CHAPTER 13 PRACTICE TEST
1.
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the distinction between
normal and abnormal behavior?
a.
A person might be considered normal in one culture and abnormal in another.
b.
Not all people whose behavior is abnormal experience personal distress.
c.
The most widely used criterion for committing people to an institution is
whether they are a danger to themselves or others.
d.
It is relatively easy to differentiate normal behavior from abnormal
behavior.
2.
Ike experiences excessive anxiety over his performance at work and at school
although he is doing quite well at both. Ike would most likely be diagnosed as
suffering from:
a.
panic disorder
b.
obsessive-compulsive disorder
c.
phobias
d.
generalized anxiety disorder
3.
Arnold is afraid of grasshoppers. Jeff is afraid of lightning and thunder, and Igor
is afraid of the dentist. All three suffer from:
a.
agoraphobia
b.
social phobia
c.
specific phobias
d.
complex phobias
4.
Most specific and social phobias result from:
a.
unconscious sexual and aggressive impulses
b.
learning
c.
low self-esteem
d.
genetic programming
5.
Every time Leo and Dana are driving out of town for vacation, Dana worries that she
forgot to turn off the oven. She insists on returning to check it. Dana has:
a.
a hallucination
b.
an obsession
c.
a delusion
d.
a compulsion
6.
Obsessions differ from compulsions in that obsessions are
are
.
a.
abnormal; normal
b.
neurotic; psychotic
c.
thoughts; behaviors
d.
behaviors; thoughts
, while compulsions
7.
Compulsive behaviors are usually attempts to:
a.
distract oneself from the obsessive thoughts
b.
relieve the anxiety caused by an obsession
c.
protect one’s self-concept by repressing and “forgetting” painful memories
d.
avoid anxiety by avoiding the targets of phobias
8.
The book Sybil tells the story of a woman who developed more than a dozen distinct
personalities of various ages and of both genders. According to the text, Sybil’s
disorder would be placed in the category:
a.
generalized anxiety disorder
b.
dissociative identity disorder
c.
gender identity disorder
d.
schizophrenia
9.
A person who sees, hears, smells, or tastes something when there is no external
stimulus causing the perceptions is experiencing:
a.
a hallucination
b.
a delusion
c.
an obsession
d.
a compulsion
10.
According to the text’s definition of a delusion, a belief that fortune tellers can
predict the future is NOT considered a delusion because:
a.
it can be proven to be true
b.
a substantial number of people in the culture believe it
c.
it does not hurt anyone
d.
delusions are not shared by several people
11.
Patients with schizophrenia who speak in a monotone and have no expression on
their faces are said to show:
a.
flat affect
b.
inappropriate affect
c.
catatonic stupor
d.
robotics affect
12.
Which of the following is an example of inappropriate affect?
a.
Raymond might wear a suit and tie to mow his yard but wears a swimsuit to
church.
b.
Joel laughed when he heard that 53 people died in an airplane crash, but he
cries when he watches cartoons.
c.
Jerry always seems to do the wrong things in social situations.
d.
Robert speaks with a Japanese accent though his heritage is Spanish, and he
does not know Japanese.
13.
Patients suffering from which type of schizophrenia have the poorest chance of
recovery and the most severe and bizarre symptoms?
a.
disorganized
b.
c.
d.
catatonic
undifferentiated
paranoid
14.
Suicide is most common among:
a.
adolescents
b.
the elderly
c.
the middle-aged
d.
college students
15.
Frank’s mood state swings from despair to mania. Sometimes he is so depressed
that he becomes suicidal, while at other times he is extremely elated and energetic.
Frank has received a diagnosis of:
a.
somatoform disorder
b.
major depression
c.
schizophrenia
d.
bipolar disorder
16.
Low levels of serotonin are associated with
associated with
.
a.
mania; schizophrenia
b.
depression; schizophrenia
c.
depression; mania
d.
mania; depression
17.
Which of these statements is true of personality disorders?
a.
Personality disorders usually begin in adulthood.
b.
