothrium latum.
19. Mature proglottids of what cestodes can actively crawl out of the human anus ?
a) Alveococcus multilocularis.
b) Taenia saginata. *
c) Hymenolepis nana.
d) Diphyllobothrium latum.
20. Human beings can be only the intermediate host for:
a) Hymenolepis nana. *
b) Taenia solium.
c) Echinococcus granulosus. *
d) Alveococcus multilocularis.
21. For the individual prevention of the invasion of Taenia solium it is necessary to:
a) Clean the apartment.
b) Treat pork thermally before consumption. *
c) Wash vegetables and fruit.
d) Wash hands before eating.
22. A strobila of Echinococcus granulosus has:
a) 100 and more individual segments.
b) 3-4 individual segments. *
c) 5-7 individual segments.
d) 50-70 individual segments.
Theme 24:
1. Trichuris trichiura is localized in the human:
a) Small intestine.
b) Large intestine. *
c) Liver.
d) Pancreas.
2. Enterobius vermicularis is localized in the human:
a) Small intestine. *
b) Large intestine.
c) Liver.
d) Spleen.
3. The parasites living in the human organs and using blood as the feed source are:
a) Ascaris lumbricoides.
b) Enterobius vermicularis.
c) Trichuris trichiura.
d) Trichinella spiralis. *
4. Invasive maturity is reached in soil by the eggs of the:
a) Intestinal roundworm Ascaris lumbricoides.
b) Pinworm Enterobius vermicularis.*
c) Whipworm Trichuris trichiura.
d) Trichina worm Trichinella spiralis.
5. Trichinella spiralis larvae can be detected in the human body in the:
a) Striated muscles.
b) Intestine wall muscles. *
c) Brain.
d) Liver.
6. The laboratory diagnostics of trichinosis is based on:
a) Feces microscopy.*
b) Muscle biopsy.
c) Serologic procedures results.
d) Blood samples microscopy. *
7. To geohelminths belongs the:
a) Intestinal roundworm Ascaris lumbricoides. *
b) Whipworm Trichuris trichiura. *
c) Pinworm Enterobius vermicularis.
d) Trichina worm Trichinella spiralis.
e) Guinea worm Dracunculus medinensis.
8. A mature whipworm Trichuris trichiura localizes in the human:
a) Pancreas.
b) Small intestine.
c) Large intestine. *
d) Bile ducts.
9. Preventive measures of trichinosis include:
a) Washing hands before eating. *
b) Thermal treatment of fruit and vegetables.
c) Thermal treatment of pork.
d) Sanitary surveillance of meat.
10. Larvae of Ascaris lumbricoides can get into the human:
a) Cardiac muscle.
b) Bronchi. *
c) Diaphragm.
d) Skeletal muscles.
11. The duration of Enterobius vermicularis parasitism in she human intestine without
retroinfection does not exceed:
a) 1 week.
b) 1 month. *
c) 1 year.
d) 4-5 years.
12. Among the mentioned nematodes development without migration is typical of the:
a) Intestinal roundworm Ascaris lumbricoides.
b) Whipworm Trichuris trichiura.
c) Old World hookworm Ancylostoma duodenale. *
d) Threadworm Strongyloides stercoralis.
13. Among nematodes the facultative parasite is the:
a) Trichina worm Trichinella spiralis. *
b) Intestinal roundworm Ascaris lumbricoides.
c) Guinea worm Dracunculus medinensis.
d) Threadworm Strongyloides stercoralis.
14. Autoinfection is possible in case of:
a) Ascariasis.
b) Enterobiasis.
c) Thrichuriasis.
d) Dracunculiasis. *
15. People can catch the guinea worm Dracunculus medinensis during:
a) Drinking unfiltered water.
b) Eating raw or half-cooked meat.
c) Contacting sick domestic animals.
d) Swimming in open water. *
16. To biohelminths belongs:
a) Loa loa. *
b) Ascaris lumbricoides.
c) Dracunculus medinensis. *
d) Strongyloides stercoralis.
17. Mature Trichinella spiralis larvae can live in the human small intestine during:
a) 2-3 weeks. *
b) 1.5-2 months.
c) 5 months.
d) 1 month.
18. For the diagnostics of the invasion of the Old World hook- worm Ancylostoma
duodenale the following method is employed:
a) Investigation of mucus concerning the presence of parasites' eggs in it.
b) Stool examination concerning the presence of parasites' eggs and larvae. *
c) Immunodiagnostics.
d) X-ray investigation.
19.After migration in the human body the larva of Ascaris lumbricoides changes into the
mature form within:
a) 1 week.*
b) 1 month.
c) 2.5–3 months.
d) 1 year.
20. To transmittable nematodosis belongs:
a) Trichinosis.
b) Ascariasis.
c) Loiasis. *
d) Onchocerciasis. *
21. Mosquitoes of the genera Anopheles and Aedes are the temporary hosts for:
a) Strongyloides stercoralis.
b) Necator americanus.
c) Loa loa.
d) Wuchereria bancrofti.*
Theme 25:
1. Fascioliasis diagnosis is based on the examination of:
a) Urine. *
b) Feces.
c) Mucus.
d) Blood.
2. Barrel shape, thick wall, and two prominent plugs at the ends are typical of the eggs of:
a) Ascaris lumbricoides.
b) Trichuris trichiura. *
c) Ancylostoma duodenale.
d) Trichinella spiralis.
3. On the human skin within 4-6 hours the invasive maturity can be reached by the eggs of:
a) Trichuris trichiura.
b) Fasciola hepatica.
c) Dracunculus medinensis.
d) Enterobius vermicularis. *
4. The eggs of which helminth are not excreted with human feces?
a) Ascaris lumbricoides.
b) Trichuris trichiura.
c) Trichinella spiralis. *
d) Echinococcus granulosus.
5. Yellow-colored eggs belong to:
a) Fasciola hepatica. *
b) Enterobius vermicularis.
c) Trichuris trichiura.
d) Diphyllobothrium latum.
6. In the feces of a person sick with a disease provoked by helminths can be found the eggs
of:
a) Trichuris trichiura. *
b) Ascaris lumbricoides.
c) Echinococcus granulosus.
d) Opisthorchis felineus.
e) Alveococcus multilocularis.
7. The microscopic analysis of perianal samples has detected colorless ovoid and flattened
on one side eggs sized 50×25 µm. These eggs belong to:
a) Ascaris lumbricoides.
b) Enterobius vermicularis. *
c) Trichuris trichiura.
d) Ancylostoma duodenale.
8. During the microscopic stool analysis (feces test) there were found large (80×140 µm),
golden, ovoid eggs, enveloped with a thin shell with an operculum on the top. These eggs
belong to:
a) Taenia solium.
b) Trichuris trichiura.
c) Fasciola hepatica. *
d) Ascaris lumbricoides.
9. The urine microscopy of a student, who came from Africa, detected erythrocytes and big
(120×90 µm) oval yellow eggs with the presence of a terminal spine. These eggs belong to:
a) Schistosoma japonicum.
b) Schistosoma haematobium. *
c) Clonorchis sinensis.
d) Paragonimus ringeri.
10. The stool analysis (feces test) of a sick person detected eggs sized 75×50 µm with an
operculum on the upper pole and a knob on the other side. These eggs may belong to:
a) Ascaris lumbricoides.
b) Taenia solium.
c) Trichuris trichiura.
d) Diphyllobothrium latum. *
11. Ovohelminthoscopy of mucus detected yellowish-brown eggs sized 100×49 µm, with a
thick shell, on the upper pole o which there was an operculum and on the opposite one – a
khob These eggs belong to:
a) Schistosoma haematobium.
b) Paragonimus ringeri.
c) Clonorchis sinensis.
d) Opisthorchis felineus.*
12. Immunologic investigation should be used for the diagnostics of:
a) Taeniasis.
b) Enterobiasis.
c) Diphyllobothriasis.
d) Echinococcosis. *
13. The eggs are not found in the feces of a sick person in the course of:
a) Ascariasis.
b) Echinococcosis. *
c) Trichinosis.
d) Enterobiasis.
14. Taking perianal specimens is necessary to diagnose:
a) Taeniasis.
b) Echinococcosis.
c) Ascariasis.
d) Enterobiasis. *
15. To reveal Paragonimus ringeri it is necessary to use the method of:
a) Microscopic feces analysis.
b) Perianal specimens ovoscopy.
c) Microscopic analysis of urine specimens. d) Microscopic analysis of duodenal aspirates. *
e) Microscopic analysis of phlegm.
16. To reveal Schistosoma haematobium it is necessary to use the method of:
a) Microscopic feces analysis.
b) Perianal specimens ovoscopy.
c) Microscopic analysis of urine specimens. *
d) Microscopic analysis of duodenal aspirates.
e) Microscopic analysis of mucus.
17. To diagnose opisthorchiasis it is necessary to use the method of:
a) Microscopic feces analysis. *
b) Perianal specimens ovoscopy.
c) Microscopic analysis of urine specimens.
d) Microscopic analysis of duodenal aspirates.
e) Microscopic analysis of mucus.
Theme 26:
1. In Eastern countries crayfish and crabs are intermediate hosts for:
a) Opisthorchis felineus.
b) Paragonimus ringeri.*
c) Fasciola hepatica.
d) Dicrocoelium lanceatum.
2. The agent of scabies is:
a) Dermacentor pictus.
b) Ornithodoros papillipes.
c) Demodex folliculorum.
d) Sarcoptes scabiei. *
3. Cyclopes are intermediate hosts for:
a) Diphyllobothrium latum. *
b) Paragonimus ringeri.
c) Dracunculus medinensis.
d) Trichinella spiralis.
e) Strongyloides stercoralis.
4. Among medically important ticks there are:
a) Predators.
b) Parasites. *
c) Disease agents.
d) Infectious disease vectors.
e) Temporary parasites. *
f) Permanent human parasites.
g) Coprophages.
h) Endoparasites.
5. Ixodes ricinus is a vector of the causative agents for:
a) Taiga encephalitis.
b) Spring-summer encephalitis. *
c) Tularemia. *
d) Cholera.
6. The body of what arthropod is divided into cephalothorax hrooe and abdomen?
a) Arachnida. *
b) Insecta.
c) Crustacea. *
7. Crayfish are intermediate hosts for: a) Echinococcus granulosus.
b) Hymenolepis nana.
c) Clonorchis sinensis.
d) Opisthorchis felineus.
8. Amongst the listed ticks disease agents are:
a) Sarcoptes scabiei. *
b) Demodex folliculorum. *
c) Ixodes ricinus.
d) Ixodes persulcatus.
8. Tick's nymphs have:
a) Four pairs of walking legs. *
b) Undeveloped reproductive glands. *
c) Developed reproductive glands.
d) Three pairs of walking legs.
9. In the ticks' imago stage there are:
a) Two pairs of walking legs.
b) Three pairs of walking legs.
c) Four pairs of walking legs. *
10. To temporary blood-sucking ectoparasites belong:
a) Sarcoptes scabiei.
b) Ixodes ricinus. *
c) Ornithodoros papillipes. *
d) Demodex folliculorum.
11. The vectors of spring-summer encephalitis causative agents can be:
a) Ixodes persulcatus.
b) Ixodes ricinus. *
c) Sarcoptes scabiei.
d) Demodex folliculorum.
12. The vectors of taiga encephalitis causative agents can be:
a) Ornithodoros papillipes.
b) Ixodes persulcatus. *
c) Dermacentor marginatus.
d) Dermacentor pictus.
13. To tularemia vectors belong:
a) Ixodes ricinus. *
b) Ixodes persulcatus.
c) Dermacentor pictus. *
d) Dermacentor marginatus.
14. The transovarial transmission of causative agents of diseases is the most peculiar to the
ticks:
a) Ixodes persulcatus. *
b) Ornithodoros papillipes.*
c) Ixodes ricinus.*
d) Sarcoptes scabiei.
15. The representatives of the soft ticks of the genus Argasidae are:
a) Dermacentor pictus.
b) Ornithodoros papillipes. *
c) Ixodes persulcatus.
d) Ixodes ricinus.
16. Mites of the family Gamasoidea are:
a) Human diseases agents.
b) Temporary human ectoparasites.
c) Permanent human ectoparasites.
d) Parasites of birds and rodents and vectors of virl disease agents to human beings. *
17. Amongst ticks, permanent human parasites are:
a) Ixodes persulcatus.
b) Ixodes ricinus.
c) Sarcoptes scabiei. *
d) Demodex folliculorum.*
18. The tick, which is capable of causing severe allergic reactions in the human body, is:
a) Demodex folliculorum.
b) Ixodes persulcatus.
c) Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus.*
d) Ixodes ricinus.
19. To ticks, which can live in human dwellings, belong:
a) Tyroglyphus farinae.*
b) Tyroglyphus casei. *
c) Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus. *
d) Ixodes persulcatus.
Theme 27:
1. A representative of the Diptera order has:
a) 1 pair of wings. *
b) 2 pairs of wings.
c) No wings.
2. Mosquitoes of the genus Anopheles transmit to human beings the agents of:
a) Malaria. *
b) Tularemia.
c) Japanese encephalitis.
3. The larvae of the mosquitoes of the Culex and Aedes genera:
a) Have air tubes. *
b) Do not have air tubes.
c) Have stigmas.
4. The sand fly Phlebotomus papatasii is the vector of:
a) Skin and visceral leishmaniasis.*
b) Malaria.
c) Tularemia.
d) Japanese encephalitis.
5. The mouthparts of the house fly Musca domestica are:
a) Licking-sucking. *
b) Piercing-sucking.
c) Biting.ots
6. The intermediate host of helminths can be:
a) The trumpet fly of the genus Chrysops.*
b) The maggot Wohlfahrtia magnifica.
c) The malanders of the genus Culicoides.
d) The black fly of the genus Simulium.
7. The insects, which parasite in human beings only at the larva stage, are:
a) Musca domestica.*
b) Wohlfahrtia magnifica. *
c) Mosquitoes of the genus Anopheles.
8. To control mosquitoes there are used:
a) Repellents.
b) Acaracydes.
c) Herbicides.
d) Insecticides. *
9. The transmitter of malaria agent is:
a) Culex mosquitoes.
b) Aedes mosquitoes.
c) Anopheles mosquitoes.*
d) The tsetse fly Glossina palpalis.
10. The Anopheles mosquitoes transmit to human beings the agent of malaria:
a) With saliva during a bite. *
b) When the insects are crushed and hemolymph is rubbed into the wound.
c) When insects’ feces are rubbed into the place of the bite.
11. The female Anopheles mosquito by the way of nutrition is a:
a) Obligatory blood-sucker at a certain stage of the animal development.
b) Polyphage.
c) Facultative hematophage. *
d) Facultative necrophage.
12. The pupae of the Anopheles mosquitoes have an air tube of:
a) Conic shape. *
b) Cylindrical shape.
13. The larvae of the Anopheles mosquitoes live in:
a) Soiled puddles, which are heated with sun.
b) Water reservoirs. *
c) Swampy places. *
d) Only in clean or almost clean water.
14. The zone of Anopheles mosquitoes spreading is in the radius of:
a) 5 km from the place of hatching.
b) 10 km from the place of hatching. *
c) 3 km from the place of hatching.
d) 2 km from the place of hatching.
15. The Anopheles mosquitoes and the Aedes mosquitoes are intermediate hosts for:
a) Wuchereria bancrofti.
b) Loa loa.
c) Brugia malayi.
d) Onchocerca volvulus.
16. Amongst Arthropoda representatives the mechanical vectors of disease agents can be:
a) The hard tick Ixodes ricinus.
b) The house fly Musca domestica. *
c) The stable fly Stomoxys calcitrans.
d) The sand fly Phlebotomus papatasii.
17. The insects, which parasite in human beings only at the larva stage, are:
a) Glossina morsitans.
b) Wohlfahrtia magnifica.
c) Stomoxys calcitrans.
d) Musca domestica.
18. The disease caused by the larvae of Diptera representatives is:
a) Malaria.
b) African trypanosomiasis.
c) Miasis. *
d) Leishmaniasis.
19. The insects, which parasite only at the imago stage, are:
a) The black fly of the genus Simulium.
b) The deer fly of the genus Chrysops.
c) The maggot Wohlfahrtia magnifica.
d) The sand fly Phlebotomus papatasii.
20. The insects with complete metamorphosis are:
a) Mosquitoes. *
b) The sand fly Phlebotomus papatasii.
c) Locusts.
d) Fleas. *
21. Wohlfahrtia magnifica lays larvae in:
a) Damaged parts of the human skin. *
b) Soil.
c) The human nose, eyes and ears. *
d) Food.
22. The tsetse fly Glossina palpalis is a specific vector of the agents of:
a) African trypanosomiasis. *
b) Malaria.
c) Leishmaniasis.
d) American trypanosomiasis.
23. The black fly of the genus Simulium is a specific vector of the agent of:
a) Onchocerciasis.
b) Filariasis. *
c) Loiasis.
24. The sand fly Phlebotomus papatasii is the vector of the agent of:
a) Malaria. *
b) Cutaneous leishmaniasis.
c) Visceral leishmaniasis.
d) Giardiasis.
