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HW1 PEGN513 Reservoir Simulation I - Theoza Nopranda

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PEGN513 Reservoir Simulation I
HW 1
Name: Theoza Nopranda
Due: Thursday, September 6th, 2018
Problem 1.
Poiseuille equation in a capillary tube is defined as below equation:
1 πœ•
πœ•π‘’
1 𝑑𝑝
(π‘Ÿ ) =
=𝐢
π‘Ÿ πœ•π‘Ÿ πœ•π‘Ÿ
πœ‡ 𝑑π‘₯
(1.1)
Arranging above equation to get:
πœ•
πœ•π‘’
(π‘Ÿ ) = πΆπ‘Ÿ
πœ•π‘Ÿ πœ•π‘Ÿ
Integrating both hand sides in respect of π‘Ÿ,
∫ 𝑑 (π‘Ÿ
⇒π‘Ÿ
πœ•π‘’
) = ∫ πΆπ‘Ÿ π‘‘π‘Ÿ
πœ•π‘Ÿ
πœ•π‘’
π‘Ÿ2
= 𝐢 + 𝐢1
πœ•π‘Ÿ
2
We know that at π‘Ÿ = 0,
π‘Ÿ
𝑑𝑒
π‘‘π‘Ÿ
= 0 and 𝐢1 = 0, so
πœ•π‘’
π‘Ÿ2
=𝐢
πœ•π‘Ÿ
2
(1.2)
Rearranging above equation, we get
πœ•π‘’
π‘Ÿ
⇒
=𝐢
πœ•π‘Ÿ
2
π‘Ÿ
⇒ 𝑑𝑒 = 𝐢 π‘‘π‘Ÿ
2
Integrating both hand sides in respect of π‘Ÿ again,
⇒ ∫ 𝑑𝑒 = ∫ 𝐢
𝑒(π‘Ÿ) = 𝐢
π‘Ÿ
π‘‘π‘Ÿ
2
π‘Ÿ2
+ 𝐢2
4
We know at π‘Ÿ = π‘Ÿπ‘’ , 𝑒 = 0 and
0=𝐢
π‘Ÿπ‘’2
+ 𝐢2
4
We get
1
𝐢2 = −𝐢
π‘Ÿπ‘’2
4
𝑒(π‘Ÿ) = 𝐢
π‘Ÿ2
π‘Ÿπ‘’2
π‘Ÿπ‘’2
π‘Ÿ2
− 𝐢 = − (1 − 2 ) 𝐢
4
4
4
π‘Ÿπ‘’
(1.3)
1 𝒅𝒑
substituting 𝐢 = πœ‡ 𝒅𝒙
𝒖(𝒓) = −
π’“πŸπ’†
π’“πŸ 𝟏 𝒅𝒑
(𝟏 − 𝟐 )
πŸ’
𝒓𝒆 𝝁 𝒅𝒙
(1.4)
Problem 2.
Average velocity 𝑒̅ is defined as the integration over the cross section area:
𝑒̅ =
∫ 𝑒(π‘Ÿ) 𝑑𝐴
𝐴
(2.1)
Area in a capillary tube can be defined as area of circle
𝐴 = πœ‹π‘Ÿ 2
⇒ 𝑑𝐴 = 2πœ‹π‘Ÿ π‘‘π‘Ÿ
Substituting 𝐴, 𝑑𝐴, and 𝑒(π‘Ÿ) (from equation 1.4) to equation 2.1, we get
𝑒̅ =
1 π‘Ÿπ‘’ π‘Ÿπ‘’2
π‘Ÿ 2 𝑑𝑝
1 π‘Ÿπ‘’ π‘Ÿπ‘’2
π‘Ÿ 2 𝑑𝑝
2)
∫
−
−
𝑑(πœ‹π‘Ÿ
=
∫
−
−
(1
)
(1
) 2πœ‹π‘Ÿ π‘‘π‘Ÿ
4
4
πœ‹π‘Ÿπ‘’2 0
π‘Ÿπ‘’2 𝑑π‘₯
πœ‹π‘Ÿπ‘’2 0
π‘Ÿπ‘’2 𝑑π‘₯
⇒ 𝑒̅ =
2πœ‹ π‘Ÿπ‘’ π‘Ÿπ‘’2
π‘Ÿ 3 𝑑𝑝
∫
−
−
(π‘Ÿ
) π‘‘π‘Ÿ
4
πœ‹π‘Ÿπ‘’2 0
π‘Ÿπ‘’2 𝑑π‘₯
(2.2)
Integrating the integral term in respect of π‘Ÿ from 0 to π‘Ÿπ‘’
π‘Ÿ
2
π‘Ÿπ‘’2 π‘Ÿ 2 π‘Ÿ 4 𝑑𝑝 𝑒
𝑒̅ = 2 [− ( − 2 ) ]
4 2 4π‘Ÿπ‘’ 𝑑π‘₯ 0
π‘Ÿπ‘’
⇒ 𝑒̅ =
2
π‘Ÿπ‘’2 π‘Ÿπ‘’ 2 π‘Ÿπ‘’ 4 𝑑𝑝
[−
( − 2) ]
4 2
π‘Ÿπ‘’2
4π‘Ÿπ‘’ 𝑑π‘₯
⇒ 𝑒̅ =
2
π‘Ÿπ‘’2 π‘Ÿπ‘’ 2 𝑑𝑝
[−
( ) ]
4 4 𝑑π‘₯
π‘Ÿπ‘’2
So, the average velocity 𝑒̅
Μ…=−
𝒖
π’“πŸπ’† 𝒅𝒑
[ ]
πŸ– 𝒅𝒙
(2.3)
Problem 3.