Persons with these disorders usually realize their problem.
c.
Persons with these disorders typically have problems in social relationships
and at work.
d.
Persons with these disorders typically seek professional help.
18.
The majority of people would consider the most objectionable form of paraphilia to
be:
a.
exhibitionism
b.
sexual masochism
c.
voyeurism
d.
pedophilia
19.
Which of the following statements about DSM-IV is FALSE?
a.
The DSM-IV describes approximately 250 specific psychological disorders.
b.
The DSM-IV provides a common language to diagnose and label mental
disorders.
c.
The DSM-IV was written by Dr. Ronald Kessler, Director of the National
Institutes of Mental Health (NIMH).
d.
The DSM-IV provides the exact criteria that must be met in order for a
mental health professional to diagnose a particular mental disorder.
; high levels of serotonin are
20.
Severely restricted eating and intense fear of weight gain is to
eating followed by self-induced vomiting is to
.
a.
anorexia nervosa; bulimia nervosa
b.
bulimia nervosa; anorexia nervosa
c.
body dysmorphic disorder; anorexia nervosa
d.
bulimia nervosa; body dysmorphic disorder
as binge
21.
In contrast to normal anxiety, pathological anxiety:
a.
is unreasonably intense, irrational, uncontrollable, and disruptive
b.
is focused on relationship problems rather than work or academic concerns
c.
alerts people to realistic problems that need to be addressed or solved
d.
is unpleasant
22.
The main symptom of a disorder called
unexpected panic attacks.
a.
generalized anxiety disorder
b.
panic disorder
c.
agoraphobia
d.
dissociative fugue
23.
Joan has always been afraid of dogs, particularly big dogs. Which of the following
would indicate that Joan is suffering from specific phobia?
a.
Joan has recurrent nightmares about dogs.
b.
Joan responds physically to the presence of a dog, such as with an asthma or
allergy attack.
c.
Joan’s fear is irrational and intense, and she goes to great lengths to avoid
large dogs; her fear and avoidance of large dogs must disrupt her everyday
functioning
d.
Joan is in denial about her fear of dogs.
24.
Laura has been diagnosed with a psychological disorder called agoraphobia. Laura
is:
a.
afraid of open spaces
b.
afraid of having a panic attack in a public place
c.
afraid of her home
d.
afraid of lightning
25.
The development of phobias can be partly explained by:
a.
classical conditioning, operant conditioning, and observational learning
b.
high brain levels of dopamine
c.
low brain levels of dopamine
d.
the misinterpretation of the signs of normal physical arousal
26.
Which of the following is an example of the development of a phobia through
observational learning?
is frequent, unpredictable, and
a.
b.
c.
d.
After eating a big spaghetti dinner, John gets sick and can no longer stand
the smell of spaghetti.
Matilda develops a fear of spiders after years of seeing her mother and
older sister react with extreme terror whenever they see a spider.
After being attacked by a man in the elevator, Evelyn developed a phobia of
elevators and other small, confined spaces.
After reading about the dangers of tick-borne diseases, Joe puts on long
pants whenever he goes outside in the summertime.
27.
Jane was in a fast-food restaurant when a man suddenly drew a gun and started
shooting, killing several people. Although Jane was not injured in the shooting
spree, she has since been unable to return to work. She can’t seem to stop thinking
about the event. She has recurrent nightmares, is unable to sleep, and does not
want to leave her home. She feels numb and tense. It is most likely that Jane is
suffering from:
a.
generalized anxiety disorder
b.
posttraumatic stress disorder
c.
agoraphobia
d.
obsessive-compulsive disorder
28.
Jeffrey is so preoccupied by his fear of germs that he always keeps his car and
apartment windows sealed tightly, and refuses to allow anyone into his apartment.
He carries his own silverware which he uses when he eats away from home, and
washes his hands every time he touches anything that has been touched by someone
else. Jeffrey would most likely be diagnosed with:
a.
dissociative identity disorder
b.
paranoid schizophrenia
c.
obsessive-compulsive disorder
d.
cyclothymic disorder
29.