Theme 28:
1. During a bedbug’s bite its saliva gets into the wound. The bedbug's saliva contains:
a) Anesthetics substance.
b) Poisonous substance.
c) Substances preventing blood clotting. *
d) Substances promoting blood clotting.
2. The crab louse Phthirus pubis:
a) Is the vector of the epidemic relapsing fever agent.
b) Is the vector of the trench fever agent.
c) Does not transmit infectious disease agents. *
3. Development of the human flea Pulex irritans happens:
a) With complete metamorphosis. *
b) With incomplete metamorphosis.
c) Without metamorphosis.
4. Cimex lectularius is a:
a) Temporary ectoparasite.
b) Periodic parasite. *
c) Permanent ectoparasite.
d) Facultative parasite.
5. The infection of human beings with plague happens due to:
a) Flea bite. *
b) Getting bacteria under the skin during scratching it.
c) Lice bite.
d) Rubbing crushed lice in through the damaged parts of skin.
e) Bedbugs bite.
6. The human flea Pulex irritans larva:
a) Has legs. *
b) Doesn't have legs.
c) Has wings.
d) Doesn't have wings. *
e) Looks like an imago.
7. The crab louse Phthirus pubis lives in human beings:
a) On the pubis hair. *
b) On the eyebrows. *
c) Under the armpits. *
d) On any of the hairy parts. *
8. Blattella germanica has the following morphologic traits:
a) Body length of 10–13 mm. *
b) Body length of 18–30 mm.
c) Red body covering.
d) Black body covering.*
e) 3 pairs of legs. *
f) 4 pairs of legs.
9. Development of cockroaches happens:
a) With complete metamorphosis.
b) With incomplete metamorphosis. *
c) Without metamorphosis.
10. Cockroaches are the:
a) Specific vectors of intestinal diseases.
b) Mechanical vectors of bacteria, protozoa cysts, helminths eggs. *
c) Temporary parasites.
d) Periodic parasites.
11. To control cockroaches in buildings people use:
a) Poisonous chemicals.*
b) Repellents.
c) Insecticides.
d) Acarocytes.
e) Herbicides.
12.Lice belong to:
a) Temporary ectoparasites. *
b) Permanent blood-sucking ectoparasites.
c) Periodic parasites. *
13. Lice development happens:
a) With complete metamorphosis.
b) With incomplete metamorphosis. *
c) Without metamorphosis.
14. The traits, which testify to the distinct adaptation possibilities of lice to ectoparasitism,
are:
a) Considerably large size.
b) Appendages designed for fixing on the human hair. *
c) The presence of the piercing-sucking mouthparts.
d) The presence of simple eyes.
e) Reduced wings.
15. The parasite activity of Pediculus humanus capitis and Pediculus humanus humanus
can cause in human beings:
a) Scabies.
b) Amebiasis. *
c) Pediculosis.
d) Phthiriasis.
16. Pediculus humanus capitis has the following traits:
a) Body length of a female - approximately 3-4 mm, of a male - 2-3 mm.
b) Gray color of the body, grooves on the sides, short and thick antennae on the head.
c) Consumes blood 2-3 times a day. *
d) Consumes blood constantly by small portions.
e) On the legs there are hook-shaped claws.
17. Phthirus pubis is a:
a) Temporary ectoparasite. *
b) Permanent ectoparasite. *
c) Mechanical transmitter of disease agents.
d) Specific transmitter of disease agents.
18. During the life period a Pediculus humanus capitis fo male lays up to:
a) 1000 eggs.
b) 300 eggs. *
c) 400 eggs.
d)100 eggs.
19. The life period of Pediculus humanus capitis is: a) 20-26 days.
b) 27-38 days.
c) 40-45 days.
d) 45–60 days.
20. The medical importance of Pediculus humanus capitis lies in the fact that it is a:
a) Facultative transmitter of the plague causative agent.
b) Obligatory transmitter of the plague causative agent. *
c) Transmitter of the epidemic relapsing fever causative agent.
21. A female Pediculus humanus capitis differs from a male by:
a) Color.
b) Size.
c) Legs number. *
22. An epidemic relapsing fever causative agent gets into the human body during:
a) Eating food products, which were not thermally treated.
b) Insect bites. *
c) Crushing lice and getting their hemolymph into te wound, which appears on the skin
during biting or scratching.
d) Contact with clothes of a sick person.
e) Using unfiltered water.
23. A trench fever causative agent gets into the human body during:
a) Insect bites.
b) Crushing lice and getting its hemolymph into the wound, which appears on the skin
during biting or scratching.
c) Getting feces with rickettsia into a wound on the skin, into the conjunctiva or respiratory
tract. *
d) Contact with clothes of sick people, in the folds of which there are remaining dry feces or
dead insects.
24. Phthirus pubis has the following morphologic traits:
a) Gray color, grooves on the body sides, short and thick antennae on the head.
b) The body length of a male - 2-3 mm, of a female - 3-4 mm. *
c) Males are approximately 1 mm long, females 1.5 mm.
d) The body is short, wide, the trunk and body are practically unseparated.
e) The legs have claws in the shape of hooks.
25. Fleas development takes place:
a) With complete metamorphosis.
b) With incomplete metamorphosis.
c) Without metamorphosis. *
26. Bedbugs development happens:
a) With complete metamorphosis. *
b) With incomplete metamorphosis.
c) Without metamorphosis.
27. Triatoma infestans is a:
a) Mechanical vector of intestinal disease causative agents. *
b) Specific vector of the American trypanosomiasis causative agents.
c) Specific vector of the leishmaniasis causative agents.
d) Mechanical vector of helminths' eggs.
Theme 29:
1. Dangerous for human beings are the spiders:
a) Bird spider. *
b) Black widow spider.
c) Garden spider.
d) Water spider.
e) Tarantula. *
2. The royal jelly of bees is formed in the:
a) Salivary glands. *
b) Venom glands.
c) Gastric glands.
d) Sex glands.
3. The poisonous traits of mushrooms are based on the presence in their cells of:
a) Antibodies.
b) Micotoxins. *
c) Chitin.
d) Urine.
4. The field of therapy, which is based on the healing effect of bee products, is called:
a) Aromatherapy.
b) Apytherapy. *
c) Phytotherapy.
d) Physiotherapy.
5. The poisonous animals fall into:
a) Primary poisonous. *
b) Secondary poisonous. *
c) Tertiary poisonous.
6. The poisonous glands of snakes are modified:
a) Sex glands.
b) Salivary glands. *
c) Sweat glands.
7. Human beings get poisoned by plant poison during:
a) Eating poisoned plants. *
b) Inhaling poisonous substances excreted by plants. *
c) Getting poisonous substances on the skin or mucous tunic. *
d) Eating honey collected from poisonous plants.
8. Substances, which neutralize poison, are called:
a) Alkaloids.
b) Antitoxins. *
c) Essential oils.
d) Organic acids.
e) Glycosides.
9. To the armed, actively poisonous animals of Ukraine belong:
a) Apis mellifera. *
b) Latrodectus tredecimguttatus. *
c) Vipera berus. *
d) Bufo marinus.
e) Ophiophagus hannah.
10. Scorpions are:
a) Predators. *
b) Ectoparasites.
c) Poisonous animals. *
d) Disease agents.
e) Disease vectors.
11. The poison of Vipera berus acts on the human body in the following way:
a) Hemolytic. *
b) Neuroparalytic.
c) Anesthetic.
d) Sleep-inducing.
12. The venom glands in spiders are opened into the ducts on the end of the:
a) Stinger located in the last segment.
b) Chelicera. *
c) Pedipalp.
d) Walking leg.
13. Resistant to reptile poisons are:
a) Mangos. *
b) Human beings.
c) Forest hamsters. *
d) Horses.
e) Cats.
f) Pigs.*
Tests problems for chapter 4
1. Living organisms are distributed unevenly on the Earth. What do we call homogeneous
parts of the territory inhabited by different living organisms?
A.Biotope. *
B. Biogeocenosis.
C. Biocenosis.
D. Biosphere reserve.
E. National park.
2. Endemic diseases spread among the inhabitants of geochemical provinces. What reason
causes endemic goiter development?
A.Iodine deficiency. *
B. Cobalt deficiency.
C. Iron deficiency.
D. Copper deficiency.
E. Zinc deficiency.
3. Environmental factors influence parasites vitality. At what temperature do Ascaris
lumbricoides eggs develop?
A.0°-20° C.
B. 5-30° C.
C. 12'-40° C. *
D. 15-45° C.
E. 20'–50° C.
4. Escherichia coli lives in the human intestine. Here this organism finds enough food and
also produces vitamins of B group. What do we call such cooperation between organisms
belonging to different species?
A.Parasitism.
B. Commensalism.
C. Mutualism. *
D. Antibiosis.
E. Competition.
5. A dead boy has been born in the hospital by a woman, who was sick with a protozoan
disease. Which protozoan disease could provoke the fetus death?
A. Amebiasis.
B. Visceral leishmaniasis.
C. Balantidiasis.
D. Trichomoniasis.
E. Toxoplasmosis. *
6. In the anamnesis of a 30-years-old man there are general weakness, indigestion, stomach
pain. The laboratory investigation of his feces found cysts with 4 nuclei. What protozoan
disease could the patient be ill with?
A. Malaria.
B. Trypanosomiasis.
C. Leishmaniasis.
D. Toxoplasmosis.
E. Amebiasis.*
7. A 20-year-old woman consulted a doctor because of the complaints of nausea, bad
appetite, general weakness. The microscopic examination of her duodenal aspirates
showed pear-shaped protozoa with 2 nuclei and 4 pairs of flagella. Which of the below
mentioned species can these protozoa belong to?
A.Giardia lamblia. *
B. Toxoplasma gondii.
C. Entamoeba coli.
D. Balantidium coli.
E. Entamoeba gingivalis.
8. General weakness, indigestion, stomach pain, bloody diarrhea 3-5 times a day are the
disease symptoms of a 40-year-old man. After the examination the doctor recommended
laboratory analysis of the patient's feces. The vegetative forms of protozoans with unstable
body shthape were detected. Which dis- ease could the patient be ill with?
A. Visceral leishmaniasis.
B. Balantidiasis.
C. Amebiasis. *
D. Malaria.
E. Cutaneous leishmaniasis.
9. A 35-year-old woman was taken to a hospital. The doctor detected bile duct
inflammation in the patient and recommended a laboratory analysis of the bile. Active
pear-shaped protozoa with 4 pairs of flagella and 2 nuclei were revealed. What protozoans
have been found in the bile?
A. Trichomonas vaginalis.
B. Trichomonas hominis.
C. Entamoeba histolytica.
D. Giardia lamblia. *
E. Trypanosoma gambiense.
10. A 25-year-old man arrived to Ukraine from Africa and soon was admitted to a hospital
because of wasting fever attacks and body temperature rising up to 40° C every 48 hours.
What disease are these symptoms characteristic of?
A. Myiasis.
B. Scabies.
C. Three-days malaria. *
D. Balantidiasis.
E. Chagas disease.
11. A 40-year-old woman consulted a doctor. In her feces cysts with 8 nuclei were found
during microscopic analysis. The presence of what organism in the patient's body can be
the cause of such a state?
A. Escherichia coli.
B. Giardia lamblia.
C. Entamoeba coli.*
D. Balantidium coli.
E. Trichomonas hominis.
12. After returning to Ukraine from a tourist trip to the Asia region, where there were a lot
of mosquitoes, a woman consulted a doctor because of the appearance of ulcers on her face.
Which of the below mentioned diseases could the patient be ill with?
A. Chagas disease.
B. Amebiasis.
C. Toxoplasmosis.
D. Malaria.
E. Cutaneous leishmaniasis. *
13. A female patient with the symptoms of chronic colitis was examined by a doctor. In
order to specify the diagnosis the laboratory analysis of the patient's feces was conducted.
There were revealed round cysts 10 µm in diameter with 4 nuclei. Which of the protozoan
parasitized in the patient's body?
A.Giardia lamblia.
B. Entamoeba histolytica. *
C. Entamoeba coli.
D. Balantidium coli.
E. Trypanosoma gambiense.
14. A 60-year-old woman has frequent blood diarrhea, stomach disorder, indigestion, liver
abscess. All her life the patient has been living in Ukraine. After receiving results of the
laboratory analysis the doctor suspected a protozoan disease. Which disease are the
mentioned above symptoms typical of?
A. Leishmaniasis.
B. Amebiasis. *
C. Trichomoniasis.
D. Trypanosomiasis.
E. Toxoplasmosis.
15. A patient used to live in the Asia region where there were a lot of mosquitoes. He
complained of bad appetite and malaise. His skin had a dark color. During the examination
of the patient the doctor detected splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, peripheral lymph nodes
enlargement. What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?
A. Malaria.
B. Visceral leishmaniasis. *
C. Scabies.
D. Myiasis.
E. Balantidiasis.
16. During the examination of a woman the gynecologist detected an inflammatory process
of the urogenital tract. In the patient's vaginal smear protozoans were found. They were
pear-shaped with a pointed posterior part. Each unicellular organism had a large nucleus
and an undulating membrane. Which of the below mentioned species can the detected
protozoans belong to? A.Trypanosoma rhodesiense.
B. Trypanosoma cruzi.
C. Plasmodium vivax.
D. Trychomonas hominis.
E. Trychomonas vaginalis. *
17. A woman gave birth to a boy with malformations, which included upper extremities
underdevelopment. Her previous pregnancy ended with miscarriage. Which protozoan
disease could this woman be ill with?
A. Balantidiasis.
B. Trypanosomiasis.
C. Trichomoniasis.
D. Toxoplasmosis. *
E. Malaria.
18. In order to exist in unfavourable environmental conditions some protozoa form cysts.
What organisms is it typical of?
A. Entamoeba histolytica. *
B. Trypanosoma gambiense.
C. Trychomonas vaginalis.
D. Trychomonas hominis.
E. Plasmodium vivax.
19. During the examination of a patient it was revealed that the agent of his disease was
Trypanosoma cruzi. In the chronic stage of the disease provoked by this protozoan the
main lesion in human beings are usually detected in the:
A. Heart and liver. *
B. Digestive and respiratory tracts.
C. Heart and digestive tract.
D. Spleen and pancreas.
E. Liver and spleen.
20. A 30-year-old man was admitted to a hospital. Oval-shaped eggs with 2 prominent
plugs at the poles were detected in his feces during laboratory analysis. Later, during a
surgical operation, white helminths 39 mm long with a thin filiform anterior part of the
body were found in the patient's appendix. What helminthosis is the most credible in this
case?
A. Trichuriasis. *
B. Ascariasis.
C. Enterobiasis.
D. Ancylostomiasis.
E. Strongyloidiasis.
21. During the examination of a patient the doctor detected helminthosis. The disease is
provoked by a helminth, which at the larval stage parasitizes in the fish muscle. What
helminth is it typical of?
A. Hymenolepis nana.
B. Diphyllobothrium latum. *
C. Trichinella spiralis.
D. Ancylostoma duodenale.
E. Ascaris lumbricoides.
22. The postmortem examination of a woman's dead body revealed a cysticercus in the
brain tissue. Which of the helminths parasitized in the woman's organism?
A. Echinococcus granulosus.
B. Taenia solium. *
C. Trichinella spiralis.
D. Hymenolepis nana.
E. Ascaris lumbricoides.
23. A fisherman consulted a doctor because of epigastric pain. The questioning of the
patient showed that he sometimes ate undercooked fish. On the basis of the laboratory
analysis of the patient's feces dark eggs of a helminth were detected. Their size was 30x15
µm. They were dark with an operculum at one of the poles. Which helminth does the
patient have?
A. Fasciola hepatica.
B. Taenia solium.
C. Enterobius vermicularis.
D. Opisthorchis felineus. *
E. Ascaris lumbricoides.
24. The parents of a boy have come to consult a doctor because their son does not sleep
well. In the child's nightwear filiform helminths 0.6-0.9 cm long were found. The presence
of what helminth in the child's body can be the cause of the state described above?
A. Loa loa.
B. Enterobius vermicularis. *
C. Ascaris lumbricoides.
D. Trichuris trichiura.
E. Wuchereria bancrofti.
25. A 27-year-old woman complained of helminthosis. After drug treatment tape-like
segmented helminth fragments appeared in her feces. The length of the segment was less
than the width. A rosette-shaped uterus localized in the centre of the segment. What
disease did the patient have?
A.Paragonimiasis.
B. Diphyllobothriasis. *
C. Taeniasis.
D. Schistosomiasis.
E. Clonorchiasis.
26. A patient with periodically repeated diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, epigastric pain was
admitted to a hospital. In his vomitus a spindle-shaped helminth 18 cm long was detected.
What helminth is the agent of the patient's disease?
A. Ascaris lumbricoides. *
B. Enterobius vermicularis.
C. Strongyloides stercoralis.
D. Dracunculus medinensis.
E. Loa loa.
27. A 50-year-old gardener consulted a doctor because of the complaints of epigastric pain.
After the examination of the patient the doctor suspected helminthosis and recommended
laboratory analysis of the patient's feces. Yellow-brown knobby-coated eggs with a thick
wall were found. What is the most credible diagnosis in this case?