Flow in an ideal fracture is defined as below equation
2
πœ• 2 𝑒 1 𝑑𝑝
=
=𝐢
πœ•π‘¦ 2 πœ‡ 𝑑π‘₯
(3.1)
Integrating both sides twice, we get
𝑒(𝑦) = 𝐢
𝑦2
+ 𝐢1 𝑦 + 𝐢2
2
We know when 𝑦 =
𝑀𝑓
2
and −
𝑀𝑓
2
, 𝑒 = 0, by substituting those two known-values, we get two equations:
𝑀𝑓2
𝑀𝑓
𝑀𝑓
𝑒( ) = 𝐢
+ 𝐢1
+ 𝐢2 = 0
2
8
2
𝑒 (−
(3.2)
𝑀𝑓2
𝑀𝑓
𝑀𝑓
)=𝐢
− 𝐢1
+ 𝐢2 = 0
2
8
2
(3.3)
Based on equation 3.2 and 3.3, we find that 𝐢1 = 0 and 𝐢2 = −𝐢
𝑀𝑓2
8
, so
𝑀𝑓2
𝑦2
1 𝑀𝑓2
𝑒(𝑦) = 𝐢
−𝐢
= − ( − 𝑦2) 𝐢
2
8
2 4
Substituting 𝐢 =
𝑑𝑝
,
𝑑π‘₯
(3.4)
the flow inside two parallel plates can be calculated using below equation:
𝟏 π’˜πŸπ’‡
𝟏 𝒅𝒑
𝒖(π’š) = − ( − π’šπŸ )
𝟐 πŸ’
𝝁 𝒅𝒙
(3.5)
Problem 4.
Average velocity 𝑒̅ is defined as:
𝑒̅ =
∫ 𝑒(𝑦) 𝑑𝐴
𝐴
(4.1)
Substituting the expression of 𝑒(𝑦) from equation 3.5 and 𝐴 as the area of rectangle with dimension of
𝑀𝑓 × πΏ to equation 4.1, we get
𝑀𝑓
1
2
1 𝑀𝑓2
1 𝑑𝑝
𝑒̅ =
∫ 𝑀 − ( − 𝑦2)
𝑑(𝑦𝐿)
𝑀𝑓 𝐿 − 𝑓 2 4
πœ‡ 𝑑π‘₯
2
𝑀𝑓
𝑀𝑓
1
2
1 𝑀𝑓2
1 𝑑𝑝
1
1 𝑀𝑓2 𝑦 𝑦 3 1 𝑑𝑝 2
⇒ 𝑒̅ =
∫ 𝑀 − ( − 𝑦2)
𝑑𝑦 = [− (
− )
]
𝑀𝑓 − 𝑓 2 4
πœ‡ 𝑑π‘₯
𝑀𝑓
2 4
3 πœ‡ 𝑑π‘₯ −𝑀𝑓
2
Integrating the integral term in respect of 𝑦 from −
𝑒̅ =
(4.2)
2
𝑀𝑓
2
to
𝑀𝑓
2
𝑀𝑓3 𝑀𝑓3 1 𝑑𝑝
1
1 𝑀𝑓3 𝑀𝑓3 1 𝑑𝑝 1
[− ( − )
+ (−
+ )
]
𝑀𝑓
2 8
24 πœ‡ 𝑑π‘₯ 2
8
24 πœ‡ 𝑑π‘₯
3
𝑀𝑓3 1 𝑑𝑝
1
⟹ 𝑒̅ =
[− ( )
]
𝑀𝑓
12 πœ‡ 𝑑π‘₯
So, the average velocity 𝑒̅ between two parallel plates
Μ… = −(
𝒖
π’˜πŸπ’‡ 𝟏 𝒅𝒑
)
𝟏𝟐 𝝁 𝒅𝒙
(4.3)
Problem 5.
General Darcy equation is defined as:
𝑒̅ = −
π‘˜ 𝑑𝑝
πœ‡ 𝑑π‘₯
(5.1)
By comparing equation 5.1 and 4.3, we can conclude that
π‘˜π‘“ =
𝑀𝑓2
12
(5.2)
However, in porous media, fracture volume depends on the fracture porosity. With the assumption of
tortuosity of fracture (𝜏) is equal to 1, the effective fracture permeability inside porous media can be
written as:
π‘˜π‘“,𝑒𝑓𝑓 =
πœ™π‘“ 𝑀𝑓2 πœ™π‘“ 𝑀𝑓2
=
πœπ‘“ 12
12
(5.3)
4
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