Uncontrollable thoughts and worries are to
.
a.
hallucinations; delusions
b.
preoccupations; addictions
c.
compulsions; obsessions
d.
obsessions; compulsions
30.
Which of the following statements about major depression is FALSE?
a.
Seriously depressed people are often gripped by indecisiveness and have
great difficulty making even simple decisions.
b.
People experiencing major depression become pessimistic and negative about
themselves, the world, and the future.
c.
Some negative event or stressful situation always precedes an episode of
major depression.
d.
Disrupted and abnormal patterns of sleep are a very common characteristic
of major depression.
as uncontrollable behaviors are to
31.
Statistically, women are
a.
half as likely
b.
just as likely
c.
twice as likely
d.
ten times as likely
as men to be diagnosed with major depression.
32.
Bipolar disorder used to be officially called
that term.
a.
double depression
b.
dysthymic disorder
c.
seasonal affective disorder
d.
manic depression
33.
Antidepressant medications are often used in the treatment of major depression.
In general, these medications work by:
a.
increasing levels of lithium
b.
decreasing levels of lithium
c.
increasing levels of serotonin
d.
decreasing levels of serotonin
34.
Dissociative experiences are NOT considered abnormal if:
a.
they occur within the context of accepted religious practices, are voluntary,
and don’t cause distress
b.
they are temporary and short-lived, lasting no more than 10 minutes
c.
they don’t involve the loss of a sense of personal identity
d.
the person is able to later remember everything that transpired during the
dissociative experience
35.
Susan was treated for an episode of schizophrenia before she was married. In
recent weeks, her husband has noticed that Susan’s speech and facial expressions
have become flat and expressionless and that she seems to have little motivation.
Assuming that Susan is on the verge of another episode of schizophrenia, these
symptoms are referred to as
symptoms of schizophrenia.
a.
secondary
b.
negative
c.
positive
d.
remote
and is still often referred to by
36.
Peter’s girlfriend is very concerned about him because his thinking seems to have
become increasingly confused. Today, Peter said that he was really the
reincarnation of John Lennon, the former member of the Beatles who was shot and
killed in 1980. Peter also told her that he had special musical powers and that he
needed to start his own rock group so that he could deliver his message to the
masses. Peter seems to be experiencing:
a.
auditory hallucinations
b.
delusions of persecution
c.
d.
negative symptoms of schizophrenia
delusions of grandeur
37.
Howard is hearing voices that he believes are coming from the FBI. He is
extremely suspicious and distrustful of his neighbors, whom, he suspects are
actually agents of a foreign country. Howard appears to be experiencing the
type of schizophrenia.
a.
paranoid
b.
catatonic
c.
disorganized
d.
undifferentiated
38.
The onset of schizophrenia typically occurs:
a.
very rapidly and without any kind of warning signs
b.
during late childhood
c.
during young adulthood
d.
during the fall and winter months
39.
People with psychological disorders are about 4 times more likely to commit a crime
than the average person.
a.
True
b.
False
40.
The terms mental disorder and psychological disorder mean the same thing.
a.
True
b.
False
41.
Feelings of anxiety are always abnormal and indicate the existence of a
psychological problem.
a.
True
b.
False
42.
Crystal is extremely anxious about germs on public door handles, railing, and
elevator buttons. She constantly thinks about germs and repeatedly washes her
hands to the point that her skin is raw and infected. Crystal probably suffers from
obsessive-compulsive disorder.
a.
True
b.
False
ANSWERS
1. D
2. D
3. C
4. B
5. B
6. C
7. B
8. B
9. A
10. B
11. A
12. B
13. A
14. B
15. D
16. C
17. C
18. D
19. C
20. A
21. A
22. B
23. C
24. B
25. A
26. B
27. B
28. C
29. D
30. C
31. C
32. D
33. C
34. A
35. B
36. D
37. A
38. C
39. B
40. A
41. B
42. A