A. Diphyllobothriasis.
B. Trichuriasis.
C. Taeniasis.
D. Enterobiasis.
E. Ascariasis. *
28. A 70-yer-old patient with the preliminary diagnosis of pneumonia was admitted to a
hospital. His complaints included stomachache, vomiting, indigestion. The doctor suspected
that helminthosis can be the reason for the patient's state and recommended laboratory
analysis of his feces. There were detected oval helminth's eggs. They were covered with a
tuberculate envelope. Which helminth did the patient have?
A.Taenia solium.
B. Ascaris lumbricoides. *
C. Diphyllobothrium latum.
D. Trichuris trichiura.
E. Fasciola hepatica.
29. A 28-year-old man came to the doctor complaining of epigastric pain. A detailed
questioning of the patient showed that he was engaged in boating and sometimes drank
unboiled water from a river or a lake. The doctor suspected that the cause of the patient's
complaint was the presence of helminths in his body. What helminth is this?
A. Fasciola hepatica. *
B. Diphyllobothrium latum.
C. Opisthorchis felineus.
D. Clonorchis sinensis.
E. Paragonimus ringeri.
30. During the examination of a 3-year-old girl the doctor was informed by her mother that
the child periodically scratches the area around the anus. Therefore a scrape of the girl's
perianal folds was obtained and analyzed under the microscope. There were detected
colorless asymmetric oval eggs with larvae inside. Which of the helminths do they belong
to?
A. Dicrocoelium lanceatum.
B. Schistosoma haematobium.
C. Trichuris trichiura.
D. Enterobius vermicularis. *
E. Ascaris lumbricoides.
31. A 38-year-old woman accidentally found tapeworm segments in her bedclothes. She
came to the doctor informing about it and also complaining of indigestion and general
weakness. The presence of what helminth in the patient's body can be the cause of the state
described above?
A. Paragonimus ringeri.
B. Echinococcus granulosus.
C. Diphyllobothrium latum.
D. Hymenolepis nana.
E. Taenia saginata. *
32. A 5-year-old boy has epigastric pain and allergy. After detailed examination the doctor
suspected helminthosis and recommended laboratory analysis of the child's feces. There
were detected oval yellow eggs with an operculum at one of the poles. The egg's size was
134x79 µm. What helminth did the boy have?
A.Enterobius vermicularis.
B. Trichuris trichiura.
C. Fasciola hepatica. *
D. Dicrocoelium lanceatum.
E. Taenia solium.
33. The examination of a patient, who likes to eat undercooked fish, showed helminthosis.
The laboratory investigation of his feces revealed helminth eggs. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
A. Ancylostomiasis.
B. Schistosomiasis.
C. Opisthorchiasis. *
D. Trichinosis.
E. Echinococcosis.
34. A urologist examined a patient complaining of pain during urination. Helminthosis was
suspected to be the reason for this state, and laboratory analysis of the patient's day
urinary specimens was recommended. Large terminally spindled eggs were detected in the
urine. What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?
A.Clonorchiasis.
B. Paragonimiasis.
C. Taeniasis.
D. Opisthorchiasis.
E. Schistosomiasis. *
35. Having returned from an Asia country a patient with pneumonia symptoms came to a
doctor. Paragonimiasis was diagnosed. How could the disease agent penetrate in the
patient's body?
A. While eating dirty vegetables.
B. While eating undercooked beef.
C. While eating undercooked pork.
D. While eating undercooked fish.
E. While eating undercooked crabs. *
36. The invasive larva of some helminths penetrates human body through skin. The agent
of what disease is it typical of?
A. Clonorchiasis.
B. Trichinosis.
C. Diphyllobothriasis.
D. Ascariasis.
E. Ancylostomiasis.*
37. The most trematodes are hermaphrodites, but some of them are diecious. What
helminth belongs to this group of organisms?
A. Dicrocoelium lanceatum.
B. Opisthorchis felineus.
C. Fasciola hepatica.
D. Paragonimus ringeri.
E. Schistosoma haematobium. *
38. The examination of a l14-year-old girl has shown grey insects with a wide short body
on her pubis. Their size is 1.1 - 1.3 mm. Which of the below mentioned species can the
described above animals belong to?
A. Triatoma infestans.
B. Cimex lectularius.
C. Phthirus pubis. *
D. Pulex irritans.
E. Pediculus humanus capitis.
39. The examination of a 22-year-old man has shown grey insects on his head. Their length
was about 2.9 mm. There were deep grooves on the both sides of the insect body. Which of
the below mentioned species can the described above insects belong to?
A. Pediculus humanus capitis. *
B. Pulex irritans.
C. Blatta orientalis.
D. Cimex lectularius.
E. Triatoma infestans.
40. The examination of a 40-year-old man has shown rash and thin grey stripes on the skin.
The doctor was informed by the patient about itch between the fingers and on the
abdomen. The itch was especially intensive at night. What is the most credible diagnosis in
this case?
A. Scabies. *
B. Pediculosis.
C. Myiasis.
D. Cutaneous leishmaniasis.
E. Phthiriasis.
41. The hookworms Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus provoke epigastric
pain, diarrhea, and eosinophilia in affected persons. What is recommended for the
prevention of human hookworm invasion in endemic area?
A. To wash fruits and vegetables. B. To cook all meals.
C. To reduce the stray dog population.
D. To use insecticides.
E. To wear footwear. *
42. In the life cycle of Schistosoma haematobium trematode eggs are discharged from the
human urinary tract. What do we call this parasite development stage, which enters the
intermediate snail host?
A. Cercaria.
B. Schizont.
C. Redia.
D. Metacercaria.
E. Miracidium. *
43. A lot of people in the world have roundworms in their body. Which of the following
parasites is a roundworm thát hatches in the upper small intestine and releases
rhabditiform larvae that penetrate the intestinal wall?
A. Schistosoma mansoni.
B. Trichuris trichiura.
C. Enterobius vermicularis.
D. Ascaris lumbricoides. *
E. Hymenolepis nana.
44. During examination a patient was diagnosed with helminthosis. The microscopic
examination of his feces detected proglottids. The presence of what organism in the
patient's body can be the cause of such a state?
A.Trichuris trichiura.
B. Enterobius vermicularis.
C. Ascaris lumbricoides.
D. Necator americanus.
E. Taenia saginata. *
45. The most tapeworms parasitize in the human intestine. What tapeworm uses the
human body as definitive and intermediate hosts?
A. Echinococcus granulosus.
B. Taenia solium. *
C. Taenia saginata.
D. Diphyllobothrium latum.
E. Onchocerca volvulus.
46. A man who returned from a tourist trip to Africa came to the doctor complaining of
paroxysmal attacks of chill, fever, and sweating. The doctor was informed that these attacks
had lasted for a day or two at a time and recurred every 48 hours. The examination of the
patient's stained blood specimen detected ring-like and crescent-like forms within red
blood cells. What is the most credible agent of the patient's disease?
A. Schistosoma haematobium.
B. Trypanosoma rhodesiense.
C. Wuchereria bancrofti.
D. Plasmodium vivax.
E. Plasmodium falciparum. *
47. Te examination of a 38-year-old woman has shown white nits on her head hair. The
patient informed the doctor about itch in the occipital and temporal parts of the head. What
arthropod is the agent of the patient's state?
A. Pediculus humanus capitis. *
B. Blatta germanica.
C. Wohlfahrtia magnifica.
D. Phlebotomus papatasii.
E. Glossina palpalis.
48. Some actively poisonous animals have a special apparatus for poison inoculation into
the human body. It is possible to meet in Ukraine such below mentioned armed actively
poisonous animal:
A.Vipera ursini. *
B. Physalia physalis.
C. Cyanea capillata.
D. Naja haje.
E. Vipera lebetina.
49. Biologically active components of some poisons produced by living organisms are used
in medicine. What do we call the widespread in Ukraine medically important poisonous
animal?
A. Apis mellifera. *
B. Ophiophagus hannah.
C. Crotalus atrox.
D. Fugu niphobles.
E. Euscorpius tauricus.
50. Biologically active components of animal poison disturb functionally important process
in the affected organism. Which of the below mentioned processes in the human organism
does tetrodotoxin from Tetradontidae fish block?
A. Nerve impulse conduction. *
B. Protein synthesis.
C. DNA replication.
D. RNA synthesis.
E. Mitosis.
Tests of others groups
The patient sees doctor about his disease: the chronic rheumatoid arthritis. The apitherapy
was prescribed by the doctor for the base treatment supporting. The apitherapy is a
method based on some venomous animals’ products utilization. Which animal is used for
apitherapy?
1) Texas diamond-back.
2) Blunt-nosed viper.
3) King cobra.
4) Honey bee.*
5) Russell's viper.
There are a lot of parasites among insects that cause damage to the human health. What
substances are used for control of parasitic insects?
1) Antibiotics.
2) Herbicides.
3) Insecticides.*
4) Fungicides.
5) Vermifuge.
The parents of a boy have come to consult a doctor because their son does not sleep well. In
the child’s nightwear filiform helminths 0.6–0.9 cm long were found. The presence of what
helminth in the child’s body can be the cause of the state described above?
1) Enterobius vermicularis.*
2) Ascaris lumbricoides.
3) Wuchereria bancrofti.
4) Loa loa.
5) Trichuris trichiura.
A 20-year-old woman consulted a doctor because of the complaints of nausea, bad appetite,
general weakness. The microscopic examination of her duodenal aspirates showed pearshaped protozoa with 2 nuclei and 4 pairs of flagella. Which of the below mentioned
species can these protozoa belong to?
1) Toxoplasma gondii*
2) Balantidium coli
3) Entamoeba gingivalis
4) Entamoeba coli
5) Giardia lamblia
To reveal Taenia saginata it is necessary to use the method of:
1) Microscopic analysis of duodenal aspirates.*
2) Microscopic analysis of phlegm
3) Microscopic blood analysis.
4) Microscopic analysis of urine specimens.
5) Microscopic feces analysis
Name the animal-transmitters for different Plasmodium spp:
1) Anopheles mosquito.*
2) Triatominae (‘kissing bugs’).
3) Aedes mosquito.
4) Glossina (tsetse fly).
5) doesn’t have transmitter animal.
A patient consulted a doctor because of complaints of general weakness, pain in bowels,
indigestion, frequent cases of bloody diarrhea. Laboratory analysis showed that the
patient`s feces contained vegetative forms of protozoans with an unstable body shape.
Their cytoplasm contained food vacuoles with erythrocytes. What representative of
Protozoa was found in the patient`s feces?
1) Entamoeba histolytica*
2) Balantidium coli
3) Entamoeba gingivalis
4) Entamoeba coli
5) Giardia intestinalis
Laboratory examination of a patient it was revealed that the agent of his disease was
Trypanosoma cruzi In the chronic stage of a disease provoked by this protozoan, the main
lesions in humans are usually detected in the:
1) Spleen and pancreas.
2) Digestive tract and respiratory tract.
3) Heart and liver.
4) Heart and digestive tract.*
5) Liver and spleen.
In Eastern countries crayfish and crabs are intermediate hosts for:
1) Wuchereria bankrofti
2) Fasciola hepatica
3) Paragonimus ringer*
4) Ascaris lumbricoides
5) Dicrocoelium lanceatum
In the human bile ducts there CAN NOT be found:
1) Paragonimus ringer*
2) Schistosoma haematobium
3) Fasciola hepatica
4) Opisthorchis felineus
5) Dicrocoelium lanceatum
A 30-year-old man was admitted to a hospital. Oval-shaped eggs with 2 prominent plugs at
the poles were detected in his feces during laboratory analysis. Later, during a surgical
operation, white helminths 39 mm long with a thin filiform anterior part of the body were
found in the patient’s appendix. What helminthosis is the most credible in this case?
1) Trichuriasis.
2) Ascariasis.
3) Ancylostomiasis.
4) Strongyloidiasis.
5) Enterobiasis.*
A man has worked in an African country for 3 years. A month after his return to Ukraine he
consulted an ophthalmologist and complained about eye ache, eyelid edema, lacrimation
and temporary visual impairment. The helminth 30-50 mm long with elongated filiform
body was revealed underneath the eye conjunctiva by the doctor. What diagnosis might be
suspected?
1) Enterobiasis.
2) Filariasis.*
3) Trichocephaliasis.
4) Diphyllobothriasis
5) Ascaridiasis.
A patient came to a dermatologist complaining of roughness scaly skin and acne on his face.
The mobile parasitic arachnids were found during the laboratory examination of the
sample of The poisonous glands of snakes are modified:
1) Bile ducts.
2) Urinary ducts.
3) Sex glands.
4) Sweat glands.
5) Salivary glands.*
follicular tissues and oils from patient’s face. What animal the patient was infected by?
1) Bedbug.
2) Wohlfahrtia fly
3) Itch mite.
4) Human flea.
5) Follicle mite.*
The examination of a 38-year-old woman has shown white nits on her head hair. The
patient informed the doctor about itch in the occipital and temporal parts of the head. What
arthropod is the agent of the patient’s state?
1) Phlebotomus papatasii.
2) Wohlfahrtia magnifica.
3) Blattella germanica.
4) Glossina palpalis.
5) Pediculus humanus capitis.*
Crayfish are intermediate hosts for:
1) Echinococcus granulosus.
2) Opisthorchis felineus.
3) Hymenolepis nana.
4) Diphyllobothrium latum.*
5) Clonorchis sinensis.
Trichinosis is a widespread helminthiasis, especially in the forest areas. Larvae of
Trichinella spin the human body can be detected in:
1) Liver.
2) Feces.
3) Brain.
4) Striated muscles.*
5) Muscles of the intestine wall.
the doctor complaining of intense itching at the area of elbow, wrist, abdomen, between
the hand fingers, that gets worse at night. The medical examination of the patient’s skin
showed the presence there the rash and thin grey stripes. What pathogenic organism can
produce such symptoms?
1) Sarcoptes scabiei.*
2) Dermacentor pictus.
3) Ixodes ricinus.
4) Ornithodoros papillipes.
5) Ixodes persulcatus.
Mosquitoes of the genus Anopheles are transmitters of:
1) Malaria.*
2) Japanese encephalitis.
3) Ascariasis.
4) Acute colitis.
5) Tularemia.
What is the most common way of getting Amebiasis?
1) By contaminated food*
2) By skin
3) By the respiratory way
4) By sexual contact
5) By insect bite
The representatives of the phylum Arthropoda can be agents’ human diseases another can
be vector of diseases agents, and some of them are used like intermediate hosts by the
some helminthes. The Pediculus humanus capitis and Pediculus humanus humanus are
agents of:
1) Pediculosis.
2) Pedomorphosis.
3) Phthiriasis.
4) Amebiasis.
5) Scabies.
The poisonous glands of snakes are modified:
1) Sex glands.
2) Bile ducts.
3) Sweat glands.
4) Salivary glands.*
5) Urinary ducts.
The sand fly Phlebotomus papatasii is the vector of:
1) Tularemia
2) Leishmaniasis*
3) Clonorchiasis
4) Malaria
5) Japanese encephalitis
A dead boy has been born in the hospital by a woman, who was sick with a protozoan
disease. Which protozoan disease could provoke the fetus death?
1) Trichomoniasis
2) Toxoplasmosis*
3) Visceral leishmaniasis
4) Amebiasis
5) Balantidiasis
Animals can be intermediate and definitive hosts for different agents of parasitic diseases.
The person is mainly infected with balantidiasis from:
1) Dog
2) Pig
3) Deer
4) Frog
5) Cat
A man who returned from a tourist trip to Africa came to the doctor complaining of
paroxysmal attacks of chill, fever, and sweating. The doctor was informed that these attacks
had lasted for a day or two at a time and recurred every 48 hours. The examination of the
patient’s stained blood specimen detected ring-like and crescent-like forms within red
blood cells. What is the most credible agent of the patient’s disease?
1) Plasmodium falciparum
2) Wuchereria bancrofti
3) Plasmodium vivax
4) Trypanosoma rhodesiense
5) Schistosoma haematobium
To reveal Fasciola hepatica it is necessary to use the method of:
1) Microscopic feces analysis*
2) Microscopic analysis of urine specimens
3) Microscopic blood analysis
4) Microscopic analysis of sputum
5) Microscopic analysis of phlegm
The most tapeworms parasitize in the human intestine. What tapeworm uses the human
body as definitive and intermediate hosts?
1) Taenia solium.*
2) Taenia saginata.
3) Onchocerca volvulus.
4) Echinococcus granulosus.
5) Diphyllobothrium latum.
Necator americanus enters the human body through the…
1) Anus.
2) Skin*
3) Mouth.
4) Ears.
5) Eyes.
Some helminthes undergo a part of their developmental cycle in the insects’ body.
Mosquitoes of the genera Anopheles and Aedes are the intermediate hosts for:
1) Strongyloides stercoralis.
2) Loa loa.
3) Wuchereria bancrofti.
4) Onchocerca volvulus.
5) Necator americanus.
The hookworms Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus provoke epigastric
pain,diarrhea, and eosinophilia in affected persons. What is recommended for the
prevention of human hookworm invasion in endemic area?
1) To reduce the stray dog population.
2) To wear footwear.*
3) To wash fruits and vegetables.
4) To use insecticides.
5) To cook all meals.
The representatives of the phylum Arthropoda can be agents’ human diseases another can
be vector of diseases agents, and some of them are used like intermediate hosts by the
some helminthes. Define the intermediate host of some nematode:
1) Ticks.
2) Mites.
3) Crabs.
4) Bugs.
5) Cyclops.
Fleas development takes place:
1) With two hosts changing.
2) With complete metamorphosis.
3) Without metamorphosis.
4) With three hosts changing.
5) With incomplete metamorphosis.
To reveal Dicrocoelium lanceatum it is necessary to use the method of:
1) Microscopic analysis of mucosa
2) Microscopic analysis of phlegm
3) Microscopic blood analysis
4) Microscopic feces analysis*
5) Microscopic analysis of urine specimens
During the examination of a patient the doctor detected helminthosis. The disease is
provoked by a helminth, which at the larval stage parasitizes in the fish muscle. What
helminth is it typical of?
1) Trichinella spiralis.
2) Ancylostoma duodenale.
3) Diphyllobothrium latum.*
4) Hymenolepis nana.
5) Ascaris lumbricoides.
During the examination of a 3-year-old girl the doctor was informed by her mother that the
child periodically scratches the area around the anus. Therefore, a scrape of the girl’s
perianal folds was obtained and analyzed under the microscope. There were detected
colorless asymmetric oval eggs with larvae inside. Which of the helminths do they belong
to?
1) Ascaris lumbricoides.
2) Trichuris trichiura.
3) Dicrocoelium lanceatum.
4) Enterobius vermicularis.*
5) Schistosoma haematobium.
The 1-st year students of medical university in Ukraine have investigated Ukrainian
poisonous animals diversity and their medical value. Some of poisonous animals were
included into the group of actively poisonous armed animals. Choose that animal Latin
Name from mentioned below:
1) Physalia physalis.
2) Cyanea capillata.
3) Naja haje.
4) Vipera lebetina.
5) Vipera ursini.
The patient turned to the dentist with symptoms of inflammation of the mucous membrane
of the oral cavity. Capable of forming pseudopodia protozoa with a volatile body shape in
the size of 6-60 microns was detected in smears from periodontal pockets. Find out the
type of parasites:
1) Entamoeba coli
2) Entamoeba histolytica
3) Entamoeba gingivalis*
4) Balantidium coli
5) Paramecium caudatum
Medical importance of insects is that some of them can be pathogenic to human organisms,
some of them can transmitted pathogens, some of them can sting very painful and be the
cause of allergy. What from listed below insects doesn`t transmit the pathogens and cause
skin reaction to bites only?
1) Crab louse.
2) Tsetse fly.
3) Human flea.
4) Body louse.
5) Head louse.
In the ticks’ imago stage there are:
1) Two pairs of wings.
2) Four pairs of walking legs.*
3) Three pairs of wings.
4) Two pairs of walking legs.
5) Three pairs of walking legs.
Some helminthes develop inside the insects body and can be transmitted with bloodsucking insects. To the vector-born nematodosis belongs:
1) Loiasis.
2) Ascariasis.
3) Enterbiasis.
4) Strongyloidosis.
5) Trichinosis.
The patient entered to gastroenterology department with chronic colitis. Laboratory
analysis was prescribed. Stool sample demonstrated a lot of rounded (10 mkm) cysts with
4 nuclei. Which of protozoan do they belong to?
1) Entamoeba gingivalis.
2) Giardia intestinalis.
3) Entamoeba histolytica.
4) Ваlаntidium соli.
5) Entamoeba coli.
Poisonous animals can be divided into “active toxic animals” and “passive toxic animals”.
Which animals of the following list belong to “passive toxic”?
1) Scorpions
2) Salamander
3) Serpent
4) Puffer Fish*
5) Bees
A 20-year-old woman was consulted by a doctor because of the complaints of nausea, bad
appetite, and general weakness. The microscopic examination of her duodenal aspirates
showed pear-shaped protozoa with 2 nuclei and 4 pairs of flagella. Which of the below
mentioned species can these protozoa belong to?
1) Toxoplasma gondii.
2) Entamoeba coli.
3) Balantidium coli.
4) Giardia lamblia.*
5) Entamoeba gingivalis.
Bedbugs development occurs:
1) With three hosts changing.
2) Without metamorphosis.
3) With incomplete metamorphosis.
4) With complete metamorphosis.
5) With two hosts changing.
The black fly of the genus Simulium is a specific vector of the agent of:
1) Taeniasis.
2) Malaria.
3) Onchocerciasis.
4) Filariasis.
5) Loaiasis.
The examination of a 14-year-old girl has shown grey insects with a wide short body on her
pubis. Their size is 1.1-1.3 mm. Which of the below mentioned species can the described
above animals belong to?
1) Pediculus humanus capitis.
2) Pulex irritans.
3) Triatoma infestans.
4) Phthirus pubis.*
5) Cimex lectularius.
During patients` examination spring-summer encephalitis was diagnosed. Patient become
infected with bite of the:
1) Sarcoptes scabiei.
2) Ixodes ricinus.*
3) Demodex folliculorum.
4) Ornithodorus papillipes.
5) Wohlfahrtia magnifica.
Larva of what from listed below trematodes can that get into the human organism,
penetrating the skin?
1) Paragonimus ringeri
2) Opisthorchis felineus
3) Schistosoma haematobium
4) Dicrocoelium lanceatum
5) Fasciola hepatica
For connection to the host`s intestine Diphyllobothrium latum uses:
1) Trunk with suckers
2) Teeth
3) Muscular appendages
4) Trunk with hooks
5) Bothria
A patient with the preliminary diagnosis of trichinosis was admitted to a hospital.
Consuming of what food could cause that disease?
1) Crab.
2) Fish.*
3) Beef.
4) Pork.
5) Crayfish
During the study of feces were found oval eggs, with yellow cap, size 140×80 microns.
These may be the eggs of:
1) Ascaris lumbricoides*
2) Taeniarhynchus saginatus
3) Fasciola hepatica
4) Taenia solium
5) Enterobius vermicularis
A patient with periodically repeated diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, epigastric pain was
admitted to a hospital. In his vomitus a spindle-shaped helminth 18 cm long was detected.
What helminth is the agent of the patient’s disease?
1) Ascaris lumbricoides.
2) Loa loa.
3) Enterobius vermicularis.
4) Dracunculus medinensis.
5) Strongyloides stercoralis.
Biologically active components of animal poison disturb functionally important process in
the affected organism. Which of the below mentioned processes in the human organism
does tetrodotoxin from Tetradontidae fish block?
1) Protein synthesis.
2) Mitosis.
3) DNA replication.
4) RNA synthesis.
5) Nerve impulse conduction.*
The representatives of the phylum Arthropoda can be agents’ human diseases another can
be vector of diseases agents, and some of them are used like intermediate hosts by the
some helminthes. Define the agent of human disease:
1) Sarcoptes scabiei.
2) Dermacentor pictus.
3) Ixodes ricinus.
4) Wohlfahrtia magnifica.
5) Ornithodoros papillipes.
During examination a patient was diagnosed with helminthosis. The microscopic
examination of his feces detected proglottids. The presence of what organism in the
patient’s body can be the cause of such a state?
1) Necator americanus.
2) Enterobius vermicularis.
3) Ascaris lumbricoides.
4) Trichuris trichiura.
5) Taenia saginata.*
The patient was in the hospital with complaints of severe itching, burning skin, poor sleep,
loss of appetite, feverish condition. On the skin were found numerous blisters by insect:
1) Musca domestica
2) Blatta orientalis
3) Phlebotomus papatasii
4) Wohlfartia magnifica
5) Glossina morsitans
Escherichia coli lives in the human intestine. Here this organism finds enough food and also
produces B-group vitamins. What do we call such cooperation between organisms
belonging to different species?
1) Parasitism
2) Commensalism
3) Mutualism*
4) Competition
5) Antibiosis
The observation of the patient showed that he has toxoplasmosis. Which of these materials
were used for diagnosing of the disease?
1) Feces
2) Duodenal contents
3) Urine
4) Phlegm
5) Blood
The invasive larva of some helminths penetrates human body through skin. The agent of
what disease is typical of?
1) Ascariasis.
2) Clonorchiasis.
3) Ancylostomiasis.*
4) Diphyllobothriasis.
5) Trichinosis.
During examination a patient was diagnosed with opisthorchiasis. What food could the
patient get the agent of opisthorchiasis with ?
1)Cysticercosis pork
2)Dirty fruit
3)Uncooked fish*
4)Cysticercosis beef
5)Dirty vegetables
Patient appealed to the hospital with complaints on headache, pain in muscles during
movements, pain during mastication and eyes rotation, weakness, fever, periorbital edema.
It is known that the patient is a hunter and 1-2 months ago he was eat wild boar meat.
What invasive disease supposed doctor?
1)Tricocephaliasis
2)Ascaridiasis
3)Ankylostomiasis
4)Enterobiasis
5)Trichinosis*
The representatives of the phylum Arthropoda can be agent’ human diseases another can
be vector of diseases agents, and some of them are used like intermediate hosts by the
some helminthes. Define the intermediate host of some nematode:
1)Crabs*
2)Bugs
3)Ticks
4)Mites
5)Cyclops
MEDICAL BIOLOGY'
Biology of cell and individual development
1. The cell cycle is known to consist of several subsequent stages. At one of the stages the
synthesis of DNA happens. What do we call this period of the cell cycle?
A. Presynthesis period (Gt) of interphase.
B. Synthesis period (S) of interphase. *
C. Mitosis.
D. Premitotic period of interphase.
E. Postsynthesis period (G2) of interphase.
2. In a cell the chromosomes are in the condition of maximum spiralization and are placed
along the equatorial zone. What period of mitosis is described?
A. Prophase.
B. Telophase.
C. Metaphase. *
D. Anaphase.
E. Prometaphase.
3. An intensive aerobic process of the energy formation and accumulaton in high energy
bond ATP takes place in the cells of muscular tissue. In which organelle does this process
occur?
A. In the peroxisome.
B. In the endoplasmic reticulum.
C. In the lysosome.
D. In the mitochondrion. *
E. In the centriole.
4. Protein synthesis includes several subsequent stages. It is preceded by the synthesis of
immature mRNA. What do we call this process?
A. Termination.
B. Replication.
C. Elongation.
D. Translation.
E. Transcription. *
5. During mitotic cell division a scientist can see the phase when the nuclear envelope and
nucleolus disappear, the centrioles are placed on the opposite poles of the cell and
chromosomes are in the form of a thread ball freely placed in the cytoplasm. What stage of
the mitotic cycle takes place in the cell?
A. Metaphase.
B. Prophase. *
C. Anaphase.
D. Interphase.
E. Telophase.
6. It is known that the genetic code is degeneracy and has triplet nature. What nucleotide
can be changed in the codifyng triplet without loosing its sense?
A. Second.
B. First.
C. Third. *
D. Second or third.
E. First or second.
7. During the cell cycle regular changes in quantity of genetic material happen. What is the
period, when the replication of DNA happens, called?
A. Anaphase.
B. Prophase.
C. Metaphase.
D. Interphase. *
E. Telophase.
8. Polypeptide which has been synthesized on the ribosome includes 54 aminoacids. How
many codons did mRNA used as a matrix during the synthesis have?
A. 44.
B. 27.
C. 108.
D. 162.
E. 54. *
9. Microfilaments and microtubules are known to include tubuline proteins, which take
part in the formation of the division spindle. In what period of the mitotic cycle are tubuline
proteins synthesized?
A. Postmitotic period of interphase.
B. Mitosis.
C. Synthesis period (S) of interphase.
D. Postsynthesis period (G2) of interphase. *
E. Presynthesis period (G,) of interphase.
10. During the whole life of a human in some adult cells we can’t see the mitosis and the
quantity of DNA stay permanent. What do we call these cells?
A. Neurons. *
B. Hepatocytes.
C. Eye cornea epitheliocytes.
D. Red bone marrow cells.
E. Germinal epithelium.
11. During the examination of the pancreatic gland cells under an electronic microscope
there has been found an organelle which consists of cisterns, canals, closets and is
connected with plasmo- lemma. What organelle is it?
A. Centriole.
B. Mitochondrion.
C. Endoplasmic reticulum. *
D. Lysosome.
E. Peroxisome.
12. Different physical and chemical factors can destroy the structure of DNA. What do we
call the ability of the cells to regenerate the DNA structure?
A. Transduction.
B. Transcription.
C. Replication.
D. Reparation. *
E. Transformation.
13. An influenza virus penetrated into the cell. The mechanism of the protein biosynthesis
was reorganised for the virus protein synthesis to occur:
A. On the polyribosomes. *
B. In the nucleus.
C. In the lysosomes.
D. In the peroxisomes.
E. In the centriole.
14. During the examination of the cell structure a globular monomembra- nous organelle,
which contains hydrolytic enzymes, was found. This organelle is known to provide
intracellular digestion and protective reactions of the cell. What organelle is it?
A. Endoplasmic reticulum.
B. Centriole.
C. Lysosome. *
D. Ribosome.
E. Mitochondrion.
15. There is an organelle near the nucleus which consists of two cylinders built from
microtubules. The cylinders are situated perpendicularly to each other. The organelle is a
component of the mitotic spindle of the division in animal cells. What is this organelle?
A. Mitochondrion.
B. Ribosome.
C. Endoplasmic reticulum.
D. Centriole. *
E. Lysosome.
16. One of the main characteristics of a living being is an ability to reproduction. On what
level of the living organism’s organization does this process happen on the basis of the
matrix biosynthesis?
A. Organism)cal.
B. Subcellular.
C. Cellular.
D. Tissue.
E. Molecular. *
17. In the nucleus the molecule of immature mRNA transforms to the molecule of the
mature mRNA which is shorter than the immature mRNA. What do we call the combination
of stages in this transformation?
A. Replication.
B. Processing. *
C. Recognition.
D. Transmission.
E. Termination.
18. Some mRNA triplets (UAA, UAG, UGA) code no aminoacids, but in the process of reading
information they are terminators, in other words, they Eire able to stop the translation.
What are they?
A. Stop-codons. *
B. Operators.
C. Anticodons.
D. Exons.
E. Introns.
19. In the presynthesis period (G,) of the cell cycle the synthesis of DNA doesn’t occur,that’s
why the number of DNA molecules is equal to the number of chromosomes. How many
DNA molecules does any human somatic cell in the presynthesis period (G,) have?
A. 23.
B. 92.
C. 46. *
D. 69.
E. 48.
20. During anaphase the monochromatic chromosomes are placed on the poles of the cell.
How many chromosomes does the cell have during anaphase?
A. 96.
B. 46.
C. 23.
D. 69.
E. 92. *
21. During the experiment the culture of the cells divided by mitosis was influenced by the
substance which destroyed the spindle of division. Which substance was used in that
experiment?
A. Penicillin.
B. Colchicine. *
C. Histamine.
D. Methanol.
E. Iodine.
22. According to the rule of the permanent chromosomes number, each animal species can
be characterized by a specific and permanent number of chromosomes. What mechanism
provides this feature during sexual reproduction?
A. Reparation.
B. Translation.
C. Meiosis. *
D. Mitosis.
E. Cytokinesis.
23. As a result of the abnormalities in the chromosomes divergence in meiosis, the
secondary oocyte which contains only 22 autosomes has been formed. What disease can a
baby have after the impregnation of this secondary oocyte by a normal spermatozoon?
A. Klinfelter’s syndrome.
B. Turner’s syndrome. *
C. Trisomy on the X-chromosome.
D. Down’s syndrome.
E. Edward’s syndrome.
24. In order to analyse the karyotype, a cell culture was influenced by colchicine, which
destroys the spindle of division. At what stage was the mitosis stopped?
A. Metaphase. *
B. Prophase.
C. Anaphase.
D. Telophase.
E. Prometaphase.
25. At the definite stage of embryo- genesis the mother’s and fetus’s circulatory systems are
becoming physiologically connected. What provisional organ fulfils this function?
A. Amnion.
B. Yolk sac.
C. Placenta. *
D. Serosa.
E. Alantois.
26. At the stage of blastocyst the beginning of the human’s embryo implantation into the
wombwall was recorded. What term of embryogenesis does it occur at?
A. 10-12 days.
B. 3-4 days.
C. 6-7 days. *
D. 24-26 days.
E. 30-35 days.
27. During the analysis of the mitotic stage in the onion root cells a cell, in which spiralized
chromosomes were placed in the equatorial zone was revealed. What mitotic stage is the
cell at?
A. Interphase.
B. Prophase.
C. Anaphase.
D. Telophase.
E. Metaphase. *
28. According to the hypothesis of lactose operon (Jacob, Mono 1961), in Escherichia coli
lactose, which gets into a cell from the environment, acts as an inducer. In what way does
lactose induce the synthesis of enzymes that decompose it, that is turn on the operon?
A. It combines with the repressor protein. *
B. It combines with the operator gene.
C. It combines with the regulator gene.
D. It combines with the promoter.
E. It combines with the structural gene.
29. In a human embryo the anlage of axis organs has begun. What is this development stage
called?
A. Blastula.
B. Zygota.
C. Cleavage.
D. Neurula. *
E. Gastrula.
30. In the synthesis period (S) of the cell cycle the redouble of the DNA quantity takes place.
This process occurs as a result of:
A. Denatu ration of DNA.
B. Dissociation of DNA.
C. Replication of DNA. *
D. Reparation of DNA.
E. Coagulation of DNA.
31. During the observation of a baby boy a pediatrician noticed that the baby’s crying was
similar to a cat’s cry. Besides, the baby had microcephaly and abnormality in the heart
development. By means of the cytogenetic method it was found that the baby’s karyotype
was 46, XY,5p-. At what mitotic stage was the karyotype of the baby examined?
A. Mataphase. *
B. Prometaphase.
C. Prophase.
D. Anaphase.
E. Telophase.
32. The electronograms of the rat’s liver cells demonstrate some bimem- braneous oval
structures, the internal membrane of which forms crists. What organelles are they?
A. Lysosomes.
B. Ribosomes.
C. Mitochondria. *
D. Centrosomes.
E. Peroxisomes.
33. To diagnose human chromosomal disorders in order to analyse the karyotype, a cell
culture is influenced by colchicine — a substance which destroys the spindle of division. At
what mitotic stage is the karyotype studied?
A. Telophase.
B. Interphase.
C. Prophase.
D. Metaphase. *
E. Anaphase.
34. DNA double spirales which were formed as a result of replication consist of one
maternal chain and one daughter chain. What do we call this way of replication?
A. Conservative.
B. Analogous.
C. Identical.
D. Dispersical.
E. Semiconservative. *
35. A cell includes ball-shaped mono- membranous organelles that include proteolytic
enzymes. Organelles size is 0.2 — 1 micrometers. Their formation is connected with Golgi
apparatus. What organelles are they?
A. Centrioles.
B. Ribosomes.
C. Plastides.
D. Mitochondria.
E. Lysosomes. *
36. In a nucleus there are nonconstant structures that disappear at the beginning of cell
division and appear again at the end of it. They include protein and RNA. They take part in
the formation of ribosome subunits. What are these structures called?
A. Nucleoli. *
B. Nucleosomes.
C. Polysomes.
D. Microfibriles.
E. Microtubules.
37. During the mitotic division in a cell we can observe the separation of chromatids
towards the opposite poles. What stage of the cell cycle takes place in the cell?
A. Telophase.
B. Metaphase.
C. Anaphase. *
D. Prophase.
E. Interphase.
38. Du ring the postembryonal development of a human two lordoses and two kyphoses
are formed. It can be explained as the human ability to:
A. Sit.
B. Swim.
C. Creep.
D. Walk vertically. *
E. Lie.
39. Du ring the postembiyonal development in a man’s organism some age-related changes
occur. They are skin elasticity loss, visual and hearing impairment. What do we call the
period of individual development when such changes occur?
A. Ageing. *
B. Youth.
C. First mature.
D. Juvenile.
E. Youthful.
40. In a cell a ball-shaped monomem- branous organelle that contains hydrolytic enzymes
has been studied. What organelle is it?
A. Centriole.
B. Lysosome. *
C. Endoplasmic reticulum.
D. Golgi apparatus.
E. Ribosome.
41. There is some organelle in human cells. The functions of this organelle are the
formation of lysosomes, the secretion of glycoproteins, carbohydrates, lipids and the
formation of yolk granules during the oocytes maturation. What is this organelle called?
A. Lysosome.
B. Endoplasmic reticulum.
C. Golgi apparatus. *
D. Peroxisome.
E. Ribosome.
42. Under the influence of mutagen in the gene the composition of some triplets was
changed but the cell continued the synthesis of the same protein. What characteristics of
the genetic code can it be connected with?
A. Specifity.
B. Universality.
C. Triplet nature.
D. Degeneracy. *
E. Collinearity.
43. A cell was affected by a substance which broke the integrity of lysosome membranes.
What can happen to the cell as a result?
A. Specialization.
B. Differentiation.
C. Reproduction.
D. Transformation.
E. Autolysis. *
44. The nuclei of cells were affected by a substance which destroyed the histone structure.
What components of the cells will change as a result of this intervention in the first place?
A. Mitochondria.
B. Nuclear membrane.
C. Ribosomes.
D. Chromosomes. *
E. Cell membranes.
45. During the G2 phase (postsynthesis period) of the cell cycle the synthesis of tubulin
proteins which take part in the production of the division spindle was impaired. What
process can be disturbed?
A. Chromosome despiral ization.
B. Chromosome spiralization.
C. Divergence of daughter chromosomes. *
D. Formation of ribosome subunits.
E. Formation of nucleolus.
46. Antibiotic actinomycin D is known to have no toxic effect on the maternal organism, on
the other hand, it impairs the formation of tissues and organs of ectodermic origin in the
embryo organism. A woman was taking actinomycin D during pregnancy. What organs or
systems of the fetus can be impaired as a result?
A. Sex glands.
B. Skeleton muscules.
C. Locomotion system.
D. Urogenital system.
E. Nervous system. *
47. A patient has an acute pancreatitis which can develop into pancreas autolysis.
Dysfunctioning of what organelles can cause this pathology?
A. Lysosomes. *
B. Mitochondria.
C. Ribosomes.
D. Centrioles.
E. Microtubules
48. Protein-repressor has been found in a cell. What gene codifies the amino acid sequence
of this protein?
A. Promotor.
B. Terminator.
C. Regulator. *
D. Modificator.
E. Operator.
49. The gene which codifies the polypeptide chain consists of 4 exons and 3 introns. When
processing is over, the mature mRNA consists of nucleotides which are complementary to:
A. 3 introns.
B. 2 exons and 1 intron.
C. 1 exon and 1 intron.
D. 4 exons. *
E. 4 exons and 3 introns.
50. The transcription is taking place in the human cells. RNA-poly- merase enzyme moving
along the DNA molecule has reached a specific nucleotide sequence; after that the
transcription ended. What do we call this DNA site?
A. Operator.
B. Promoter.
C. Repressor.
D. Terminator. *
E. Regulator.
51. Human karyotype is studied when a cell is at metaphase. What do we call the substance
that can stop the cell division at this stage?
A. Methanol.
B. Iodine.
C. Colchicine. *
D. Potassium chloride.
E. Ethanol.
52. The work of bacterium operon is being studied. A gene operator has been released from
the protein-repressor. What do we call the process which begins right after that?
A. Amino acids activation.
B. Translation.
C. Replication.
D. Processing.
E. Transcription. *
53. During the cell division we can see the maximum amount of condensed chromosomes.
At what stage of the cell cycle is the process of the cell division stopped?
A. Metaphase. *
B. Prophase.
C. Interphase.
D. Anaphase.
E. Telophase.
54. The operator is known to be responsible for joining the RNA polymerase enzyme and
initiating the transcription. At that site deletion of two nucleotide pairs has taken place.
What consequences could it have?
A. Lack of protein synthesis. *
B. Formation of abnormal proteins.
C. Synthesis of protein in unlimited quantites.
D. Formation of normal protein.
E. Short finish of protein synthesis.
55. In a transplantation center a 40- year-old patient has been transplanted a kidney which
was taken from a donor perished in an automobile accident. To avoid graft rejection, the
patient’s graft immunity is suppressed with the help of:
A. Antibiotics.
B. Vitamines.
C. Immunodepressants. *
D. Antiseptics.
E. Immunostimulants.
56. In an experimental lab a pig’s kidney has been grafted to a cow. What do we call this
way of transplantation?
A. Explantation.
B. Autotransplantation.
C. Allotransplantation.
D. Ksenotransplantation. *
E. Homotransplantation.
57. A patient has been badly burnt, as a result he has skin defects. To liquidate these defects
the surgeons have grafted a piece of skin from another part of the patient’s body. What way
of transplantation is it?
A. Homotransplantation.
B. Explantation.
C. Allotransplantation.
D. Ksenotransplantation.
E. Autotransplantation. *
58. In a transplantation centre a patient has been transplanted the heart. What cells of the
immune system can influence the graft cells?
A. Macrophages.
B. Plasma cells.
C. T-lymphocytes. *
D. B-lymphocytes.
E. Lymphoblasts.
59. It is known that the information about the amino acid sequence in the protein molecule
is written in the form of a nucleotide sequence. There are 4 types of nucleotides in the DNA
molecule. Different amino acids are codified by a different number of triplets — from one
to six. What do we call this characteristic of the genetic code?
A. Triplet nature.
B. Universality.
C. Collinearity.
D. Degeneracy. *
E. Specifity.
60. It was determined that the mRNA tripletic sequence totally corresponded to the amino
acid sequence in the polypeptide chain. What do we call this characteristic of the genetic
code?
A. Universality.
B. Triplet nature.
C. Specifity.
D. Degeneracy.
E. Collinearity. *
61. In some unicellular organisms, for example, in amoebae, nutrition happens by means of
phagocytosis. In what human cells is phagocytosis the way of protection of the organism
from foreign agents (for example, microorganisms)?
A. Leucocytes. *
B. Erythrocytes.
C. Epitheliocytes.
D. Myocytes.
E. Trombocytes.
62. Mitosis is the basic mechanism of a cell that provides the development of organisms,
their regeneration and reproduction. It can be possible because this mechanism is
responsible for:
A. Formation of polyploid cells.
B. Crossing-over.
C. Equal divergency of chromosomes between daughter cells. *
D. Irregular divergency of chromosomes between daughter cells.
E. Change of genetic information.
63. In a human organism some abnormalities, connected with the disorder of the teeth
differentiation and changes in their number, were found. What type of evidence of human
evolution can such abnormalities belong to?
A. Cytological.
B. Rudiments.
C. Recapitulation.
D. Atavisms. *
E. Biochemical.
64. During the translation a few ribosomes, placed along the mRNA molecule at a certain
distance from one another, join each mRNA simultaneously. What do we call the translation
complex that consists of one mRNA molecule and some ribosomes which are placed on it?
A. Centrosome.
B. Lysosome.
C. Phagosome.
D. Nucleosome.
E. Polysome. *
65. Influenced by some chemical substances, the process of ribosome subunits formation
has been impaired in a cell. In consequence this will stop the synthesis of:
A. Carbohydrates.
B. Proteins. *
C. Lipids.
D. DNA.
E. RNA.
66. Human cells were influenced by ultraviolet radiation, and as a consequence of this the
DNA molecules had been destroyed. Nevertheless by means of specific enzymes the DNA
structure was renewed. What do we call this phenomenon?
A. Replication.
B. Duplication.
C. Reparation. *
D. Initiation.
E. Termination.
67. During the ontogenesis there appear some changes in the human organism: the vital
capacity of his lungs decreases, his arterial pressure increases and the progress of
atherosclerosis takes place. What do we call the period of individual development in which
all these changes happen?
A. Youth.
B. Teenaging.
C. Juvenile.
D. Elderly. *
E. First mature.
Medical genetics
68. An 18-year-old young man is tall and has narrow shoulders, a large pelvis, an adult
woman pattern of hair distribution, and an oxyphonia. Mental retardation is also present.
Based on these symptoms, the provisional diagnosis of Klinefelter’s syndrome was made by
a doctor. What genetic method can confirm the diagnosis?
A. Cytogenetic. *
B. Pedigree analysis.
C. Study of twins.
D. Biochemical.
E. Population-statistical.
69. Inclination to diabetes mellitus is provoked by the autosomal-recessive gene. This gene
becomes apparent only in 30 % of homozygous individuals. What genetic regularity is
observed in this case?
A. Discontinuity.
B. Complementarity.
C. Gene expressiveness.
D. Incomplete penetrance. *
E. Pleiotropy.
70. During the examination of the woman’s epithelium of the cheek mucosa it was
established that in most cells the nuclei had two Barr bodies. What provisional diagnosis
can we make in this case?
A. Trisomy on the 13th chromosome.
B. Trisomy on the 21st chromosome.
C. Trisomy on X chromosome. *
D. Trisomy on the 18th chromosome.
E. Monosomy on X chromosome.
71. During the examination of the man’s epithelium of the cheek mucosa it was established
that in most cells the nuclei had Barr bodies. What syndrome is it typical of?
A. Turner’s syndrome.
B. Klinefelter’s syndrome. *
C. Trisomy on X chromosome.
D. Down’s syndrome.
E. Edward’s syndrome.
72. The same genotype in a human can cause the development of a feature with different
degrees of manifestation that depends on the interaction of this gene with the others and
on the influence of environmental conditions. What do we call the degree of phenotypical
manifestation of the character controlled by a definite gene?
A. Inheritance.
B. Penetrance.
C. Gene expression. *
D. Mutation.
E. Polymery.
73. A human has galactosemia — a disease of accumulation. Which genetic method can we
use to diagnose the case?
A. Cytogenetic.
B. Biochemical. *
C. Population-statistical.
D. Study of twins.
E. Pedigree analysis.
74. Some people with good clinical health can feel the anemia symptoms in the conditions
of high mountains. During their blood test we can find sickle-shaped erythrocytes. What
genotype can a person with occasional symptoms of sickle-cell anemia have?
A. XCXC.
B. a a.
C. A A.
D. A a. *
E. XCY.
75. One of the forms of rickets is inherited in the autosomal dominant way. This disease is a
result of:
A. Aneuploidy.
B. Changes in the number of chromosomes.
C. Chromosomal mutations.
D. Polyploidy.
E. Gene mutations. *
76. Children with normal hearing have been born by deaf and dumb parents with the
genotype DDee and ddEE. What is the form of gene interaction between the genes D and E?
A. Complementarity. *
B. Complete dominance.
C. Epistasis.
D. Polymery.
E. Codominance.
77. Both a mother and a father are phenotypicaly healthy. They have a sick baby in whose
blood and urine phenyl- pyruvic acid has been found which indicates phenylketonuria.
What is the type of inheritance for this disease?
A. Autosomal-dominant.
B. Recessive, X-linked.
C. Autosomal-recessive. *
D. Y-linked.
E. Dominant, X-linked.
78. A baby was born with abnormalities of the external and internal organs development.
During the check up the following abnormalities were found: epicanthus, shortened
extremities, a small skull, impaired development of the cardiovascular system. On these
grounds the provisional diagnosis of Down’s syndrome was made. What genetic method
can confirm this pathology?
A. Pedigree analysis.
B. Population-statistical.
C. Study of twins.
D. Cytogenetic. *
E. Biochemical.
79. The first step in diagnosing diseases provoked by the disorder of metabolism is the
application of express- methods which are based on a simple quality reaction of
determining metabolites in blood or urine. The second step is to confirm the diagnosis for
which exact chromatographical methods of enzymes and amino acids study are used. What
genetic method can be applied?
A. Biochemical. *
B. Study of twins.
C. Cytogenetic.
D. Population-statistical.
E. Hibridization of somatic cell.
80. During the checkup of an 18-year- old boy some physical and psychical development
defects are found. They are as follows: eunuchoidism, female li- popexia and an adult
woman pattern of hair distribution, muscular hypoplasia, mental deficiency. Using the
cytogenetic method, the karyotype of the patient was determined. Which karyotype was it?
A. 47, XY.21+.
B. 45, XO.
C. 47, XXY. *
D. 47, XY,18+.
E. 47, XYY.
81. Due to the results of the pedigree analysis a geneticist found out that a feature became
apparent in each generation, a male and a female inherited this feature with the same
frequency, both parents transmitting this feature to their children. What type of inheritance
does this feature have?
A. Recessive, X-linked.
B. Autosomal-recessive.
C. Dominant, X-linked.
D. Autosomal-dominant. *
E. Y-linked.
82. A patient with the normal karyotype has some abnormalities of the fingers
(arachnodactyly), the skeleton, the cardiovascular system, disoders in the development of
connective tissue, a lens defect. What provisional diagnosis can we make?
A. Edward’s syndrome.
B. Down’s syndrome.
C. Turner’s syndrome.
D. Patau syndrome.
E. Marfan’s syndrome. *
83. A baby boy has deformations of the cerebral and facial cranial parts, microphthalmia,
an ear deformation and cleft plate. The baby’s karyotype is 47, XY,13+. What disease is it?
A. Edward’s syndrome.
B. Klinefelter’s syndrome.
C. Patau syndrome. *
D. Down’s syndrome.
E. Turner’s syndrome.
84. A 10-year-old girl has got shortened extremities, a small skull, a face anomaly, the
mongolian type of eyelid fold, epicanthus, mental deficiency, disorders of the heart and
vascular structure. In a genetic clinic the girl’s karyotype was determined. What was the
girl’s karyotype?
A. 45, XO.
B. 47, XX,13+.
C. 47, XX.18+.
D. 47, XX,21+. *
E. 47, XXX.
85. An excessive ear pilosis (hypertrichosis) is determined by the gene which is localized in
Y-chromosome. A man has got this feature. What is the probability of his having a son with
such a feature?
A. 75 %.
B. 0 %.
C. 25 %.
D. 35 %.
E. 100 %. *
86. A 28-year-old woman saw the physician because of infertility. Underdevelopment of the
ovary and the womb, disorder of the menstrual cycle were diagnosed. During the test of
buccal epithelium cells it appeared that most of their nuclei had two Barr bodies. The
neutrophil nuclei had two “drumsticks” each. What provisional diagnosis can we make in
this case?
A. Trisomy on X chromosome. *
B. Klinefelter’s syndrome.
C. Down’s syndrome.
D. Tu rner’s syndrome.
E. Edward’s syndrome.
87. An 18-year-old girl has a body disproportion: wide shoulders, a narrow pelvis,
shortened low extremities, aliform skin folds on the neck, underdevelopment of the ovaria.
During the laboratory analysis neither “drumsticks” in the neutrophil nuclei nor Barr
bodies in the nuclei of the buccal epithelium cells were found. Using the dermatoglyphics
method it was determined that the palmar angle — atd was equal to 66°. What provisional
diagnosis can we make?
A. Down’s syndrome.
B. Klinefelter’s syndrome.
C. Turner’s syndrome. *
D. Patau syndrome.
E. Edward’s syndrome.
88. The skin of a baby boy is covered with a thick layer of keratinized scales (ichtyosis). It
looks like a reptile skin. After the investigation of pedigree of his family it was revealed that
this feature occurs in each generation only in males. Which of the below mentioned
biological regularities becomes apparent in this case?
A. The law of independent assortment.
B. The 1 aw of unit characters.
C. The law of segregation.
D. Sex-linked inheritance. *
E. Linkage of genes.
89. Three forms of Down’s syndrome - trisomic, translocation and mosaic are known. What
genetic method do we have to use to distinguish these forms?
A. Population-statistical.
B. Study of twins.
C. Pedigree analysis.
D. Biochemical.
E. Cytogenetic. *
90. A husband is a homozygous by a dominant gene which causes polydacti- ly. His wife is a
homozygote by recessive allele of this gene. Which of the below mentioned genetic
regularities can be apparent in their children as to their having polydactily?
A. The law of segregation.
B. The law of unit characters. *
C. The law of independent assortment.
D. Linkage of genes.
E. Sex-linked inheritance.
91. Sickle-sell anemia, when erythrocytes are in the form of a sickle, is widespread among
the population of some districts in tropic Africa. What biological phenomenon is this
disease based on?
A. Gene mutation. *
B. Chromosomal aberration.
C. Modification.
D. Chromosomal mutation.
E. Transduction.
92. Parents with normal health have an ill with phenylketonuria son, but owing to a special
diet he has normal development. What type of variability is his normal development
connected with?
A. Mutational variability.
B. Combinative variability.
C. Modificative variability. *
D. Genotype variability.
E. Inherit variability.
93. The checkup of an 18-year-old girl showed underdevelopment of the ovaria, wide
shoulders, a narrow pelvis, shortened extremities and a “neck of sphinx”. The girl was
mentality healthy. The case was diagnosed as Turner’s syndrome. What changes in the
chromosomes’ quantity is this disease connected with?
A. Trisomy on the 18th chromosome.
B. Trisomy on X chromosome.
C. Trisomy on the 13th chromosome.
D. Monosomy on X chromosome. *
E. Trisomy on the 21st chromosome.
94. The analysis of the fetus’s amniotic fluid cells for the presence of sexual chromatin
shows that the majority of their nuclei have two Barr bodies each. Which inherited disease
can this baby have?
A. Down’s syndrome.
B. Trisomy on X chromosome. *
C. Turner’s syndrome.
D. Patau syndrome.
E. Edward’s syndrome.
95. A proband, his three sons, his brother and father have ichtyosis. His sisters and two
daughters do not have this sign. What is the character of the inheritance of this sign?
A. Autosomal-recessive.
B. Autosomal-dominant.
C. Holandric. *
D. Dominant, X-linked.
E. Recessive, X-linked.
96. A man with the problem of sterility came for advice to a genetic consultation. During
the analysis of the cheek mucosa epithelium one Barr body was found in each nucleus of
most cells. In neutrophil nuclei they found one “drumstick” in each. Which syndrome can
cause such a phenomenon?
A. Patau syndrome.
B. Turner’s syndrome.
C. Trisomy on X chromosome.
D. Down’s syndrome.
E. Klinefelter’s syndrome. *
97. A healthy woman who had viral roseola during pregnancy gave birth to a deaf baby
with a normal karyotype and genotype. The baby’s deafness is a manifestation of:
A. Phenocopy *
B. Gene mutation
C. Genocopy.
D. Combinative variability.
E. Chromosomal aberration.
98. During the analysis of the buccal mucosa epithelium of a male patient two Barr bodies
in each nucleus of most cells were found and in neutrophil nuclei two “drumsticks” in each
were found. What syndrom is it typical of?
A. Patau syndrome.
B. Turner’s syndrome.
C. Klinefelter’s syndrome. *
D. Down’s syndrome.
E. Edward’s syndrome.
99. A girl with the provisional diagnosis of Turner’s syndrome came for advice to a genetic
consultation. Which genetic method can confirm this diagnosis?
A. Pedigree analysis.
B. Cytogenetic. *
C. Hybridologic.
D. Biochemical.
E. Study of twins.
100. Parents with normal phenotype gave birth to an ill with albinism child (the feature
that is inherited by the autosomal-recessive type). What genotype do the parents have?
A. AA and aa.
B. A A and AA.
C. AA and Aa.
D. Aa and Aa. *
E. aa and aa.
101. Pedigree analysis showed that proband’s disease occurred in each generation, in a
relatively big number of affected sibs, both men and women. What type of inheritance does
it point out?
A. Y-linked.
B. Autosomal-recessive.
C. Dominant, X-linked.
D. Recessive, X-linked.
E. Autosomal-dominant. *
102. An 18-year-old girl complained to a doctor of the absence of menstruation. The patient
had such features: 140 cm in height, a short neck with typical folds (“neck of sphinx”), wide
shoulders, a narrow pelvis, absence of secondary sexual characteristics, underdeveloped
ovaria. What was a provisional diagnosis of that girl?
A. Turner's syndrome. *
B. Patau syndrome.
C. Morris’s syndrome.
D. Klinefelter’s syndrome.
E. Down’s syndrome.
103. The parents of an ill 5-year-old girl came for advice to a genetic consultation. In her
karyotype 46 chromosomes were found. One of the chromosome of the 15th pair was
longer than usual due to joining a part of chromosome of the 21th pair to it. What mutation
took place in that case?
A. Inversion.
B. Deletion.
C. Translocation. *
D. Duplication.
E. Aneuploidy.
104. During the cytogenetic analysis a patient was found to have cells with chromosome
number 46, XY and 47, XXY in the same proportions. What did the doctor diagnose?
A. Down’s syndrome.
B. Morris syndrome.
C. Patau syndrome.
D. Klinefelter’s syndrome. *
E. Turner’s syndrome.
105. A 14-year-old girl has some abnormalities: her height is lower than that of the girls of
the same age, the signs of puberty are absent, her neck is very short, her shoulders are
wide. During the cytogenetic analysis the lack of one X-chromosome was found. The girl
has normal intellectual development. What disease does the girl have?
A. Turner's syndrome. *
B. Down’s syndrome.
C. Edward’s syndrome.
D. Patau syndrome.
E. Klinefelter’s syndrome.
106. Alcaptonuria is inherited as an autosomal-recessive feature. Parents with normal
phenotype have a baby with alcaptonuria. What genotype do parents have?
A. aa and aa.
B. AA and AA.
C. AA and Aa.
D. Aa and aa.
E. Aa and Aa. *
107. A teenager with the provisional diagnosis of Klinefelter’s syndrome came for advice to
a genetic consultation. What genetic method does the doctor have to apply to make a
correct diagnosis?
A. Biochemical.
B. Pedigree analysis.
C. Cytogenetic. *
D. Study of twins.
E. Population-statistical.
108. During the analysis of a woman’s buccal mucosa epithelium cells no sexual chromatin
was found. Which of the below mentioned diseases can it be?
A. Edward’s syndrome.
B. Klinefelter’s syndrome.
C. Down’s syndrome.
D. Tu rner’s syndrome. *
E. Patau syndrome.
109. A patient has mental deficiency,a short stature,and the mongolian type of the eyelid
fold. The microscopical examination of the patient’s karyotype revealed the presence of
trisomy on the 21st chromosome. What do we call the disease which is caused by this
chromosomal abnormality?
A. Down’s syndrome. *
B. Klinefelter’s syndrome.
C. Turner’s syndrome.
D. Edward ’ s syndrome.
E. Patau syndrome.
110. In the family pedigree hypertrichosis (excessive pilosis of the auricle) is observed.
This feature appears in each generation and is typical only for men. What type of
inheritance does this feature have?
A. Autosomal-dominant.
B. Autosomal-recessive.
C. Y-linked. *
D. Dominant, X-linked.
E. Recessive, X-linked.
111. During the cytogenetic analysis in the cells of the abortive fetus only 44 chromosomes
were found due to the absence of both chromosomes from the 3rd pair. What type of
mutation oc- cured?
A. Monosomy.
B. Chromosomal aberration.
C. Gene mutation.
D. Polyploidy.
E. Nullisomy. *
112. By means of the cytogenetic analysis the karyotype 47, XX, 13+ of a baby with plural
defects of the skull, extremities and internal organs was determined. What syndrome did
the baby have?
A. Edward’s syndrome.
B. Patau syndrome. *
C. Klinefelter’s syndrome.
D. Down’s syndrome.
E. Turner’s syndrome.
113. In 1950s in Western Europe women who had taken thalidomide (soporific) bore a few
thousands of babies with underdevelopment or absence of extremities and transgression of
the skeleton. What nature did that pathology have?
A. Genocopy.
B. Chromosomal mutation.
C. Phenocopy. *
D. Chromosomal aberration.
E. Gene mutation.
114. A baby has such pathology: anomaly of the lower jaw and the larynx development
accompanied by voice changes resembling a cat’s cry. Moreover, the baby has
microcephaly, heart trouble and four fingers. The likely cause of such an anomaly is the
deletion of:
A. Short arm of the 11th chromosome.
B. Short arm of the 7th chromosome.
C. Short arm of the 9th chromosome.
D. Short arm of the 5th chromosome. *
E. Short arm of the 21st chromosome.
115. During the observation of a baby the diagnosis of Down’s syndrome was made. What
is the main cause of this pathology?
A. Trisomy on the 13th chromosome.
B. Trisomy on the 21st chromosome. *
C. Trisomy on X chromosome.
D. Monosomy on the 1st chromosome.
E. Undivergence of sex chromosomes.
116. The male karyotype is 47, XXY. He has endocrine hypertrophy: underdevelopment of
testicles and absence of spermatogenesis. What disease do these symptoms suggest?
A. Edward’s syndrome
B. Patau syndrome.
C. Klinefelter’s syndrome.
D. Tu rner’s syndrome. *
E. Down’s syndrome.
117. A baby, ill with hemophilia, has been born to healthy parents, but the mother’s
grandfather had hemophilia, too. What type of inheritance does this feature have?
A. Y-linked.
B. Autosomal-recessive.
C. Dominant, X-linked.
D. Recessive, X-linked. *
E. Autosomal-dominant.
118. Under the influence of gamma- radiation a fragment of the chromosome was lost.
What chromosomal mutation is it?
A. Deletion. *
B. Duplication.
C. Inversion.
D. Intrachromosomal translocation.
E. Interchromosomal translocation.
119. Under the influence of gamma- radiation a fragment of the chromosome has turned by
180° degrees. What chromosomal mutation has taken place?
A. Duplication.
B. Deletion.
C. Inversion.. *
D. Intrachromosomal translocation.
E. Interchromosomal translocation.
120. During the inspection of a girl’s karyotype a shortened arm of the 20th pair
chromosome was found. What do we call this mutation?
A. Duplication.
B. Deletion. *
C. Inversion.
D. Translocation.
E. Monosomy on the 20st chromosome.
121. A patient has phenylpyruvic acid in the blood and urine. Basing on this the diagnosis
of phenylketonuria is made. What genetic method is used?
A. Pedigree analysis.
B. Population-statistical.
C. Study of twins.
D. Biochemical. *
E. Imunological.
122. In a maternity hospital a baby with numerous development anomalies of the internal
organs, such as the heart, the kidneys, the digestive system was born. The doctor suspected
Edward’s syndrome. What genetic method can confirm this diagnosis?
A. Biochemical.
B. Dermatoglyphic.
C. Study of twins.
D. Pedigree analysis.
E. Cytogenetic. *
123. During the examination of an 18-year-old girl such features as underdeveloped ovaria,
wide shoulders, a narrow pelvis, shortened low extremities, a “neck of sphinx” were
determined. There was no mental deficiency. The doctor suspected Turner’s syndrome.
With what genetic method can this diagnosis be confirmed?
A. Cytogenetic. *
B. Population-statistical.
C. Study of twins.
D. Pedigree analysis.
E. Biochemical.
124. In a cytogenetic laboratory the karyotype of a healthy man was studied. 46
chromosomes were seen in each somatic cell. How many autosomes does each cell include?
A. 23.
B. 22.
C. 44. *
D. 46.
E. 92.
125. In a maternity hospital a baby with numerous development anomalies was diagnosed
with Patau syndrome. What genetic method can confirm this diagnosis?
A. Pedigree analysis.
B. Biochemical.
C. Population-statistical.
D. Cytogenetic. *
E. Study of twins.
126. In the genetic consultation of a 14-year-old girl a provisional diagnosis of Turner’s
syndrome was made. What karyotype does the girl have?
A. 47, XY.13+.
B. 46, XX.
C. 47, XXY.
D. 46, XY.
E. 45, XO.
127. A healthy woman, who had had viral roseola during pregnancy, gave birth to a baby
with a cleft li p and cleft palate. The baby has the normal karyotype and genotype. This
anomaly can be the result of:
A. Influence of teratogenic factor.
B. Gene mutation.
C. Chromosomal aberration.
D. Chromosomal mutation.
E. Combinative variability.
128. Galactosemia is an autosomal- recessive character. What genotypes may healthy
parents have if their baby has galactosemia?
A. AA and AA.
B. Aa and Aa. *
C. AA and Aa.
D. AA and aa.
E. aa and aa.
129. The intensity of human skin pigmentation is controlled by a few pairs of nonallelic
dominant genes. It was found that if the quantity of the genes increased, the pigmentation
became more intensive. What do we call this type of genes’ interaction?
A. Epistasis.
B. Pleiotropy.
C. Polymery. *
D. Codominance.
E. Complementary.
130. There is ichtyosis in the family pedigree. This feature appears in each generation and
is typical only of male. What type of inheritance does this feature have?
A. Recessive, X-linked.
B. Autosomal-dominant
C. Autosomal-recessive.
D. Y-linked. *
E. Dominant, X-linked.
131. In a family of students from Africa a baby with signs of anemia was born. The baby
died within a short time. It was found that the baby’s erythrocytes were shaped like a
sickle. What genotypes may the parents have if they have a light form of anemia?
A. Aa and AA.
B. Aa and aa.
C. AA and AA.
D. aa and aa.
E. Aa and Aa. *
132. A baby is ill with phenylketonuria. The baby’s parents are healthy. What genotype may
the parents have?
A. AA and aa.
B. Aa and Aa. *
C. aa and aa.
D. Aa and aa.
E. Aa and AA.
133. The study of the female karyo- gram shows that the centromere in X chromosome is
placed near the centre. What do we call such a chromosome?
A. Telocentric.
B. Subacrocentric.
C. Submetacentric. *
D. Acrocentric.
E. Metacentric.
134. During the pedigree analysis of a family with such an inherited pathology as
transgression of enamel formation, it was found that the disease appeared in each
generation. It is inherited by daughters from fathers. What type of inheritance can we
observe in this case?
A. Dominant, X-linked. *
B. Autosomal-dominant.
C. Autosomal-recessive.
D. Y-linked.
E. Recessive, X-linked.
135. “Cry of the cat” syndrome is characterized by the underdevelopment of laryngeal
muscles, “miaowing” voice timbre, psychomotoric immaturation of a baby. This disease is
the result of:
A. Duplication of fragment of the 5th chromosome.
B. Translocation of the 21st chromosome on the 15th.
C. Deletion of short arm of the 5th chromosome. *
D. Deletion of short arm of the 21st chromosome.
E. Inversion of a fragment of the 21st chromosome.
136. Endemic goiter is widespread among the Transcarpathian population due to iodine
deficiency in food. What form of variability is this case based on?
A. Mutation.
B. Modification. *
C. Combinative.
D. Hereditary.
E. Genotypical.
137. A sick child has disturbance of lipid exchange, which is accompanied by the increase of
lipid concentration in the blood serum and the accumulation of the substance in the nerve
cells. Some dysfunctions of the higher nervous system are also present. What hereditary
disease can such symptoms be typical of?
A. Tay-Sachs disease. *
B. Edward’s syndrome.
C. Phenylketonuria.
D. Marfan’s syndrome.
E. Hemophilia.
138. During the pathoanatomic inspection of a baby-boy’s dead body the following
abnormalities: poly- dactily, microcephaly, a cleft lip and cleft palate, hypertrophy of the
parenchymal organs were found. These symptoms are typical of Patau syndrome. What is
the cause of this disease?
A. Trisomy on the 21st chromosome.
B. Trisomy on the 18th chromosome.
C. Trisomy on the 13th chromosome. *
D. Trisomy on X chromosome.
E. Monosomy on X chromosome.
Medical parasitology
Protozoans
139. The observation of a patient showed that he had toxoplasmosis. Which of those
materials were used for diagnosing the disease?
A. Feces.
B. Blood. *
C. Urine.
D. Duodenal contents.
E. Phlegm.
140. A woman gave birth to a dead baby with a lot of failures of development. What
protozoan disease could cause the fetus’s death?
A. Malaria.
B. Amebiasis.
C. Toxoplasmosis. *
D. Leishmaniasis.
E. Giardiasis.
141. A patient was taken to a hospital with complaints of general weakness, pain in bowels,
indigestion. The feces examination revealed cysts with 4 nuclei. Which protozoan are these
cysts most typical of?
A. Giardia intestinalis.
B. Entamoeba coli.
C. Balantidium coli.
D. Entamoeba gingivalis.
E. Entamoeba histolytica. *
142. Mosquitoes bites caused the appearance of ulcers on the human’s skin which were
observed under a microscope. The ulcer’s contents analysis revealed nonflagelated
protozoans. What disease is this?
A. Cutaneous leishmaniasis. *
B. Visceral leishmaniasis.
C. Malaria.
D. Scabies.
E. Myiasis.
143. A patient complained of general weakness, bad appetite and nausea. After the
examination in the duodenal aspirates pear-shaped protozoans with 4 pairs of flagella and
two nuclei were found. Which of the disease could the patient be ill with?
A. Trichomoniasis.
B. Leishmaniasis.
C. Giardiasis. *
D. Toxoplasmosis.
E. Malaria.
144. In some regions of the world the cases of malaria became more frequent. What insect
is a carrier of the agent of malaria?
A. Culex mosquito.
B. Phlebotomus sandfly.
C. Simulium black fly.
D. Anopheles mosquito. *
E. Aedes mosquito.
145. A patient consulted a doctor because of complaints of general weakness, pain in
bowels, indigestion, frequent cases of bloody diarrhea (3-5 times a day). Laboratory
analysis showed that the patient’s feces contained vegetative forms of protozoans with an
unstable body shape. Their cytoplasm contained food vacuoles with erythrocytes. What
representative of Protozoa was found in the patient’s feces?
A. Giardia intestinalis.
B. Balantidium coli.
C. Entamoeba coli.
D. Trichomonas vaginalis.
E. Entamoeba histolytica. *
146. A patient with bile ducts inflammation was admitted to a gastrointestinal department.
In the bile active pear-shaped protozoans with 2 nuclei and 4 pairs of flagella were found.
What protozoan disease did the patient have?
A. Giardiasis. *
B. Toxoplasmosis.
C. Balantidiasis.
D. Trichomoniasis.
E. Amebiasis.
147. A patient with attacks of wasting fever and the body temperature rising up to 40° C
was admitted to an infectious department of a hospital. Those attacks repeated
rhythmically every 48 hours. It was known from anamnesis that the patient had recently
returned from South Africa where he had been staying for 3 years. What was the causative
organism of that disease?
A. Agent of Gambian trypanosomiasis.
B. Agent of giardiasis.
C. Agent of four-days’ malaria.
D. Agent of toxoplasmosis.
E. Agent of three-days’ malaria. *
148. Cysts with 8 nuclei were found in the feces examined through a microscope. Which of
Protozoa did those cysts belong to?
A. Balantidium coli.
B. Entamoeba coli. *
C. Giardia intestinalis.
D. Trichomonas hominis.
E. Toxoplasma gondii.
149. Some antelopes were brought to the Kyiv zoo from Africa. Trypanosoma gambiense
were found in their blood. Are these antelopes epidemically dangerous?
A. Dangerous to domestic animals and human.
B. Dangerous only to human.
C. Are not epidemically dangerous at all. *
D. Dangerous to other antelopes.
E. Dangerous only to predators.
150. Having returned from Turkmenia, a patient with ulcers on his face came to a doctor.
The doctor diagnosed cutaneous leishmaniasis. How did the disease agent get into the
patient’s organism?
A. By an inoculable way. *
B. By a respiratory way.
C. By a direct contact.
D. By a sexual contact.
E. By food.
151. Cysts were found in the feces of a restaurant worker. They had 4 nuclei of the same
size. Which of the protozoans did the cysts belong to?
A. Entamoeba coli.
B. Balantidium coli.
C. Entamoeba histolytica. *
D. Trichomonas vaginalis.
E. Toxoplasma gondii.
152. During the examination of duodena] aspirates of a patient with indigestion pearshaped protozoans measuring 10 — 18 micrometers with 4 pairs of flagella were found. On
a large scale there were 2 symmetrically placed nuclei. Which of the protozoans parasitized
within the patient’s body?
A. Entamoeba coli.
B. Entamoeba histolytica.
C. Trichomonas hominis.
D. Giardia intestinalis. *
E. Balantidium coli.
153. A patient has typical symptoms of malaria: wasting fever, exhaustion. These attacks
repeat once in a while. What stage of Plasmodium is in the patient’s blood?
A. Ookinete.
B. Oocysts.
C. Sporozoites.
D. Sporocysts.
E. Merozoites. *
154. A doctor is staying in one of the Asian countries taking care of a 10-year-old sick
children. The symptoms of the disease are: exhaustion, fever, anemia, hepatomegaly and
spleeno- megaly. As there are a lot of mosquitoes in this country, the children are likely to
be sick with:
A. Visceral leishmaniasis. *
B. Balantidiasis.
C. Toxoplasmosis.
D. Giardiasis.
E. Amebiasis.
155. In the feces of a person ill with chronic colitis rounded cysts with 4 nuclei, 10
micrometers in diameter were found. Which of Protozoa do they belong to?
A. Entamoeba gingivalis.
B. Entamoeba coli.
C. Entamoeba histolytica. *
D. Giardia intestinalis.
E. Balantidium coli.
156. A patient with a provisional diagnosis of liver abscess was delivered to a surgical
department of a hospital. The patient was staying in Ukraine. He had stomach disorder,
indigestion and frequent bloody diarrhea. The patient hadn’t consulted a doctor before.
Which protozoan illness could the patient be ill with?
A. Malaria.
B. Trypanosomiasis.
C. Leishmaniasis.
D. Amebiasis. *
E. Toxoplasmosis.
157. The parents of an ill boy have come to consult an infectious disease doctor. The family
has lived in the Asian country for a while, where there are a lot of mosquitoes. The boy’s
skin is of dark color. He has a bad appetite, malaise, spleenomegaly and hepatomegaly and
peripheral lymph glands enlargement. Which of the protozoan illnesses are these
symptoms typical of?
A. Giardiasis.
B. Balantidiasis.
C. Amebiasis.
D. Toxoplasmosis.
E. Visceral leishmaniasis. *
158. In a female patient with symptoms of the inflammatory process of urogenital
apparatus large unicellular organisms have been observed in the vagina smear. The cell
bodies of the organisms are pear-shaped with a pointed posterior part, a large nucleus and
an undulating membrane. What protozoans have been found in the smear?
A. Trichomonas vaginalis. *
B. Trichomonas hominis.
C. Toxoplasma gondii.
D. Trypanosoma gambiense.
E. Giardia intestinalis.
159. A woman who had two miscarriages came to a women’s consultat- ing centre. Which
of the protozoan illnesses could provoke the miscarriages?
A. Balantidiasis.
B. Trichomoniasis.
C. Toxoplasmosis. *
D. Giardiasis.
E. Amebiasis.
160. During the examination of a patient a doctor found small ulcers with rough edges on
the patient’s skin. The patient had just returned from an Asian country where there were a
lot of mosquitoes. What disease can be suspected?
A. Trypanosomiasis.
B. Toxoplasmosis.
C. Malaria.
D. Cutaneous leishmaniasis. *
E. Scabies.
161. In the woman’s anamnesis there were two miscarriages. The third pregnancy ended in
a birth of a baby with a lot of malformations (upper extremities were absent and lower
extremities were underdeveloped). The presence of what protozoans in the woman’s body
could cause such abnormalities?
A. Entamoeba histolytica.
B. Giardia intestinalis.
C. Balantidium coli.
D. Trichomonas hominis.
E. Toxoplasma gondii. *
162. During the checkup of restaurant workers the doctors often notice the assymptomatic
parasitosis: a totally healthy person is a carrier of cysts which infect other people. The
parasitism of which parasites makes it possible?
A. Entamoeba histolytica. *
B. Plasmodium vivax.
C. Trypanosoma gambiense.
D. Leishmania donovani.
E. Leishmania infantum.
Worms
163. During the microscopy of the scrape of the anal mucosa of a child the assymmetric
colorless eggs were found. Which helminth did those eggs belong to?
A. Ancylostoma duodenale.
B. Ascaris lumbricoides.
C. Enterobius vermicularis. *
D. Trichocephalus trichiurus.
E. Hymenolepis nana.
164. During the operation white helminths 40 mm long with a thin filiform anterior part of
the body were found in the appendix. After the preliminarily examination of the patient’s
feces oval-shaped eggs with two prominent plugs on the poles were found. What helminth
was found during the operation?
A. Ancylostoma duodenale.
B. Enterobius vermicularis.
C. Ascaris lumbricoides.
D. Trichocephalus trichiurus. *
E. Strongyloides stercoralis.
165. It is well known that some of the helminths at the larval stage parasitize in the muscles
of fish. What helminthosis may the person get if he eats raw fish?
A. Ascariasis.
B. Taeniasis.
C. Enterobiasis.
D. Trichinosis.
E. Diphyllobothriasis *
166. A helminth 2 meters long was found in the feces of a patient after drug treatment. The
helminth’s body consisted of segments, a little head with hooks and with four suckers.
Which helminth did the patient have?
A. Taenia solium. *
B. Taenia saginata
C. Hymenolepis nana.
A. Echinococcus granulosus.
B. Diphyllobothrium latum.
167. A worker of the live-stock farm was made a provisional diagnosis of echinococcosis.
The diagnosis was confirmed during the surgery. From what animal could the patient get
that disease?
A. Sheep.
B. Pig.
C. Dog. *
D. Rabbit.
E. Caw.
168. A patient has severe indigestion. Ripe and immovable segments of a tapeworm are
found in his feces; the uterus of each of them has 7-12 lateral branches. Which helminth
does the patient have?
A. Diphyllobothrium latum.
B. Taenia saginata.
C. Hymenolepis nana.
D. Taenia solium. *
E. Echinococcus granulosus.
169. After the dissection of a woman’s dead body larvae of helminths-cysticer- cus were
found in the tissue of the woman’s encephalon. Which helminth did the larvae belong to?
A. Alveococcus multilocularis.
B. Taenia saginata.
C. Echinococcus granulosus.
D. Hymenolepis nana.
E. Taenia solium. *
170. A 35-year-old man come to a doctor complaining of epigastric pain. As it appeared, the
patient was fond of fishing and often ate raw fish. Eggs of helminths were found in the
patient’s feces. The eggs were dark and ovalshaped with an operculum on one of the poles,
30x15 micrometers in size. Which helminthosis did the patient have?
A. Opisthorchiasis. *
B. Paragonimiasis.
C. Fascioliasis.
D. Schistosomiasis.
E. Ancylostomiasis.
171. A woman came to a doctor complaining of general weakness, epigastic pain,
indigestion. After the examination of the patient anemia connected with vitamin B12
deficiency was found. It was known from anamnesis that living in the Far East she used to
eat caviar. Laboratory analysis showed that the feces contained eggs of helminth which
were ovalshaped, yellow and had an operculum on one of the poles. What disease did the
patient have?
A. Taeniasis.
B. Echinococcosis.
C. Diphyllobothriasis. *
D. Trichinosis.
E. Ascariasis.
172. A child doesn’t sleep well; sometimes he scratches the area around the anus. After the
examination of the child’s nightwear white filiform helminths 1 cm long were found. During
the microscopic examination of a specimen from perianal folds of the child small ovoid
asymmetrical colourless eggs were observed. What is the helminth which parasitizes in the
child’s organism called?
A. Trichinella spiralis.
B. Ascaris lumbricoides.
C. Strongyloides stercoralis.
D. Enterobius vermicularis. *
E. Trichocephalus trichiurus.
173. Fragments of a helminth were found in the feces of a patient after drug treatment.
These fragments had a tapelike segmented structure. The width of the segments exceeded
their length. In the centre of the segment there was a rosette-shaped uterus. Which
helminth did the patient have?
A. Diphyllobotkrium latum. *
B. Taenia solium.
C. Taenia saginata.
D. Alveococcus multilocularis.
E. Hymenolepis nana.
174. A sick child had recurrent diarrhea, epigastric pain, nausea, vomiting. Once after the
child’s vomiting his mother found a spindle-shaped helminth 20 cm long. Which disease
could cause such a condition?
A. Trichuriasis.
B. Ascariasis. *
C. Ancylostomiasis.
D. Dracunculiasis.
E. Trichinosis.
175. The microscopy revealed yellow- brown knobby-coated eggs of helminths with a
thick-wall in the feces of a schoolboy. Which helminth did the eggs belong to?
A. Trichocephalus trichiurus.
B. Enterobius vermicularis.
C. Ascaris lumbricoides. *
D. Hymenolepis nana.
E. Diphyllobothrium latum.
176. A mother of a 5-year-old girl found filiform helminths 0.5-1 cm long with sharp tips on
the child’s nightwear. She brought them to a laboratory. Which disease did these parasites
cause?
A. Ascariasis.
B. Diphyllobothriasis.
C. Taeniasis.
D. Enterobiasis. *
E. Opisthorchiasis.
177. The treatment of a patient with pneumonia didn’t relieve his condition. He began
complaining of stomachache, vomiting, .indigestion, worsening of his general state. The
analysis of the feces revealed oval-shaped helminth’s eggs covered with a thick tuberculate
envelope. What diagnosis can be made basing on the above mentioned data?
A. Fascioliasis.
B. Trichuriasis.
C. Diphyllobothriasis.
D. Enterobiasis.
E. Ascariasis. *
178. A patient with the preliminary diagnosis of trichinosis was admitted to a hospital.
Consuming of what food could cause that disease?
A. Pork. *
B. Beef.
C. Fish.
D. Crayfish.
E. Crab.
179. A woman came to a doctor complaining of indigestion. In her feces flat white moving
segments constantly appeared. Laboratory examination revealed that they were long,
narrow proglottids with a longitudinal canal of the uterus which had 17-35 lateral
branches on each side. Which of the helminths did the woman have in her intestines?
A. Iiymenolepis nana.
B. Taenia solium.
C. Taenia saginata. *
T). Diphyllobothrium latum.
E. Echinococcus granulosus.
180. A hunter drank raw water from the pond. Which of helminthosis may the man get?
A. Opisthorchiasis.
B. Fascioliasis. *
C. Paragonimiasis.
D. Clonorchiasis.
E. Taeniasis.
181. During the checkup of schoolgirls colorless asymmetric oval eggs with larvae inside
were found in the scrape of perianal folds of a 10-year-old girl. What disease does it
indicate?
A. Amebiasis.
B. Ascariasis.
C. Enterobiasis. *
D. Trichuriasis.
E. Ancylostomiasis.
182. A 35-year-old man was taken to a hospital. He failed to see with one of his eyes. It was
known from anamnesis that he used to eat pork. After the radiologic examination and
serologic findings he was diagnosed with cysticercosis. What helminth is an agent of
cysticercosis?
A. Taenia saginata.
B. Taenia solium. *
C. Trichocephalus trichiurus.
D. Trichinella spiralis.
E. Diphyllobothrium latum.
183. A patient came to a doctor complaining of general weakness and indigestion. He
brought segments of a tapeworm found on his bedclothes. Which of the helminths did the
patient have?
A. Hymenolepis nana.
B. Taenia solium.
C. Taenia saginata. *
D. Diphyllobothrium latum.
E. Echinococcus granulosus.
184. A patient came to a doctor complaining of allergy and epigastric pain. Oval-shaped,
yellow colour eggs measuring 135x80 micrometers with an operculum on one of the poles
were found in the feces during the stool examinations. What disease did the patient have?
A. Fascioliasis. *
B. Taeniasis.
C. Opisthorchiasis.
D. Diphyllobothriasis.
E. Echinococcosis.
185. During the examination a patient was diagnosed with opisthorchiasis. With what food
could the patient get the agent of opisthorchiasis?
A. Cysticercosis beef.
B. Dirty vegetables.
C. Cysticercosis pork.
D. Dirty fruit.
E. Undercooked fish. *
186. A patient, who came to Ukraine from Australia, consulted a doctor complaining of pain
during urination. The analysis of his day urine specimens revealed large terminally spined
eggs. What helminth did the patient have?
A. Opisthorchis felineus.
B. Schistosoma mansoni.
C. Schistosoma japonicum.
D. Schistosoma haematobium. *
E. Dicrocoelium lanceatum.
187. During the examination of a man who has recently come back from Africa
schistosomiasis is diagnosed. How could the pathogenic organism penetrate into the
organism of the patient?
A. While eating pork.
B. While eating fish.
C. While swimming in the river. *
D. Through dirty hands.
E. In case of mosquitos’ bites.
188. A tourist who was staying in Eastern Asia had been hospitalized to a therapeutic
section with suspected pneumonia. During the examination of the patient’s sputum and
feces the eggs of Paragonimus ringeri were found. With what food could the patient get the
pathogenic organism?
A. Undercooked crabs. *
B. Unboiled water.
C. Undercooked fish.
D. Undercooked pork.
E. Dirty fruit and vegetables.
189. Larvae of roundworms (Nema toda) have been found in the sputum of a patient with
the provisional diagnosis of pneumonia. What species of the roundworm is this?
A. Fasciola hepatica.
B. Paragonimus ringeri.
C. Ascaris lumbricoides. *
D. Taenia solium.
E. Echinococcus granulosus.
190. A patient came to a stomatological section complaining of pain in the chewing muscles.
It was known from anamnesis that he was fond of hunting and often ate meat of wild
animals. The encysted larva of what parasite was found in the result of muscle biopsy of the
patient?
A. Ancylostoma duodenale.
B. Taenia solium.
C. Dracunculus medinensis.
D. Trichinella spiralis. *
E. Wuchereria bancrofti.
Arachno-entomology
191. Grey insects measuring 1- 1.2 mm with a short wide body covered with setae were
observed on the pubis of some boys during the medical checkup. What insects were they?
A. Sarcoptes scabiei.
B. Pulex irritans.
C. Pediculus humanus capitis.
D. Cimex lectularius.
E. Phthirus pubis. *
192. Grey arthropods measuring 3 mm in length with three pairs of legs were found on a
patient’s head. The arthropods had deep depressions on each side of the body. What
arthropods did the patient have?
A. Cimex lectularius.
B. Sarcoptes scabiei.
C. Pediculus humanus capitis. *
D. Pulex irritans.
E. Demodex folliculorum.
193. A man lives in the area of dermal leishmaniasis distribution. He hasn’t been inoculated
against this disease because of his having contra-indication against it. What insects’ bites
should this man avoid?
A. Mosquitoes.
B. Fleas.
C. Gadflies.
D. Sand flies. *
E. Stable flies.
194. A patient came to a doctor with complaints of itchy skin especially between his hand
fingers and at the bottom of his abdomen. Sinuous passages with disseminations on their
ends were found on the patient’s skin. What disease did these symptoms point out?
A. Pediculosis.
B. Scabies. *
C. Toxoplasmosis.
D. Malaria.
E. Myiasis.
195. After the examination a patient was diagnosed with tickborne relapsing fever. How
was he infected?
A. By means of a soft tick’s bite. *
B. By means of an itch mite’s bite.
C. By means of a hard tick’s bite.
D. By means of a housefly mite’s bite.
E. By means of a dog tick’s bite.
196. A patient came to the doctor complaining of itching between the hand fingers and on
the abdomen that intensified at night. After the examination of his skin rash and thin grey
stripes were found. What pathogenic organism could produce such symptoms?
A. Ixodes ricinus.
B. Sarcoptes scabiei. *
C. Ornithodoros papillipes.
D. Dermacentor pictus.
E. Ixodes persulcatus.
197. A 40-year-old man who lives in a pisewalled house came to a laboratory. Fie found
dark-grey arthropods with a long oval body and a somewhat pointed front end in the wall
chink. The mouth aparatus of the arthropod were placed in the depression of the abdomen
surface. The arthropod had 4 pairs of ambulatory legs, the sexual opening was placed at the
level of the first pair of legs. What arthropod is it?
A. Ixodes ricinus.
B. Ixodes persulcatus.
C. Ornithodoros papillipes. *
D. Sarcoptes scabiei.
E. Dermacentor nuttalli.
198. A child complained of itching in the occipital and temporal parts of the head. After the
examination of his head surface ulcers on the head skin and white nits on the hair were
found. What arthropod was parasitizing on the child’s head?
A. Wohlfahrtia fly.
B. Body louse.
C. Human flea.
D. Head louse. *
E. Crab louse.
199. After the examination a patient was diagnosed with Russian spring-summer
encephalitis. How was he infected by the disease?
A. By means of an itch mite’s bite.
B. By means of a malaria mosquito’s bite.
C. By means of a soft tick’s bite.
D. By means of a sand fly’s bite.
E. By means of a hard tick’s bite. *
200. A patient came to a dermatologist complaining of ulcers which appeared on his face
and neck skin surface. After the laboratory examination of the ulcers the mobile parasitic
arachnids were found. What animal infected the patient?
A. Follicle mite. *
B. Itch mite.
C. Human flea.
D. Bedbug.
E. Wohlfahrtia fly
Tests of others groups modules
1. The patient sees a doctor about painful ulcers like sores that last for a prolonged period.
The destroying tissue larvae of some Arthropods were found after sores investigation. This
infestation with larvae or maggots is known as myiasis. Larvae of what insect is the cause
of myiasis? Select one:
a. Musca domestica.
b. Phlebotomus papatasii.
c. Wohlfahrtia magnifica.
d. Stomoxys calcitrans.
e. Glossina palpalis.
2. A pig farm worker complains of paroxysmal abdominal pain, liquid feces with mucus and
blood, headache, weakness, fever. The ulcers from 1 mm up to several cm in diameter were
revealed during large intestine examination. Feces microscopic examination demonstrated
oval unicellular organisms with cilia. What disease can be suspected? Select one:
a. Taeniasis
b. Gardiasis
c. Balantidiasis
d. Trichomoniasis
e. Amebiasis
3. The visitor of a Japanese restaurant suddenly got a feel lip and tongue paresthesias,
followed by facial and extremity paresthesias and numbness. Than salivation, nausea,
vomiting, and diarrhea with abdominal pain were developed. It was considered that
afflicted individual suffered from the passively poisonous animal's toxin. Which animals of
the following list are belong to "passively poisonous"? Select one:
a. Puffer Fish
b. Bee
c. Salamander
d. Spider
e. Scorpion
4. The examination of a 40-year-old man revealed rash and thin grey stripes on the skin.
The doctor was informed by the patient about itch between the fingers and on the
abdomen. The itch was especially intensive at night. What is the most credible diagnosis in
this case? Select one:
a. Pediculosis
b. Cutaneous leishmaniasis
c. Myiasis
d. Phthiriasis
e. Scabies
5. During examination of a 14-year-old girl a doctor found on her pubis grey insects with a
wide short body. Their size was 1,1 - 1,3 millimeter. Which of below mentioned species can
describe above animals belong to? Select one:
a. Pediculus humanus capitis *
b. Triatoma infestans
c. Pulex irritans
d. Phthirus pubis
e. Cimex lectularius
6. A 38-year-old woman sees a doctor about indigestion and general weakness. She found
on her bedclothes the actively moving segments of a tapeworm. What helminth is in the
patient's body? Select one:
a. Hymenolepis nana
b. Echinococcus granulosus
c. Taenia saginata *
d. Paragonimus ringeri
e. Diphyllobothrium latum
7. During the cytogenetic analysis a patient was found to have cells with chromosome
number 46, XY and 47, XXY in the same proportions. What did the doctor diagnose? Select
one:
a. Klinefelter's syndrome. *
b. Morris syndrome.
c. Patau syndrome.
d. Down's syndrome.
e. Turner's syndrome.
8. A 19-year-old woman returned from a Costa Rica had been suffering from crampy
abdominal pain and diarrhea for over a week. Microscopic examination of a concentrated
wet-mount preparation of stool sample revealed oval eggs, with some being more broadly
oval than others. Eggshell was thick and mammilated. What parasitic disease can be
suspected in the patient? Select one:
a. Ancylostomiasis
b. Enterobiasis
c. Trichinosis
d. Ascariasis
e. Filariasis
9. The work of bacterium operon is being studied. A gene operator has been released from
the protein-repressor. What do we call the process which begins right after that? Select
one:
a. Translation.
b. Transcription. *
C. Amino acids activation.
d. Replication.
e. Processing.
10. The patient with ulcers on his face came to see a doctor. It's known that he has been
recently returned to Ukraine from Turkmenia. The doctor diagnosed cutaneous
leishmaniasis. How did the disease agent get into the patient's organism? Select one:
a. By an inoculation way *
b. By a sexual contact
C. By food
d. By a respiratory way
e. By a direct contact
11. Urologist examined a patient with complaint of pain during urination. It was suspected
that helminthosis is a reason of this state and recommended laboratory analysis of
patient's day urinary specimens. Large eggs with terminal spine were found there. What is
the most credible diagnosis in this case? Select one:
a. Clonorchiasis
b. Opistorchiasis
c. Paragonimiasis
d. Taeniasis
e. Schistosomiasis*
12. During the examination of the man's epithelium of the cheek mucosa it was established
that in most cells the nuclei had Barr bodies. What syndrome is it typical of? Select one:
a. Down's syndrome.
b. Trisomy on X chromosome.
c. Klinefelter's syndrome. *
d. Turner's syndrome.
e. Edward's syndrome.
13. A 10-year-old child complains of weakness, nausea, irritability. Helminthes of white
color and 5-10 mm long were found on the underwear. On microscopy of the scrape from
the perianal folds achromic ova of the unsymmetrical form were revealed. Indicate what
helminth is parasiting on the child? Select one:
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Trichinela spiralis
C. Enterobius vermicularis *
d. Trichuris trichiura
e. Ancylostoma duodenalis
14. In the family pedigree hypertrichosis (excessive pilosis of the auricle) is observed. This
feature appears in each generation and is typical only for men. What type of inheritance
does this feature have? Select one:
a. Dominant, X-linked.
b. Autosomal-dominant.
c. Recessive, X-linked.
d. Autosomal-recessive.
e. Y-linked.*
Problems:
VARIANT I
1. The plankton of the lake decreased its biomass from 65000 to 50000 kg. As a result the biomass of
the lake minnows (trophic efficiency is 9 %), for which plankton is food, also decreased. How many
individuals will the lake pike population decrease by (the average mass is 3.5 kg, trophic efficiency is
12 %)?
2. Calculate the quantity of amino acid remains in the six proteins coded in six genes, which are placed
one after another and create the unified matrix for MRNA synthesis, if 5400 nucleotides are required
for this DNA part replication.
3. A girl and a boy were born to a young married couple. The girl is absolutely healthy. The
examination of the boy's karyotype has shown 46 chromosomes. But one of the chromosomes of the
15" pair is longer than normal as a part of a chromosome of 21" pair has joined it. Name the type of
the mutation. Is it possible to consider this pathology an inherited disorder?
VARIANT 2
1. Polar foxes live in tundra. Their food consists of lemmings, which are consumed totally. The polar
fox trophic efficiency is 8 %, and the lemming trophic efficiency 15 %. How much primary production
is necessary for feeding of lemmings, which are used as the food for 10 young polar foxes if known
that each young polar fox increases its body mass from 1 kg to 12 kg?
2. The first child was born when the mother was 25 years old, and the father was 32 years old; the
second child was born 6 years later. How long did it take to form the parents' gametes, from which
the zygotes were formed in the first and second case?
3. A 16-year-old girl appealed to the genetic consultation. She complains about menstruation
absence. She has body disproportion: wide shoulders, narrow pelvis, shortened low extremities,
aliform skin folds on the neck, ovaries underdevelopment. There is no mental deficiency. The
provisional diagnosis is the Turner's syndrome. What genetic method can confirm this diagnosis?
What girl's karyotype is typical of the Tumer's syndrome.
VARIANT 3
1. A patient consulted a doctor because of complaints of general weakness, pain in bowels,
indigestion, frequent cases of bloody diarrhea. Laboratory analysis showed that the patient's feces
contained vegetative forms of protozoans with an unstable body shape. Their cytoplasm contained
food vacuoles with erythrocytes. What representative of Protozoa was found in the patient's feces?
Which disease could the patient be ill with?
2. Otosclerosis is defined by the dominant gene located in an autosome. The penetrance of this gene
is 50 %. The healthy child was born in a family where both heterozygous father and mother are ill
with otosclerosis. What is the probability of the birth of a child with otosclerosis?
3. A pregnant woman appealed to the genetic consultation to detect the sex of her future child. The
woman and her husband are healthy but have a son with the Klinefelter's syndrome. What method
of prenatal diagnostics should be used to detect the sex of the future child? What fetus' karyotype is
typical of the Klinefelter's syndrome in a newbon?
VARIANT 4
1. The gynecologist detected an inflammatory process of the urogenital tract of a woman during the
clinical examination. The microscopic examinations showed presents of protozoans in the patient's
vaginal smear. They were pear-shaped with a pointed posterior part. Each unicellular organism had
a large nucleus and an undulating membrane. Which disease was diagnosed based on mentioned
above analysis? Write the Latin name of the causative agent of that disease.
2. A man with the II (A) blood group and a woman with the IIII (B) blood group in the AB0 system
have black hair. Their child has blond hair and the I (0) blood group. What is the probability of the
birth of a child with the father's phenotype?
3. The inhabitants of the region, where iodine and other microelements. deficiency is observed in
potable water, rather often have such stomatological diseases as caries and periodontitis. Can the
children of the inhabitants inherit the mentioned pathologies? What type of variability is represented
here?
VARIANT 5
1. A 35-year-old woman was taken to a hospital. The doctor detected bile duct inflammation in the
patient and recommended a laboratory analysis of the bile. Active pear-shaped protozoa with 4 pairs
of flagella and 2 nuclei were revealed. What protozoans have been found in the bile? Which disease
was diagnosed based on mentioned above analysis?
2. A man is color-blind and has dark eyes. His wife has dark eyes and normal eyesight. Their son is
color-blind with light eyes. What is the probability of the birth of a girl with her brother's phenotype
in this family?
3. Parents with excessive body weight have three children. Their 10-year-old son is brought up in a
sports boarding school and has normal body weight. Their 14-year-old daughter is brought up in the
family and has excessive body weight. The adoptive 13-year-old daughter is also brought up in the
family and has excessive body weight, but somewhat smaller than the weight of their own daughter.
Do the children of the parents have inherited propensity to excessive body weight? To what group of
characters does excessive body weight belong?
VARIANT 6
1. The patient sees a doctor about some symptoms: paroxysmal attacks of chills, fever and sweating.
He told the doctor that these attacks repeated every 48 hours. Laboratory examination of a patient's
stained blood specimen showed the presence ring-shaped and amoebaean-shaped protozoans within
red blood cells. Affected RBCS were with an oval shape. What disease can be suspected? What is the
agent of patient's disease? What is the vector of the causative agent of this disease?
2. The nucleus of the female fruit fly (Drosophila melanogaster) somatic cell contains 4 pairs of
chromosomes. How many chromosomes are contained in the fruit fly polocytes in the end of the
telophase of the second meiotic division? Are the fruit fly polocytes and the egg cells identical by the
quantity of DNA molecules and the amount of genetic information?
3. For the normal development of hearing there should be two dominant genes in the person's
genotype: a dominant gene A for the development of the helix, and a dominant gene B - for the
development of the auditory nerve. There was born a child with normal hearing to deaf parents.
Explain, with what form of variability the birth of a healthy child to these parents is connected.
VARIANT 7
1. A woman appealed to the doctor, complaining about general weakness, epigastic pain, in digestion.
After examination of the patient anemia connected with deficiency of vitamin B12 was found. It is
known from anamnesis that patient had been living in the Far East for a long time. She used to eat
caviar. Laboratory analyses showed that feces contained eggs of helminth, which had oval shape,
yellow color and operculum on the one pole. What disease did the patient have? Write the Latin name
of the causative agent of that disease.
2. There are 20000 spermatocytes in the growth zone of the male reproductive gland. How many
secondary spermatocytes and spermatozoa can be formed?
3. Two children were born in the family: the son with the gene of hemophilia. and the daughter
heterozygous for the gene
of daltonism. Determine:
a) How many autosomes
and sex chromosomes do
the son and the daughter
have?
b) The type of mutation
observed in the son.
VARIANT 8
1. A 40-year-old man from rural France was taken to the hospital with recurring cholangitis; the
patient had been experiencing symptoms for the previous six months. An MRI revealed one lesion in
the liver, measuring approximately 5 centimeters long by 2 centimeters wide. An endoscopic
retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) was also performed in the common bile duct,
revealing flat leaf-shaped worms 3 cm long with oral and ventral suckers and the extensively
branched intestinal cecum. What parasitic representative was found in the patient? What disease can
be suspected?
2. Find out the anticodons for tRNA molecules participating in protein synthesis. The information
about protein primary structure is in the fragment of the DNA coding strand: CAC-GAC-CAA-ACGGGT-AGA.
3. A defect of the skeleton of head and extremity typical of the Edward's syndrome has been detected
in a newborn. During the
cytogenetic research it was
established that in the karyotype
of the child there are 47
chromosomes because of the
presence of three chromosomes
from the 18 pair. Explain the
probable mechanism of this
mutation occurrence in the
newborn.